9th Science Selection Guide English Medium PDF Download

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2 TABLE OF CONTENTS
TABLE OF CONTENTS
UNIT TITLE PAGE

Physics
1. Measurement 3
2. Motion 8
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3. Fluids 14
4. Electric charge and Electric current 21
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5. Magnetism and Electromagnetism 25
6. Light 29
7. Heat 36
8. Sound 41
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9. Universe 45
Chemistry
10.
11.
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Matter Around Us
Atomic Structure
47
49
12. Periodic classification of Elements 54
Bonding 13. Chemical Bonding 56 56
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14. Acids, Bases and Salts 60
15. Carbon and its Compounds 63
16. Applied Chemistry 66
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Biology
17. Animal Kingdom 68
18. Organization of Tissues 71
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19. Plant Physiology 77

21. Nutrition and Health 80
22. World of Microbes 84
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23. Economic Biology 88

24. Environmental Science 93
Practicals 97

3 UNIT -1
NINETH STANDARD
9 SCIENCE
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PHYSICS
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UNIT - 1. Measurement
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
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I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Choose the correct one
a) mm < cm < m < km
sa b) mm > cm > m > km
c) km < m < cm < mm d) mm > m > cm > km Ans : a) mm < cm < m < km
2. Rulers, measuring tapes and metre scales are used to measure
a) Mass b) Weight c) Time d) Length Ans : d) Length
3. 1 metric ton is equal to
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quintals c) 1a)/ 100 quintals d) 1
10 quintals b)/ 10
100quintals c) 1 / 10 quintals d) 1 / 100 quintals
Ans : b) 10 quintals
II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Metre is the unit of ..................... Ans : length
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3. Thickness of a cricket ball is measured by ................ Ans : Vernier caliper

4. Radius of a thin wire is measured by ................. Ans : Screw gauge
III. State whether True or False. If false, correct the statement :

1. The SI unit of electric current is kilogram. Ans : False
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Correct statement : The SI unit of electric current is Ampere

Ampere..
2. Kilometre is one of the SI units of measurement. Ans : False
Correct statement : metre is one of the SI units of measurement.
5. One Celsius degree is an interval of 1 K and zero degree Celsius is 273.15K.
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Ans : True
6. With the help of vernier caliper we can have an accuracy of 0.1 mm and with screw
gauge we can have an accuracy of 0.01 mm. Ans : True
IV. Match the following.

1. Ans :
1) Length a) Kelvin 1) Length b) metre
2) Mass b) metre 2) Mass c) kilogram
3) Time c) kilogram 3) Time d) second
4) Temperature d) second 4) Temperature a) Kelvin

4 UNIT -1
2. Ans :
1) Screw gauge b) Coins 1) Screw gauge b) Coins
2) Vernier caliper d) Cricket ball 2) Vernier caliper d) Cricket ball
V. Assertion and reason type Questions.

Mark the correct answer as :
2. Assertion (A) : 0° C = 273.16K. For our convenience we take it as 273K after
rounding off the decimal.
Reason (R) : To convert a temperature on the Celsius scale we have to add 273 to
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the given temperature.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.
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(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans : ( b ) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.
3. Assertion (A) : Distance between two celestial bodies is measured in terms of light
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year.
Reason (R) : The distance travelled by the light in one year is one light year.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason.
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(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans : ( b ) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reason.
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VI. Answer very briefly.
1. Define measurement.
Ans : Measurement is defined as the determination of the size or magnitude of a
quantity.
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2. Define standard unit.

Ans : SI System of units is the modernised and improved form of the previous system of
units.
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3. What is the full form of SI system ?

Ans : International system of units.
4. Define least count of any device.

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Ans : The smallest length which can be measured by metre scale is called least count.
5. What do you know about pitch of screw gauge ?

Ans : Pitch of the Screw gauge : Pitch of the screw is the distance moved by the tip of
the screw for one complete rotation of the head.
6. Can you find the diameter of a thin wire of length 2m using the ruler from your
instrument box ?
Ans : No.
¬ Diameter of a thinwire of length 2 m cannot be measured by ruler.
¬ It can be measured by screwguage.

5 UNIT -1
VII. Answer briefly.

2. Write the need of a standard unit.
Ans :
« Earlier , different unit systems were used by people from different countries. So
there is a necessity to use worldwide system of measurement called SI system of units.
« Hence, SI (International System of Units) system of units was developed and
recommended by General Conference on Weights and Measures at Paris in 1960 for
international usage.
4. How will you measure the least count of vernier caliper ?
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Ans : Least count of a vernier caliper (LC)
Value of one smallest main scale division
LC = ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
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Total number of vernier scale division
1mm
LC = ¾¾ = 0.1mm = 0.01cm
10
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VIII. Answer in detail.
1. Explain a method to find the thickness of a hollow tea cup.
Ans : sa
Thickness of a hollow tea cup can be found by vernier caliper.
1. First calculate the least count (LC ) and the zero error (ZE ) of the vernier caliper.
2. Now grip the hollow tea cup between the upper jaws to find the thickness.
3. Note the Main Scale Reading (MSR ) just before the zero of the vernier.
of the vernier scale which coincides
4. Note with aofmain
the division the vernier scale which coincides with a main scale division
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(VC).
5. The thickness of a hollow tea cup is found by the formula = MSR + (VC x LC ) ± ZC
S.No. Main scale Vernier scale Observed Corrected
Reading Coincidence Reading Reading
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MSR X 10 m VC OR = MSR + CR = OR ± ZC
(VC X LC)
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2. How will you find the thickness of a one rupee coin ?

Ans : The thickness of the one rupee coin can be found by screw gauge.
1. Determine the pitch, the least count and the zero error of the screw gauge.
2. Place the coin between the two studs.
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3. Rotate the head until the coin is held firmly but not tightly, with help of the ratchat.
4. Note the reading of the pitch scale crossed by the head scale (PSR ) and the head
scale division that coincides with the pitch scale axis (HSC )
5. The thickness of the coin is given by PSR + CHSR ( Corrected HSR ). Repeat the
experiment for different positions of the coin.
6. Tabulate the readings.
7. The average of the last column readings gives the thickness of the one rupee coin.
Table Z.E = (0) Z.C = Nil (0) LC = 0.01mm

6 UNIT -1
S.No. PSR HSC CHSC = HSC ± ZC CHSR = CHSC x LC Total Reading =

(mm) ( division ) (division) (mm) PSR +CHSR(mm)
1. 1 32 32 x 0.01 = 0.32 1 + 0.32 = 1.32 1.32 + 0
2. 1 34 34 x 0.01 = 0.34 1 +0.34 = 1.34 1.34 + 0
Average 2.66 / 2 = 1.33
The thickness of one rupee coin = 1.33mm
IX. Numerical problems.

