Dropper NEET

Practice Sheet-R Milestone Test-0

DURATION: 200 Minutes M.MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Units and Measurements, Mathematical Tools

Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany: Cell: The Unit of Life
Zoology: Part- Structural Organization in Animals (including Frog)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with
a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and
151 to 185). All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and
186 to 200). In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 [MS-0 | Practice Sheet-ROI | Dropper]

(PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 8. A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 ± 0.2)
m in a time (4.0 ± 0.3) s. The velocity of the body
1. Find the value of tan 135º;
(1) 1 (2) –1 within error limits is;
(3) (4) 2 (1) (3.45 ± 0.2) ms–1
(2) (3.45 ± 0.3) ms–1
2. Which of the following physical quantities has the (3) (3.45 ± 0.4) ms–1
same dimensions as that of energy; (4) (3.45 ± 0.5) ms–1
(1) Power
(2) Force 9. In a new system of units, unit of mass is 10 kg,
(3) Linear momentum unit of length is 1 km and unit of time is 1 min.
(4) Work The value of 1 joule in this new hypothetical
system is;
3. In vernier caliper, the difference between the (1) 3.6 × 10–4 new units
value of one main scale division and one vernier (2) 6 × 107 new units
scale division is known as; (3) 1011 new units
(1) Least count
(4) 1.67 × 104 new units
(2) Error count
(3) Actual reading
10. Find the value of (8)5/3?
(4) Vernier calibration
(1) 16 (2) 8
4. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are assumed (3) 32 (4) 4
to be the fundamental units, then the dimensional
formula of the mass will be; 11. The coordinates of a particle moving in X-Y plane
(1) [FL–1 T2] (2) [FL–1 T–2] vary with time t as x = 4t2, y = 2t. The locus of the
–1 –1 particle is a;
(3) [FL T ] (4) FL2T2]
(1) Straight line
5. Resistance of a given wire is obtained by measuring (2) Circle
the current flowing in it and the voltage difference (3) Parabola
applied across it. If the percentage errors in the (4) Ellipse
measurement of the current I and the voltage a t2
a
difference V are 3% each, then maximum percentage 12. The dimensions of in the equation p
b bx
error in calculating the value of resistance R of the
(where p is pressure, x is distance and t is time),
wire is; (V = IR)
are;
(1) 6% (2) Zero
(1) [M2 LT–3] (2) [MT–2]
(3) 1% (4) 3%
(3) [LT–3] (4) [ML3T–1]
11
6. The value of x 2 dx is; 13. If the value of the resistance is 10.845 Ω and the
value of the current is 3.23 A, then the value of
(where c is constant of integration)
potential difference to the correct significant
2 13/2 13 2/13
(1) x c (2) x c figures would be; (Use V = IR)
13 2
(1) 35 V
2 9/2 2 11/2
(3) x c (4) x c (2) 35.0 V
9 9
(3) 35. 03V
7. The length, breadth and thickness of a block is (4) 35.029 V
measured to be 50 cm, 2.0 cm and 1.00 cm. The
percentage error in the measurement of its volume dy
14. If y xe x then is;
is; dx
(1) 0.8 % (2) 8 % (1) ex + xx (2) ex (x + 1)
(3) 10 % (4) 12.5 % (3) e2x (4) ex
15. The sum of the first five multiples of 3 (including 3) 22. One side of a cubical block is measured with the
is; help of a vernier calipers of least count 0.01 cm.
(1) 45 (2) 55 This side comes out to be 1.23 cm. What is the
(3) 65 (4) 75 percentage error in the measurement of area?
1.23
(1) 100
16. The dimensions of physical quantity X in the 0.01
X 0.01
equation, force = is given by; (2) 100
1.23
Density
0.01
(3) 2 100
(1) M 1L4T 2
1.23
(2) M 2 L 2T 1
(4) 3
0.01
100
1.23
(3) M 3/2 L 1/2T 2

3/2
(4) M L 1/2T 2
23. Assertion (A): Random errors arise due to
random and unpredictable fluctuations in
17. The shape of graph for the equation y = 2x by experimental conditions.
plotting it in the cartesian plane will be; Reason (R): Random errors occur irregularly and
(1) Circle are random with respect to sign and size.
(2) Straight line (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(3) Parabola and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(4) Hyperbola Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
18. Find the value of (1 + x)1/2 if x << 1; but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
x
(1) 1 (2) (1 + x) (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
2 false.
x x (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(3) 1– (4) 1–
2 3
1 1 1 1 1
24. Find sum of series 1 – – – ...... :
19. The radius of a wire is 0.24 mm, then its area of 2 4 8 16 32
cross-section by taking significant figures into 3 4
(1) (2)
consideration is; 4 3
(1) 0.1 mm2 2 3
(3) (4)
(2) 0.2 mm2 3 2
(3) 0.18 mm2
25. Find using binomial approximation method value
(4) 0.180 mm2
of 104 ;
20. The numbers of significant figures for the (1) 10.2
(2) 10.3
numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are
(3) 11.0
respectively;
(4) 10.5
(1) 4, 4, 2
(2) 5, 1, 2 26. If velocity v varies with time t as v = t2, then the
(3) 5, 1, 5 plot between v and t2 will be given as:
(4) 5, 5, 2

