AIRFRAME REVIEWER SHEET a.

Decay that occur before the wood is seasoned does

not affect the strength of the finished piece
Wood Structure b. A limited amount of certain kinds of decay is
acceptable in aircraft woods since decay affects
1. Where is information found concerning acceptable
the binding between the fibers and not the fibers
species substitutions for wood materials used in aircraft
themselves
repair?
c. Decay is not acceptable in any form or amount
a. AC 43. 13-1B
10. Any wooden member that has been overstressed is
b. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data
subject to which type of failure?
Sheets
a. Bond failure
c. Technical Standard Orders
b. Compression failure
2. Which of the following conditions will determine
c. Finish failure
acceptance of wood with mineral streaks?
11. The cantilever wing uses
a. Careful inspection fails to reveal any decay
a. External struts or wire bracing
b. They produce only a small effect on grain
b. No external bracing
direction
c. The skin to carry most of the load to the wing butt
c. Local irregularities do not exceed limitations
12. Laminated wood is sometimes used in the construction
specified for spiral and diagonal grain
of highly stressed aircraft components. This wood can
3. Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are
be identified by its
characterized by buckling of the fibers that appear as
a. Parallel grain construction
streaks on the surface
b. Similarity to standard plywood construction
a. At right angles to the growth rings
c. Perpendicular grain construction
b. Parallel to the grain
13. Laminated wood spars may be substituted for solid
c. At right angles to the grain
rectangular wood spars
4. Which statement concerning wood decay is correct?
a. Only in certain instances where the primary load is
a. Decay that appears to be mineral streaks is
shared by one or more other original structural
acceptable
member
b. A limited amount of decay along the beveled
b. If the same quality wood is used in both
edges of unrouted beams is acceptable
c. Only upon specific approval by the manufacturer
c. Any form or amount of decay is not permitted
or the FAA
5. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or
14. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar
cracks in the vicinity of boltholes,
generally indicates
a. It is permissible to ream the hole, plug with
a. Compression failure
hardwood, and re-drill
b. Shear failure
b. The spar may be reinforced by using hardwood
c. Decay
reinforcing plates
15. When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in
c. A new section of spar should be spliced in or the
cross-sectional areas which will develop dangerous
spar replaced entirely
stress concentration should be avoided by using
6. Glue deterioration in wood aircraft structure is
a. Circular or elliptical patches
indicated
b. Square patches
a. When a joint has separated and the glue surface
c. Doublers with any desired shaped patches
shows only the imprint of the wood with no wood
16. The strength of a well-designed and properly prepared
fibers clinging to the glue
wood splice joint is provided by the
b. When a joint has separated and the glue surface
a. Bearing surface of the wood fibers
shows pieces of wood fibers clinging to the glue
b. Glue
c. By any joint separation
c. Reinforcement plates
7. The I-beam wooden spar is routed to
a. Increase strength AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEM
b. Obtain uniform strength
c. Reduce weight 1. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire is
8. Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft an indication of
structure provided a. Overinflation
a. They produce a small effect on grain direction b. Excessive toe-in
b. They have no mineral streaks c. Underinflation
c. No pitch pockets are within 12 inches 2. How long should you wait after a flight before
9. Which statement about wood decay is correct? checking tire pressure?
 a. At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather) 13. In shock struts, chevron seals are used to
b. At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather) a. Absorb bottoming effect
c. At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather) b. Prevent oil from escaping
3. Aside from an external leak in the line, what will cause c. serve as a bearing surface
parking brakes to continually bleed off pressure? 14. The left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane
a. An internal leak in the master cylinder on which no recent brake service work has been
b. Insufficient hydraulic fluid in the reservoir performed. The most probable cause is.
c. Glazed brake linings a. Foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder
4. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to compensating port.
a. Relieve pressure to a sensitive component b. Excessively worn brake linings.
b. Restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow c. Low fluid supply in the brake system reservoir.
in the other 15. A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending
c. Relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow onto the sidewall of a tube-type tire is a
in the other direction a. Slippage mark.
5. Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to b. Wheel-to-tire balance mark
operate the brakes generally c. Wheel weight reference mark
a. Use independent master cylinder systems 16. Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tire to
b. Do not use brake system accumulators help
c. Use power brake control valves a. Nose gear extension at higher air speeds.
6. Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing b. Reduce the possibility of hydroplaning.
valves that c. Deflecting water away from the fuselage.
a. Allow full debooster piston travel without fluid 17. An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing
from the high pressure side entering the low gear would most likely be a
pressure chamber a. Shunt field series-wound motor.
b. Cannot allow full debooster piston travel without b. Split field shunt-wound motor.
fluid from the high pressure side entering the low c. Split field series-wound motor.
pressure chamber 18. What device in a hydraulic system with a constant-
c. Must be bled separately after brake bleeding has delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid no
been completed demands are on the system?
7. What would be the effect if the piston return spring a. Pressure relief valve.
broke in a brake master cylinder? b. Shuttle valve
a. The brakes would become spongy c. Pressure regulator
b. The brake would become excessive 19. A hydraulic system referred to as a ‘power pack’
c. The brakes would drag system will
8. What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line a. Have an engine-driven pump for greater pressure
to isolate the emergency brake system from the normal b. Have all hydraulic power components located in
power brake control valve system? one circuit.
a. A bypass valve c. Have a pressurized reservoir.
b. An orifice check valve 20. What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the
c. A shuttle valve cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?
9. Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount of a. Limit compression stroke.
air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found b. Hold the strut in place.
a. On the airplane data plate c. Maintain correct wheel alignment.
b. In the aircraft operations limitations
c. In the aircraft manufacturer’s service manual 21. Debooster valves are used in brake system primarily to
10. The metering pin in oleo shock struts serve to a. Ensure rapid application and release of the brakes.
a. Lock the struts in the DOWN position. b. Reduce brake pressure and maintains static
b. Retard the flow of oil as the struts are composed. pressure.
c. Meter the proper amount of air in struts. c. Reduce the pressure and release the brakes rapidly.
11. On an air valve core stem, what indicates high- 22. In brakes service work, the term ‘bleeding brakes’ is
pressure type? the process of:
a. An embossed letter ‘NP’ a. Withdrawing air only from the system.
b. An embossed letter ‘HP’ b. Withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose
c. An embossed letter ‘H’ of removing air that has entered the system.
12. The purpose of a relief system valve in a brake c. Replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.
assembly system is to 23. Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to
a. Reduce pressure for break application determine the:
b. Prevent the tire from skipping a. Amount of oil in the strut.
c. Compensate for the thermal expansion b. Physical condition of the strut itself.
 c. Proper operating position of the strut. c. Placing shims or spacers behind the bearing of the
24. Many brake types can be adapted to operate out-of-tolerance wheel or wheels.
mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not 32. If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing
adaptable to mechanical operation? gear wheel assemblies in intersects aft of the aircraft,
a. Single-disk spot type. the wheels can be termed as having
b. Single-servo type. a. Toe-out
c. Expander-tube type. b. Toe- in
25. Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems c. Negative amber
primarily to: 33. An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using
a. Reduce brake pressure and maintain static MIL-H5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with
pressure. a. A blue striper or dot
b. Relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive b. one or more white dots.
release. c. A white and yellow stripe.
c. Reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the 34. When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care
volume of fluid flow. should be ta to extend and compress the strut
26. What condition would most likely cause excessive completely at least two times to
fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic a. Thoroughly lubricate the piston rod
pump is operating? b. Force out any excess fluid
a. Accumulator air pressure low c. Ensure proper packing ring sealing and removal of
b. Inadequate supply of fluid air bubbles.
c. System relief valve sticking closed 35. When installing a chevron-type seal in an aircraft
27. If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and hydraulic cylinder, the open side of the seal should
single-disk brake pedal travel, but the brakes are hard face
and effective, the probable cause is a. Opposite direction of fluid pressure
a. The master cylinder one-way cup is leaking b. Up or forward when the unit is installed in a
b. Worn brake linings horizontal position.
c. Worn brake disk causing excessive clearance c. The direction of fluid pressure.
between the notches on the perimeter of the disk 36. Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can
and the splines or keys on the wheel cause
28. A flexible hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8788 a. Fading brakes
will have a stripe running the length of the hose. The b. Slow release of brakes
stripe c. The pedal to slowly creep down while pedal
a. Is used to ensure that the hose is installed without pressure is applied.
excessive twisting 37. Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend
b. Identifies that the hose is for high pressure fluids, that the tubes in newly installed tire must be first
with a 60 degree flexing range inflated, fully deflated and the re-inflated to the correct
c. Identifies that the hose is constructed of Teflon pressure?
and is suitable for a wide temperature range
29. An automatic damping action at the steering damper if a. To allow the tube to position itself correctly inside
for any reason the flow of high-pressure fluid is the tire.
removed from the b. To eliminate all the air between the tube and the
a. Outlet of the steering damper inside of the tire
b. Inlet of the steering damper c. To test the entire assembly leaks
c. Replenishing check valve 38. Exposure to and/or storage near which of the following
30. A brake debooster valve is installed in systems where is considered harmful to the aircraft tires?
the high pressure of the hydraulic system (300 psi) is 1. Humidity 5. Helium
used to operate brakes 2. Fuel 6. Electrical equipment
a. That are designed to work with lower pressure 3. Oil 7. Hydraulic fluid
b. That are used in conjunction with an antiskid 4. Ozone 8. Solvents
system a. 2,3,4,5,6,7,8
c. That are used on aircraft having high landing b. 1,2,3,5,7,8
speeds c. 2,3,4,6,7,8
31. The repair of an out-of-tolerance toe-in condition of 39. What action of any, should be taken when there is a
main landing gear wheels determined not to be the difference of more than 5 pounds of air pressure in
result of bent or twisted components consists of tires mounted as duals?
a. Shimming the axle in the oleo trunnion a. Replace both tires
b. Inserting, removing, or changing the location of b. Correct the discrepancy and enter in the aircraft
washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of records
the scissors torque links
 c. Replace the tire with the lowest pressure 49. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose
40. Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft landing gear shock strut?
tire is an indication of a. Provides an internal shimmy damper
a. Incorrect camber b. Straightens the nose wheel
b. Excessive toe-out c. Provides steering of aircraft during ground
c. Over inflation operation.
41. How can it be determined that all air has been purged 50. Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often
from a master cylinder brake system? recommended that the tires on split rim wheels be
a. By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the deflated before removing the wheel from the axle?
system pressure gauge for smooth, full- scale a. To relive the strain on the wheel retaining nut and
deflection. axle threads.
b. By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy b. As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold
c. By noting the amount of fluid return to the master the wheel halves together have been damaged or
cylinder upon brake release. weakened.
42. After performing maintenance of an aircraft’s landing c. To remove the static load imposed upon the wheel
gear system which may have affected the system’s bearing by the inflated tire.
operation, it usually necessary to 51. Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable
a. Conduct a flight test. landing gear systems. The primary purpose of the
b. Re-inspected the area after the first flight. centering device is to:
c. Make an operational check with the aircraft on a. Align the nosewheel prior to touchdown.
jacks b. Engage the nosewheel steering.
43. What is the purpose of compensating port or valve in a c. Center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel
brake master cylinder of an independent brake system? well.
a. Permits the fluid flow toward or away from the 52. A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a
reservoir as temperature changes. landing gear oleo shock strut to:
b. Assists in the master cylinder piston return. a. Limit the extension of the torque arm.
c. Prevents fluid from flowing back to the reservoir. b. Limit the extension stroke.
44. A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose paper c. Reduce the rebound effect.
is identified as a 53. A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy
a. Sediment trap when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner.
b. Cuno filter The probable cause is:
c. Micronic filter a. The hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking.
45. A landing gear positon and warning system will b. Air in the brake hydraulic system.
provide a warning in the cockpit when throttle is c. The hydraulic master cylinder piston return spring
a. Retarded and gear is not down and locked. is weak.
b. Advanced and gear is down and locked. 54. A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a
c. Retarded and gear is down and locked. torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot-
46. The hydraulic packing seal used in a landing gear pounds are required?
shock strut are
a. Generally designed to be compatible with more
than one type of fluid. a. 36.8
b. Keep from direct contact with fluid Teflon or b. 38
nylon back up rings. c. 36.6
c. Used only with a specific type of fluid. 55. If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake
47. The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft system, its position in the system will be:
tires are a. Between the pressure manifold of the main
a. Proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and hydraulic system and the power brake control
ground rolls into the wind valve.
b. Short ground rolls, sloe taxi speeds, minimum b. Between the brake control valve and the brake
braking and proper tire inflation actuating cylinder.
c. Minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and long c. In the brake pressure line between the brake pedal
ground rolls. and the brake accumulator.
