Notes L6
Notes L6
Inverse Sine Function (arcsin x = sin−1 x) The trigonometric function sin x is not one-to-one
functions, hence in order to create an inverse, we must restrict its domain.
The restricted sine function is given by
sin x − π2 ≤ x ≤ π2
f (x) =
undefined otherwise
0.5 0.5
HΠ6, 12L H5Π6, 12L
Π Π Π Π Π Π
-Π - Π - -
2 2 2 4 4 2
-0.5 -0.5
-1.0 -1.0
We see from the graph of the restricted sine function (or from its derivative) that the function is
one-to-one and hence has an inverse, shown in red in the diagram below.
H1, Π2L
1.5
1.0
HΠ2, 1L
0.5
Π Π Π Π
- -
2 4 4 2
-Π -1
H , L -0.5
4
2
-1 -Π
H , L
4
2 -1.0
-1.5
Properties of sin−1 x.
Domain(sin−1 ) = [−1, 1] and Range(sin−1 ) = [− π2 , π2 ].
1
π π
sin−1 x = y if and only if sin(y) = x and − ≤y≤ .
2 2
Since f (f −1 )(x) = x f −1 (f (x)) = x we have:
π π
sin(sin−1 (x)) = x for x ∈ [−1, 1] sin−1 (sin(x)) = x for x ∈ − , .
2 2
from the graph: sin−1 x is an odd function and sin−1 (−x) = − sin−1 x.
Example Evaluate sin−1 √
−1
2
using the graph above.
√ √
Example Evaluate sin−1 ( 3/2), sin−1 (− 3/2),
√
Example Evaluate cos(sin−1 ( 3/2)).
Derivative of sin−1 x.
d 1
sin−1 x = √ , −1 ≤ x ≤ 1.
dx 1 − x2
dy
Proof We have sin−1 x = y if and only if sin y = x. Using implicit differentiation, we get cos y dx =1
or
dy 1
= .
dx cos y
Now we know that cos2 y + sin2 y = 1, hence we have that cos2 y + x2 = 1 and
√
cos y = 1 − x2
2
and
d 1
sin−1 x = √ .
dx 1 − x2
If we use the chain rule in conjunction with the above derivative, we get
d k 0 (x)
sin−1 (k(x)) = p , x ∈ Dom(k) and − 1 ≤ k(x) ≤ 1.
dx 1 − (k(x))2
Inverse Cosine Function We can define the function cos−1 x = arccos(x) similarly. The details
are given at the end of this lecture.
Domain(cos−1 ) = [−1, 1] and Range(cos−1 ) = [0, π].
We see from the graph of the restricted tangent function (or from its derivative) that the function is
one-to-one and hence has an inverse, which we denote by
3
y= hHxL
HΠ4, 1L
Π Π Π Π
- -
2 4 4 2
y= arctanHxL
Π
2
-2
Π
4 H1, Π4L
-4
-5 -4 -3 -2 -1 1 2 3 4 5
Π
-
4
-6
Π
-
2
Properties of tan−1 x.
Domain(tan−1 ) = (−∞, ∞) and Range(tan−1 ) = (− π2 , π2 ).
π π
tan−1 x = y if and only if tan(y) = x and − <y< .
2 2
Since h(h−1 (x)) = x and h−1 (h(x)) = x, we have:
π π
tan(tan−1 (x)) = x for x ∈ (−∞, ∞) tan−1 (tan(x)) = x for x ∈ − , .
2 2
π π
we have lim tan−1 x = and lim tan−1 x = −
x→∞ 2 x→−∞ 2
Derivative of tan−1 x.
d 1
tan−1 x = 2 , −∞ < x < ∞.
dx x +1
4
dy
Proof We have tan−1 x = y if and only if tan y = x. Using implicit differentiation, we get sec2 y dx =1
or
dy 1
= 2
= cos2 y.
dx sec y
Now we know that cos2 y = cos2 (tan−1 x) = 1
1+x2
. proving the result.
If we use the chain rule in conjunction with the above derivative, we get
d −1 k 0 (x)
tan (k(x)) = , x ∈ Dom(k)
dx 1 + (k(x))2
Domain = (0, ∞)
1
d 1
tan−1 (ln x) = x
=
dx 1 + (ln x)2 x(1 + (ln x)2 )
Integration formulas
Reversing the derivative formulas above, we get
Z Z
1 1
√ dx = sin−1 x + C, dx = tan−1 x + C,
1−x 2 x2 + 1
Example Z
1
√ dx =
9 − x2
Z Z Z
1 1 1 1
q dx = q dx = q dx
3 1− x2
3 1 − x9
2 3 1− x2
9 9
Example
Z 1/2
1
dx
0 1 + 4x2
Let u = 2x, then du = 2dx, u(0) = 0, u(1/2) = 1 and
Z 1/2 Z 1
1 1 1 1 1
2
dx = 2
dx = tan−1 u|10 = [tan−1 (1) − tan−1 (0)]
0 1 + 4x 2 0 1+u 2 2
1 π π
[ − 0] = .
2 4 8
5
4
3! –! ! ! ! 3! 2! 5!
– –
2 2 2 2 2
–1
3!
We see from the graph of the –restricted
2
2 cosine function (or from its derivative) that the function is
one-to-one and hence has an inverse,
g −1 (x) = cos−1 x or arccos x
–3
!
2 f(x) = cos-1(x)
–4 –2 2 4
6
!
–
Domain(cos−1 ) = [−1, 1] and Range(cos−1 ) = [0, π].
Recall from the definition of inverse functions:
√ √
cos−1 ( 3/2) = and cos−1 (− 3/2) =
You can use either chart below to find the correct angle between 0 and π.:
√
tan(cos−1 ( 3/2)) =
tan(cos−1 (x)) =
Must draw a triangle with correct proportions:
1
1-x2
1 θ
θ cos θ = x cos-1x = θ
x 1-x2
tan(cos-1x) = tan θ =
x
cos θ = x
7
d −1
cos−1 x = √ , −1 ≤ x ≤ 1.
dx 1 − x2
dy
Proof We have cos−1 x = y if and only if cos y = x. Using implicit differentiation, we get − sin y dx =1
or
dy −1
= .
dx sin y
Now we know that cos2 y + sin2 y = 1, hence we have that sin2 y + x2 = 1 and
√
sin y = 1 − x2
and
d −1
cos−1 x = √ .
dx 1 − x2
π
Note that d
dx
cos−1 x = − dx
d
sin−1 x. In fact we can use this to prove that sin−1 x + cos−1 x = .
2
If we use the chain rule in conjunction with the above derivative, we get
d −k 0 (x)
cos−1 (k(x)) = p , x ∈ Dom(k) and − 1 ≤ k(x) ≤ 1.
dx 1 − (k(x))2