SCIENCE TEACHERS ASSOCIATION VICTORIA 2022 QUESTION AND Total writing time:

TRIAL EXAMINATION ANSWER BOOK 2 hours 30 minutes

BIOLOGY
UNITS 3 & 4
Student name

Student ID Letter

Structure of book Materials supplied

Section Number of questions Number of marks • Question and answer book of 28 pages, with
a detachable answer sheet for multiple-choice
A 40 40 questions inside the front cover.
B 7 80
Instructions
Total 120 • Detach the answer sheet for multiple-choice
questions during reading time.
• Students are permitted to bring into the examination • Write your name and student ID in the space
room: pens, pencils, highlighters, erasers, sharpeners provided above on this page and on the answer
and rulers. sheet for multiple-choice questions.
• Students are NOT permitted to bring into the • Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in
examination room: blank sheets of paper and/or this book are not drawn to scale.
white out liquid/tape. • All written responses should be in English.
• No calculators are allowed in this examination.
At the end of the examination
• Place the answer sheet for multiple-choice
questions inside the front cover of this book.

Published by STAV All rights reserved. Except under the conditions described in the
© STAV August 2022 Copyright Act 1968 of Australia and subsequent amendments, no
part of this publication may be reprinted, reproduced or utilised
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STAV 2022 1 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

SECTION A – Multiple-choice questions

Instructions for Section A

Answer all questions on the answer sheet provided for multiple-choice questions.
Choose the response that is correct or that best answers the question.
A correct answer scores 1; an incorrect answer scores 0.
Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers.
No marks will be given if more than one answer is completed for any question.
Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this book are not drawn to scale.

Use the following table to answer Questions 1 and 2.

The amino acid table for mRNA codons

Question 1
The DNA triplet TTA is the code for which one of the following amino acids?
A. Asn
B. Pro
C. Gly
D. Arg

Question 2
A single mutation in which one of the following codons could result in a stop amino acid?
A. Val
B. His
C. Tyr
D. Phe
 STAV 2022
BIOLOGY
Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination
MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWER SHEET

STUDENT
NAME:

INSTRUCTIONS: USE PENCIL ONLY

• Write your name in the space provided above.
• Use a PENCIL for ALL entries.
• If you make a mistake, ERASE it – DO NOT cross it out.
• Marks will NOT be deducted for incorrect answers.
• NO MARK will be given if more than ONE answer is completed for any question.
• Mark your answer by SHADING the letter of your choice.

ONE ANSWER PER LINE ONE ANSWER PER LINE ONE ANSWER PER LINE

1 A B C D 15 A B C D 28 A B C D

2 A B C D 16 A B C D 29 A B C D

3 A B C D 17 A B C D 30 A B C D

4 A B C D 18 A B C D 31 A B C D

5 A B C D 19 A B C D 32 A B C D

6 A B C D 20 A B C D 33 A B C D

7 A B C D 21 A B C D 34 A B C D

8 A B C D 22 A B C D 35 A B C D

9 A B C D 23 A B C D 36 A B C D

10 A B C D 24 A B C D 37 A B C D

11 A B C D 25 A B C D 38 A B C D

12 A B C D 26 A B C D 39 A B C D

13 A B C D 27 A B C D 40 A B C D

14 A B C D

© STAV 2022
STAV 2022 2 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 3
The ability of a multiple RNA codons to code for a single amino acid is referred to as
A. mutagenicity
B. the ability to transcribe
C. the universal genetic code
D. the degeneracy of the genetic code

Question 4
One of the functions of a ribosome is to
A. connect an anticodon to a codon.
B. connect a codon to an amino acid.
C. connect a nucleotide to an anticodon.
D. connect an amino acid to another amino acid.

Question 5
The process in which the introns are removed from the pre-messenger RNA is referred to as
A. splicing
B. capping
C. transcription
D. translation

Question 6
The role of the promotor region in the regulation of gene expression is to
A. bind to RNA polymerase and transcription factors.
B. allow for alternative splicing and recombination of DNA.
C. bind regulatory proteins that inhibit gene expression.
D. modify gene expression by binding transcription factors.

Question 7
The primary sequence of amino acids are bonded together by
A. hydrogen bonds
B. ionic bonds
C. glycosidic bonds
D. peptide bonds
STAV 2022 3 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 8
Haemoglobin is a protein consisting of four peptide subunits.

The haemoglobin molecule

The protein structure can be described as a

A. primary structure
B. secondary structure
C. tertiary structure
D. quaternary structure

Question 9
The active site of an enzyme is different to the antibody-antigen binding side because the enzyme active
site
A. contains modified amino acids.
B. is complimentary to the product.
C. catalyses a chemical reaction.
D. contains amino acids without a R group.