48. The removal, installation, and repair of landing gear 56. Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft
tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate on an equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk
aircraft owned or operated is considered to be type brake assemblies?
a. A violation of the Federal Aviation Regulations a. There are no minimum or maximum disk
b. A minor repair clearance checks required due to the use of self-
c. Preventive maintenance compensating cylinder assemblies.
b. Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot.
 c. No parking brake provisions are possible for this c. The information stamped on the aircraft wheel.
type of brake assembly. 67. When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a
57. What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a tire to deflate, the tire should be:
master cylinder will have on a brake system? a. Replaced.
a. The brakes will operate normally. b. Externally inspected for damage.
b. The reservoir will be filled by revers flow. c. Removed from the wheel and inspected for carcass
c. The restriction will cause slow release of the and tread damage.
brakes. 68. If it is determined that spongy brake action is not
58. On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, caused by air in the brake system, what is the next
some means must be provided to: most likely cause?
a. Retract and extend the landing gear if the normal a. Worn brake lining.
operating mechanism fails. b. Internal leakage in the master cylinder.
b. Extend the landing gear if the normal operating c. Deteriorated flexible hoses.
mechanism fails. 69. If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon
c. Prevent the throttle from being reduced below a initial landing contact, but functions correctly during
safe power setting while the landing gear is taxi, the most probable cause is:
retracted. a. Low fluid.
59. Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the: b. Low air charge.
a. Brake linings. c. A restricted metering pin orifice.
b. Wheel hub. 70. On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock
c. Wheel flange. strut is check by:
60. When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 a. Removing the oil filler plug and inserting a gauge.
the strut should be: b. Measuring the length of the strut extension with a
a. Collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening. certain air pressure in the strut.
b. Fully extended and fluid added at the filler c. Releasing the air and seeing that the oil is the level
opening. of the filler plug.
c. Partially extended and fluid added at the filler 71. The braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is
opening. accomplished by compressing a rotating brake disk
61. Aircraft tire pressure should be checked: between two opposite brake linings. How is equal
a. Using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1- pressure on both sides of the rotating disk assured?
pound increments. a. By allowing the brake rotor to float to
b. At least once a week or more often. automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the
c. As soon as possible after each flight. rotor.
62. A pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive b. By allowing the caliper to float to automatically
travel. A probable cause is: equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.
c. By allowing the brake linings to automatically
a. Weak return springs. equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.
b. Lack of fluid in the brake system. 72. If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly
c. Oil or some foreign matter on the brake rotors and serviced, the
linings. a. Strut should be disassembled and the metering pin
63. What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms orifice plate replaced.
during a landing? b. Air pressure should be increased.
a. Air pressure. c. Strut should be removed, disassembled, and
b. Packing seals for correct installation. inspected.
c. Fluid level. 73. Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that
64. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel have:
assemblies is to: a. High landing speeds.
a. Prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration. b. Low normal hydraulic system pressure.
b. Distribute the aircraft weight properly. c. More than one brake assembly per axle.
c. Reduce excessive wear and turbulence. 74. The pressure source for power brakes is:
65. A fully-charged hydraulic accumulator provides: a. The main hydraulic system.
a. Air pressure to the various hydraulic components. b. The power brake reservoir.
b. A source for additional hydraulic power when c. A master cylinder.
heavy demands are place on the system. 75. A high-speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body and
c. Positive fluid flow to the pump inlet. bead may be recapped
66. The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can be a. A maximum of three times.
obtained from: b. Only by the tire manufacturer.
a. Tire manufacturer’s specifications. c. An indefinite number of times.
b. The aircraft service manual.
 76. When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is 4. What is used to slow the drying time of some
used, the initial shock of landing shock of landing is finishes and to prevent blush?
cushioned by: a. Reducer
a. Compression of the air charge. b. Retarder
b. The fluid being forced through a metered opening. c. Rejuvenator
c. Compression of the fluid. 5. What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft
77. To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock finishes?
strut after initial compression resulting from landing
a. Too much material applied in one coat
impact,
b. Material is being applied too fast
a. Various types of valves or orifices are used which
c. Low atmospheric humidity
restrict the reverse fluid flow.
b. The metering pin gradually reduces the size of the 6. Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most
orifice as the shock strut extends. durable and chemical resistant?
c. The air is forced through a restricted orifice in the a. Synthetic enamel
reverse direction. b. Acrylic lacquer
78. The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic c. Polyurethane
retractable landing gear system is to: 7. Which type of coating typically includes
a. Prevent heavy landing gear from falling too phosphoric acid as one of its components at the
rapidly upon extension. time of application?
b. Provide a means of disconnecting the normal a. Wash primer
source of hydraulic power and connection the b. Epoxy primer
emergency source of power. c. Zinc chromate primer
c. Ensure the operation of the landing gear and gear 8. Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to
doors in the proper order.
a. Provide a silver color
79. When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications
b. Aid in sealing out moisture from the fabric
that the air has been purged from the system is:
c. Reflect ultraviolet from the fabric
a. Partial brake pedal travel.
b. Full brake pedal travel.
c. Firm brake pedals. 9. Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as
78. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will: the
a. Indicate tire tread separation. a. First, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to prevent
b. Prevent over inflation. fungus damage
c. Melt at a specified elevated temperature. b. First coat to prevent fabric rotting and are
applied thin enough to saturate the fabric
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
c. Final, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to reduce
1. Which of the following is a hazard associated with blushing
sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the 10. Which statement is true regarding paint system
finishing process? compatibility?
a. Overheating of the fabric/finish especially a. Old-type zinc chromate primer may not be
with the use of power tools used directly for touchup of bare metal
b. Static electricity buildup surfaces
c. Embedding of particles in the finish b. Acrylic nitrocellulose lacquers may be used
2. What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is old nitrocellulose finishes
applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 c. Old wash primer coats may be overcoated
to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the directly with epoxy finishes
humidity is low? 11. A correct use for acetone is to
a. Corrosion a. Thin zinc chromate primer
b. A glossy, blush-free finish b. Remove grease from fabric
c. A dull finish due to the topcoat ‘sinking in’ to c. Thin dope
primer that is still too soft 12. Before applying a protective coating to any
3. Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by unpainted clean aluminum, you should
adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in a. Wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene
temperature? b. Remove any conversion coating film
a. Orange peel c. Avoid touching the surface with bare hands
b. Blushing 13. If registration numbers are to be applied to an
c. Pinholes aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is
 the minimum space required for the registration a. Worn attachment fittings
mark N1683C? b. Oil can effect on the control surfaces
Note: c. Excessive cable tension
2/3 x height = character width 6. Fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a cable
1/6 x height = width for 1 more than
¼ x 2/3 height = spacing a. 12°
1/6 x height = stroke or line width b. 8°
a. 52 inches c. 3°
b. 48 inches 7. Movement about the longitudinal axis (roll) in a
c. 57 inches helicopter is affected by movement of the
14. What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer a. Collective pitch control
is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about b. Cyclic pitch control
30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the c. Tail rotor pitch control
humidity is low? 8. What physical factors are involved in the aspect ratio
a. Corrosion of airplane wings?
b. A glossy, blush-free finish a. Thickness and chord
c. A dull finish due to the topcoat ‘sinking in’ to b. Span and chord
primer that is still too soft c. Dihedral and angle of attack
15. If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as for 9. A reduction in anti-torque thrust will cause the
trim spraying, and is left on for several days and/or a. Tail pivot in the opposite direction of torque
exposed to heat, it is likely that the tape will rotation around the main rotor axis
a. Not seal out the finishing material if the delay b. Tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation
or heating occurs before spraying around the main rotor axis
b. Be weakened in its ability to adhere to the c. Anti-torque system to become more efficient in
surface the hover mode
c. Cure to the finish and be very difficult to 10. Which statement concerning the 100-hour inspection
remove of an airplane equipped with a push-pull tube-type
control system is true?
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING a. The threaded rod ends should not be adjusted in
length for rigging purposes because the rod ends
1. The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide
have been properly positioned and staked during
a. Directional stability
manufacture
b. Longitudinal stability
b. The terminal end threads of the turnbuckles should
c. Lateral stability
be visible through the safety hole in the barrel
2. A universal propeller protractor used to measure the
c. The threaded rod ends should be checked for the
degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
amount of thread engagement by means of the
a. With the aileron in the NEUTRAL position
inspection hole provided
b. With the aileron in the DOWN position
11. Main rotor blades that do not cone by the same amount
c. When the aircraft is in a level flight attitude
during rotation are said to be out of
3. Other than the manufacturer maintenance manual what
a. Balance
other document could be used to determine the primary
b. Collective pitch
flight control surface deflection for an imported aircraft
c. Track
that is reassembled after shipment?
12. An airplane which has good longitudinal stability
a. Aircraft type certificate data sheet
should have a minimum tendency to
b. Import manual for the aircraft
a. Roll
c. The certificate of airworthiness issued by the
b. Pitch
importing country
c. Yaw
4. If all instructions issued by the swaging tool
13. Movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a helicopter
manufacturer are followed when swaging a cable
is effected by movement of the
terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength should
a. Collective pitch control
be
b. Cyclic pitch control
a. The full rated strength of the cable
c. Tail rotor pitch control
b. 80 percent of the full rated strength of the cable
14. The chord of a wing is measured from
c. 70 percent of the full rated strength of the cable
a. Wingtip to wingtip
5. If control cables are adjusted properly and the control
b. Wing root to the wingtip
surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause is
 c. Leading edge to trailing edge a. Torque direction is the same as rotor blade rotation
15. The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to b. As horsepower decreases, torque increases
a. Assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces c. Torque direction is the opposite of rotor blade
b. Contribute to the static balance of the control rotation
surface 23. In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor,
c. Make in-flight trim adjustments possible directional control is maintained by
16. Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft a. Changing the tail rotor RPM
indoors for weighing? b. Tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction
a. So aircraft may be placed in a level position c. Varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades
b. So that air currents do not destabilize the scales 24. Movement of the cockpit control toward the nosedown
c. So weighing scales may be calibrated to 0 pounds position during a ground operational check of the
17. Which is an acceptable safety device for a castle nut elevator trim tab system will cause the trailing edge of
when installed on secondary structures? the trim tab to move in which direction?
a. Star washer a. Downward regardless of elevator position
b. Lock washer b. Upward regardless of elevator position
c. Cotter pin c. Downward if the elevator is in the UP position and
18. As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the center upward if the elevator is in the DOWN position
of pressure will 25. Where would you find precise information to perform
a. Move toward the trailing edge a symmetry alignment check for a particular aircraft?
b. Remain stationary because both lift and drag
components increase proportionally to increased
angle of attack a. Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data
c. Move toward the leading edge Sheet
19. During inspection of the flight control system of an b. Manufacturer’s service bulletins
airplane equipped with differential-type aileron c. Aircraft service or maintenance manual
control, side-to-side movement of the control stick will 26. If the right wing of a monoplane is improperly rigged
cause to a greater angle of incidence than designated in the
a. Each aileron to have a greater up travel (from the manufacturer’s specifications, it will cause the
streamlined position) than down travel a. Airplane to be off balance both laterally and
b. Each aileron to have a greater down travel (from directionally
the streamlined position) than up travel b. Airplane to pitch and roll about the lateral axis
c. The left aileron to move through a greater number c. Right wing to have both an increased lift and a
of degrees (from full up to full down) than the decreased drag
right aileron 27. The universal propeller protractor can be used to
20. What nondestructive checking method is normally measure
used to ensure that the correct amount of swaging has a. Propeller track
taken place when installing swaged-type terminals on b. Aspect ratio of a wing
aircraft control cable? c. Degrees of flap travel
a. Check the surface of the swaged portion of the 28. One purpose of the freewheeling unit required between
terminal for small cracks which indicate the engine and the helicopter transmission is to
incomplete swaging a. Automatically disengage the rotor from the engine
b. Measure the finished length of the terminal barrel in case of an engine failure
and compare with the beginning length b. Disconnect the rotor from the engine to relieve the
c. Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of the starter load
swaged portion of the terminal c. Permit practice of autorotation landings
21. Aircraft flight control trim systems must be designed 29. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a
and installed so that the pitching moment that has been set into motion has
a. Pilot can determine the relative position of the trim a. Poor longitudinal stability
tab from the cockpit b. Good lateral stability
b. Operating control and the trim tab will always c. Poor lateral stability
move in the same direction 30. The primary purpose of stall strips is to
c. Trim system will disengage or become inoperative a. Provide added lift at slow speeds
if the primary flight control system fails b. Stall the inboard portion of the wings first
22. Which statement is correct concerning torque effect on c. Provide added lift at high angles of attack
helicopters?