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1. Inian and Ezhilan argue about the light year. Inian tells that it is 9.46 x 10 m and
12
Ezhilan argues that it is 9.46 x 10 km. Who is right ? Justify your answer.
Solution : Inian argue is right. Light year is the distance travelled by light in one year is
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vacuum.
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Light travels 3 x 10 m in one second
1 year = 365 days
The total number of seconds is one year = 365 x 24 x 60 x 60
7
= 3.153 x 10 second
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7 8
1 light year = 3.153 x 10 x 3 x 10
15
1 light year = 9.46 x 10 m
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2. The main scale reading while measuring the thickness of a rubber ball using
Vernier caliper is 7cm and the Vernier scale coincidence is 6. Find the radius of the
ball.
MSR = Solution
7cm = 70:mm MSR = 7cm = 70 mm
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Coincidence (VC) = 6
Radius = ?
Thickness (Diameter of the ball) = MSR + ( VC x LC )- Z.E
= 70 + ( 6 x 0.1 ) - 0
= 70 + 0.6 = 70.6 mm
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Thickness 70.6
Radius of the ball = ¾¾¾¾¾ = ¾¾ = 35.3 mm
2 2
~ The radius of the ball = 35.3mm
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3. Find the thickness of a five rupee coin with the screw gauge, if the Pitch scale
reading is 1 mm and its head scale coincidence is 68.
Solution : Pitch Scale Reading (PSR ) = 1mm
Head Scale Coincidence (HSC ) = 68
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Thickness of the coin = PSR + CHSR

Corrected HSC ( CHSC ) = HSC ± ZC
Z.E = 0 ; ZC = 0
CHSC = 68 + 0 = 68
CHSR = CHSC x LC
LC = 0.01mm
CHSR = 68 x 0.01 = 0.68mm
~ Thickness of the coin = 1 + 0.68 = 1.68 mm

7 UNIT -1
Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer :
1. SI unit of Luminour intensity ......................
a) ampere b) kelvin c) candela d) mole Ans : c) candela
2. 1 Metric tonne is equal to .............. kg
a) 100 kg b) 10 kg c) 1000 kg d) 10000 kg
Ans : c) 1000 kg

1. ................... is the unit of distance used to measure astronomical objects outside the
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solar system. Ans : Parsec
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2. The value for 1 AU( Astronomical Unit ) is ..................... Ans : 1.496x10 m
3. Larger unit for measuring time is .................... Ans : millennium
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III. Short questions :
1. Define 'Units'.
Ans : A unit is a standard quantity with which the unknown quantities are compared. It is
defined as a specific magnitude of a physical quantity that has been adopted by law or
convention.
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2. Define Astronomical unit
Ans : Astronomical unit (AU): It is the mean distance of the centre of the Sun from the
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centre of the Earth.
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1 AU = 1.496 × 10 m
3. Define Light year.

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Ans : Light year: It is the distance travelled by light in one year in vacuum and it is equal
to 9.46 × 10 15 m.
4. Define Atomic mass unit.

Ans : Atomic mass unit :
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Mass of a proton, neutron and electron can be determined using atomic mass unit
(amu).
1 amu = (1/12) th of the mass of C 12 atom.
5. Define Temperature.
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Ans : Temperature is the measure of hotness or coldness of a body.

SI unit of temperature is kelvin (K).
6. Draw and mark the parts of Vernier Caliper.

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Ans :
Vernier Caliper

8 UNIT - 2
UNIT - 2. Motion
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. The area under velocity - time graph represents the
a) velocity of the moving object b) displacement covered by the moving object
c) speed of the moving object d) acceleration of the moving object
Ans : b) displacement covered by the moving object
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3. Which of the following graph represents uniform motion of a moving particle ?
Ans :
Distance g
Distance g
Distance g
Distance g
Distance g
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a) b) c) d) b)
Time g Time g Time g Time g Time g
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1. Speed is a ................... quantity whereas velocity is a ................. quantity.
sa Ans : Scalar, Vector
2. The slope of the distance - time graph at any point gives .................... Ans : speed
3. Negative acceleration is called .................. Ans : retardation
4. Area under velocity - time graph shows ................. Ans : displacement
III. State
or false. If false, correct whether
the statement.true or false. If false, correct the statement.
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1. The motion of a city bus in a heavy traffic road is an example for uniform motion.
Ans : False. Correct statement : The motion of a city bus in a heavy traffic road is an
example for Non-uniform motion.
2. Acceleration can get negative value also. Ans : True
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3. Distance covered by a particle never becomes zero but displacement becomes

zero. Ans : True
5. If the velocity - time graph of a particle is a straight line inclined to X - axis then its
displacement - time graph will be a straight line. Ans : True
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IV. Assertion and Reason Type Questions.

Mark the correct Choice as :
1. Assertion : The accelerated motion of an object may be due to change in magnitude of
velocity or direction or both of them.
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Reason : Acceleration can be produced only by change in magnitude of the velocity. It

does not depend the direction.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Ans : d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

9 UNIT - 2
2. Assertion : The speedometer of a car or a motor - cycle measures its average speed.
Reason : Average velocity is equal to total displacement divided by total time taken.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
assertion.
Ans : b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
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3. Assertion : Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not
zero.
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Reason : The displacement is the shortest distance between initial and final position.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
assertion.
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Ans : a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
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of assertion.
V. Match the Following. Ans :
List I List II List I List II
1.1.Motion
Motionofofa abody
body 1. Motion of a body
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Velocity g
covering equal covering equal
Velocity g
distances in equal distances in equal

interval of time A interval of time D Time g
Time g
2. Motion with non 2. Motion with non Velocity g

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uniform acceleration uniform acceleration

B C Time g
Time g
Velocity g
Velocity g
3. Constant retardation 3. Constant retardation

C A
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Time g Time g
4. Uniform acceleration 4. Uniform acceleration

Velocity g
Velocity g
D B
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Time g
Time g
VI. Answer briefly.

1. Define velocity .
Ans :
¬ Velocity is the rate of change of displacement.
¬ It is the displacement in unit time. It is a vector quantity.
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¬ The SI unit of velocity is ms
Displacement
¬ Velocity = ¾¾¾¾¾¾
Time taken

10 UNIT - 2
2. Distinguish distance and displacement.

Ans :
S.No. Distance Displacement
1. The actual length of the path travelled It is defined as the change in position of a
by a moving body irrespective of the moving body in a particular direction.
direction is called the distance
travelled by the body.
2. It is a scalar quantity having magnitude It is a vector quantity having both
only. magnitude and direction.
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3. It is measured in metre in SI system. It is also measured in metre in SI system.
3. What do you mean by uniform motion ?
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Ans : Uniform motion : An object is said to be in uniform motion if it covers equal
distances in equal intervals of time.
4. Compare speed and velocity.

Ans :
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S.No Speed Velocity
1. Speed is the rate of change of distance Velocity is the rate of change of
or the distance travelled in unit time
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2. It is a scalar quantity It is a vector quantity
-1 -1
3. The SI unit of speed is ms The SI unit of velocity is ms
ance travelled Displacement
Dist
Distance travelled Displacement
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4.Velocity ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
Speed== ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ Velocity = ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
Time taken Time taken
5. What do you understand about negative acceleration ?

Ans : Negative acceleration :
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¬ If final velocity is less than initial velocity, the velocity decreases with time and the
value of acceleration is negative. It is called negative acceleration.
¬ Negative acceleration is called retardation or deceleration.
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VII. Answer in detail.

2. Explain different types of Motion.
Ans :
Linear motion: Motion along a straight line.
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Circular motion: Motion along a circular path.

Oscillatory motion: Repetitive to and fro motion of an object at regular interval of time.
Random motion: Motion of the object which does not fall in any of the above categories.
Uniform motion
An object is said to be in uniform motion if it covers equal distances in equal intervals of
time howsoever big or small these time intervals may be.
Non-uniform motion
An object is said to be in non-uniform motion if it covers unequal distances in equal
intervals of time.