21. If unit of length, mass and time each are doubled, (1) (2)
the unit of work done is increased to;
(1) 4 times
(2) 6 times
(3) 8 times (3) (4)
(4) 2 times
 x 2
27. log5 ( x) log5 ( y) 2, find the value of ; 33. Solve integral t 2 – 1 dt ;
y
–2
(1) 100 (2) 25
3 4
(3) 50 (4) 75 (1) (2)
4 3
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1 2
(3) (4)
A. A screw gauge having a smaller value of 4 3
pitch has greater accuracy.
B. The least count of screw gauge is directly 34. Find the area of the curve y = sin x between x 0
proportional to the number of divisions on
to x
circular scale.
(1) Only A (1) 2 sq. unit (2) 5 sq. unit
(2) Only B (3) 4 sq. unit (4) Zero
(3) Both A and B
(4) Both statements are incorrect. 35. Match the following List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
29. Correct graph of equation 3x + 3y + 1 = 0 is;
(A) x 2 y2 a2 (I) Ellipse

x2 y2
(B) 1 (II) Rectangular hyperbola
(1) (2) a2 b2

(C) xy constant (III) Parabola

(D) y kx 2 (IV) Circle

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

(3) (4)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
d 100
30. (e ) ...... SECTION-B
dx
(1) e100 (2) 0 36. 1 cos is equal to;
(3) 100e999 (4) None of these
(1) 2 sin (2) 2 cos
2 2
31. Statement I: When percentage errors in the 1 1
measurement of mass and velocity are 1% and 2% (3) sin (4) cos
2 2 2 2
respectively, then percentage error in calculating
kinetic energy is 5%.
1 2 E m 2 v 37. Assertion (A): When we change the unit of
Statement II: E mv , . measurement of a quantity, its numerical value
2 E m v
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. changes.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is Reason (R): Smaller the unit of measurement,
incorrect. smaller is its numerical value.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
correct.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(4) Statement I and statement II both are
incorrect. Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
32. The minimum value of function y 5x2 2 x 1 is; but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
1 2 of Assertion (A).
(1) (2) (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
5 5
4 3 (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
(3) (4)
5 5 true.
38. For y = (x – 2)2, what is the maximum/minimum 44. Taking into account of the significant figures,
value and the point at which y is what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
maximum/minimum? (1) 9.98 m (2) 9.980 m
(1) max 1 at x = –1 (3) 9.9 m (4) 9.9801m
(2) max 0 at x = 2
(3) min 1 at x = –1 45. As increases from 0º to 90º, the value of cos ;
(4) min 0 at x = 2 (1) Continuously increases
(2) Continuously decreases
39. Statement-I: Two physical quantities having (3) Remains constant
same dimensions, may have different units. (4) First decreases then increases
Statement-II: Shake and light year, both measure
time. 46. If y = sin 2 then find where y will be maximum;
(1) 90º (2) 45º
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3) 60º (4) 30º
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect. 2k 3l 2
47. A physical quantity X is given by X .
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is m n
correct. The percentage error in the measurements of k, l,
(4) Statement I and statement II both are m and n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%, respectively.
incorrect. The percentage error in X is;
(1) 8 %
40. A new system of units is proposed in which, unit (2) 10 %
of mass is kg, unit of length is m and unit of (3) 12 %
(4) 6 %
time is s. What will be value of 5 J in this new
system?
48. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(1) 5 2 –2 (2) 5 –1 –2 2 incorrect?
(3) 5 –2 –1 –2 (4) 5 –1 2 2 (1) Method of dimensions cannot be used for
deriving formulae containing trigonometrical
41. Distance between points (2, 3, –7) and (–2, 0, 5) ratios.
is; (2) The light year and wavelength consist of
(1) 5 (2) 13 dimensions of length.
(3) 145 (4) 119 (3) Both light year and wavelength represent
time.
(4) Work done has the same dimensions as that
42. Which of the following is the smallest unit of
of energy.
length?
(1) Millimeter
–7
(2) Angstrom dy x
49. for following functions y 1– is;
(3) Fermi dx 7
(4) Metre 8 –8
x x
(1) 1– (2) 1–
7 7
43. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is –5 –4
x x
l (3) 1– (4) 1–
given by T 2 where l is 100 cm and is 7 7
g
known to have 1 mm accuracy. The period is ds
about 2s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured 50. Given s t 2 5t 3, find .
dt
by a stopwatch of least count 0.1 s. The
t3
percentage error in g is; (1) 2t 5 (2) 5t 2 3t
3
(1) 0.1% (2) 1%
(3) t 5 (4) 2t 5
(3) 0.2% (4) 0.8%
 [MS-0 | Practice Sheet-ROI | Dropper | Ph-1]

(CHEMISTRY)

SECTION-A 57. The nitrogen atom has 7 protons and 7 electrons.