31. The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the 40. When the lift of an airfoil increases, the drag will
pilot to compensate for and/or accomplish which of the a. Decrease
following? b. Also increase
a. Attitude and airspeed c. Increase while the lift is changing but will return
b. Lateral and yaw position to its original value
c. Torque and directional control 41. Very often, repairs to a control surface require static
32. If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged rebalancing of the control surface. Generally, flight
flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the control balance condition may be determined by
right aileron will move a. Checking for equal distribution of weight
a. Down and the elevator will move down throughout the control surface
b. Up and the elevator will move down b. The behavior of the trailing edge when the surface
c. Down and the elevator will move up is suspended from its hinge points
33. The correct dihedral angle can be determined by c. Suspending the control surface from its leading
a. Measuring the angular setting of each wing at the edge in the stream line position and checking
rear spar with a bubble protractor weight distribution
b. Placing a straightedge and bubble protractor across 42. If a single-rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal
the spars while the airplane is in flying position flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is
c. Using a dihedral board and bubble level along the a. More than the retreating blade
front spar of each wing b. Equal to the retreating blade
34. Excessive wear on both of the sides of a control cable c. Less than the retreating blade
pulley groove is evidence of 43. A helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration,
a. Pulley misalignment changes direction by
b. Cable misalignment a. Varying the pitch of the main rotor blades
c. Excessive cable tension b. Changing rotor RPM
35. What is the purpose of the free-wheeling unit in a c. Tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction
helicopter drive system? 44. Differential control on an aileron system means that
a. It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine stops a. The down travel is more than the up travel
or slows below the equivalent of rotor RPM b. The up travel is more than the down travel
b. It releases the rotor brake for starting c. One aileron on one wing travels further up than
c. It relieves bending stress on the rotor blades the aileron on the opposite wing to adjust for
during starting wash-in and wash-out
36. The angle of incidence is that acute angle formed by 45. The vertical flight of a helicopter is controlled by
a. The angular difference between the setting of the a. Collective pitch changes
main airfoil and the auxiliary airfoil (horizontal b. Cyclic pitch changes
stabilizer) in reference to the longitudinal axis of c. Increasing or decreasing the RPM of the main
the aircraft rotor
b. A line parallel to the wing chord and a line parallel 46. What is the smallest size cable that may be used in
to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft aircraft primary control systems?
c. A line parallel to the wing from root to tip and a a. ¼ inch
line parallel to the lateral axis of the aircraft b. 5/16 inch
37. Which should be accomplished before jacking an c. 1/8 inch
aircraft? 47. The cable-operated control system of an all-metal
a. Install critical stress panels or plates aircraft, not incorporating a temperature compensating
b. Determine that the fuel tanks are empty device, has been rigged to the correct tension in a
c. Make sure the aircraft is leveled laterally heated hangar. If the aircraft is operated in very cold
38. The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing and weather, the cable tension will
the relative wind is known as the a. Decrease when the aircraft structure and cables
a. Longitudinal dihedral angle become cold
b. Angle of incidence b. Increase when the aircraft structure and cables
c. Angle of attack become cold
39. An airplane is controlled directionally about its vertical c. Be unaffected if stainless steel cable is installed
axis by the 48. Washing-in the left wing of a monoplane, for purposes
a. Rudder of rigging corrections after flight test, will have what
b. Elevator(s) effect on the lift and drag of that wing?
c. Ailerons
 a. Both drag and lift will decrease due to decreased a. The airplane will tend to fall off on one wing
angle of attack b. The airplane will be heavy on the controls
b. Both drag and lift will increase due to increased c. The pilot will be unable to fly the airplane hands-
angle of attack off
c. The drag will decrease due to the effect of the lift 57. The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest
increase a. Affects the dihedral of the wings in flight
49. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of b. Is the same as the angle between the relative wind
a large all-metal aircraft is used primarily to and the chord of the wing
a. Increase the cable tension in cold weather c. Does not change when in flight
b. Provide a means of changing cable tension in 58. When a fiber or nylon insert-type, self-locking nut can
flight be threaded on a bolt or stud through the insert with
c. Retain a set tension only the fingers, it should be
50. Buffeting is the intermittent application of forces to a
part of an airplane. It is caused by a. Re-torqued frequently
a. Incorrect rigging of flaps b. Rejected
b. An unsteady flow from turbulence c. Reused only in a different location
c. Incorrect rigging of ailerons 59. In rotorcraft external-loading, the ideal location of the
51. Wing dihedral, a rigging consideration on most cargo release is where the line of action passes
airplanes of conventional design, contributes most to a. Aft of the center of gravity at all times
stability of the airplane about its b. Forward of the center of gravity at all times
a. Longitudinal axis c. Through the center of gravity at all times
b. Vertical axis 60. Where does the breakage of control cable wires occur
c. Lateral axis most frequently?
52. Where is the buttock line or buttline of an aircraft? a. Breakage usually occurs where cables pass over
a. A height measurement left or right of, and pulleys and through fairleads
perpendicular to, the horizontal centerline b. Breakage sites are unpredictable and usually occur
b. A width measurement left of, and perpendicular randomly anywhere along the length of a cable
to, the vertical centerline c. Breakage usually occurs where cables are swaged
c. A width measurement left or right of, and parallel to turnbuckle and ball terminals
to, the vertical centerline 61. Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line
53. If a pilot reports that an airplane flies left wing heavy, of flight is referred to as
this condition may be corrected by a. Longitudinal stability
a. Increasing the angle of incidence of the left wing, b. Lateral stability
or decreasing the angle of incidence of the right c. Directional stability
wing, or both 62. Movement of an airplane along its lateral axis (roll) is
b. Increasing the dihedral angle of the left wing, or also movement
decreasing the dihedral angle adjusting the a. Around or about the longitudinal axis controlled
dihedral of the right wing, or both by the elevator
c. Adjusting the dihedral angle of the left wing so b. Around or about the lateral axis controlled by the
that differential pressure between the upper and ailerons
lower wing surfaces is increased c. Around or about the longitudinal axis controlled
54. If the vertical fin of a single-engine, propeller-driven by the ailerons
airplane is rigged properly, it will generally be parallel 63. The purpose in checking main rotor blade tracking is to
to determine the
a. The longitudinal axis but not the vertical axis a. Relative position of the blades during rotation
b. The vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis b. Flight path of the blades during rotation
c. Both the longitudinal and vertical axes c. Extent of an out of balance condition during
55. How are changes in direction of a control cable rotation
accomplished? 64. Where is fuselage station No. 137 located?
a. Pulleys a. 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed reference
b. Bell cranks line
c. Fairleads b. 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference line
56. If the travel of an airplane’s controls is correct but the c. Aft of the engine
cables are rigged exceptionally tight, what probable
effect will this have when flying the airplane?
65. The vast majority of aircraft control cables are 74. Proper wing twist in a sheet metal constructed wing
terminated with swaged terminals, that must be can usually be checked by utilizing a
a. Corrosion treated to show compliance with the a. Plum bob, string, and straightedge
manufacturer’s requirements after the swaging b. Bubble level and special fixtures described by the
operation manufacturer
b. Pull tested to show compliance with the c. Straightedge, tape measure, and carpenter’s
manufacturer’s requirements after the swaging square
operation 75. Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel control
c. Checked with a go-no-go gauge before and after, cable and running it back and forth over the length of
to show compliance with manufacturer’s the cable is generally a satisfactory method of
requirements after the swaging operation a. Applying methyl-ethyl-ketone
66. When inspecting a control cable turnbuckle for proper b. Inspecting for broken strands
installation, determine that c. Inspecting for wear or corrosion
a. No more than four threads are exposed on either 76. An airplane’s center of lift is usually located aft of its
side of the turnbuckle barrel center of gravity
b. The terminal end threads are visible through the a. So that the airplane will have a tail-heavy
safety hole in the barrel tendency
c. The safety wire ends are wrapped a minimum of b. So that the airplane will have a nose-heavy
four turns around the terminal end shanks tendency
67. The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to c. To improve stability about the longitudinal axis
provide rotation about the 77. The dihedral angle of a wing may be measured by
a. Longitudinal axis placing a straightedge and level protractor on the
b. Lateral axis a. Front spar
c. Vertical axis b. Wing root
68. What type of flap system increase the wing area and c. Wing chord
changes the wing camber? 78. Rigging and alignment checks should not be
a. Fowler flaps undertaken in the open; however, if this cannot be
b. Slotted flaps avoided, the aircraft should be positioned
c. Split flaps a. Obliquely into the wind
b. Facing any direction since it makes no difference
if the wind is steady (not gusting)
69. With which system is differential control associated? c. With the nose into the wind
a. Trim
b. Aileron FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS
c. Elevator
1. What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of
70. When used in close proximity to magnetic compasses, a built-in fire-
cotter pins are made of what material? extinguisher system?
a. Corrosion resisting steel a. A discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in
b. Anodized aluminum alloy the thermal discharge line.
c. Cadmium-plated low carbon steel b. A rupture of the red plastic disk in the
71. Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will thermal discharge line.
c. The thermal plug missing from the side of
affect the balance of the airplane about its
the bottle.
a. Lateral axis 2. Which fire-extinguishing agent is considered to be the
b. Longitudinal axis least toxic?
c. Vertical axis a. Carbon dioxide.
72. After repairing or re-covering a rudder, the surface b. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).
should be rebalanced c. Bromochloromethane (Halon 1011).
a. To its spanwise axis 3. What is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines?
a. Brown.
b. In its normal flight position
b. Yellow.
c. To manufacturer’s specifications c. Red and green.
73. The purpose of wing slats is to 4. a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed from a
a. Reduce stalling speed discharge valve, it should be
b. Decrease drag a. pressure checked.
c. Increase speed on takeoff b. used only on the original discharge valve
assembly.
c. replaced with a new cartridge.
5. A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit 15. Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light
would be returned to service by transmissibility in the air are called
a. heating the indicating element to 300° F to a. electromechanical devices.
reactivate the chemical. b. photoelectrical devices.
b. installing a new indicating element. c. visual devices.
c. evacuating the indicating element with CO(2).
6. On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the
pressure was not between minimum and maximum
limits. What procedure should be followed? 16. What occurs when a visual smoke detector is
a. Release pressure if above limits. activated?
b. Replace the extinguisher container.
c. Increase pressure if below limits. a. A warning bell within the indicator alarms
7. When used in fire-detection systems having a single automatically.
indicator light, thermal switches are wired in b. A lamp within the indicator illuminates
a. parallel with each other and in series with the automatically.
light. c. The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is
b. series with each other and the light. provided automatically.
c. series with each other and parallel with the 17. The thermal switches of a bimetallic thermal-switch
light. type fire-detection
8. Smoke detection instruments are classified by their (single-loop) system are heat-sensitive units that
method of complete circuits at a
a. construction certain temperature. They are connected in
b. maintenance. a. parallel with each other, and in parallel with
c. detection. the indicator lights.
9. Maintenance of fire-detection systems includes the b. parallel with each other, but in series with
a. repair of damaged sensing elements. the indicator lights.
b. removal of excessive loop or element c. series with each other, but in parallel with
material. the indicator lights.
c. Replacement of damaged sensing elements. 18. In some fire-extinguishing systems, evidence that the
10. Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an system has been
aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument? intentionally discharged is indicated by the absence of
a. Chemical reactor. a
b. Photoelectric cell. a. red disk on the side of the fuselage.
c. Sniffer. b. green disk on the side of the fuselage.
11. A squib, as used in a fire-protection system, is a c. yellow disk on the side of the fuselage.
a. temperature-sensing device. 19. A fire-extinguisher container can be checked to
b. device for causing the fire-extinguishing agent determine its charge by
to be released. a. attaching a remote pressure gauge.
c. probe used for installing frangible disks in b. weighing the container and its contents.
extinguisher bottles. c. a hydrostatic test.
12. Which of the following are fire precautions which must 20. Which fire-detection system measures temperature rise
be observed when working on an oxygen system? compared to a reference temperature?
1. Display ‘No Smoking’ placards. a. Fenwal continuous loop.
2. Provide adequate fire-fighting equipment. b. Lindberg continuous element.
3. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free c. Thermocouple.
from oil or grease. 21. In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing systems,
4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems. (1) during removal or installation, the terminals of
a. 1,3and4. discharge cartridges
b. 1,2and4. should be grounded or shorted.
c. 1,2,3, and 4. (2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the
13. Why does the Fenwal fire-detection system use spot electrical system, the
detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits? system should be checked with a voltmeter to see that
a. A control unit is used to isolate the bad no voltage exists at the terminal connections.
system in case of malfunction. Regarding the above statements,
b. This installation is equal to two systems: a a. Only No. 2 is true.
main system and a reserve system. b. Both No. 1 and No. 2 is true.
c. A short may exist in either circuit without c. Neither No. 1 nor No. 3 is true
causing a false fire warning. 22. The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft
14. The proper fire-extinguishing agent to use on an interior fires are
aircraft brake fire is a. water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, and
a. water. halogenated hydrocarbons.
b. carbon dioxide. b. water, dry chemical, methyl bromide, and
c. dry powder chemical. chlorobromomethane.
 c. water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide, 2. (1) Gas-turbine engine fuel systems are very susceptible
and dry chemical. to the formation of ice in the fuel filters.
23. In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon (2)A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to warm
monoxide detector?
the fuel.
a. Surface combustion heater compartment.
b. Cockpit and/or cabin. Regarding the above statements,
c. Engine and/or nacelle. a. Only no.1 is true
24. A carbon dioxide (CO(2)) hand-held fire extinguisher b. Only no.2 is true
may be used on an c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true
electrical fire if the 3. What minimum required markings must be placed on or
a. horn ¡s nonmetallic. near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility category
b. handle is insulated.
aircraft?
c. horn is nonmagnetic.