11 UNIT - 2
VIII. Exercise Problems.

1. A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20m. If its velocity increases uniformly at
-2
the rate of 10ms with what velocity will it strike the ground ? After what time will it
strike the ground ?
Solution :
Distance (s) = 20 m
-2
Acceleration(a) = 10 ms
Here we have initial distance (u) = 0
Final velocity (v) = ?
Time (t) = ?
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(a) calculation of final velocity, v - we know that,
2 2
v = u + 2 as
2
v = 0 + 2 x 10 x 20
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2
v = 400
v = 400 = 20
v = 20 m/s
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~ Ball will strike the ground at a velocity of 20 ms -1
(b) Calculation of time, t - we know that,
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20 = 0 + (10) x t
20 20
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t = = 2s
10
t = 2s
~ Time taken to reach the ground = 2s
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2. An Athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200m in 40s. What
will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of 2m and 20s ?
Solution :
Diameter of circular track (D) = 200m
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200
Radius of circular track (r) = ¾¾ = 100m
2
Time taken by the athlete for one round (t) = 40 s
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Starting Ending
Time after 2m 20 s = 2 x 60s + 20s = 140 s point point
Distance after 140 s =? D =200 m
Displacement after 140 s =?
Circular track with diameter of 200 m
We know that, Circumference
Velocity along a circular path = ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
time
2ð r
v = ¾¾ ¾
40 s

12 UNIT - 2
2 x 3.14 x 100 m
v = ¾¾ ¾¾¾¾¾
40 s
628 m
v= ¾¾ = 15.7
40 s
v = 15.7 m/s
a) Distance after 140 s
We know that,
Distance = velocity x time
Distance = 15.7 m/s x 140 s
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= 2198 m
b) Displacement after 2min 20s i.e. in 140 s
We know that,
Distance = velocity x time
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Since rotation in 40s = 1
1
\ Rotation in 1s = ¾
40
1
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\ Rotation in 140s = ¾ x 140 = 3.5
40
\ In 3.5 rotation athlete will be just at the opposite side of the circular track.
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i.e. at a distance equal to the diameter of the circular track which is equal to 200 m
\ Distance covered in 2 min 20 s = 2198 m
min 20 s = 200 m Displacement after 2 min 20 s = 200 m
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3. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4ms . What distance it covers in 10s
after the start ?
-1
Solution : Initial velocity of the car (u) = 0ms
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2
Acceleration (a) = 4 /ms
Time (t) = 10 s
1 2
We know distance (s) = ut + ¾ at
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2
1 2
Distance covered by the car in 10S = 0 x 10 + ¾ x (4) x (10)
2
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1 200
= 0+¾¾x x 400 = 200
2
The distance covered in 10s is 200 m

13 UNIT - 2
Additional questions and answers
Part - I. (One mark)

1. In ............ motion the object moves along a straight line
a) circular motion b) linear motion
c) oscillatory motion d) random motion
Ans : b) linear motion
2. SI unit for accelerations is...........
a) m/s b) ms 2
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-2
c) ms d) ms3 Ans : c) ms-2
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II. Fill in the blanks
1. a) .................... is the rate of change of velocity.
b) Speed is a .......................... quantity.
Ans : a) Acceleration b) scalar
2. a) Motion along a circular path.................
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b) The acceleration of an object is the change in.............. per unit time.
Ans : a) circular motion b) velocity
III. Short answers

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1. What is motion?
Ans :
Motion is a change of position, which can be described in terms of the distance
moved or the displacement.
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2. Define- acceleration.
Ans :
Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
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14 UNIT - 3
UNIT - 3. Fluids
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct answer:

1.The size of an air bubble rising up in water
a) decreases b) increases c) remains same d) may increase or decrease
Ans : b) increases
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2. Clouds float in atmosphere because of their low
a) density b) pressure c) velocity d) mass Ans : a) density
3. In a pressure cooker, the food is cooked faster because
a) increased pressure lowers the boiling point
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b) increased pressure raises the boiling point
c) decreased pressure raises the boiling point
d) increased pressure lowers the melting point
Ans : b) increased pressure raises the boiling point
4. An empty plastic bottle closed with an airtight stopper is pushed down into a
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bucket filled with water. As the bottle is pushed down, there is an increasing force
on the bottom. This is because
a) more volume of liquid is displaced
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b) more weight of liquid is displaced
c) pressure increases with depth
d) all the above Ans : c) pressure increases with depth
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1. The weight of the body immersed in a liquid appears to be............than its actual weight.
Ans :lesser
2. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is ..................
Ans : barometer
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3. The magnitude of buoyant force acting on an object immersed in a liquid depends on

............ of the liquid. Ans : density
4. A drinking straw works on the existence of ..................
Ans : air pressure
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III. State whether True or False. If false, correct the statement.

1. The weight of fluid displaced determines the buoyant force on an object.
Ans : True
2. The shape of an object helps to determine whether the object will float or not.
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Ans : False
Correct Statement : The density of an object helps to determine whether the object will
float.
3. The foundations of high - rise buildings are kept wide so that they may exert more
pressure on the ground. Ans : False
Correct Statement : The foundations of high - rise buildings are kept wide so that they
may exert less pressure on the ground.
4. Archimedes' principle can also be applied to gases. Ans : True
5. Hydraulic press is used in the extraction of oil from oil seeds. Ans : True

15 UNIT - 3
IV. Match the following.
1. Density - a) hrg
2. 1 gwt - b) Milk
Mass
3. Pascal's Law - c) ¾¾¾
Volume
4. Pressure exerted by a fluid - d) Pressure
5. Lactometer - e) 980 dyne
Ans : 1. Density - Mass
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c)) ¾¾¾
c
Volume
2.. 1 gwt
2 - e)) 980 dyne
e
3.. Pascal's Law
3 - d)) Pressure
d
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4.. Pressure exerted by a fluid
4 - a)) h r g
a
5.. Lactometer
5 - b)) Milk
b
V. Answer in brief.
1. On what factors the pressure exerted by the liquid depends on?
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Ans : Pressure exerted by a liquid at a point is determined by,
(i) depth (h)
(ii) density of the liquid ( r )
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(iii) acceleration due to gravity (g).
2. Why does a helium balloon float in air?

than ordinaryAns
air and
: this Helium
H gives is denser
helium than ordinary air and this gives helium buoyancy..
buoyancy
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H Hence helium balloon floats in air.
3. Why it is easy to swim in sea water than in river water?

Ans : H Sea water's density is more than the density of river water.
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H Because sea water contains dissolved salts.

H Due to high density buoyant force increases.
H So, it is easy to swim in sea water that in river water.
4. What is meant by atmospheric pressure?

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Ans : H An air occupies space and has weight, it also exerts pressure.
H This pressure is called atmospheric pressure.
5. State Pascal's Law.

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Ans : H The external pressure applied on an incompressible liquid is transmitted

HThe
uniformly throughout the liquid.
VI. Answer in detail:

1. With an appropriate illustration prove that the force acting on a smaller area
exerts a greater pressure.
Ans : H Stand on loose sand.
H Your feet go deep into the sand.
H Now, lie down on the sand.
H You will find that your body will not go that deep into the sand.
H In both the cases of the above activity, the force exerted on the sand is the weight of
your body which is the same.

16 UNIT - 3
H This force acting perpendicular to the surface is called thrust.

H When you stand on loose sand, the force is acting on an area equal to the area of your
feet.
H When you lie down, the same force acts on an area of our whole body, which is larger
than the area of our feet.
H Therefore the effect of thrust, depends on the area on which it acts.
H The effect of thrust on sand is larger while standing than while lying.
H The force per unit area acting on an object concerned is called pressure.
H Thus, we can say thrust on an unit area is pressure.
Thrust
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Pressure = ¾¾¾¾¾¾
Area of contact
H For the same given force, if the area is large pressure is low and vice versa.
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2. Describe the construction and working of mercury barometer.
Ans : Mercury barometer : Vacuum
Uses : Pressure
exerted by
H The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called the column
of mercury
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barometer. 760mm
Construction : Atmospheric
pressure
Surface
H A mercury barometer, first designed by an Italian Physicist
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mercury
Torricelli, consists of a long glass tube (closed at one end, open at the
Mercury barometer
other) filled with mercury and turned upside down into a container of
mercury.
H This is done by closing the open end of the mercury filled tube with the thumb and then
opening
it in to a through of it after immersing it in to a through of mercury.
mercury.
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Working :
H The barometer works by balancing the mercury in the glass tube against the outside
air pressure.
H If the air pressure increases, it pushes more of the mercury up into the tub and if the
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air pressure decreases, more of mercury drains from the tube.