51. Chemical equation is balanced according to; The nitride ion (N3–) will have;
(1) Law of multiple proportion (1) 7 protons and 10 electrons
(2) Avogadro’s law (2) 4 protons and 7 electrons
(3) Law of conservation of mass (3) 4 protons and 10 electrons
(4) Law of definite proportions (4) 10 protons and 7 electrons

52. 3 mol of ammonia contains: 58. If 1 mole of ethanol (C2H5OH) completely burns to
(1) 18 g of hydrogen CO2 and H2O, the weight of CO2 formed is about.
(2) 42 g of nitrogen (1) 22 g
(3) Both (2) 45 g
(4) None (3) 66 g
(4) 88 g
53. A sample of pure carbon dioxide, irrespective of its
source contain 27.27% carbon and 72.73% oxygen. 59. Mass of one atom of the element A is 4 × 10–23 g. How
The data support; many atoms are contained in l g of the element A?
(1) Law of constant composition (1) 2.50 × 1022
(2) Law of conservation of mass (2) 6.022 × 1023
(3) Law of reciprocal proportions (3) 12.044 × 1022
(4) Law of multiple proportions (4) 4 × 1023

54. The chemical formula of a particular compound 60. Find total number of electrons in 51 g of NH3 ?
1
represents: (Given 14
7 N and 1 H if Avogadro's No. = NA )

(1) the size of its molecule (1) 20 NA

(2) the shape of its molecule (2) 30 NA
(3) the number of different types of atoms in a (3) 10 NA
molecule (4) 5 NA
(4) the number of nucleons in a molecule
61. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. Its
55. Carbon and oxygen combine to form two oxides, molecular weight is 180. The molecular formula of
carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide in which the compound is;
ratio of the weights of carbon and oxygen is (1) C4HO4
respectively 12:16 and 12:32 respectively. These (2) C3H6O3
figures illustrate the; (3) C6H12O6
(1) Law of multiple proportions (4) C5H10O5
(2) Gay lussac’s law of gaseous volumes
(3) Law of conservation of mass 62. Arrange the following in order of decreasing mass
(4) Law of constant proportions i. 1 F atom
ii. 1 N atom
56. The simplest formula of a compound containing iii. 1 O atom
50% by mass of element X (at. wt. 10) and 50% by iv. 1 H atom
mass of element Y (at. wt. 20) is; (1) i > iii > iv > ii
(1) XY (2) iv > ii > iii > i
(2) X2Y (3) i > iii > ii > iv
(3) XY2 (4) iii >i > ii > iv
(4) X2Y3
63. Na2SO4 xH2O has 50% H2O by mass. Hence, x is 70. When 40 g of sugar is dissolved in 600 mL of H2O,
nearly: the mass by volume percentage of sugar in the
(Given: molar mass of Na2SO4 = 142 g mol–1) solution is;
(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) 66.6 (2) 70
(3) 6 (4) 8 (3) 6.66 (4) 50

64. Irrespective of the source, pure sample of water 71. 518 g of an aqueous solution contain 18 g of glucose
always yields 88.89% mass of oxygen and 11.11% (mol. wt. =180). What is the molality of the solution.
mass of hydrogen. This is explained by the law of: (1) 0.2
(1) conservation of mass (2) 0.4
(2) constant composition (3) 0.6
(3) multiple proportion (4) 0.8
(4) constant volume
72. 8 g NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution, its
65. Mass of one molecule of methane (CH4) is; molarity is;
(1) 16 g (1) 0.8 M
(2) 16 mg (2) 0.4 M
(3) 16 u (3) 0.2 M
(4) 16 NA u (4) 0.1 M