25. When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable a. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade, and
carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel the total fuel tank capacity.
will turn which color? b. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade or
a. Blue. designation for the engines, and the usable fuel tank
b. Green. capacity.
c. Red. c. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
4. A fuel system must be designed to prevent fuel-vapor
26. A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the
warning system to ignition caused by:
operate because a. over-heating
b. back-fire
c. lightning
5. What are the four general types of fuel quantity gauges?
a. it generates a small current when heated.
1. Sight glass
b. heat decreases its electrical resistance.
c. it expands when heated and forms a ground for the 2. Mechanical
warning system. 3. Electrical
27. Light refraction smoke detectors are activated when the 4. Electronic
detector 5. Bourdon tube
a. measures a reduction in the amount of 6. Vane-type transmitter
visible or infrared light in the surrounding 7. Litmus indicator
area.
8. Direct-reading static pressure type
b. senses light reflected from smoke particles
passing through a chamber. a. 1,2,3,4
c. uses radiation induced ionization to detect b. 1,3,6,8
the presence of smoke. c. 2,3,5,7
28. The thermocouple fire-warning system is activated by 6. Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral
a stability when jettisoning fuel?
a. Certain temperature
b. Core resistance drop.
a. Two separate independent systems
c. Rate-of-temperature rise.
29. Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are b. Crossfeed system
ordinarily charged with c. Two interconnected systems
a. carbon dioxide and nitrogen. 7. Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to:
b. halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen a. reduce pressure
c. sodium bicarbonate and nitrogen. b. prevent a negative pressure
30. The most common cause of false fire warnings in
c. act as check valves
continuous-loop fire
detection systems is 8. A drip gauge may be used to measure:
a. improper routing or clamping of loops. a. the amount of fuel in the tank
b. moisture. b. system leakage with the system shutdown
c. dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections. c. fuel pump diaphragm leakage
9. The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in some
Aircraft Fuel System problems not normally associated with aviation
gasolines. One of these problem is
1. To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude, some
a. increasing viscosity of fuel as fuel temperature lowers
aircraft are equipped with:
at altitude.
a. Vapor separators
b. higher vapor pressure.
b. Direct-injection type carburetors
c. microbial contaminants.
c. Booster pumps
10. Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard 19. What type of remote-reading fuel quantity indicating
because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes system has several probes installed in each fuel tank?
through the filters. What are common methods of a. Electromechanical
preventing this hazard? b. Electronic
a. micromesh fuel strainers and fuel heater. c. Direct reading
b. high-velocity fuel pumps and fuel heater. 20. When moving the mixture control on a normally
c. anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater. operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine
11. Aircraft defueling should be accomplished RPM should
a. With the aircraft’s communication equipment on and a. Slightly increase before the engine starts to die.
in contact with the tower in case of fire. b. Slightly decrease and then drop rapidly.
b. In a hangar where activities can be controlled. c. Remain the same Until the cutoff is effected, then drop
c. In the open air for good ventilation. rapidly.
12. A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel tanks 21. Which of the following would be most useful to locate
on some turbine-powered airplanes to tell when the fuel and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel
may be: system?
a. Getting cold enough to form hard ice. a. Aircraft structure repair manual.
b. In danger of forming ice crystals. b. Illustrated parts manual.
c. About to form rime ice. c. A fuel system schematic.
13. (1) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft 22. What is the purpose of flapper-type check valves in
positive-displacement fuel pump. integral fuel tanks?
(2) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft a. To allow defueling of the tanks by section
centrifugal fuel boost pump. b. To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost
Regarding the above statements, pumps.
a. Only no.1 is true c. To allow the engine-driven pumps to draw fuel directly
b. Only no.2 is true from the tank if the boost pump fails.
c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true 23. What flight safety-related advantage does a pressure
14. The electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system fueling system provide?
consists of a bridge circuit, a. Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance
a. An amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit. limitations.
b. A tank, an amplifier, and an indicator b. Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.
c. A tank unit, a tank, and an amplifier c. Reduces the time required for fueling.
15. What precautions must be observed if a gravity-feed fuel 24. What type of fuel-booster pump requires a pressure relief
system is permitted to supply fuel to an engine form more valve?
than one tank at a time? a. Concentric
a. The tank airspaces must be interconnected. b. Sliding vane
b. The fuel outlet ports of each tank must have the same c. Centrifugal
cross-sectional area. 25. A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the:
c. Each tank must have a valve in its outlet that a. Total amount of fuel being consumed by all engines.
automatically shuts off the line when the tank is empty. b. Amount of fuel in any given tank.
16. What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel c. Amount of fuel in all tanks.
tank before welding? 26. As a general rule, which statement is true regarding fuel
a. Purge the tank with air. leaks?
b. Flush the inside of the tank with clean water. a. Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards.
c. Steam clean the tank interior. b. All fuel leaks regardless of location or severity are
17. When installing a rigid fuel line, ½ inch in diameter, at considered a hazard to flight.
what intervals should the line supported? c. Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps( in addition to running
a. 24 inches leaks) are considered flight hazards when located in
b. 12 inches unvented areas of the aircraft.
c. 16 inches 27. The location of leaks and defects within the internal
18. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be portions of the fuel system can usually be determined by:
improved? a. Visual inspection for evidence of wet spots and stains,
a. By adding a knock inhibitor. and feeling for unusually warm components.
b. By adding a knock enhancer. b. Performing a fuel flow check.
c. By adding a fungicide agent. c. Observing the pressure gauge and operating the
selector valves.
28. Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are: 37. When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted
a. Usually constructed of nonmetallic material. fittings the line should:
b. Readily removed from the aircraft. a. Have at least one bend between such fittings.
c. Formed by the aircraft structure. b. Be straight length of tubing and clamped to the aircraft
structure.
29. What is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in a c. Have a flexible line added between two metal lines to
capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system? allow for ease of installation.
a. Outer shell of the capacitor. 38. When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all
b. Fuel in the tank. valves located downstream of boost pumps with the
c. Fuel and air in the tank. pumps:
a. At idle
b. Dormant
c. Operating
39. An electrical-type fuel quantity indicating system
consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a:
30. A transducer in a fuel pressure system serves what a. Float-operated transmitter installed in the tank.
function? b. Float resting on the surface of the tank.
a. Transmits an electrical signal to the transmitter for c. Float-operated receiver installed in the tank.
fluid pressure. 40. The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is:
b. Transmits electrical signal proportional to the fluid a. Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline.
pressure. b. Higher than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline.
c. Converts fluid pressure directly through a transmitter c. Approximately 20PSI at 100F
to the indicator. 41. What can be done to eliminate or minimize the microbial
31. Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large aircraft? growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?
a. To reduce fire hazards. a. Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives.
b. To facilitate servicing. b. Add CO(2) as a purgative.
c. To reduce weight. c. Keep the fuel tank topped off.
32. A capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system 42. What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?
measures fuel in: a. To allow the feeding of engine from any tank.
a. Pounds b. To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for
b. Pounds per hour defueling.
c. Gallons c. To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any desired
33. If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for an level.
extended period of time, the inside of the tank should be 43. Fuel-boost pumps are operated:
coated with a film of: a. To provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.
a. Engine oil b. Primarily for fuel transfer.
b. Linseed oil c. Automatically from fuel pressure.
c. Ethylene glycol 44. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity
34. How many vents, arranged so that they are not likely to indicating systems is that:
become plugged at the same time, must be used in a. The indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no
multiengine fuel systems? conversion is necessary.
a. Two b. Only one transmitter and one indicator are needed
b. Four regardless of the number of tanks.
c. Six c. Several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.
35. A fuel pressure warning switch contacts close and 45. A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel
warning light is turned on when: quantity indicating system?
a. A measured quantity of fuel has passed through it. a. Selsyn
b. The fuel flow stops. b. Capacitor
c. The fuel pressure drops below specified limits. c. Synchro
36. Which of the following is necessary to effectively 46. A fuel jettison system is required under certain conditions
troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system? if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the maximum
a. The manufacturer’s maintenance manuals. landing weight. What regulations cover the requirements
b. AC 43.13-1B, Acceptable methods, techniques, and of fuel jettisoning?
practices—Aircraft inspection and Repair. a. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 43 and 91.
c. A set of Federal Aviation Regulations. b. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25, and CAM 4b.
 c. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 21, 43 and CAM 8. (2) A fuel heater can use engine lubricating oil as a
47. In an electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system, the source of heat.
tank sensing unit is a: Regarding the above statements,
a. Capacitor a. Only no.1 is true.
b. Variable resistor b. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
c. Variable resistor c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true.
48. What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum 56. How does temperature affect fuel weight?
tank after welded repairs? a. Cold fuel is heavier per gallon.
a. Soft brush and warm water. b. Warm fuel is heavier per gallon.
b. 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid. c. Temperature has no effect.
c. Mild solution of soap and warm water. 57. Which of the following may be used for the repair of fuel
49. What is the purpose of a float-operated transmitter leaks on most integral fuel tanks?
installed in a fuel tank? a. Welding and resealing.
a. It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity indicator. b. Brazing and resealing.
b. It senses the total amount of fuel density. c. Riveting and resealing.
c. It senses the dielectric qualities of fuel and air in the 58. Why are centrifugal-type boost pumps used in fuel
tank. systems of aircraft operating at high altitude?
50. Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal a. Because they are positive displacement pumps.
Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by: b. To supply fuel under pressure to engine-driven pumps.
a. Closely monitoring the fuel quantity and turning off c. To permit cooling air to circulate around the motor.
the fuel dump switch/es. 59. An aircraft’s integral fuel tank is:
b. Dump limit valves or a low-level circuit. a. Usually located in the bottom of the fuselage.
c. Standpipes in the fuel tanks. b. A part of the aircraft structure.
51. The type of fuel-boost pump that separates air and vapor c. A self-sealing tank.
from the fuel before it enters the line to the carburetor is 60. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity
the: indicating systems is that the indicator:
a. Gear-type pump. a. Can be located an distance from the tank/s.
b. Centrifugal-type pump. b. Has no movable devices.
c. Sliding vane-type pump. c. Always measures volume instead of mass.
52. (1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines 61. When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of
may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel gallons, the measurement will be more accurate because
flow. fuel volume:
(2) A measure of a gasoline’s tendency to vapor lock is a. Varies with temperature change.
obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test. b. Increases when temperature decreases.
Regarding the above statements, c. Varies with changes in atmospheric pressure.
a. Only no. 2 is true 62. Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?
b. Both no. 1 and no.2 are true a. Helium or argon.
c. Neither no. 1 nor no.2 is true b. Carbon dioxide.
53. (1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a c. Carbon monoxide.
pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will 63. What must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated to
permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks of read during level flight when the quantity of fuel
an aircraft. remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply?
(2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more a. The total unusable fuel quantity.
advantages to a pressure fueling system in light aircraft. b. Both the total unusable fuel quantity and the unusable
Regarding the above statements, fuel quantity in each tank.
a. Only no.1 is true c. Zero.
b. Only no.2 is true 64. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an
c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true aircraft fuel?
54. The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would a. 7 PSI
indicate: b. 5 PSI
a. Too much fuel pressure. c. 3 PSI
b. Excessive airflow across the venturi. 65. When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks
c. Clogged fuel nozzle. what procedure should be followed?
55. (1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source of a. Pressurize the tank with air and brush with soapy
heat. water.
 b. Fill the tank with water and pressurize with air and c. It filters and traps all micro-organisms that may be
brush with soapy water. present in the fuel system.
c. Pressurize the tank with air and submerge in water to 75. Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks?
locate leaks. a. To ensure a positive head pressure for a submerged
66. Pressure fueling or aircraft is usually accomplished boost pump.
through: b. To exhaust fuel vapors.
a. Pressure connections on individual fuel tanks. c. To limit pressure differential between the tank and
b. At least one single point connection. atmosphere.
c. Individual fuel tank overwing and/or fuselage access 76. Which of the following precautions is most important
points. during refueling operations?
67. How many engine drive fuel pumps per engine are a. All outside electrical sources must be disconnected
required for engines requiring fuel pump? from the aircraft.
a. Two engines can share one fuel pump b. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.
b. One fuel pump for each engine. c. All electrical switches must be in OFF position.
c. Two fuel pumps for each engine. 77. A transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system serves
68. According to Part 23, what minimum required markings what function?
must be placed at or near each appropriate fuel filler cove a. Transmits an electrical signal to fluid pressure.
for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes? b. Converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal.
a. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade. c. Transmits fluid pressure directly to the indicator.
b. The word ‘Fuel’ and usable fuel capacity.
c. The word ‘Avgas’ and the total fuel capacity. 78. What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank before
69. The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to: attempting repairs?
a. Provide an expansion space for the fuel.
b. Resist fuel surging within the fuel tank.
c. Provide internal structural integrity. a. Carbon dioxide
70. The probe of a capacitance-type fuel level gauge is b. Water
essentially a: c. Steam
a. Float-actuated variable capacitor. 79. A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system
b. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate. allows how many of the following?
c. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric. 1. All tanks can be serviced through a single connection.
71. What method is used on turbine-powered aircraft to 2. Any engine can be fed from any tank
determine when the condition of the fuel is approaching 3. All engines can be fed from all tanks simultaneously.
the danger of forming ice crystals? 4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the
a. Fuel pressure warning. fuel system.
b. Fuel pressure gauge. a. 1 and 2.
c. Fuel temperature indicator. b. 1, 2, and 3.