H As there is no air trapped in the space between mercury and the closed end, there is
vacuum in that space.
H Vacuum cannot exert any pressure.
H So the level of mercury in the tube provides a precise measure of air pressure which
w.
is called atmospheric pressure.
3. How does an object's density determine whether the object will sink or float in
water?
ww
Ans :
H Whether an object will sink or float in a liquid is determined by the density of the
object compared to the density of the liquid.
H If the density of a substance is less than the density of the liquid it will float.
H For example a piece of wood which is less dense than water will float on it. Any
substance having more density than water (for example, a stone), will sink into it.

17 UNIT - 3
4. Explain the construction and working of a hydrometer with diagram.

Ans : Hydrometer :
Uses :
H A direct-reading instrument used for measuring the density or
relative density of the liquid is called hydrometer.
H Hydrometer is based on the principle of flotation, i.e., the weight
of the liquid displaced by the immersed portion of the hydrometer is
equal to the weight of the hydrometer.
Working :
H Hydrometer consists of a cylindrical stem having a spherical bulb at
et
Hydrometer
its lower end and a narrow tube at is upper end.
H The lower spherical bulb is partially filled with lead shots or
mercury.
i.N
H This helps hydrometer to float or stand vertically in liquids.
H The narrow tube has markings so that relative density of a liquid can be read directly.
H The liquid to be tested is poured into the glass jar. The hydrometer is gently lowered in
to the liquid until it floats freely.
H The reading against the level of liquid touching the tube gives the relative density of
la
the liquid.
VII. Assertion and Reason type Questions.

sa
Mark the correct answer as
1. Assertion : To float, body must displace liquid whose weight is equal to the actual
weight.
Reason : The
experience no net downward body
force will experience no net downward force in that case.
in that
da
(a)and
reason are true If both assertion
reason is the and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
correct
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Pa
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.

Ans : (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
2. Assertion : Pascal's law is the working principle of a hydraulic lift.

w.
Reason : Pressure is thrust per unit area.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
ww
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Ans : (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
VIII. Numerical Problems.

1. A block of wood of weight 200 g floats on the surface of water. If the volume of
3
block is 300 cm calculate the upthrust due to water.
Solution :
3
Volume of block , V = 300 cm
9 Sci - 2

18 UNIT - 3
1 Kilogram force = 1Kgf = 9.8 ms -2

Weight of block = 200 gf
= 0.2 kgf
= 0.2 x 9.8
= 1.96 N
Block is floated in the water it is equated by upthrust force,
Upthrust due to water = 1.96 N
-3
3. The density of water is 1 g cm . What is its density in S.I. units?
Solution :
et
Density of water at 4 OC = 1000 kgm -3
-3
1 gram = 1 x 10 k g
-6 3
1 cm = 1 x 10 m
i.N
-3
1 x 10
Density of water in S.I. units = ¾¾¾¾ -6
1 x 10
-3 -6
= 10 x10
6-3
la
= 10
3
= 1000 kg/ m
3
~ Density of water in S.I unit =
sa 1000 kg/ m
4. Calculate the apparent weight of wood floating on water if it weighs 100g in air.
Ans :
states that ''a body Archimedes
H immersed in principles
a fluid experiences
states that ''a body immersed in a fluid experiences a vertical
da
upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid it displaces''
H Apparent weight of an object = The weight of the body in air - upthrust
= 100g - 100g =0
IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Pa
1. How high does the mercury barometer stand on a day when atmospheric
pressure is 98.6 kPa?
Solution :
Atmospheric Pressure P = h rg
hrg
98.6 kpa = h x 13600 x 9.8
w.
P
h = ¾¾
rg
98.6
ww
h = ¾¾¾¾¾¾
13600 x 9.8
98600
h = ¾¾¾ = 0.7397
133280
~ Height of the mercury h =0.7397 mm (or) 740 mm

19 UNIT - 3
2. How does a fish manage to rise up and move down in water?

Ans :
H To reduce its overall density, a fish fills the bladder with oxygen collected from the
surrounding water through the gills.
H In this case, the forces of buoyancy and gravity cancel each other out, and the fish
stays at that level.
H Most fish rise and sink using this method.
3. If you put one ice cube in a glass of water and another in a glass of alcohol, what
would you observe? Explain your observations.
et
Ans :
H The density of ice cube is lesser than density of water.
H So it floats in water.
i.N
H But, the density of ice cube is greater than the density of alcohol.
H So, it sinks in alcohol.
3
H Density of water = 1g / cm
3
H Density of ice = 0.917 / cm
3
H Density of alcohol = 0.789 / cm
la
4. Why does a boat with a hole in the bottom would eventually sink?
Ans :
H The water wins and rushes into the boat, that means the boat is heavier.
sa
H So, it starts to sink, trying to displace more water.
H But the water keeps coming in because, the hydrostatic pressure at the hole is always
higher than the atmospheric pressure, pushing down on the surface of the water in the
boat.
da
Additional Questions & Answers
I. Choose the best answer.
1. Thrust acting normally to a unit area of a surface is called ................
Pa
a) Thrust b) Buoyancy c) Pressure d) Density

Ans :c) Pressure
2. The unit of pressure is .............
-2 -1 -3 2 -2
a)Nm b) Nm c) Nm d) Nm Ans :a) Nm
3. The atmospheric pressure of Mount Everest summit is ...........
w.
a)106.7 k Pa b) 101.3 k Pa c) 33.7 k Pa d) 37.3 k Pa

Ans :c) 33.7 k Pa
4. The value of 1 bar = ...........
7 5 3 5
a) 1.3 x 10 Pa b) 1x 10 Pa c) 1.5 x 10 Pa d) 1.7 x 10 Pa
ww
5
Ans :b)1 x 10 Pa

1. Both liquids and gases are called ............. . Ans : fluids
2. The formula for pressure due to a liquid column, P = ............. . Ans : h rg
hrg
3. Human lung is well adapted to breathe at a pressure of sea level ......... Ans: 101.3kPa
4. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called ........
Ans : barometer
5
5. The value of 1 atm = ........... Ans : 1.013x 10 Pa
6. 1 atm = ........... bar Ans : 1.013

20 UNIT - 3
7. In petrol bunks, the tyre pressure of vehicles is measured in a unit called ...........
Ans : psi
8. psi stands for ........... Ans : Pascal per inch
3
9. The density of water is = .......... Ans : 1 g/ cm
10. ........... is used for measuring higher levels of alcohol in spirits.
Ans : alcoholometer
III. Short questions.

1.Define Density.
Ans : The density of a substance is the mass per unit volume of a given substance.
et
Mass
Density = ¾¾¾
Volume
3
SI unit of Density is kg / m
i.N
2. Define buoyancy.
Ans :
H If a body partially or fully immersed in a fluid, the pressure is more at the bottom and
less at the top of the liquid.
la
H This pressure difference causes a force on the object and pushes it upward. This
force is called buoyant force and the phenomenon is called buoyancy.
sa
3. Draw and mark the parts of Hydrometer.
Ans :
Hydrometer.
da
Pa
Lead shots
Hydrometer.
w.
ww

21 UNIT - 4
UNIT - 4. Electric charge and Electric current

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
I. Choose the correct answer

1. In current electricity, a positive charge refers to,
a) presence of electron b) presence of proton
c) absence of electron d) absence of proton
Ans : c) absence of electron
et
2. Rubbing of comb with hair
a) creates electric charge b) transfers electric charge
c) either (a) or (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
i.N
Ans :b) transfers electric charge
3. Electric field lines............. from positive charge and.......... in negative charge.
a) start; start b) start; end
c) start: end d) end; end Ans : b) start; end
4. Potential near a charge is the measure of its ........... to bring a positive charge at
la
that point.
a) force b) ability
c) tendency sa d) work Ans : d) work
6. In an electrolyte the current is due to the flow of,
a) electrons b) positive ions
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b) Ans : c) both (a) and (b)
8. Resistance of a wire depends on,
a) temperature
b) geometry b) geometry
da
c) nature of material d) all the above Ans : d) all the above
II. Match the following Ans :

1. Electric Charge (a) ohm 1. Electric Charge (c) coulomb
Pa
2. Potential difference (b) ampere 2. Potential difference (e) volt

3. Electric field (c) coulomb 3. Electric field (d) newton per
4. Resistance (d) newton coulomb
per coulomb 4. Resistance (a) ohm
5. Electric current (e) volt 5. Electric current (b) ampere
w.
III. State whether True or False. If false correct the statement.