Question 10
The diagram below shows a eukaryotic organelle.

The correct function of the organelle shown in the diagram above is

A. to process and package proteins and lipids.
B. protein synthesis and lipid metabolism.
C. aerobic cellular respiration.
D. the production of glucose in photosynthesis.
STAV 2022 4 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 11
Plasma cells release large amounts of antibodies. These cells would contain a large amount of
A. rough endoplasmic reticulum.
B. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
C. vacuoles.
D. genetic material.

Question 12
Endonucleases are enzymes capable of
A. cutting a DNA molecule at a specific recognition sequence.
B. adding a nucleotide at the 3’ end.
C. restricting protein synthesis at a ribosome.
D. joining DNA molecules together.

Question 13
Identify the effect on a PCR reaction if there were no polymerase in the reaction.
A. PCR would proceed normally.
B. The reaction would stop after a few cycles.
C. The PCR would not complete a full cycle.
D. The PCR would copy random strands of DNA.

Question 14
In gel electrophoresis, the DNA migrates through the gel because
A. the DNA is negatively charged.
B. of the movement of the buffer.
C. it diffuses through the agarose gel.
D. the short DNA segments are travelling faster.

Question 15
The insulin produced by recombinant DNA technology is
A. a combination of E.coli and human insulin.
B. produced from human insulin mRNA.
C. produced by a cloned human insulin gene.
D. engineered to be more effective than human insulin.
STAV 2022 5 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Use the following enzyme pathway to answer Questions 16 and 17.

enzyme 1 enzyme 2 enzyme 3

molecule A molecule B molecule C molecule D

Question 16
Identify what would happen to the rate of production of molecule D if enzyme 1 was not present.
A. it would increase
B. it would decrease
C. it would stop
D. it would be unchanged

Question 17
Identify how the rate of production of molecule D would be affected if the concentration of enzyme 1 was
increased but the concentration of enzymes 2 and 3 remained unchanged.
A. it would increase
B. it would decrease
C. it would stop
D. it would be unchanged

Question 18
The graph below shows the effect of altering a factor on the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction.

Identify the factor shown on the horizontal axis of the graph.

A. temperature
B. enzyme concentration
C. pH
D. product concentration
STAV 2022 6 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 19
The final electron acceptor during the electron transport chain is
A. oxygen
B. water
C. carbon dioxide
D. ATP

Question 20
Identify the process where the greatest number of ATP are produced in aerobic cellular respiration.
A. the Krebs cycle
B. the electron transport chain
C. glycolysis
D. fermentation

Question 21
The Krebs cycle occurs in the
A. mitochondrial cristae
B. nucleus
C. cytoplasm
D. mitochondrial matrix

Question 22
Thirty minutes after 18O is provided to photosynthesising plants in water molecules, it will be found as
A. glucose
B. carbon dioxide
C. gaseous oxygen
D. starch

Question 23
Identify which one of the following will increase the rate of photosynthesis.
A. increasing water
B. decreasing temperature
C. decreasing oxygen
D. increasing light
STAV 2022 7 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 24
Identify what will happen if carbon dioxide is removed from a plant’s environment.
A. The rate of the light independent reaction will decrease.
B. The amount of water used in the light independent reaction will decrease.
C. The amount of NADH produced will decrease.
D. The amount of FADH2 will increase.

Question 25
Identify the location where anaerobic fermentation occurs in a yeast cell.
A. mitochondria
B. ribosomes
C. cytoplasm
D. vacuole

Question 26
Botanists measured the rate of carbon dioxide produced by two avocado seeds for 16 days after being
removed from the fruit.

Carbon dioxide released from seeds

Release of CO2 / mg per hour

Days after extraction of the seed from the fruit

Identify which one of the following statements is most correct.

A. Both seeds have a constant rate of cellular respiration.
B. The experiment is unreliable because the rate of carbon dioxide released varies.
C. Both seeds had an overall decrease in cellular respiration over the 16 days.
D. Both seeds increased their rate of respiration at day 4 and day 11.
STAV 2022 8 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 27
When completing strenuous exercise, the circulatory system in mammals can struggle to provide enough
oxygen to the muscle cells. This will slow which one of the following processes first?
A. anaerobic fermentation
B. glycolysis
C. the Krebs cycle
D. the electron transport chain

Question 28
Identify which one of the following is correct for the second line of defence in the immune system.
A. Complement proteins are antigen specific.
B. Mast cells produce antihistamine.
C. Interferon is produced in response to viral infections.
D. Eosinophils are not antigen-presenting cells .