72. What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel pressure c.1, 2, 3, and 4.
warning limits? 80. Which statement concerning an electronic capacitance-
a. Fuel flowmeter bypass valve. type fuel quantity indicating system is true?
b. Pressure-sensitive mechanism. a. It has no moving parts in the tank.
c. Fuel pressure relief valve. b. It has two tubes separated by an electronic field in the
73. (1) The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow tank.
flight personnel to close the valve during any part of the c. It utilizes a variable capacitor to indicate the fuel tank
jettisoning operation. capacity.
(2) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must 81. The primary purpose of an aircraft’s fuel jettison system
discharge clear of any part of the airplane. is to quickly achieve a:
Regarding the above statements, a. Lower landing weight.
a. Both no.1 and no.2 are true. b. Balanced fuel load.
b. Only no.2 is true. c. Reduced fire hazard.
c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true. 82. How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a submerged,
74. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point single-speed, centrifugal-type fuel pump?
in the fuel system? a. By the engine-driven pump’s design and internal
a. It traps any small amount of water that may be present clearance.
in the fuel system. b. By the first check valve downstream from the pump.
b. It provides a drain for residual fuel. c. By the pump’s design and internal clearances.
83. Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional procedures c. Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side of
are normally placarded on the: the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the valve.
a. Fuel control panel access door. 92. Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded
b. Lower wing surface adjacent to the access door. in order to:
c. Aircraft ground connection point. a. Drain off static charges.
84. What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation b. Prevent stray currents.
fuels? c. Retard galvanic corrosion.
a. A fuel intercooler is required. 93. Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems by:
b. Deteriorates rubber parts. a. Boost pumps.
c. Results in low fuel volatility. b. Gravity.
85. Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system c. Gravity and engine-driven fuel pumps.
incorporates a signal amplifier? 94. In some aircraft with several fuel tanks, the possible
a. Electronic danger of allowing the fuel supply in one tank to become
b. Sight glass exhausted before the selector valve is switched to another
c. Electrical tank is prevented by the installation of:
86. Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water a. A fuel pressure warning signal system.
contamination than aviation gasoline? b. A fuel pressure relief valve.
a. Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline. c. An engine fuel pump bypass valve.
b. Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is 95. Which of the following would give the first positive
more easily suspended. indication that a change-over from one fuel tank to
c. Condensation is greater because of the higher volatility another is needed?
of jet fuels. a. Fuel pressure warning.
87. What is the minimum distance allowed between a fuel b. Fuel pressure gauge.
tank and the fire wall separating the engine? c. Fuel quantity indicator.
a. One-half inch 96. Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished:
b. One inch a. Through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.
c. Two inches b. By gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and
88. Fuel baffles are installed in tanks to prevent _________ overboard through a common outlet in each wing.
caused by changes in the attitude of the aircraft. c. Through individual outlets for each tank.
a. Vapors. 97. Where is fuel pressure taken for the pressure warning
b. Surging. signal on most aircraft engines?
c. Starvation. a. Outlet side of the boost pump.
89. Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine b. Fuel pressure line of the carburetor.
aircraft c. Between the fuel pump and the strainer.
a. Calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct lateral 98. (1) The function of a fuel heater is to protect the engine
instability. fuel system from ice formation.
b. Reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during (2) An aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in
fueling or defueling operations. the fuel screen.
c. Provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel load Regarding the statements above,
condition. a. Only no.1 is true.
90. The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a: b. Only no.2 is true.
a. Positive system of maintaining the design minimum c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
fuel supply for safe operation. 99. Microbial growth is produced by various forms of
b. Place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank microorganisms that live and multiply in the water
can collect and be drained. interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could
c. Reserve supply of fuel to enable the aircraft to land result if microbial growth exists in a jet fuel tank and is
safely in the event of fuel exhaustion. not corrected?
91. What method would be used to check for internal leakage 1. Interference with fuel flow.
of a fuel valve without removing the valve from the 2. Interference with fuel quantity indicators.
aircraft? 3. Engine seizure.
a. Place the valve in OFF position, drain the strainer bowl 4. Electrolytic corrosive action in a metal tank.
and with the boost pump on, watch to see if fuel flows to 5. Lower grade rating of the fuel.
the strainer bowl. 6. Electrolytic corrosive action in a rubber tank.
b. Remove fuel cap/s, turn boost pump/s on, and watch
for bubbling in the tanks. a. 1, 2, 4
 b. 2, 3, 5 a. Only no.2 is true.
c. 1, 5, 6 b. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
100. What unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true.
warning system? 108. The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane-type fuel pump is
a. Fuel flowmeter. to:
b. Pressure-sensitive mechanism. a. Equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.
c. Fuel pressure gauge. b. Vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting.
101. Fuel heaters are used with fuel systems for turbine c. Compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.
engines to prevent _________
In the fuel from clogging system filters. 109. Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling
a. Moisture. method, what precaution should be observed?
b. Ice crystals. a. The truck pump pressure must be correct for that
c. Contamination. refueling system.
102. If it is necessary to enter an aircraft’s fuel tank, which b. The truck pump pressure must be adjusted for
procedure should be avoided? minimum filter pressure.
a. Continue purging the tank during the entire work c. The aircraft’s electrical system must be on to indicate
period. quantity gauge readings.
b. Station an assistant outside the fuel tank access to 110. Select one means of controlling the fuel temperature on
perform rescue operations if required. turbine-powered aircraft.
c. Conduct the defueling and tank purging operation in an a. Engine bleed air to the fuel filter.
air-conditioned building. b. Engine bleed air to the fuel tank.
103. What is used in may aircraft to prevent bubbles in the c. Engine bleed air to a heat exchanger.
fuel after it leaves the tank when atmospheric pressure is 111. Many fuel tanks incorporate _________ valves to prevent
lower than fuel vapor pressure? fuel from flowing away from the boost pump or tank
a. Air-fuel separators. outlet when the aircraft is in a high ‘G’ maneuver.
b. Anti-foaming additives. a. Flapper
c. Boost pumps. b. Check
104. Which procedure must be followed when defueling c. Dump
aircraft with sweptback wings? 112. Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system
a. Defuel all the tanks at one time. more accurate in measuring fuel level than a mechanical
b. Defuel the inboard wing tanks first. type?
c. Defuel the outboard wing tanks first. a. Only one probe and one indicator are necessary for
105. If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank which multiple tank configurations.
is known to be uncontaminated with dirt or water, b. It measures in gallons and converts to pounds.
periodic checks of the aircraft’s fuel tank sumps and c. It measures by weight instead of volume.
system strainers: 113. What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent?
a. Can be eliminated except for the strainer check before a. To maintain atmospheric pressure.
the first flight of the day and the fuel tank sump check b. To decrease fuel vapor pressure.
during 100hour or annual inspections. c. To decrease tank internal air pressure.
b. Are still necessary due to the possibility of
contamination from other sources. HYDRAULIC &PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEM
c. Can be sharply reduced since contamination from other
1. A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic system having an
sources is relatively unlikely and of little consequence in
accumulator usually indicates
modern aircraft fuel systems.
a. Air in the fluid.
106. A digital fuel totalizer automatically indicates the amount
b. Too much preload in the accumulator.
of fuel used, fuel remaining, current rate of consumption,
c. To low or no preload in the accumulator.
and fuel
2. (1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic system as damage-
a. Weight, aboard at takeoff.
preventing units.
b. Remaining at the 45-minute IFR fuel reserve.
(2) Check valves are used in both hydraulic and
c. Remaining, flight time at the current power setting.
pneumatic systems. Regarding the above statements
107. (1) A fuel pressure gauge is a differential pressure
a. both no.1 and no.2 are true.
indicator.
b. neither no.1 and nor no.2 is true.
(2) A fuel pressure gauge indicates the pressure of the
c. only no.1 is true.
fuel entering the carburetor.
Regarding the statements above,
3. The main system pressure relief valve in a simple hydraulic b. Blue color, will burl, uses natural rubber seals.
system equipped with a power control valve should be c. Red color, petroleum base will burn uses synthetic
adjusted. rubber seals
a. With the power control valve held in the Closed 12. Some hydraulic system incorporate a device which is
position. designed to remain open to allow a normal fluid flow in the
b. While one or more actuating units are in operation. line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an
c. With the power control valve in the OPEN position established rate. This device is generally referred to as a
4. Hydraulic accumulator is charge with an air preload of a. Hydraulic fuse
1000 PSI. when a hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is b. Flow regulator
developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator c. Metering check valve
will be 13. A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be detected
a. 1000psi by
b. 3000psi a. Hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain line
c. 4000psi b. Evidence of hydraulic fluid combined in the
5. Which seals are with petroleum base hydraulic fluids? engine oil.
a. Polyester c. The presence of hydraulic fluid around the pump
b. Butyl rubber mounting pad.
c. Buna-N 14. (1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic system, use the type
6. What is one advantage of piston type hydraulic motors over fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer’s maintenance
electric motors? manual or on the instructions plate affixed to the reservoir
a. They are considerably quieter in operation. or unit.
b. There is no fire hazard if the motor s is stalled. (2)Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed as specific
c. They are satisfactory over a wider temperature color for each type of fluid regarding the statement
range. a. only No. 1 is true
7. An emergency supply of fluid is often retained in the main b.only No. 2 is true
hydraulic system reservoir by the use of a standpipe. The c.both No.1 and 2 are true
supply line is connected to the 15. If two actuating cylinder which have the same cross-
a. Inlet the main hydraulic system. sectional area but different lengths of stroke connected to
b. Inlet of the emergency pump. the same source of hydraulic pressure they will exert
c. Outlet of the main system pump. a. Different amounts of force but will move at the
8. In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized with same rate of speed.
turbine-engine compressor bleed air, which unit reduces the b. Equal amounts of force will move at different rate
air pressure between the engine and reservoir. speed
a. Relief valve. c. Equal amounts of force and will move at the same
b. Air bleed relief valve. rate of speed.
c. Air pressure regulator. 16. The internal resistance of fluid which tend to prevent it
9. Quick – disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide from flowing is called
a means of a. Volatility
b. Viscosity
a. Easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where c. Acidity
leaks are common. 17. When hydraulic system pressure control and relief units fail
b. Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic to function properly. How are most systems protected
lines and eliminate the possibility of contaminates against over pressure
entering the system. a. A shear section on the main hydraulic pump drive
c. Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic shaft
lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into b. One or more hydraulic fuses installed in the
the system. pressure and return lines
10. Components containing phosphate ester-base hydraulic c. A shuttle valve interconnecting the main and
fluid may be cleaned with emergency systems
a. Stoddard solvent. 18. One of the distinguishing characteristic of an open-center
b. Naphtha selector valve use in a hydraulic system is that.
c. Carbon tetrachloride a. Fluid flow through the valve in the OFF position
11. Characteristic of MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid are b. Fluid flows in three directions on the ON position
a. Light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire c. A limited amount of flows on one directions and
resistant uses butyl rubber seals. no fluid flows in the opposite directions.
19. Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some aircraft b. Pressurized all hydraulic components in the
hydraulic system because of system.
a. Fluid flammability c. Relieve the air pressure.
b. High pressure and high rates of fluid flow 28. If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of the
c. The high heat generate from braking . accumulator is depressed , it is evidence
20. Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 psi has been built up in a. Excessive accumulator air pressure.
a hydraulic system .the hand pump piston is 1 inch in b. A leaking check valve.
diameter . A ½-inch line connects the hand pump to an c. A ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals.
actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the 29. What is the purpose of using backup rings with O-rings in
pressure in the line between the hand pump and the hydraulic systems above 1500 psi?
actuator?
a. 100 psi.
b. 150psi. a. Prevent and external leakage of all moving parts
c. 200psi. within a hydraulic system.