1. Electrically neutral means it is either zero or equal positive and negative charges.
Ans : True
ww
2. Ammeter is connected in parallel in any electric circuit. Ans : False

Correct statement : Ammeter is connected in series in any electric circuit.
4. Current can produce magnetic field. Ans : True
IV. Fill in the blanks

1. Electrons move from............... potential to ................potential. Ans :higher, lower
2. The direction opposite to the movement of electron is called.......... current.
Ans :Conventional
3. The e.m.f of a cell is analogues to ............. of a pipe line. Ans : Pump
4. The domestic electricity in India is an ac with a frequency of ........... Hz. Ans : 50 Hz

22 UNIT - 4
V. Conceptual questions
1. A bird sitting on a high power electric line is still safe. How?
Ans : A bird sitting on a transmission line does not complete the circuit. If the same bird
keeps one leg on one line and another leg on another line, then it will get roasted.
2. Does a solar cell always maintain the potential across its terminals constant?
Discuss.
Ans :
¬ Solar cell voltage does not remain constant just as long as. There is sufficient
irradiance light from dull to bright sunlight, because solar cell works on the principle of
et
photo voltaic effect.
¬ It is a form of photoelectric cell, defined as a device whose electrical characteristics,
such as current, voltage or resistance, very when exposed to light.
i.N
VI. Answer the following
1. On what factors does the electrostatic force between two charges depend?
Ans : The numerical value (magnitude) of electric force between two charges depend
on the, i. value of charges on them ii. distance between them and
iii. nature of medium between them
la
2. What are electric lines of force?
Ans : The electric lines of force are straight or curved paths along which a unit positive
sa
charge tends to move in the electric field. Electric lines of force are imaginary lines.
3. Define electric field.

Ans : The
a charge experiences region
electric in which
force forms a charge experiences electric force forms the 'electric field'
da
around the charge.
4. Define electric current and give its unit.

Ans :
¬ Current is the rate at which charges flow past a point on a circuit.
Pa
¬ The standard SI unit for current is ampere with the symbol A.
5. State Ohm's law.

Ans :
The electric potential difference across two points in an electric circuit is directly
w.
proportional to the current passing through it.

V is the potential difference I is the current ; V a I ; V=IR
V=IR
R is the proportionality constant (or) Resistance
ww
8. List the safety features while handling electricity.

Ans : (i) Ground connection (ii) Trip switch (iii) Fuse
VII. Exercises
1. Rubbing a comb on hair makes the comb get - 0.4C. (a) Find which material has
lost electron and which one gained it. (b) Find how many electrons are transferred
in this process.
Solution : (a) Hair has lost the electron. The comb has gained the electron.
(b) The charge received by comb q = -0.4 C.
electric charge q - ne
n - number of electrons in 1 coulomb

23 UNIT - 4
e - charge on 1 electron = 1.6x10 -19 C

q = ne
n = q/e
0.4 C
= ; 0.25X10 19 = 2.5X 10 18 electrons
1.6x10 -19 C
So, 2.5X 10 18 electrons are transferred in this process.
2. Calculate the amount of charge that would flow in 2 hours through an element of
an electric bulb drawing a current of 2.5A
et
Solution : Time 't' = 2 hours
= 2x60x60 = 7200 s
Current 'I' = 2.5 A
The amount of charge, q = ?
i.N
I = q/t ; q = I X t = 2.5x7200 = 18, 000
Amount of charge q = 18000C
3. The values of current ((I)

I) flowing through a resistor for various potential
differences V across the resistor are given below. What is the value of resistor?
la
Solution :
y
I (ampere) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
Potential difference Volt (V)

V (volt)
sa1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
14
[Hint: plot V-I a graph and take slope]
V 2 10.2
- VV1 12 A
2
R, Slope =
da
10
I2 - I1 8
6.7 V1 C
6 B
10.2 - 6.7 3.5
R, Slope = ; R= = 3.5
3.5WW 4
3- 2 1 2
Pa
I1 I2
o
The value of resistor R = 3.5 W 0.5 1 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 x
Current (I) in A
Additional Questions
w.

1. If an electron removed from the atom, the atom becomes ..........charged
(a) negative (b) positive (c) neutral (d) non of them
Ans: (b) positive
ww
2. The amount of charge on 1 electron is ..........

(a)6.25x10 18C (b) 1.6x10 -19C (c) 6.25x10 -19C (d) 1.6.x10 -18C
Ans: (b) 1.6 x 10 -19C
3. An electric current is formed by ...........
(a)moving electrons (b) rest electrons
(c) free electrons (d) both a and b Ans: (a) moving electrons
4. ........... is an instrument used to measure the electric current
(a)Voltmeter (b) Ammeter (c) Ohm meter (d) Galvanometer
Ans: (b) Ammeter
5. The formula of electromotive force is ..............
(a) e = w/q (b) e = q/t (c) e = V/I (d) none of these
Ans: (a) e = w/q

24 UNIT - 4
6. To measure the potential difference across a component in a circuit, the

voltmeter must be connected in ..........
(a)series (b) parallel (c) continuous (d) both a and b
Ans: (b) parallel
7. ........... is a good conductor of electricity
(a) copper (b) glass (c) polymer (d) plastic
Ans: (a) copper
8. ........... is a insulator
(a) glass (b) copper (c) aluminium (d) polymer
Ans:(a) glass
et
9. ........... discovered the relation between potential difference, current and
resistance.
(a) George simon ohm (b) Ampere (c) Einstein (d) none of them
i.N
Ans: (a) George simon ohm
10. ........... is a electronic device which works on direct current (dc)
(a) Television (b) Electric fan (c) Cell phone (d) Micro wave
Ans:(c) Cell phone
11. The device used to convert dc in to ac is called ...........
la
(a)rectifier (b) inverter (c) Transformer (d) Battery eliminator
Ans: (b) Inverter
II. Match the following

sa
Devices Symbols
a) Cell
b) Light bulb
da
c) Fuse
d) Earth connector
Ans:
Devices Symbols
Pa
a) Cell
b) Light bulb
c) Fuse
d) Earth connector
w.

1. Define electric force?
Ans: The force existing between the charges is called 'electric force'
ww
2. Define Electric potential?