Question 29
Identify which one of the following are involved in an allergic response to pollen.
A. cytotoxic T cells
B. eosinophils
C. self-antigens
D. interferons

Question 30
The greatest source of genetic variation in viral infections is from
A. mutation
B. sexual reproduction
C. natural selection
D. genetic drift

Question 31
A small group of people living in Oregon, USA, developed ‘blue skin’ as a result of a change in the
structure of the protein haemoglobin. All of the ‘blue-skinned’ residents of this area can trace their
ancestry to a single pair of original settlers in the area. This unusually high allele frequency of ‘blue skin’
is most likely an example of
A. mutation
B. genetic drift
C. natural selection
D. speciation
STAV 2022 9 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 32
Gene flow describe the movement of alleles between
A. chromosomes
B. species
C. individuals
D. populations

Question 33
Identify which one of the following will lead to the greatest genetic diversity.
A. genetic drift
B. natural selection
C. the bottleneck effect
D. antigenic shift

Question 34
Influenza is a virus that can reinfect the same host a number of times over 10 years. The main cause of
this ability to become unrecognisable by the host’s immune system is
A. antigenic drift
B. natural selection
C. herd immunity
D. the primary defence system

Question 35
Determining the order of fossil age by examining the position of rocks in a sequence is called
A. relative dating
B. radiometric dating
C. radiocarbon dating
D. absolute dating

Question 36
Vestigial structures are
A. structures that have a common function and suggests a common ancestry.
B. genetically determined structures that have lost most or all of their ancestral function.
C. traits of organisms that result from sharing a common ancestor.
D. traits that have similar embryological origins.
STAV 2022 10 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Use the following diagram to answer Questions 37 and 38.

A phylogenetic tree

Question 37
The common ancestor for both species A and D could be found at position number
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Question 38
The most distantly related species to species B would be
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. E

Question 39
A student suspected that their friends had difficulty concentrating in class because they consumed energy
drinks during recess. An experiment to test this should include
A. the whole class drinking energy drinks and no water at recess.
B. the whole class drinking water and no energy drinks at recess.
C. the friends drinking both water and energy drinks at recess.
D. half the class drinking water and the other half drinking energy drinks at recess.
STAV 2022 11 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 40
One way to improve the accuracy of an experiment is to
A. increase the sample size.
B. repeat the experiment.
C. calibrate the equipment.
D. control the variables.

END OF SECTION A
STAV 2022 12 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

SECTION B

Instructions for Section B

Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
Unless otherwise indicated, the diagrams in this book are not drawn to scale.

Question 1 (13 marks)

The production of beer involves a process of fermentation of hops by yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae).
The temperature of the hops solution can have an impact on the process. One of the key enzymes used by
the yeast, beta glucanase, (shown below) is involved in breaking down the beta-glucans in the cell wall of
the hops flowers.

beta glucanase

a Identify the structure labelled Y in the diagram above.

_____________________________________________________________________________________
1 mark

To ensure that the enzyme is able to work effectively, it is important that the temperature of
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is kept at a constant level.

The effect of temperature on beta glucanase activity

b Use the graph above to identify the optimum temperature for Saccharomyces cerevisiae in the
brewing process.

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1 mark
STAV 2022 13 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

c Explain why a temperature of 10°C is not used in the brewing process.

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2 marks

At the end of fermentation, portions of the yeast can be removed from the solution for the next brew. The
top part of the solution will contain younger yeast, while the lower part of the solution contains ‘aged’
yeast. Brewers claim that aged yeast cultures produce a ‘better’ beer with an increased ability to use the
sugars to produce a high yield of ethanol and other flavours, as well as an increased flocculation potential
(frothing when poured).

d Identify the inputs and outputs of the fermentation process.

inputs outputs

2 marks

e Identify a coenzyme that is part of the process of fermentation.

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1 mark

A brewer wanted to test in an experiment if the age of the yeast affected the quality of the beer produced.

f Identify the independent variable for the experiment.

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1 mark

g Identify the dependent variable that could be measured to determine the quality of the beer.

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1 mark
STAV 2022 14 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

h Design an experiment that could test the brewer’s hypothesis.

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4 marks
STAV 2022 15 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 2 (6 marks)
The diagram below shows the trp operon.

Source: <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Trpoperon.svg>

In E.coli there are two mechanisms that repress the genes E, D, C, B and A in the trp operon.

a Explain how one of these mechanisms prevent the formation of tryptophan in a high tryptophan
environment.