21. The air that is expended and no longer needed when an b. Provide a seal between two parts of a unit which
actuating unit is operated in a pneumatic system is move in relation to each other.
a. Exhausted or dumped, usually overboard. c. Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal
b. Returned to the compressor. between the moving and stationary part.
c. Charged or pressurized for use during the next 30. Although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible,
operating cycle. they are acceptable in the remainder of a hydraulic tube
22. Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area. providing they are less than what percent of the tube
Pressure is usually expressed in damenter
a. Pounds per square inch. a. 5
b. Pounds per inch. b. 10
c. Pounds per cubic inch. c. 20
23. What function does the absolute pressure regulator perform 31. What types of selector valve is one f he most commonly
in the pneumatic power system? used in hydraulic system to providing for simultaneous
a. Regulates the compressor outlet air pressure to flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
stabilize the system pressure. a. Four-port, closed-center valve
b. Regulates the pneumatic system pressure to b. Three-port, four-way valve
protect the moisture separator from internal c. Two-port, open-center valve
explosion. 32. What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a
c. Regulates the compressor inlet air to provide a hydraulic system?
stabilized source of air for the compressor. a. Prevent tank collapse a altitude
24. Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from being b. Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation
exposed to high pressure or temperature should c. Prevent hydraulic fluid foaming
a. Not be straightened or bent further. 33. A unit which transform hydraulic pressure which linear
b. Not be reinstalled once removed. motions is called
c. Be immediately replaced a. An actuating cylinder
25. An aircraft pneumatic system which incorporates an b. N accumulator
engine-driven multistage reciprocating compressor, also c. A hydraulic pump
requires 34. (1) materials which are skydrol compatible or resistant
a. An oil separator. include most common aircraft metals and polyurethane and
b. A surge chamber. epoxy paints.
c. A moisture separator. (2) skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible with nylon and
26. Select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs natural fivers regarding the above statements
pressurized fluid to one end of an actuating cylinder and a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from the b. Neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
other end. c. Only No.1 is true
a. Sequence. 35. Characteristic of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic fluid are
b. Shuttle. a. Red, petroleum, will burn synthetics rubber seals
c. Selector. b. Light purple color base phosphate ester base fire
27. Before removing the filler cap of a pressurized hydraulic resistant butyl rubber seals
reservoir , in order to service the system, you must c. Blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural
a. Relieve the hydraulic system pressure. rubber seals
36. After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump. It is 45. A hydraulic system operational check during ground runup
found that the handle cannot be moved in the pumping the wing flaps cannot be allowed using the main hydraulic
directions (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an system, but can be lowered by using the emergency likely
incorrectly installed cause
a. Hand pump inport check valve a. The flaps selector valve has a severe internal leak
b. Inport/outport orifice check valve b. The pressure accumulator is not suppling pressure
c. Hand pump outport check valve to the system
37. Two types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in civil c. The fluid level in the reservoir is low
aircraft are 46. A pilot reports that when the hydraulic ump is running, the
a. Mineral base, and phosphate ester base pressure is normal. However when pump is stopped no
b. Mixed mineral base phosphate hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of a
c. Petroleum base mixed mineral base a. Leaking selector
38. Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base b. Low accumulator fluid preload
hydraulic fluids? c. Leaking accumulator air valve
a. Silicone rubber 47. If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat
b. Butyl rubber before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening
c. Neoprene rubber a. Is acceptable.
39. How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented from b. May distort the flare.
entering the fluid system? c. May distort the cone.
a. By forcing the oil/air ,mixture through a 48. Which of the following is adversely affected by
centerfugal separating chamber that the atmospheric humidity if left unprotected? 1. MILH-H-5606
accumulator hydraulic fluid. 2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid. 3. None of the
b. By physically separating the air chamber from the above.
oil chamber with a flexible movable separation a. 1 and 2
c. By including a valve hat automatically closes b. 3
when the fluid level lower to a preset amount c. 2
49. How many of these seals are used with petroleum base
40. A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to hydraulic fluids?
a. Linear motion a. Natural rubber, ethylene-propylene.
b. Rotary motion b. Neoprene, Buna-N.
c. Angular motion c. Natural rubber , butyl rubber.
41. One of the main advance of skydrol is its 50. Excluding lines, which components are required to make up
a. Wide operation temptation a simple hydraulic system?
b. High operation pressure a. Actuator, pressure reservoir, accumulator, and
c. Inability to mix with water selector valve.
42. If an aircraft’s constant-pressure hydraulic system and no b. Pump, reservoir, selector valve, and actuator.
more frequently than detected the most probable cause is c. Pump, reservoir, relief valve, and shuttle valve.
a. A too high relief valve setting 51. Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?
b. Pump volume output too high a. Purple
c. Low accumulator airpreload b. Blue
43. Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of pours c. Red
paper are normally. 52. What safety device is usually located between the diving
a. Cleaned and reused unit and hydraulic pump drive shaft?
b. Discarded at regular intervals and replaced with a. Thermal relief valve.
new filtering elements b. Pump motor safety switch.
c. Not approve for use in certification c. Pump drive coupling shear section.
53. A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from
44. Characteristic of MIL-H-8446 (skydrol 500 A & B one side of an actuating cylinder to the side, under certain
hydraulic fluids are conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in the
a. Blue color ,phosphate ester base, fire resistant, a. Flap overload system.
butyl rubber seals b. Engine cowl flap system.
b. Light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire c. Landing gear system.
resistant, butyl rubber seals 54. If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing
c. Light green color, phosphate ester base, fire materials, the correct hydraulic fluid to service the system
resistant, butyl rubber seals. is
 a. Mineral base oil. c. 1,2,3
b. Synthetic base oil. 64. If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating
c. Phosphate ester base oil. valves in a hydraulic system , what particular sequence , if
55. The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is to any, should be followed ?
transform a. Units most distant from the hydraulic pump should
a. Fluid motion into mechanical pressure and back be adjusted first.
again. b. Units with the highest pressure settings and
b. Fluid pressure into useful work. adjusted first.
c. Energy form one form to another c. Units are independent of each other , and therefore
56. Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a , no particular sequence is necessary.
standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure 65. Most variable displacement aircraft hydraulic pumps in use.
emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the a. Must be driven at a nearly constant speed in order
standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the to be practical for use.
a. Emergency pump when the fluid supply to the b. Are not practical for use with a closed-center
normal system has been depleted. hydraulic system.
b. Emergency pump at any time it is required. c. Contain a built- in means of system pressure
c. Normal system power pump. regulation.
57. Unloading valves are used with many engine-driven 66. Which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a
hydraulic pumps to main hydraulic system incorporating a pressure regulator?
a. Dampen out pressure surges. a. Eliminate the action of the unloading valve.
b. Relieve the pump pressure. b. Adjust all other system relief valves which have
c. Relieve system pressure. lower pressure setting.
58. Where can information be obtained about the compatibility c. Manually unseat all system check valves to allow
of fire resistant hydraulic fluid with aircraft materials? unrestricted flow in both directions.
a. Fluid manufactures technical bulletins. 67. In a gear-type hydraulic pump, a mechanical safety device
b. Aircraft manufacturers specifications. incorporated to protect the pump from overload is the
c. AC 43.13-1A a. Bypass valve.
59. Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to b. Check valve.
contamination from c. Shear pin.
a. Teflon seal material. 68. To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft
b. Water in the atmosphere. hydraulic units, the most commonly used type of seal is the
c. Ethylene-propylene elastomers. a. O-ring seal.
60. A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic b. Gasket seal.
components is c. Chevron seal.
a. Cold fluid. 69. Generally the first step in removing an accumulator from an
b. Restricted orifices. aircraft is to
c. Internal leakage in the actuating unit. a. Relieve system pressure.
61. Which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid b. Discharge the preload.
flow in the other direction? c. Drain the reservoir.
a. Check valve. 70. Pneumatic systems utilize
b. Metering piston. a. Return lines.
c. Shutoff valve. b. Relief valves.
62. What type of packings should be used in hydraulic c. Diluter valves.
components to be installed in a system containing skydrol? 71. The primary function of the flap over load valve is to
a. An packing made of natural rubber. a. Prevent the flaps from being lowered at airspeeds
b. Packing materials made for ester base fluids. which would impose excessive structural loads.
c. An packing made of neoprene. b. Cause the flap segments located on opposite side
63. Hydraulic system accumulating serve which of the of the aircraft centerline to extend and retract.
following functions?1. dampen pressure surges. 2. c. Boost normal system pressure to the flaps in order
Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond the to overcome the air loads acting on the relatively
pump’s capacity.3. store power for limited operation of large flap are.
components if the pump is not operating. 4. Ensure a 72. The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid
continuous supply of fluid to the pump. from either the normal source or an emergency source to an
a. 2,3 actuating cylinder is called a
b. 1,2,3,4 a. Bypass valve.
 b. Shuttle valve. operation of a cowl flap actuating unit, the probable cause
c. Crossflow valve. is
73. Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an a. Mechanical interference to the movement of the
indication cowl flap
a. Of low accumulator preload. b. A partial restriction in the import of the selector
b. That the main system relief valve is sticking open. valve
c. That air is entering the pump. c. Restriction in the pimp outlet.
74. Which valve installed in a hydraulic system will have the 81. What happens to the output of a constant-displacement
highest pressure setting? hydraulic pump when the hydraulic system pressure
a. Pressure regulator valve. regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the reservoir?
b. Main relief valve. a. The output pressure remains the same, but the
c. Thermal relief valve. volume reduces
b. The output pressure reduces, but the volume
75. The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be remains the same
made with c. The output pressure and volume remain the same
a. A straight tube to withstand the shocks and 82. What is used to flush a system normally serviced with MIL-
vibration to which it will be subjected. H-5606 hydraulic fluid?
b. A straight tube to permit proper alignment of the a. Methyl ethyl ketone or kerosene
fitting and thereby reduce fluid loss through b. Naphtha or varsol
leakage. c. Lacquer thinner or trichloroethylene
c. Enough bends to allow the tube to expand and 83. If the hydraulic system pressure is normal while the engine
contract with temperature changes and to absorb driven pump is running, but there is no pressure after the
vibration. engine has been shut off, it indicates
76. The purpose of the pressure regular in a hydraulic system a. The system relief valve setting is too high
a. Maintain system operating pressure within a b. No air pressure in the accumulator
pressure a predetermined range and to unload the c. The pressure regulator is set too high
pump 84. The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to
b. Regulate the amount of fluid flow to the actuating a. Prevent the system pressure from rising above a
cylinders within the system predetermined amount due to thermal expansion
c. Prevent failure of components of hydraulic lines b. Boost the pressure in portions of the system
under excessive pressure. c. Relieve the pump of its load when no actuating
77. Which is true regarding the ground check of a flap units are being operated
operating mechanism which has just been installed? 85. Which is a characteristics of petroleum base hydraulic
a. If the time required to operate the mechanism fluid?
increase with successive operations, it indicates a. Flammable under normal conditions
the air is being worked out of the system. b. Compatible to natural rubber seals and packings
b. If the time required tp operate the mechanism c. Nonflammable under all conditions
decrease with successive operations, itindicates the 86. A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a
air is being worked out of the system a. Compound
c. All hydraulic lines and components should be b. Packing
checked for leaks by applying soapy water to all c. Gasket
connections. 87. Which of the following list only desirable properties of a
78. Relief valves are used in pneumatic system good hydraulic fluid that has chemical stability?
a. For one direction flow control a. High viscosity, low flash point, high fire point
b. To reduce rate of airflow b. High flash point, low viscosity, low fire point
c. As damage-preventing units. c. Low viscosity, high flash point, high fire point
79. What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system permits 88. How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be
fluid to flow freely in one direction, but restricts the rate at determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system still
which fluid is allowed to flow in the other direction? has hydraulic pressure?
a. Check valve a. Read it directly from the main system pressure
b. Orifice restrictor gauge with all actuators inoperative
c. Orifice check valve b. Build up system pressure with the emergency
80. If an engine-drive hydraulic pump of the correct capacity pump and then read the pressure on a gauge
fails to maintain normal system pressure during the attached to the air side of the accumulator
 c. Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the 96. Which statement about fluids is correct?
pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins as it a. Any fluid will completely fill its container.
goes toward zero b. All fluids are considered to be highly
89. What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid? compressible.
a. The increase in volume of a fluid due to c. All fluids readily transmit pressure.
temperature change 97. To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator,
b. The fluids ability to resist oxidation and a. Reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the
deterioration for long periods reading on the accumulator air gauge.
c. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to b. Observe the first reading on the hydraulic system
prevent it from flowing gauge while operating a component in the system.
90. Extrusion of an O-ring seal is prevented in a high-pressure c. Read it directly from the auxiliary pressure gauge.
system by the use of a 98. Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at a
a. Backup ring in the side of the O-ring next to the a. Lower pressure than the system relief valve.
pressure b. Higher pressure than the system relief valve.
b. U-ring on the side of the O-ring away from the c. Lower pressure than the system pressure regulator.
pressure 99. Seals used with a mineral base hydraulic fluid are identified
c. Backup ring on the side of the O-ring away from by which color code?
the pressure a. Green dash.
91. Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid b. Blue dot or stripe.
which is not available to the main system pump. This fluid c. Yellow dot or stripe.
is retained to 100. Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by
a. Prime the main system. a. Excessive system pressure.
b. Supply fluid the auxiliary pump. b. Insufficient system pressure.
c. Supply fluid to the pressure accumulator. c. Air in the system.
92. The component in the hydraulic system that is used to 101. If fluid is added to a reservoir in a constant pressure
direct the flow of fluid is the hydraulic system while the system is pressurized, what will
a. Check valve. result?
b. Orifice check valve. a. Fluid will spray violently out of the reservoir when
c. Selector valve. the filler neck cap is removed.
93. The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is b. The fluid level will increase when system pressure
generally accomplished is reduced.
a. Through automatic bleed valves on individual c. Air will be drawn into the system , when the filler
components during system operation. neck cap is removed.
b. By operating the various hydraulic components 102. What is commonly used to connect an emergency source of
through several cycles. power, and at the same time disconnect the normal
c. By allowing the system to remain inoperative for hydraulic source from critical parts of a landing gear or
several hours. wheel braking system for operation (usually when the
94. After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air normal source system fails)?
chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure a. Selector valve.
gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until b. Shuttle valve.
a. At least one selector valve has been actuated to c. Sequence valve.
allow fluid to flow into the fluid side of the 103. The purpose of restrictors in the hydraulic system is to
accumulator. a. Control the rate of movement of hydraulically
b. The air pressure has become equal to the fluid operated mechanism.
pressure. b. Allow the flow of fluid in one direction only.
c. The fluid side of the accumulator has been c. Lower the operating pressure of selected
charged. components.