Ans: Electric potential is a measure of the work done on unit positive charge to bring it
to that point against all electrical forces.
3. Differentiate e.m.f and potential difference

Ans: e.m.f. Potential difference
The e.m.f. refers to the voltage Potential difference refers to the voltage
developed across the terminals of an developed between any two points in
electrical source when it does not an electric circuit when there is current
produce current in the circuit in the circuit

25 UNIT - 5
UNIT - 5. Magnetism and Electromagnetism

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Which of the following converts electrical energy into mechanical energy ?
a) motor b) battery c) generator d) switch Ans : a) motor
3. The part of the AC generator that passes the current from the armature coil to
the external circuit is
et
a) field magnet b) split rings c) slip rings d) brushes Ans :d) brushes
4. The unit of magnetic flux density is
a)weber b) weber/metre
i.N
2 2 2
c) weber/meter d) weber . meter Ans : c) weber/meter

1. The SI Unit of magnetic field induction is ............... Ans : Tesla
3. An electric motor converts ........... Ans : electric energy into mechanical energy
la
4.A device for producing electric current is ................. Ans :electric generator
III. Match the following :

sa
1. Magnetic material (a) Oersted
2. Non-magnetic material (b) iron
3. Current and magnetism (c) induction
4. Electromagnetic induction (d) wood
da
(e) Faraday
5. Electric generator (e) Faraday
Ans :
1. Magnetic material (b) iron
2. Non-magnetic material (d) wood
Pa
3. Current and magnetism (a) Oersted

4. Electromagnetic induction (e) Faraday
5. Electric generator (c) induction
IV. State whether True or False . If false, correct the statement.

w.
1.A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. Ans : True
2. Magnetic field lines always repel each other and do not intersect. Ans : True
3. Fleming's Left hand rule is also known as Dynamo rule. Ans : False
Correct statement : Fleming's Right hand rule is also known as Dynamo rule.
ww
4. The speed of rotation of an electric motor can be increased by decreasing the area of
the coil. Ans : False
Correction statement : The speed of rotation of an electric motor can be increased by
increasing the area of the coil.
V. Answer in brief :
1. State Fleming's Left Hand Rule.
Ans : The law states that while stretching the three fingers of left hand in perpendicular
manner with each other, if the direction of the current is denoted by the middle finger of
the left hand and the second finger is for direction of the magnetic field, then the thumb of
the left hand denotes the direction of the force or movement of the conductor .

26 UNIT - 5
2. Define magnetic flux density.

Ans :
¬ The number of magnetic field lines crossing unit area kept normal to the direction of
field lines is called magnetic flux density.
2
¬ Its units is Wb/m
3. List the main parts of an electric motor.

Ans : (i) Permanent magnet
(ii) Carbon Brush
(iii) Commutator
et
(iv) Coil
4. Draw and label the diagram of an AC generator.
i.N
Ans : AC generator
ABCD - Coil (armature)

NS - Permanent magnet
la
S 1, S 2 - Slip rings
B 1, B 2 - Carbon brushes
sa
da
5. State the advantages of ac over dc.
Ans :
¬ The voltage of AC can be varied easily using a device called transformer.
¬ The AC can be carried over long distances using step up transformers.
Pa
¬ The loss of energy while distributing current in the form of AC is negligible.

¬ DC cannot be transmitted as such.
¬ The AC can be easily converted into DC
¬ Generating Ac is easier than DC
¬ The AC can produce electromagnetic induction which is useful in several ways.
w.
8. State Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction.

Ans :
¬ Whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit an emf is
produced and the amount of emf induced varies directly as the rate at which the flux
ww
changes.
¬ This emf is known as induced emf and the phenomenon of producing an induced emf
due to change in the magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit is known as
electromagnetic induction.

27 UNIT - 5
VI. Answer in detail.

1. Explain the principle, construction and working of a dc motor.
Ans :
Electric Motor : An electric motor is a device which converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy.
Principle : When electric current is passed through a conductor placed normally in a
magnetic field, a force is acting on the conductor
and this force makes the conductor to move.
Construction :
¬ A simple coil is placed inside two poles of a
et
magnet.
¬ An electric motor consists of a rectangular
coil ABCD of insulated copper wire.
i.N
¬ The coil is placed between the two poles of a
magnetic field such that the arm AB and CD are
perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic
field. Principle of electric motor
¬ The ends of the coil are connected to the two halves of the split rings.
la
¬ The external connectings edges of the split rings touch two conducting stationary
brushes X and Y.
¬ Current in the coil ABCD enters from the source through conducting brush X and
flows back to the battery through brush Y.
sa
Working
Working::
¬ Now look at the current carrying conductor segment AB.
¬ The direction of the current is towards B, whereas in the conductor segment CD the
direction is opposite.
da
¬ As the current is flowing in opposite directions in the segments AB and CD, the
direction of the motion of the segments would be in opposite directions according to
Fleming's left hand rule.
¬ When two ends of the coil experience force in opposite direction, they rotate.
¬ If the current flow is along the line ABCD, then the coil will rotate in clockwise direction
Pa
first and then in anticlockwise direction.

¬ If we want to make the coil rotate in any one direction, say clockwise, then the
direction of the current should be along ABCD in the first half of the rotation and along
DCBA in the second half of the rotation.
¬ To change the direction of the current, a small device called split ring commutator is
w.
used.
¬ When the gap in the split ring commutator is aligned with terminals X and Y, there is no
flow of current in the coil.
¬ But, as the coil is moving, it continues to move forward bringing one of the split ring
ww
commutator in contact with the carbon brushes X and Y.

¬ The reversing of the current is repeated at each half rotation, giving rise to a
continuous rotation of the coil.
3. Draw a neat diagram of an AC generator and explain its working.

Ans :
Construction :
¬ An alternating current (AC) generator, as shown in Figure, consists of a rotating
rectangular coil ABCD called armature placed between the two poles of a permanent
magnet.

28 UNIT - 5
¬ The two ends of this coil are connected to two

slip rings S1 and S2.
¬ The inner sides of these rings are insulated.
¬ Two conducting stationary brushes B 1 and B 2
are kept separately on the rings S 1 and S 2
respectively.
¬ The two rings S 1 and S 2 are internally
attached to an axle.
AC generator
¬ The axle may be mechanically rotated from
outside to rotate the coil inside the magnetic field.
et
¬ Outer ends of the two brushes are connected to the external circuit.
Working :
¬ When the coil is working rotated, the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes.
i.N
¬ This change in magnetic flux will lead to generation of induced current.
¬ The direction of the induced current, as given by Fleming's Right Hand Rule, is along
ABCD in the coil and in the outer circuit it flows from B 2 to B 1.
¬ During the second half of rotation, the direction of current is along DCBA in the coil
and in the outer circuit it flows from B 1 to B 2.
la
¬ As the rotation of the coil continues, the induced current in the external circuit is
changing its direction for every half a rotation of the coil.
sa Additional Questions and Answers
1. The formula for magnetic force is...........
(a) F=ILB (b) F = IL (c) F =LB (d) F = NB
Ans Ans : (a) F=ILB
da
2. Electromagnetism is discovered by ..........
(a) ampere (b) farad (c) newton (d) oersted
Ans : (d) oersted
Pa

1. The strongest natural magnet is ............... Ans : Iodestone magnetite
2. The magnetic field lines start at ...............pole and ends at ............pole.
Ans : north, south
w.

1. What is the magnetic effect of current?
Ans : When current passes through a wire a magnetic field is set up around the wire.
This effect of current is called magnetic effect of current.
ww
2. Define Magnetic field.

Ans : The space surrounding a bar magnet in which its influence in the form of magnetic
force can be detected, is called magnetic field.
3. What do you mean by magnetic field lines?

Ans : The path along which a free magnetic north pole will move in a magnetic field is
called magnetic field lines.