66. How many electron weights one kilogram? (Mass of 73. 0.25 g of a substance is dissolved in 6.25 g of a
electron = 9.108 × 10–31 kg) solvent. Calculate the percentage amount of the
(1) 6.023 × 1023 substance in the solution.
1 (1) 3. 85%
(2)  1031
9.108 (2) 4.0%
6.023 (3) 48.5%
(3)  1054
9.108 (4) 91.2%
1
(4)  108
9.108  6.023 74. The amount of anhydrous Na2CO3 (molar mass =
106 g/mol) present in 250 ml of 0.25 M solution is;
67. Mass of ammonia produced on mixing 56 g of N2 (1) 6.225 g
and 18 g H2 is; (2) 66.25 g
(1) 17 g (3) 6.0 g
(2) 68 g (4) 6.625 g
(3) 34 g
(4) 51 g 75. Molarity of 1g H2SO4 solution in 1 litre water is
nearly
68. Which of the following pair of compounds have (1) 0.1 (2) 0.20
same mass percentage of carbon? (3) 0.05 (4) 0.01
(1) CO2, CO
(2) CH4, C6H6 76. Statement I: During a chemical reaction, the total
(3) C6H6, C6H12O6 moles remain constant.
(4) HCHO, CH3COOH Statement II: During a chemical reaction, the total
mass remains constant.
69. 1.0 mole of CO2 contains: (1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of C (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(2) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of O incorrect.
(3) 18.1 × 1023 molecules of CO2 (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(4) 3 g-molecules of CO2 correct.
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.
77. Significant figures in 0.00051 are 83. A compound contains equal masses of the elements
(1) 5 (2) 3 A, B and C. If the atomic masses of A, B and C are
(3) 2 (4) 4 20, 40 and 60, respectively, the empirical formula of
the compound is
78. Statement I: Number of oxygen atoms in 0.2 mole (1) A3B2C
of Na2CO3.10H2O is 1.565 × 1024. (2) AB2C3
Statement II: Number of sodium atoms in 0.2 mole (3) ABC
of Na2CO3.10H2O is 1.2 × 1024. (4) A6B3C2
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is 84. Which property of an element is always a whole
incorrect. number?
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) Atomic weight
correct. (2) Equivalent weight
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect. (3) Atomic number
(4) Atomic volume
79. The modern atomic weight scale is based on
(1) 12C 85. The mass composition of universe may be given as
(2) 16O 90% H2 and 10% He. The average molecular mass
(3) 1H of universe should be
(4) 13C (1) 2.20
(2) 2.10
80. When WB gm solute (molecular mass MB) dissolves (3) 3.80
in WA gm solvent. The molality of the solution is; (4) 3.64
WB M B
(1) 
WA 1000 SECTION-B
WB 1000
(2)  86. A volume of 500 mL of a 0.1 M solution of AgNO3
M B WA
is added to 500 mL of 0.1 M solution of KCl. The
WA 1000
(3)  concentration of nitrate ion in the resulting solution
WB M A
is;
WA M B
(4)  (1) 0.05 M
WB 1000 (2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.2 M
81. The weight of lime obtained by heating 200 kg of (4) zero
95% pure lime stone is (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2)
(1) 98.4 kg 87. The law of definite proportions is not applicable to
(2) 106.4 kg nitrogen oxide because;
(3) 112.8 kg (1) Nitrogen atomic weight is not constant
(4) 122.6 kg (2) Nitrogen molecular weight is variable
(3) Nitrogen equivalent weight is variable
82. Statement I: The percentage yield of any product (4) Oxygen atomic weight is variable
may be increased to more than 100% by adding
more and more reactants to the reaction mixture. 88. If 5 × 10–3 kg of urea is dissolved in 15 × 10–3 kg of
Statement II: Greater amount of reactants may water, the percent by mass of urea in solution will
result the production of greater amount of products. be;
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct. (1) 90%
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (2) 25%
incorrect. (3) 70%
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (4) 80%
correct.
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.
89. Equal volumes of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution and 0.3 M 95. The number of g-atom of oxygen in 6.023 × 1024 CO
NaOH solution are mixed. The nature of the molecules is
resulting solution will be; (1) 1 g-atom
(1) Neutral (2) 0.5 g-atom
(2) Acidic (3) 5 g-atom
(3) Basic (4) 10 g-atom
(4) Unpredictable
96. The moles of O2 required for reacting with 6.8 g of
23
90. The mass of 1 × 10 molecules of H2O is; ammonia is:
(Given: NA = 6 × 1023) 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO +6H2O
(1) 2.4 g (1) 5
(2) 1.5 g (2) 2.5
(3) 3 g (3) 1
(4) 4.5 g (4) 0.5

91. The percentage of oxygen in a compound is 4%. Its 97. The mass of 3.2 × 105 atoms of an element is
minimum molecular mass will be 8.0 × 10−18 g. The atomic mass of the element is
(1) 100 about ( 𝑁A = 6 × 1023 )
(2) 400 (1) 2.5 × 10−23
(3) 200 (2) 15
(4) 32 (3) 8.0 × 10−18
(4) 30
92. The maximum number of molecules is present in;
(1) 11.2 L of H2 gas at STP 98. Lithium occurs in two isotopes, namely, 7Li (atomic
(2) 5.6 L of N2 gas at STP mass: 7.00 amu) and 6Li (atomic mass: 6.00 amu).
(3) 1.5 g of H2 gas If there exists 7.4% of 6Li in naturally occurring
(4) 8 g of O2 gas lithium, then its atomic mass will be;
(1) 6.2 amu
93. Hydrazine N2H4 (used as a fuel in rocket system) (2) 6.5 amu
can be produced according to the following (3) 6.93 amu
reaction: ClNH2 + 2NH3 + 2NH3 → N2H4 + NH4Cl. (4) 7.2 amu
When 10 mole ClNH2 is reacted with excess of NH3,
300 g of N2 H4 is produced. What is the percentage 99. How many molecules are present in 12 L of liquid
yield? CCl4 ? The density of the liquid is 1.59 g cm–3
(1) 93.75 (1) 7.44 × 1026
(2) 100 (2) 0.744 × 1026
(3) 26.17 (3) 1.59 × 1026
(4) 16.72 (4) 15.9 × 1026

94. Statement I: Molarity of a solution depends upon 100. Vapour density of air is (considering air as 80% N2
temperature. and 20% O2)
Statement II: Molality of solution does not change (1) 0.001293
with temperature. (2) 1.293
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct. (3) 14.4
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) 28.9
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.
 [MS-0 | Practice Sheet-ROI | Dropper]