95. If an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base 104. In a typical high-pressure pneumatic system, if the moisture
hydraulic fluid, but phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is separator does not vent accumulated water when the
used, what will be the effect on the system? compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a
a. No effect. a. Saturated chemical dryer,
b. System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, b. Malfunctioning pressure transmitter.
and the seals will fail. c. Malfunctioning solenoid dump valve.
c. System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, 105. Which is a characteristics of synthetic base hydraulic fluid?
but there will be no seal problem. a. Low moisture retention.
 b. High flash point. 4. Hot water system
c. Low flash point. 5. Windshield wipers and anti-icing fluid
106. Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump 6. Ribbon-type heating system
handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate which a. 2,3,5
of the following? b. 1,2,6
a. The hand pump inlet check valve is sticking open. c. 2,3,4
b. The main system relief valve is set too high. 7. What is the principle characteristic of a windshield
c. The hand pump outlet check valve is sticking pneumatic rain removal system?
open. a. An air blast spreads a liquid rain repellant
107. A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it evenly over the windshield that prevents
a. Produces an unregulated constant pressure. raindrops from clinging to the glass surface
b. Produces a continuous positive pressure. b. An air blast forms a barrier that prevents
c. Delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow. raindrops from striking the windshield surface
108. How can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an c. A pneumatic rain removal system is simply a
airplane be determined? mechanical windshield wiper system that is
a. Refer to the aircraft parts manual. powered by pneumatic system pressure
b. Consult the aircraft type certificate data sheet. 8. What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer
c. Consult the aircraft manufacture’s service manual. boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?
a. Vane-type pump
ICE & RAIN CONTROL SYSTEMS b. Gear-type pump
c. Piston-type pump
1. Which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air
pump to hold the deicing boots deflated when the
9. What controls the inflation sequence in a
pneumatic deicing system is off?
pneumatic deicer boot system?
a. Distributor valve
a. Shuttle valve
b. Pressure regulator
b. Vacuum pump
c. Suction relief valve
c. Distributor valve
2. Why should a chemical rain repellant not be used on a
10. What icing condition may occur when there is no
dry windshield?
visible moisture present?
a. It will etch the glass
a. Injector ice
b. It will restrict visibility
b. Inlet ice
c. It will cause glass crazing
c. Carburetor ice
3. Which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer
11. Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of
boots when the system is not in operation, to hold the
the following methods?
boots tightly against the leading edges in flight?
a. Alcohol spray and heated induction air
a. Vacuum relief valve
b. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air
b. Ejector
c. Electrically heating air intake, ethylene glycol
c. Distributor valve
spray, or alcohol spray
4. Prior to installation of a pneumatic surface-bonded
12. Which of the following are found in a laminated
type deicer boots, on the leading edge of the wing, you
integral electrically heated windshield system?
should
1. Autotransformer
a. Remove all paint from the area to be covered by
2. Heat control relay
the deicer boot
3. Heat control toggle switch
b. Apply adhesive to the back of the deicer boot and
4. 24V dc power supply
leading edge of the wing
5. Indicating light
c. Apply a silastic compound between the boot and
a. 1,2,4,5
the wing skin
b. 2,3,4,5
5. How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations?
c. 1,2,3,5
a. By preventing the formation of ice
13. Two possible sources of heat for the operation of a
b. By breaking up ice formations
wing thermal anti-icing system are
c. By allowing only a thin layer of ice to build up
a. First stage of the aircycle turbine and turbo
6. What are three methods of anti-icing aircraft
compressor
windshields?
b. Compressor bleed air and aircraft electrical
1. Blanket-type heating system
system
2. An electric heating element in the windshield
c. Combustion heater and exhaust gases
3. Heated air circulating system
14. What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to a. Continuously while the aircraft is in flight
remove frost from an aircraft surface? b. In symmetric cycles during icing conditions to
a. Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol remove ice as it accumulates
b. Methyl ethyl ketone and ethylene glycol c. Whenever icing conditions are first
c. Naphtha and isopropyl alcohol encountered or expected to occur
15. What maintains normal windshield temperature 23. Which of the following is the best means to use
control in an electrically heated windshield when removing wet snow from an aircraft?
system? a. A brush or a squeegee
a. Thermal overheat switches b. Hot air
b. Thermistors c. Warm water
c. Electronic amplifiers 24. What may be used to clean deicer boots?
16. Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel a. Unleaded gasoline or Jet A fuel
usually indicates a breakdown in the b. Naphtha
a. Temperature-sensing elements c. Soap and water
b. Autotransformers 25. What method is usually employed to control the
c. Conductive coating temperature of an anti-icing system using surface
17. What is used as a temperature-sensing element in combustion heaters?
an electrically heated windshield? a. Thermo-cycling switches
a. Thermocouple b. Thermostats in the cockpit
b. Thermistor c. Heater fuel shutoff valves
c. Thermometer 26. What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a
18. What is the purpose of the oil separator in the deicing system utilizing deicer boots?
pneumatic deicing system? a. To equalize the air pressure to the left and
a. To protect the deicer boots from oil right wings
deterioration b. To sequence the deicer boots inflations
b. To remove oil from air exhausted from the symmetrically
deicer boots c. To distribute anti-icing fluid to the deicer
c. To prevent an accumulation of oil in the boots
vacuum system 27. Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately
19. What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine inflated?
engine if the compressor is immobile because of a. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps
ice? disturbance of the airflow to a minimum
a. Deicing fluid b. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does
b. Anti-icing fluid not disturb airflow
c. Hot air c. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes
20. Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft relieves the load on the air pump
with electrically heated windshields? 28. What is one check for proper operation of a
a. Imbedded in the glass pilot/static tube heater after replacement?
b. Attached to the glass a. Ammeter reading
c. Around the glass b. Voltmeter reading
21. Which of the following indications occur during a c. Continuity check system
normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer
system? SHEETMETAL & NON-SHEETMETALIC STRUCTURE
a. Relatively steady readings on the pressure
1. (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on
gauge and fluctuating readings on the vacuum
composite structure, a change in sound may be due to
gauge
damage or to transition to a different internal structure
b. Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge
(2) The extent of separation damage in composite
and relatively steady readings on the vacuum
structures is most accurately measured by a ring (coin
gauge
tap) test
c. Pressure and vacuum gauges will fluctuate as
Regarding the above statements,
the deicer boots inflate and deflate
a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
22. Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing
b. Only No.1 is true
by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and
c. Only No.2 is true
intake ducts. When is this type of anti-ice system
usually operated during flight?
2. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they
 a. Can be heat treated much easier than the other c.Fretting corrosion is occurring between the rivets
forms of aluminum and the skin
b. Are less subject to corrosion than uncoated 10. What type of bit should be used to drill holes in
aluminum alloys Plexiglas?
c. Are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys a. A standard twist drill
3. A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to b. A specially modified twist drill
a. Compressive loads c. A dulled twist drill
b. Shear loads 11. What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent
c. Tension loads corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb structure?
4. If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using a a. Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and seal
form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should first from the atmosphere
be placed over the hollow portion of the mold and b. Paint the outside area with several coats of exterior
securely fastened in place. The bumping operation paint
should be c. None. Honeycomb is usually made from a man-
a. Distributed evenly over the face of the aluminum made or fibrous material which is not susceptible
at all times rather than being started at the edges or to corrosion
center. 12. Mild steel rivets are used for riveting
b. Started by tapping the aluminum lightly around
the edges and gradually working down into the
center a. Nickel-steel parts
c. Started by tapping the aluminum in the center until b. Magnesium parts
it touches the bottom of the mold and then c. Steel parts
working out in all directions 13. A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension
5. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in
and bend allowance tables are not available, the neutral the
axis of the bend can be a. Number of locking collar grooves
a. Represented by the actual length of the required b. Shape of the head
material for the bend c. Method of installation
b. Found by adding approximately one-half of the 14. What is the minimum spacing for a single row of
thickness to the bend radius aircraft rivets?
c. Found by subtracting the stock thickness from the a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank
bend radius b. Three times the length of the rivet shank
6. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank
a cornice or box brake is measured and marked 15. The coefficient of expansion of most plastic enclosure
a. One-half radius from either bend tangent line materials is
b. One radius from either bend tangent line a. Greater than both steel and aluminum
c. One radius from the bend tangent line that is b. Greater than steel but less than aluminum
placed under the brake c. Less than either steel or aluminum
7. On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend, 16. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for
allow for stretching by soft metals?
a. Adding the setback to each leg a. 118°
b. Subtracting the setback from one leg b. 90°
c. Subtracting the setback from both legs c. 65°
8. When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually 17. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy
acceptable for machining composite laminates? designation indicates the primary alloying agent used
a. Water soluble oil in its manufacture?
b. Water displacing oil a. 2
c. Water only b. 17
9. What is indicated by a black ‘smoky’ residue c. 20
streaming back from some of the rivets on an aircraft? 18. Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance between
a. The rivets were excessively work hardened during the
installation a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows
b. Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside the b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row
structure c. Heads of rivets in the same row
19. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?
 a. It has nonadjustable lift struts 28. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged
b. No external bracing is needed honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that
c. It requires only one lift strut on each side a. The grain is parallel to the skin
20. Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a b. It is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient
laminated sandwich structure bonding material to be applied
a. May be repaired c. The grain is perpendicular to the skin
b. Must be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous 29. Under certain conditions, type a rivets are not used
stress concentrations because of their
c. May be filled with putty which is compatible with a. Low strength characteristics
resin b. High alloy content
21. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to c. Tendency toward embrittlement when subjected to
a. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where shear vibration
strength is desired 30. Which rivet may be used as received without further
b. Attach parts or components with screws to sheet treatment?
metal a. 2024-T4
c. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where b. 2117-T3
bearing strength is desired c. 2017-T3
22. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for 31. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard
hard metal? category airplanes must
a. 118° a. Be fireproof
b. 100° b. Be at least flame resistant
c. 90° c. Meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43
23. When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin, 32. A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should
the major consideration in the design of the patch a. Have the same radius as the rivet head
should be b. Have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head
a. The shear strength of the riveted joint c. Be nearly flat on the end, with a slight radius on
b. To use rivet spacing similar to a seam in the skin the edge to prevent damage to the sheet being
c. That the bond between the patch and the skin is riveted
sufficient to prevent dissimilar metal corrosion 33. The general rule for finding the proper rivet dimeter is
24. A factor which determines the minimum space a. Three times the thickness of the materials to be
between rivets is the joined
a. Length of the rivets being used b. Two times the rivet length
b. Diameter of the rivets being used c. Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet
c. Thickness of the material being riveted 34. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which
25. What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag has
pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing a. A shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head)
called? b. A shank length 5/32 inch (excluding head)
a. Bleeder c. An overall length of 5/16 inch
b. Breather 35. Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain
c. Release erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be
26. If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the repaired by applying
belt must conform to the strength requirements in a. A piece of resin-impregnated glass fabric facing
which documents? b. One or more coats of suitable resin (room-
a. STC 1282 temperature catalyzed) to the surface
b. 14 CFR Part 39 c. A sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface
c. TSO C22 and one or more coats of resin cured with infrared
27. What is one of the determining factors which permit heat lamps
machine countersinking when flush riveting? 36. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely
a. Thickness of the material and rivet diameter are through one facing and into the core
the same a. Cannot be repaired
b. Thickness of the material is less than the thickness b. Requires the replacement of the damaged core and
of the rivet head facing
c. Thickness of the material is greater than the c. Can be repaired by using a typical metal facing
thickness of the rivet head patch
37. When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you 45. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must
should line up with the adjacent original is the
a. Straighten cold and reinforce a. Cell side
b. Straighten cold and anneal to remove stress b. Ribbon direction
c. Apply heat to the inside of the bend c. Cell edge
38. The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass 46. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a
used in aircraft structure is semi-monocoque fuselage are called
a. E-glass a. Spars and ribs
b. S-glass b. Longerons and stringers
c. G-glass c. Spars and stringers
39. Repairs o splices involving stringers on the lower 47. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have
surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually an included angle of
a. Not permitted a. 90° and turn at a low speed
b. Permitted only if the damage does not exceed 6 b. 118° and turn at a high speed
inches in any direction c. 140° and turn at a low speed
c. Permitted but are normally more critical in
reference to strength in tension than similar repairs
to the upper surface 48. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?