29 UNIT - 6
UNIT - 6. Light
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. A ray of light passes from one medium to another medium, Refraction takes place
when angle of incidence is
et
a) 0° b) 45° c) 90° Ans : c) 90°
3. We can create enlarged, virtual images with
a) concave mirror b) plane mirror c) convex mirror
i.N
Ans : a) concave mirror
5. When a beam of white light passes through a prism it gets.
a) Reflected b) only deviated c) deviated and dispersed
Ans : c) deviated and dispersed
6. The speed of light is maximum in
la
a) vacuum b) glass c) diamond Ans : a) vacuum
II. State Whether True or False . If false correct the statement.

sa
1. The angle of deviation depends on the refractive index of the glass.
Ans : False. The angle of deviation depends on the velocity of light in the glass.
2. If a ray of light passes obliquely from one medium to another, it does not suffer
any deviation.
of light passes obliquely
Ansfrom one: Ifmedium
: False light passes obliquely from one medium to another it suffers
a ray ofto
da
deviation.
3. The convex mirror always produces a virtual, diminished and erect image of the
object.
Ans : True
Pa
4. When an object is at the centre of curvature of concave mirror the image formed
will be virtual and erect.
Ans : False : When an object is at the centre of curvature of concave mirror the image
formed will be Real and Inverted.
w.
III. Fill in the blanks

1. In going from a rarer to denser medium, the ray of light bends _______
Ans : towards the normal
3. The angle of deviation of light ray in a prism depends on the angle of _____
ww
Ans : incidence
4. The radius of curvature of a concave mirror whose focal length is 5cm is _____
Ans : 10cm
IV. Match the following

1. Ratio of height of image to height of object. C. Magnification
3. Coin inside water appearing slightly raised E. Refraction
Ans :
1. Ratio of height of image to height of object. C. Magnification
3. Coin inside water appearing slightly raised E. Refraction

30 UNIT - 6
V. Assertion & Reason type Questions.

Mark the correct choice as:
2. Assertion: Incident ray is directed towards the centre of curvature of spherical
mirror. After reflection it retraces its path.
Reason: Angle of incidence (i) = Angle of reflection ( r) = 0 ° .
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation.
b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation.
Ans : (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
et
explanation
VI. Answer very briefly.
i.N
1. According to cartesion sign convention, which mirror and which lens has
negative focal length?
Ans : Concave mirror and concave lens
2. Name the mirror(s) that can give (i) an erect and enlarged image, (ii) same sized,
la
inverted image
Ans : i) concave mirror, ii) concave mirror
sa
3. If an object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, where is the image formed?
Ans : Image is formed at infinity.
4. Why does a ray of light bend when it travels from one medium to another?
Ans : Dueferent
to themedium.
change in the velocity of light in the dif
different medium.
da
5. What is speed of light in vacuum?
8 -1
Ans : Speed of light in vacuum = 3 x 10 ms
Pa

1. a) Complete the diagram to show how a concave mirror forms the image of the
object.
b) What is the nature of the image?
Ans : a) When the object is in between the centre of curvature C and principal focus F
w.
Position of image : The image is beyond C

M
M
ww
O A
I' P
O
C F C O' F
B
I
M'
M'
b) Nature of image : It is real inverted and magnified

31 UNIT - 6
3. State the direction of incident ray which after reflection from a spherical mirror
retraces its path. Give reason for your answer.
Ans :
The incident ray is directed towards the centre of curvature
Reason : A ray passing through the centre of curvature (c) is reflected back along its own
path. So, Ð
Ðii = 0 , \ Ð r = 0
4. What is meant by magnification? Write its expression. What is its sign for real
image and virtual image ?
Ans :
et
Magnification : The ratio of the height of the image( hi ) to the height of the object(ho ) is
called magnification.
i.N
hi v
m= ¾ =- ¾
ho u
m - magnification, hi - height of the image, ho - height of the object,

v - image distance, u - object distance
la
real image = negative sign (-)
virtual image = positive sign (+)
sa
5. Write the spherical mirror formula and explain the meaning of each symbol used in it.
Ans : Spherical mirror formula
1 1 1
f = u + v
da
f - focal length
u - distance of the object
v - distance of the image
Pa
VIII. Answer in detail .

1. a) Draw ray diagrams to show how the image is formed using a concave mirror, when
the position of object is : i) at C ii) between C and F iii) between F and P of the mirror.
b) Mention the position and nature of image in each case.
i) at C
w.
ii) between C and F

iii) between F and P of the mirror.
Ans :
Object placed Ray diagrams Position of Nature of
location Image Image
ww
i) at C O A
At C Real and same size
o'
P
C I' F
I B
M'

32 UNIT - 6
O A
ii) between I' P Beyond C Real inverted

C O' F
C and F and magnified
B
I
M'
et
I
A
iii) between Behind the virtual, erect and
F and P of the C O' mirror magnified
i.N
mirror.
2. Explain with diagrams how refraction of incident light takes place from
la
a) rarer to denser medium b) denser to rarer medium c) normal to the surface
separating the two media.
Ans : Refraction of Light : The bending of light rays when they pass obliquely from one
sa
medium to another medium is called refraction.
a) Refraction of light from rarer to denser medium.
Ans : When a ray of light travels from optically rarer medium to optically denser medium, it
Incident bends towards the normal. Incident
da
ray I Angle of
Air deviation
Water
r
Pa
Refracted ray
Light ray travelling from rarer to denser medium.
b) Denser to rarer medium.

w.
Ans : When a ray of light travels from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer
medium it bends away from the normal.
r
Air
ww
Water
i
Light ray travelling from denser to rarer medium.

33 UNIT - 6
c) Normal to the surface separating the two media.

Ans : A ray of light incident normally on a denser medium, goes without any deviation.
A
o
Air 90 o
Glass
B
Air
et
C
Incident of light ray in denser medium
i.N
IX. Numerical problems .
1. A concave mirror produces three times magnified real image of an object placed at 7
cm in front of it. Where is the image located? (Ans: 21 cm infront of the mirror)
Solution :
Object distance (u) = 7cm
la
magnification, (m) =3
Image distance (v) =?
sa -v
Magnification (m) = ¾
u
- v =3xu
-v = 3 x7 = 21cm
da
v = - 21cm
image is located is 21cm infront of the mirror.
2. Light enters from air into a glass plate having refractive index 1.5. What is the speed
8 -1
Pa
of light in glass? (Ans: 2 x 10 ms )

Solution : efractive index of glass mg = 1.5
rrefractive
8 -1
speed of light in vacuum c = 3x 10 ms
speed of light in glass v =?
c
w.
m = v
c
v=
m
8
3 x 10
ww
= v = 2 x 108 ms-1
1.5
8 -1
Speed of light in glass v = 2 x 10 ms
8 -1
3. The speed of light in water is 2.25 x 10 ms .If the speed of light in vacuum is
8 -1
3 x 10 ms , calculate the refractive index of water. (Ans:1.33)
Solution :
8 -1
speed of light in water, v = 2.25 x 10 ms
8 -1
speed of light in vacuum c = 3 x 10 ms
9 Sci - 3

34 UNIT - 6
refractive index of water, m = ?

speed of light in vacuum
refractive index of water = speed of light in water
c
m = v
8
3 x 10
= 8
2.25 x 10
m = 1.33 (no unit)
et
X. Higher Order Thinking Skills :
1. Light ray emerges from water into air. Draw a ray diagram indicating the change in
i.N
its path in water.
Ans : When a ray of light travels from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer
medium it bends away from the normal.
Air r
la
Water i
Light ray travelling
sa from denser to
rarer medium
asses from air into2. Whenisathe

glass, rayangle of prefraction greater than
of light
da
or less than the angle of incidence?
Ans :
¬ When a ray of light passes from air into glass, the angle of refraction is lesser than angle of
incidence.
Pa
¬ Hence, the angle of refraction is less than the angle of incidence.
3. What do you conclude about the speed of light in diamond. If the

refractive index of diamond is 2.41?
Solution :
w.
The refractive index of diamond = 2.41

8 -1
Speed of light is air c = 3 x 10 ms
Speed of light in diamond, v = ?
ww
c
m = v
c
v =
m
8
3 x 10
= 2.41
8 -1
The speed of light in diamond v = 1.24 x 10 ms
The speed of light is diamond is lesser than the speed of light in air (v<c)

35 UNIT - 6
Additional questions & answers

1. The mirror used in astronomical telescopes.
a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror
c) Concave mirror d) Curved mirror Ans : c) Concave mirror

1._________is a form of energy which travels as electromagnetic waves. Ans : Light
et
2. The formula for magnification is ________ Ans : hi
m=
ho
i.N
III. Answer briefly.
1. Define reflection of Laws.
Ans : The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the
same plane. Th e angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
la
2. Define mirror equation.
Ans : The expression relating the distance of the object (u), distance of the image (v) and
the focal length (f) of a spherical mirror is called the mirror equation. It is given as:
1 sa 1 1
¾ = ¾ + ¾
f u v
3. Define the laws of refraction of light.

da
Ans : The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent
media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is a
constant for a light of given colour and for the given pair of media.
Pa
4. Define Light.
Ans : Light is a form of energy which travels as electromagnetic waves.
5. What is a concave mirror.

w.
Ans : Concave Mirror : Part of a hollow sphere whose outer part is slivered and / or
inner part is the reflecting surface.
6. What is a convex mirror.

ww
Ans : Convex Mirror : Part of a hollow sphere whose inner part is slivered and / or outer
part is the reflecting surface.