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3 marks

If the level of tryptophan is low, the E.coli will transcribe and translate the operon. Three forms of RNA
are involved in these processes.

b Describe the role of each type of RNA.

mRNA _______________________________________________________________________________

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tRNA ________________________________________________________________________________

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rRNA ________________________________________________________________________________

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3 marks
STAV 2022 16 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 3 (7 marks)
Maize is an example of a C3 plant because the molecule Rubisco is used to fix carbon dioxide at the first
stage of photosynthesis.

Rubisco is a quaternary structured protein.

a Describe what is meant by a ‘quaternary structure’.

_____________________________________________________________________________________

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1 mark

The diagram below shows the C3 pathway for carbon dioxide binding rubisco during the light
independent stage of photosynthesis.

b Describe one difference between C3 plants and each of the following plant groups:

i CAM plants: _______________________________________________________________________

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1 mark

ii C4 plants: _________________________________________________________________________

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1 mark
STAV 2022 17 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

The single celled organism Chlamydomonas is often used as a model to study the role of genes in
photosynthesis. The CRISPR / Cas9 system is used to selectively disable genes so that their function can
be determined. The CRISPR sequence requires a short section of DNA called spacers in order to function.

c Describe the role of a spacer sequence.

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1 mark

The spacer sequence binds to a nuclease called Cas 9. The Cas 9 enzyme will only cut the viral DNA if it
is adjacent to a PAM sequence.

d Describe the role of the PAM sequence.

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1 mark

CRISPR-Cas9 has been used to disrupt the KRN2 gene in maize. When this gene is activated, the number
of kernel rows in a cob of corn decreases.

e Describe how the disruption of the KNR2 gene could increase crop productivity.

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2 marks
STAV 2022 18 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 4 (24 marks)

Monkeypox is a virus that is related to the smallpox virus. Its genome is a single linear double stranded
DNA molecule.

a Complete the following table to compare two differences between viruses and bacteria.

viruses bacteria

difference 1:

difference 2:

2 marks

Monkeypox is able to transcribe many of its own genes without the use of the host cell’s mechanisms. It
can be contracted by skin-to-skin contact.

b Describe the process of transcription.

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3 marks

c Explain how the monkeypox virus is able to replicate in humans.

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3 marks
STAV 2022 19 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

When a person is first infected with monkey pox, their lymph nodes will become swollen.

d Describe the process that will cause the lymph nodes to swell in an infection.

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4 marks

The vaccine used to eradicate smallpox is a modified live vaccinia virus.

e Identify the type of immunity provided by vaccination.

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1 mark

People at risk for HIV / AIDS are not recommended to be vaccinated with the smallpox vaccine.

f Explain why the smallpox vaccine is not recommended for people at risk of HIV / AIDS.

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3 marks
STAV 2022 20 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Smallpox is a relative of both cowpox and monkeypox.

g Explain how monkeypox could have emerged into the human population.

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3 marks

h Describe two strategies that could be used to control the spread of the monkeypox virus in the
human population.

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2 marks

The eradication of smallpox was achieved through herd immunity.

i Explain how herd immunity can eradicate a disease in a population.

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3 marks
STAV 2022 21 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 5 (14 marks)

The platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is found in populations across eastern Australia and South
Australia. Genetic samples from four populations (Victoria, King Island, Kangaroo Island and Tasmania)
were tested. King Island was isolated from mainland Australia approximately 12 000 years ago and from
Tasmania approximately 10 000 years ago. The population on King Island in Bass Strait is naturally
occurring. In contrast, the population on Kangaroo Island was established in 1928 with one male platypus
and one female platypus from Tasmania. This population was increased in 1944 and 1946 with additional
animals from Healesville in Victoria.

The location of platypus populations in Australia.

Kangaroo Island
Victoria

King Island
Tasmania

Source: <https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3399204/>

a Identify which of the four populations you would expect to have greatest genetic diversity.

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1 mark

b Justify your answer to part a.

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3 marks
STAV 2022 22 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

The diagram below identifies the results of genetic analysis of the four platypus populations.

c Explain why the platypus population on King Island is genetically distinct from the other
populations.

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3 marks

d Explain why the limited genetic diversity of the platypus population on King Island puts them at
risk of extinction.

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2 marks

e Explain why the four platypus populations are not considered an example of allopatric speciation.

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2 marks
STAV 2022 23 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

The diagram below indicates the genetic similarity of different mammals.

Source: <https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Conservation-and-plasticity-of-
platypus-snoRNAs-Phylogenetic-tree-of-mammals-modified_fig4_5388940>

f Identify the most common ancestor of the platypus.