40. Which is correct concerning the use of a file? a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank
a. Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except b. Two times the diameter of the rivet head
when filing very soft metals such as lead or c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank
aluminum 49. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy
b. A smoother finish can be obtained by using a rivets indicate the
double-cut file than by using a single-cut file a. Degree of dimensional and process control
c. The terms ’double-cut’ and ‘second-cut’ have the observed during manufacture
same meaning in reference to files b. Head shape, shank size, material used, and
41. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, specifications adhered to during manufacture
grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is c. Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets
measured in 50. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The
a. Tenths of an inch curvature of the bend is referred to as the
b. Hundredths of an inch a. Bend allowance
c. Sixteenths of an inch b. Neutral line
42. Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not c. Bend radius
driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment 51. The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-lok rivets
or removal from refrigeration is accomplished by utilizing
a. Must be reheat treated before use a. Rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar
b. Must be discarded b. A pulling tool
c. May be returned to refrigeration and used later c. Ordinary hand tools
without reheat treatment 52. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic
43. Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet plastics?
stock must have all a. Zinc chloride will have no effect
a. Bends made with a small radius to develop b. Acrylic has a yellowish tint when viewed from the
maximum strength edge
b. Bends 90° to the grain c. Acetone will soften plastic, but will change its
c. Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be color
held to a minimum 53. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of
44. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite metal without critically weakening the part is called the
structures a. Bend allowance
a. May be constructed of any of the metals b. Minimum radius of bend
commonly used in aircraft fasteners c. Maximum radius of bend
b. Must be constructed of material such as titanium 54. What is the most common method of cementing
or corrosion resistant steel transparent plastics?
c. Must be constructed of high strength aluminum- a. Heat method
lithium alloy b. Soak method
c. Bevel method
55. Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys? c. Sixteenth of an inch
a. 2024-aluminum 64. A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed angle
b. Mild steel of 15° must be bent through an angle of
c. Monel a. 165°
56. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures exhibit b. 105°
fine cracks which may extend in a network over or c. 90°
under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is 65. What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used in
said to be the construction and repair of aircraft structures?
a. Hazing a. To hold structural members in position
b. Brinelling temporarily until the permanent attachment has
c. Crazing been completed
57. Which of the following drill bit types work best when b. To provide access for inspection of structural
drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar©) composite laminate? attachments
a. Tool steel with standard grind c. To join and reinforce intersecting structural
b. Diamond dust coated members
c. Carbide W-point 66. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of
58. The purpose of a joggle is to 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes
a. Allow clearance for a sheet an extrusion are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the rivets
b. Increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion to be used will be
c. Decrease the weight of the part and still retain the a. 5/32 inch
necessary strength b. 3/16 inch
59. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 c. 5/16 inch
aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment? 67. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area
a. To accelerate age hardening to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The final
b. To relieve internal stresses cleaning should be made using
c. To retard age hardening a. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone)
60. Which fiber to resin (percent) ration for advanced b. Soap, water, and a scrub brush
composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best c. A thixotropic agent
for strength? 68. What type loads cause the most rivet failures?
a. 40:60 a. Shear
b. 50:50 b. Bearing
c. 60:40 c. Head
61. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb 69. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports,
construction ae used on modern aircraft because this etc., which have been built up from sheet metal, are
type of construction normally
a. Has a high strength to weight ratio a. Repairable, using approved methods
b. May be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the b. Repairable, except when subjected to compressive
inner core material with thermoplastic resin loads
c. Is lighter than single sheet skin of the same c. Not repairable, but must be replaced when
strength and is more corrosion resistant damaged or deteriorated
62. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a 70. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets)
stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have been should not be used in composite structures primarily
critically loaded? because of the
a. If rivets show no visible distortion, further a. Possibility of causing delamination
investigation is unnecessary b. Increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the
b. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks fastener
will be joggled c. Difficulty in forming a proper shop head
c. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of
consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the same
direction 71. When comparing the machining techniques for
63. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum
grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is measured alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to
in drill the stainless steel at a
a. Hundredths of an inch a. Higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill
b. Tenths of an inch
 b. Lower speed with more pressure applied to the 79. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
drill a. By the manufacturer and do not require heat
c. Lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill treatment before being driven
72. How does acoustic emission testing detect defects in b. By the manufacturer but require reheat treatment
composite materials? before being driven
a. By picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration that c. To a temperature of 910 to 930°F and quenched in
may be present cold water
b. By analyzing ultrasonic signals transmitted into 80. One look of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type
the parts being inspected fasteners over earlier generations is that
c. By creating sonogram pictures of the areas being
inspected
73. One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared a. They can be removed and reused again
batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to b. The squeezed can be installed with ordinary hand
a. Perform a chemical composition analysis tools
b. Have mixed enough for a test sample c. They can be installed with ordinary hand tools
c. Test the viscosity of the resin immediately after 81. The most important Factors needed to make a flat
mixing pattern layout are
74. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic a. Radius, thickness, and mold line
enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces b. Radius, thickness, and degree of bend
should be c. The lengths of the legs (flat sections)
a. Polished with rubbing compound applied with a 82. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually
damp cloth be made on damages less than
b. Buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth a. 4 inches in diameter
c. Covered with a thin coat of wax b. 2 inches in diameter
75. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in c. 1 inch in diameter
a workable state is called the 83. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by
a. Pot life a. Burnishing
b. Shelf life b. Buffling
c. Service life c. Stop drilling
76. Which is considered good practice concerning the 84. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the strength
installation of acrylic plastics? of
a. When nuts and bolts are used, the plastic should be a. Longerons and formers
installed hot and tightened to a firm fit before the b. Skin or covering
plastic cools c. Bulkheads and longerons
b. When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other 85. You can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum
satisfactory means to prevent excessive tightening alloy by
of the frame to the plastic should be provided a. Filing the metal
c. When rivets or nuts and bolts are used, slotted b. Testing with an acetic solution.
holes are not recommended c. Testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda
77. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is indicated by 86. When bending metal, the material on the outside of the
the number curve stretches while the material on the inside of the
a. 2 curve compresses. That part of the material which is
b. 20 not affected by either stress is the
c. 24 a. Mold line
78. How many of the following are benefits of using b. Bend tangent line
microballoons when making repairs to laminated c. Neutral line
honeycomb panels? 87. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to
1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of rivets,
corners minimum edge distance and 4D spacing?
2. Improved strength to weight ratio a. 56
3. Less density b. 54
4. Lower stress concentrations c. 52
a. 2,3, and 4 88. When installing transparent plastic enclosures which
b. 1,2 and 4 are retained by bolts extending through the plastic
c. All of the above material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be
 a. Tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn. a. The piece should be bent slowly to eliminate
b. Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full cracking
turn b. The layout should be made so that the bend will be
c. Tightened to a firm 90° to the grain of the sheet
89. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal faced c. Less pressure than usual should be applied with
laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the doubler the movable (upper) clamping bar
should be tapered to 98. Which of the following are generally characteristic of
a. Two times the thickness of the metal carbon/graphite fiber composites?
b. 100 times the thickness of the metal 1. Flexibility
c. Whatever is desired for a neat, clean 2. Stiffness
Appearance 3. High compressive strength
90. Fiberglass laminate damage out exceeding the first 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum
layer or play can be repaired by 5. Ability to conduct electricity
a. filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin a. 1 and 3
and clean, short glass fibers. b. 2,3 and 4
b. Sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic c. 1,3 and 5
smoothness is obtained 99. The classification for fiberglass reinforcement material
c. Trimming the rough edges and sealing with paint that has high resistivity and is the most common is
91. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have a. E-glass
a. Dimples b. S-glass
b. Smooth heads without markings c. G-glass
c. A raised dot 100. When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins,
92. Composite fabric material is considered to be the warping of the surface is likely to occur. One method of
strongest in what direction? reducing the amount of warpage is to
a. Fill a. Add an extra amount of catalyst to the resin
b. Warp b. Use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair
c. Bias c. Use less catalyst than normal so the repair will be
93. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify more flexible
the 101. Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial
a. Body diameter, type of head, and length of the a. Bearing failure
fastener b. Torsion failure
b. Body type, head diameter, and type of material c. Shear failure
c. Manufacturer and type of material 102. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are
94. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed a. 1/8 inch in diameter and ¼ inch long
composite buildup depends primarily on b. 1/8 inch in diameter and1/2 inch long
a. A 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio c. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long
b. The orientation of the plies to the load direction 103. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring
c. The ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate
matrix a. Less than full strength curing of the matrix
95. When riveting dissimilar metals together, what b. Separation of the laminates
precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic c. An area of too much matrix between fiber layers
action? 104. Which of the following, when added to wet resins,
a. Treat the surfaces to be riveted together with a provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener holes
process called anodic treatment in composite panels?
b. Place a protective separator between areas of 1. Microballoons
potential electrical difference 2. Flox
c. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by redesigning 3. Chapped fibers
the unit according to the recommendations a. 2 and 3
outlined in AC 43.13-1A b. 1 and 3
96. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to c. 1,2, and 3
a. Harden and increase strength 105. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to
b. Relieve internal stresses finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
c. Soften to facilitate riveting a. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when
97. When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to
minimum radius for the type and thickness of material remove from the hole
 b. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction
c. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when
starting the cut and reduce the pressure when
finishing the cut 113. Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the
106. Which part (s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage prevents a. Inside radius of the metal being formed
(s) tension and compression from bending the fuselage? b. Inside radius plus one-half the thickness of the
a. The fuselage covering metal being formed
b. Longerons and stringers c. Radius of the metal axis plus one-half the thickness
c. Bulkhead and skin of the metal being formed
107. What is generally the best procedure to use when 114. Which of the following need not be considered when
removing a solid shank rivet? determining minimum rivet spacing?
a. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a. Rivet diameter
a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punch b. Rivet length
b. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head c. Type of material being riveted
with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and 115. The preferred way to make permanent repairs on
remove the rivet with a punch composites is by
c. Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a. Bonding on metal or cured composite patches
a drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove b. Riveting on metal or cured composite patches
the rivet with a punch c. Laminating on new repair plies
108. What is the minimum edge distance allowed for 116. Which of these methods may be used to inspect
aluminum alloy single lap sheet splices containing a fiberglass/ honeycomb structures for entrapped water?
single row of rivets as compared to a joint with multiple 1. Acoustic emission monitoring
rows, all rivets being equal I diameter? 2. X-ray
a. The minimum edge distance for the single row is 3. Backlighting
greater than that for the multiple row a. 1 and 2
b. The minimum edge distance for the single row is b. 1 and 3
less than that for the multiple row c. 2 and 3
c. The minimum edge distance for the single row is 117. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of
equal to that for the multiple row .032-inch aluminum?
109. When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear a. MS20425D-4-3
strength is obtained b. MS20470AD-4-4
a. Only after a period of age hardening c. MS20455DD-5-3
b. By the cold working of the rivet metal in forming a
shop head 118. Select the alternative which best describes the function
c. By heat treating just prior to being driven of the flute section of a twist drill
110. A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a section a. Provides a method for cooling oil to be delivered to
of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of 1/8-inch the cutting surface
rivets is used, the minimum allowable overlap will be b. Forms the area where the drill bit attaches to the
a. ½ inch drill motor
b. ¾ inch c. Forms the cutting edges of the drill point
c. 13/16 inch 119. Which of the following are generally characteristic of
111. The length of rivet to be chosen when making a aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites?
structural repair that involves the joining of 0.032-sheet, 1. High tensile strength
drilled with a No. 30 drill, is 2. Flexibility
a. 7/16 inch 3. Stiffness
b. 5/16 inch 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum
c. ¼ inch 5. Ability to conduct electricity
112. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of a. 1 and 2
0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes b. 2, 3 and 4
are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the rivets c. 1, 3 and 5
to be used will be 120. One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass
a. 1/8 inch structure that has been subjected to damage is to
b. ¼ inch a. Strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a
c. 5/16 inch strong light through the structure
 b. Use dye-penetrant inspection procedures, exposing c. An unairworthy repair
the entire damaged area to the penetrant solution.
c. Use an eddy current probe on both sides of the 129. The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are
damaged are usually hardened by which method?
121. The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of .032- a. Cold-working
inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to b. Aging
a. Two times the rivet diameter plus .064 inch c. Heat treatment
b. One and one-half times the rivet diameter plus .096
inch 130. The shop head of a rivet should be
c. Three times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch a. One and one-half times the diameter of the rivet
122. Rivet pitch is the distance between the shank
a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows b. One-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row c. One and one-half times the diameter of the
c. Heads of rivets in the same row manufactured head of the rivet

123. A category of plastic material that is capable of

softening or flowing when reheated is described as a
a. Thermoplastic
b. Thermocure
c. Thermoset

124. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy

structures?
a. Mild steel
b. 5056 aluminum
c. Monel
125. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally
accomplished by
1. Applying external heat
2. Room temperature exposure
3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin
4. Applying pressure
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 2, and 4
126. The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal from
which a simple L-shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 inch is to
be bent depends upon the radius of the desired bend.
The bracket which will require the greatest amount of
material is one which has a bend radius of
a. 1/8 inch
b. ½ inch
c. ¼ inch
127. What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber is
to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric?
a. Fill clock (or compass)
b. Bias clock (or compass)
c. Warp clock (or compass)

128. Repairing advanced composites using materials and

techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is
likely to result in
a. Restored strength and flexibility
b. Improved wear resistance to the structure