(BOTANY)
SECTION-A 108. Statement I: Microbodies contain various enzymes.
Statement II: Microbodies are present only in
101. The name of the scientist who first saw and animal cells.
described a live cell is; (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(1) Robert Brown. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek. incorrect.
(3) George Palade. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Flemming. correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
102. The cells which have membrane bound nuclei are; incorrect.
(1) eukaryotic cells. (2) mycoplasmas.
(3) bacterial cells. (4) PPLO. 109. In a cell, the plasma membrane is __________in
nature.
103. The non-membrane bound organelles found in both (1) impermeable
eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic cells are; (2) fully permeable
(3) selectively permeable
(1) centrioles. (2) nucleolus.
(4) non-impermeable
(3) ribosomes. (4) lysosomes.
110. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
104. The prokaryotic cells are represented by; option.
(1) bacteria. (2) blue green algae. List-I List-II
(3) protozoans. (4) Both (1) and (2). (Type of (Position
chromosome) of the centromere)
105. Assertion (A): Cell is the fundamental structural (I) Metacentric (A) centromere is situated close
and functional unit of all living organisms. to its end
Reason (R): Anything less than a complete (II) Acrocentric (B) terminal centromere
structure of a cell does not ensure independent (III) Sub- (C) middle centromere forming
living. metacentric two equal arms of the
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true chromosome
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (IV) Telocentric (D) centromere slightly away
Assertion (A). from the middle of the
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true chromosome
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of I II III IV
(1) B D A C
Assertion (A).
(2) C A D B
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(3) B C D A
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (4) A C B D

106. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t chloroplast. 111. Correct sequence of layers of bacterial cell
(1) The inner chloroplast membrane is relatively envelope from outside to inside is;
less permeable than the outer membrane. (1) Cell membrane → glycocalyx → cell wall
(2) The space limited by the inner membrane of (2) Glycocalyx → cell wall → cell membrane
the chloroplast is called the stroma. (3) Glycocalyx → cell membrane → cell wall
(3) A number of organised flattened membranous (3) Cell wall → glycocalyx → cell membrane
sacs called the thylakoids, are present in the
stroma. 112. Identify the incorrect statement.
(4) The stroma of the chloroplast contains (1) The interphase nucleus has chromatin, nuclear
enzymes required for the synthesis of matrix and one or more spherical bodies
carbohydrate only. called nucleoli.
(2) The nuclear matrix or the nucleoplasm
107. The ribosomes of a polysome translate; contains nucleolus and chromatin.
(1) the mRNA into proteins. (3) Chromatin is a site for active ribosomal RNA
(2) the rRNA into proteins. synthesis.
(4) The outer membrane of the nucleus usually
(3) the mRNA into lipids.
remains continuous with the endoplasmic
(4) the rRNA into lipids. reticulum.
113. The diameter of disc-shaped sacs or cisternae of (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
golgi bodies is in the range of; and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1) 5μm to 10μm. (2) 0.5 mm to 1.0mm. Assertion (A).
(3) 0.1μm to 0.5μm. (4) 0.5μm to 1.0μm. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
114. ______ are synthesised by smooth endoplasmic Assertion (A).
reticulum. (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(1) Proteins only. (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(2) Lipids and steroidal hormones.
(3) Lipids only. 121. Statement I: Centrioles is an organelle usually
(4) Proteins and lipids. containing two cylindrical structures called
centrosome.
115. Identify the correct statements from the following. Statement II: The central part of the proximal region
A. The leucoplasts are the colourless plastids. of the centriole is proteinaceous and called the hub.
B. In eukaryotes, ribosomes are associated with (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
the plasma membrane of the cell. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
C. Bacterial cells are always non-motile. incorrect.
D. Ribosomes are the granular structures of the (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
cell. correct.
(1) B and C (2) A and D (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) C and D (4) B and D incorrect.

116. Chromatin contains; 122. In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy up to ____
(1) DNA. per cent of the volume of the cell.
(2) some basic proteins histones. (1) 80 (2) 70
(3) some non-histone proteins. (3) 90 (4) 50
(4) all of these.
123. In Amoeba the contractile vacuole is important for;
117. All the statements are correct for eukaryotic cells, (1) osmoregulation. (2) transportation.
except; (3) respiration. (4) digestion.
(1) The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in
maintenance of the shape of the cell. 124. Identify the incorrect statement.
(2) A single human cell has approximately two (1) The eukaryotes include all the protists, plants,
metre long thread of DNA distributed among animals and fungi.
its forty six chromosomes. (2) In eukaryotic cells there is an extensive
(3) The nucleoli are not membrane bound. compartmentalisation of cytoplasm.
(4) ER divides the intracellular space into two (3) Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus
distinct compartments, i.e., luminal with a nuclear envelope.
(cytoplasm) and extra luminal (inside ER). (4) All eukaryotic cells are identical.