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1 mark

g Describe two common characteristics of mammals.

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2 marks
STAV 2022 24 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 6 (7 marks)
The classification of fossil remains of Hominins is often complicated by the damage caused by the
fossilisation process. In 2021, a group of scientists suggested that a new taxon Homo bodoensis be used to
describe many of the fossils found across Africa and into the eastern Mediterranean.

The diagram below shows the relationship between different hominins.

Source: <https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/evan.21929>

a Use the diagram above to describe the proposed relationship between Homo bodoensis and Homo
neanderthalensis.

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1 mark
STAV 2022 25 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

The scientists proposed that the skulls of Homo bodoensis shared some characteristics with each of Homo
erectus and Homo sapiens (shown below).

A model of the evolution of the genus Homo

Homo erectus Homo sapiens

b Identify which species (Homo erectus or Homo sapiens) shared each of the following
characteristics with Homo bodoensis:

i projected jawline ____________________________________________________________________

1 mark

ii reduced brow ridge __________________________________________________________________

1 mark

The first Homo sapiens are thought to have left Africa 73 000 years ago. This population are considered
to be the ancestors of the Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples that reached Australia 40 000 to
60 000 years ago.

c Identify one form of evidence that would support the arrival of the ancestors of Aboriginal and
Torres Strait Islander Peoples 40 – 60 000 years ago.

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1 mark
STAV 2022 26 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Like many parts of the world, stone tools have been discovered in coastal regions of Australia.
Occasionally other artifacts made from animal bone have also been discovered. One of these is a bone
tool discovered on Ngarrindjeri Country in South Australia. It was dated to between 5300 and 3800 years
old.

A bone artifact found in South Australia

Source: <https://www.abc.net.au/news/2021-03-17/rare-bone-find-uncovers-ancient-aboriginal-technology/13252236>

d Describe how the absolute age of this artifact could have been determined.

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2 marks

e Explain why the discovery of bone artifacts is rare.

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1 mark
STAV 2022 27 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

Question 7 (9 marks)
Biotech firm says it can resurrect extinct woolly mammoth

A technology entrepreneur and a geneticist launched a new biotech firm which they say will bring the
extinct woolly mammoth back to life. Calling itself Colossal, the biosciences company claims CRISPR
genetic technology can be used to bring back the animal, which went extinct over 11,000 years ago.

“Never before has humanity been able to harness the power of this technology to rebuild ecosystems, heal
our Earth and preserve its future through the repopulation of extinct animals,” technology entrepreneur
and Colossal co-founder Ben Lamm said in a statement.

Scientists have managed to find mammoth tusks, bones and other material to try to sequence the animal’s
DNA. This DNA would then be inserted into the genome of the Asian elephant to form an “elephant-
mammoth hybrid,” according to the company.

Advocates of “de-extinction” say the process could help humans gain new knowledge regarding biology,
evolution and technology. The resurrection of extinct species could also repair damaged ecosystems. In
the case of the woolly mammoth, Colossal believes the animal could revitalize the Arctic grasslands,
whose properties can mitigate global warming.

The idea of de-extinction could have its drawbacks, however. A March 2017 study published in
the Nature Ecology & Evolution journal found that de-extinction programs would be incredibly
expensive. Other downsides include resurrected animals carrying new pathogens that could possibly
infect humans, along with how they will impact the environment.

The United Nations said in a 2019 report that 1 million animals, plant and fungi species face extinction in
the coming decades.

Source: <https://learngerman.dw.com/en/biotech-firm-says-it-can-resurrect-extinct-woolly-mammoth/a-59171358#>

a With reference to evidence from the article, what ethical approach has been used?

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2 marks

b Suggest a way in which the company proposing the de-extinction of the woolly mammoth could
demonstrate the ethical principle of integrity.

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1 mark
STAV 2022 28 Biology Units 3 & 4 Trial Examination

c Identify one potential political issue and one potential economical issue associated with the
de-extinction of the woolly mammoth.

political: _____________________________________________________________________________

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1 mark

economical: __________________________________________________________________________

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1 mark

d The scientists have sequenced the woolly mammoth’s DNA. When creating the hybrid, explain if it
would be more effective to use the DNA or the amino acid sequence of the woolly mammoth.

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1 mark

e What characteristic of CRISPR-Cas9 makes it an effective tool in modifying the Asian elephant
genome when compared to traditional endonucleases?

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2 marks

f Suggest a strategy that could be implemented to minimise the potential transfer of a novel disease
that the woolly mammoth hybrid may carry to humans.

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1 mark

END OF TRIAL EXAMINATION