118. The ______ is bound by a single membrane called 125. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
tonoplast. option.
(1) vacuole List-I List-II
(2) golgi apparatus (I) Vacuoles (A) Possess hydrolytic
(3) endoplasmic reticulum enzymes
(4) peroxisome (II) Lysosomes (B) Important site of formation
of glycoproteins
119. Choose the single membrane bound organelles (III) Golgi bodies (C) Contain water, sap
among the following. (IV) Flagella (D) Possess a number of
(1) Mitochondria (2) Plastids microtubules
(3) Lysosome (4) Nucleus I II III IV
(1) B D A C
120. Assertion (A): The ion concentration is significantly (2) C A B D
higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm. (3) B C D A
Reason (R): In many cells, as in protists, food (4) A C B D
vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particles.
126. The matrix of mitochondria possesses; (1) A - Interdoublet bridge, B - Central microtubule,
(1) double circular DNA molecule. C - Plasma membrane, D - Radial spoke
(2) single circular DNA molecule. (2) A - Peripheral microtubules, B - Central
(3) double linear DNA molecule. microtubule, C - Interdoublet bridge, D - Radial
(4) single linear DNA molecule. spoke
(3) A - Peripheral microtubules, B - Interdoublet
127. Statement I: The mitochondria divide by fission. bridge, C - Central microtubule, D - Radial spoke
Statement II: The golgi apparatus principally (4) A - Peripheral microtubules, B - Interdoublet
performs the function of packaging materials. bridge, C - Radial spoke, D - Central microtubule
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 133. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t transport via
incorrect. plasma membrane.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Many molecules can move briefly across the
correct. membrane without any requirement of energy.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (2) Neutral solutes may move across the
incorrect. membrane by the process of simple diffusion
along the concentration gradient.
128. In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte (3) Water may also move across plasma membrane
has approximately; from higher to lower concentration.
(1) 40 per cent protein and 52 per cent lipids. (4) As the non-polar molecules cannot pass
(2) 52 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids. through the nonpolar lipid bilayer, they
(3) 25 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids. require a carrier protein of the membrane.
(4) 40 per cent protein and 25 per cent lipids.
134. The number of chloroplast in Chlamydomonas is;
129. Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging (1) 1 per cell. (2) 4-6 per cell.
in the; (3) 20-40 per cell. (4) 10-20 per cell.
(1) endoplasmic reticulum.
(2) golgi apparatus. 135. The genetic material is basically naked, not
(3) vacuole. enveloped by a nuclear membrane, in;
(4) chloroplast. (1) plants. (2) animals.
(3) fungi. (4) bacteria.
130. Inner membrane of mitochondria forms;
(1) cisternae. (2) cristae. SECTION-B
(3) thylakoids. (4) lamellae.
136. Assertion (A): The endomembrane system include
endoplasmic reticulum (ER), golgi complex,
131. The two subunits of prokaryotic ribosomes are;
lysosomes and vacuoles.
(1) 50S and 40S. (2) 50S and 30S.
Reason (R): The mitochondria, chloroplast and
(3) 60S and 40S. (4) 60S and 30S.
peroxisomes are not considered as part of the
endomembrane system.
132. Identify A, B, C and D in the diagrammatic
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
representation of internal structure of centriole.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

137. Ribosomes are composed of;

(1) ribonucleic acid (RNA) and proteins.
(2) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and proteins.
(3) lipids and proteins.
(4) ribonucleic acid (RNA) and lipids.
138. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
correct option. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 70S. incorrect.
B. The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
C. Both 70S and 80S ribosomes are composed of correct.
two subunits. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
A B C
(1) Incorrect Correct Incorrect 145. The middle lamella mainly consists of;
(2) Correct Incorrect Correct (1) calcium pectate.
(3) Correct Correct Incorrect (2) calcium sulphate.
(4) Incorrect Incorrect Correct (3) magnesium carbonate.
(4) cellulose.
139. The surface structures found in bacteria which help
them to attach to the host tissues are; 146. Choose the incorrectly matched pair.
(1) flagella. (2) cilia. (1) Mitochondria - 70S ribosomes
(3) fimbriae. (4) centrioles. (2) Chloroplast - 80S ribosomes
(3) Cytoskeleton - mechanical support
140. Statement I: Majority of the chloroplasts of the (4) Cilia - motility
green plants are found in the mesophyll cells of the
leaves. 147. Cell theory was formulated by;
Statement II: Unlike mitochondria, the chloroplasts (1) Schleiden and Schwann.
are not double membrane bound cell organelles. (2) Rudolf Virchow.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (3) Robert Brown.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) Robert Hooke.
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 148. I. It is the extension of plasma membrane into
correct. the cytoplasm.
II. It helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication,
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
respiration, secretion processes, increases the
incorrect.
surface area of plasma membrane and enzymatic
contents. It also helps in cytokinesis.
141. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in
III. It is the characteristic of bacterial cells.
the cytoplasm in the form of;
The above features are attributed to;
(1) vesicles. (2) inclusion bodies.
(1) plasmid. (2) nucleoid.
(3) tubules (4) lamellae.
(3) mesosome. (4) pili.
142. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
149. Assertion (A): Mitochondria are called ‘power
option. houses’ of the cell.
List-I List-II Reason (R): Mitochondria are the sites of
(I) Amyloplasts (A) store oils and fats anaerobic respiration.
(II) Aleuroplasts (B) store proteins (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(III) Elaioplasts (C) store carbohydrates and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
I II III Assertion (A).
(1) B A C (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(2) C A B but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(3) C B A Assertion (A).
(4) A C B (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
143. Both the cilium and flagellum emerge from
centriole-like structure called the; 150. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order
(1) axoneme. of their size and select the correct option.
(2) hub. I. Ostrich egg
(3) spokes. II. Mycoplasma
(4) basal bodies. III. Bacteria
IV. Human RBCs
144. Statement I: Plastids are found in all plant cells (1) II → III → IV → I
and in euglenoides. (2) I → IV → III → II
Statement II: Plastids are not easily observed (3) II → I → IV → III
under the microscope as they are small. (4) I → II → IV → III
 [MS-0 | Practice Sheet-ROI | Dropper]

(ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 159. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. junction
and its function?
151. Which of the following structure is not present in a
neuron? (1) Tight junction  Promotes leaking of
(1) Axon (2) Dendrites substances across a tissue
(3) Nerve endings (4) Adhering junctions (2) Adhering junction  Keep neighbouring cells
together
152. Choose the correct option for cardiac muscle fibres. (3) Gap junction  Helps in rapid transfer of ions
(1) Striated and involuntary and small molecules
(2) Striated and voluntary (4) Gap junction  Facilitates the cells to
(3) Non-striated and involuntary communicate with each other
(4) Non-striated and voluntary
160. Which of the following is correct for biceps muscle
153. One the basis of structures and functions, animal fibres present in our forelimbs?
tissues are classified into; (1) Can’t be contracted merely by thinking about it.
(1) 3 types (2) 2 types (2) Has alternate light and dark bands.
(3) 1 type (4) 4 types (3) Show tapering ends.
(4) Has a single nucleus at its centre.
154. Identify the types of muscles present in the
gastrointestinal tract.
161. Columnar epithelial tissue having microvilli is
(1) Striated muscles (2) Smooth muscles
located in;
(3) Cardiac muscles (4) Skeletal muscles
(1) fallopian tube. (2) oesophagus.
155. The functional junction between the axon of one (3) trachea. (4) small intestine.
neuron and the dendrite of the next is called as
_________. 162. Which of the following is correct pairing of a body
(1) Desmosome part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
(2) Synapse (1) Blood vessel  Involuntary smooth muscle
(3) Intercalated disc (2) Heart wall  Involuntary unstriated muscle
(4) Tight junction (3) Body wall  Smooth muscle fibres
(4) Intestine  Cardiac muscle
156. Which of the following epithelium helps in pushing
out of trapped dust particles from the respiratory 163. Which of the following is the most widely
tract? distributed connective tissue in the body of animals?
(1) Squamous epithelium (1) Areolar connective tissue
(2) Glandular epithelium (2) Adipose connective tissue
(3) Ciliated epithelium (3) Cartilage
(4) Compound epithelium
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

157. Identify the connective tissue that prevent loss of

164. Which of the following represents the example of
heat from the body.
dense irregular connective tissue?
(1) Areolar (2) Adipose
(1) Dermis in the skin
(3) Blood (4) Cartilage
(2) Tendon
158. Which of the following is correct for neuroglia? (3) Ligament
A. Provide protection to neurons. (4) Muscle
B. Constitute one – third of the neural tissues.
C. Support neurons. 165. Which of the following connective tissue provides
D. Make up more than one-half the volume of support to the body and serve weight-bearing
neural tissues. functions?
(1) A, B and C (2) A, C and D (1) Tendon (2) Bone
(3) B, C and D (4) A and B only (3) Ligament (4) Blood and lymph
166. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its 173. How many of the following statements is/are
location? incorrect?
Tissue Location A. Lymph is the main circulating fluid in our body
(1) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of intestine that helps in transport of various substances.
(2) Smooth muscle Wall of stomach B. Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
(3) Areolar tissue Tendons substance rich in collagen fibres and calcium
(4) Compound epithelium Tip of nose salts.
C. Most of cartilage in vertebrate embryos are
167. Which of the following is/are absent in fluid replaced by bones in adult.
connective tissue? D. Areolar tissue is present beneath the skin.
(1) Matrix (2) Fibre (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Cell (4) All of these
(3) One (4) Four

168. The nuclei in a skeletal muscle fibre are;

174. Identify the correct option from the following.
(1) diffused.
A. All cells in epithelium are held together with
(2) centrally located.
large intercellular material.
(3) peripherally located.
(4) located at the base. B. Collagen fibres are present in rows in dense
regular connective tissue.
169. In which type of muscle fibres do you observe the C. Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres
presence of intercalated discs? that are loosely arranged in semi-fluid ground
(1) Smooth muscle fibres substance.
(2) Skeletal muscle fibres (1) A and B are correct, C is incorrect
(3) Cardiac muscle fibres (2) B and C are correct, A is incorrect
(4) Visceral muscle fibres (3) A and C are correct, B is incorrect
(4) All are incorrect
170. Choose the correctly matched pair.
(1) Cartilage  non pliable, hardest tissue 175. Which of the following is a secretion of endocrine
(2) Ligament  Connect bone to bone gland?
(3) Areolar tissue  Dense regular connective tissue (1) Mucus (2) Saliva
(4) Tendon  Connect bone to bone (3) Hormone (4) Ear wax

171. Statement I: Areolar tissues act as energy reservoir 176. On the basis of structural modification of cells,
in our body. simple epithelium is classified into how many
Statement II: Muscular tissues perform the types?
function of linking and supporting other (1) Four (2) Three
tissues/organs of body. (3) Two (4) One
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 177. Which of the following tissue covers moist surface
incorrect. of buccal cavity and pharynx?
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Cuboidal epithelium
correct. (2) Columnar epithelium
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(3) Simple epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium
172. Assertion (A): Cardiac muscle fibres are the only
type of muscle fibres that act involuntarily.
178. The fibres and fibroblasts are oriented differently
Reason (R): Actions of cardiac muscles cannot be
(not in parallel bundles) in;
controlled by our conscious will.
(1) Areolar tissues
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (2) Dense irregular connective tissues
Assertion (A). (3) Dense regular connective tissues
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (4) Skeletal connective tissues
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A). 179. Identify the cells of areolar tissue that secrete fibres.
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (1) Mast cells (2) Macrophages
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (3) Fibroblasts (4) Chondrocytes
180. When two or more organs perform a common (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
function by their physical/chemical interaction, they (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
together form an ________. incorrect.
Fill in the blank with correct option. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) organ correct.
(2) organ system (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(3) tissue
(4) cellular aggregate 187. The spaces in which bone cells are present are called as;
(1) Lamella
181. The type of connective tissue that provides support (2) Lacunae
framework for the epithelium is; (3) Stroma
(1) Adipose tissue (4) Matrix
(2) Blood
(3) Areolar tissue 188. Choose the incorrect match.
(4) Tendons
Epithelium Function
(1) Columnar – Absorption, Secretion
182. Which of the following tissue acts as a lining for the
(2) Cuboidal – Secretion, reabsorption
body cavities, ducts and tubes?
(3) Squamous – Filtration, exchange of
(1) Cardiac muscular tissue
(2) Cuboidal epithelial tissue gases
(3) Simple epithelial tissue (4) Simple – Two or more layers
(4) Smooth muscular tissue
189. Assertion (A): The study of externally visible
183. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct features in an organism is termed as morphology.
option. Reason (R): The study of morphology of internal
List-I List-II organs in the animals is anatomy.
(A) Adipose tissue (I) Nose (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(B) Stratified epithelium (II) Blood and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(C) Cartilage (III) Skin Assertion (A).
(D) Fluid connective tissue (IV) Fat storage (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
A B C D but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(1) I II III IV Assertion (A).
(2) IV III I II (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(3) III I IV II (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(4) II I IV III
190. The epithelium having limited role in absorption
184. Inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and and secretion is;
fallopian tubes have which type of epithelium? (1) simple squamous epithelium.
(1) Ciliated epithelium (2) simple columnar epithelium.
(2) Compound epithelium (3) compound epithelium.
(3) Cuboidal epithelium (4) cuboidal epithelium.
(4) Squamous epithelium
191. Which type of cell junction connect the cytoplasm
185. Identify the isolated glandular cell from the of adjoining cells?
following. (1) Tight junctions
(1) Goblet cell (2) Gap junctions
(2) Salivary gland (3) Adhering junctions
(3) Liver cell (4) All of these
(4) Pancreatic cell
192. Identify the most abundant and widely distributed
SECTION-B tissues in the body of complex animals?
186. Statement I: Cells of cartilage are enclosed in small (1) Muscular tissues
cavities within the matrix secreted by them. (2) Neural tissues
Statement II: Cartilage is only present in outer ear (3) Connective tissues
joints in our body. (4) Epithelial tissues
193. Refer to the figure given below and identify the 197. In response to stimulation, the muscle fibres
structures A, B and C respectively. undergo;
(1) shortening.
(2) lengthening.
(3) contraction.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

(1) A: RBCs, B: WBCs, C: Platelets 198. A sheath of which of the following tissue covers the
(2) A: WBCs, B: Platelets, C: RBCs several bundles of muscle fibres together?
(3) A: Platelets, B: WBCs, C: RBCs (1) Epithelial tissues
(4) A: WBCs, B: RBCs, C: Platelets (2) Neural tissues
(3) Muscular tissues
194. Which of the following component of connective (4) Connective tissues
tissues provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to
the tissues? 199. Muscle fibres with fusiform ends are;
(1) Matrix (1) cardiac muscle fibres.
(2) Cells (2) smooth muscle fibres.
(3) Fibres (3) skeletal muscle fibres.
(4) Cartilage (4) present in biceps.

195. In our body, the bones are attached to the skeletal 200. Statement I: In unicellular organisms all functions
muscles by; are performed by a single cell.
(1) ligaments. Statement II: In complex multicellular animals, the
(2) dense irregular connective tissues. same basic functions are carried out by different
(3) tendons. groups of cells.
(4) areolar tissues. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
196. Which of the following specialized connective incorrect.
tissue is present between the adjacent bones of the (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
vertebral column? correct.
(1) Bone (2) Cartilage (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(3) Lymph (4) Myocyte

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