36 UNIT - 7
UNIT - 7. Heat
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1.Calorie is the unit of
a) heat b) work c) temperature d) food Ans : a) heat
3. Two cylindrical rods of same length have the area of cross section in the ratio
2:1. If both the rods are made up of same material, which of them conduct heat
et
faster?
a) Both rods b) Rod-2 c) Rod-1 d) None of them Ans : b) Rod - 2
4.In which mode of transfer of heat, molecules pass on heat energy to
i.N
neighbouring molecules without actually moving from their positions?
a) Radiation b) Conduction c) Convection d) Both B and C
Ans : b) Conduction
5.A device in which the loss of heat due to conduction, convection and radiation is
minimized is
la
a) solar cell b) solar cooker c) thermometer d) thermos flask
Ans : d) thermos flask
sa
1. The fastest mode of heat transfer is ............ Ans : radiation
2. During day time, air blows from ............ to . .................... Ans :Sea to land
3. Liquids and gases are generally .................. conductors of heat. Ans : convection
da
III. Assertion and Reason type questions.
Mark the correct choice as:
1. Assertion: Food can be cooked faster in vessels with copper bottom.
Reason: Copper is the best conductor of heat.
Pa
a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c. If assertion is true but reason is false.
w.
d. If assertion is false but reason is true.

Ans : a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Assertion:: Maximum sunlight reaches earth's surface during the noon time.
2. Assertion
Reason : Heat from the sun reaches earth's surface by radiation.
ww
assertion.
assertion.
Ans : b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct

37 UNIT - 7
3. Assertion When water is heated up to 100 oC, there is no raise in temperature until all
water gets converted into water vapour.
Reason: Boiling point of water is 10 oC.
assertion.
assertion.
Ans : b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
et
IV. Answer briefly.

1. Define conduction
i.N
Ans :
The process of transfer of heat in solids from a region of higher temperature to a
region of lower temperature without the actual movement of molecules is called
conduction.
la
2. Ice is kept in a double-walled container. Why?
Ans : Ice is kept in a double-walled container because there is a vacuum present in
between the space. So, the heat cannot pass inside and the space absorbs it.
sa
3. How does the water kept in an earthen pot remain cool?
Ans : In an earthen pot, water gets evaporated quickly through the pores. Cooling is
caused by evaporation.
da
4. Differentiate Convection and Radiation.
Ans :
S.No. Convection Radiation
Pa
1. Convection is the flow of heat through Radiation is the flow of heat from one
a fluid from places of higher temperature place to another by means of
to places of lower temperature by electromagnetic waves.
movement of the fluid itself.
2. It cannot occur in vacuum It cannot even in vacuum
w.
3. It need matter to be present It does not require matter or particles
5. Why do people prefer wearing white clothes during summer?

ww
Ans :
¬ White clothes are good reflectors of heat.
¬ It does not allow heat
¬ They keep us cool during summer

38 UNIT - 7
V. Answer in detail.
1. Explain convection in daily life.
Ans : Convection :Convection is the flow of heat through a fluid from places of higher
temperature to places of lower temperature by movement of the fluid itself.
Convection in daily life
Hot air balloons :
Air molecules at the bottom of the balloon get heated by a heat source and rise. As
the warm air rises, cold air is pushed downward and it is also heated. When the hot air is
trapped inside the balloon, it rises.
Breezes :
et
During day time, the air in contact with the land becomes hot and rises. Now the cool
air over the surface of the sea replaces it. It is called sea breeze. During night time, air
above the sea is warmer. As the warmer air over the surface of the sea rises, cooler air
above the land moves towards the sea. It is called land breeze.
i.N
Winds :
Air flows from area of high pressure to area of low pressure. The warm air molecules
over hot surface rise and create low pressure. So, cooler air with high pressure flows
towards low pressure area. This causes wind flow.
Chimneys :
la
Tall chimneys are kept in kitchen and industrial furnaces. As the hot gases and
smoke are lighter, they rise up in the atmosphere.
sa
2. What are the changes of state in water? Explain.
State::
Ans : Change of State
The process of changing of a substance from one physical state to another at a
as change of state temperature is defined as change of state
definite
da
Changes of state in water:
Water molecules are in liquid state at normal temperature
Evaporation :
0
When water is heated to 100 c, it becomes steam which is a gaseous state of matter.
This process is called evaporation.
Pa
Condensation :
On reducing the temperature of the steam it becomes water again. This is called
condensation.
Freezing :
0
If we reduce the temperature of further to 0 c, it becomes ice which is a solid state of
w.
water
Melting :
Ice on heating, becomes water again. Thus, water changes its state when there is a
change in temperature
ww
3. How can you experimentally prove water is a

bad conductor of heat? How is it possible to heat
water easily while cooking?
Experiment to prove that water is a bad
conductor of heat :
Ans :
a) ¬ Take a hard glass test tube and drop in it a
tiny cube of ice, wrapped in wire gauze. Fill 3/4 of
the test tube with ice cold water and then set up the
apparatus as shown in the diagram. Heat the test
tube near its mouth.

39 UNIT - 7
¬ The water soon begins to boil at the top but the ice below has still not fully melted.
¬ This experiment shows that water is poor conductor of heat.
b) Copper is used for heating water quickly while cooking.
VI. Numerical Problems:

1. What is the heat in joules required to raise the temperature of 25 grams of water
from 0ºC to 100ºC? What is the heat in Calories? (Ans : 10450 J)
(Specific heat of water = 4.18 J/gºC)
Solution : Mass of water (m) = 25 grams
D T) = 100 oC - 0 oC
Change in temperature ((DT)
o
=100 C
et
o
Specific heat capacity of water (c) = 4.18 J/g c
Heat (Q)= mc D T; = 25X4.18X100= 10450J
mcDT;
i.N
2. What could be the final temperature of a mixture of 100 g of water at 90ºC and
o
600g of water at 20ºC. (Ans : 30 C)
Solution :
After mixing the water the total 700g will an equilibrium temperature T
o o
The water at 90 c will lose an amount of heat (Q) = Cx100X (90 C - T)
la
o
This same amount of heat will be absorbed by the water at 20 c to raise its
temperature
o
(Q) = CX600 (T-20 C)
sa Heat lost
o
CX100((90 C-T) =
= Heat gained
CX600 (T-20 C)
600
o
o o
90 C-T = (T-20 C)
100
da
o o
90 C-T = 6 ( T-20 C ) 90 oC-T = 6 ( T-20 oC )
o o
90 C-T = 6T-120 C
o o
90 C+120 C = 6T+T
o
210 C = 7T
o
210 C
Pa
o
7T = = 30 C
7
o
T = 30 C
3. How much heat energy is required to change 2 kg of ice at 0ºC into water at 20ºC?
w.
(Specific latent heat of fusion of water = 3,34,000J/kg, Specific heat capacity of

-1 -1
water = 4200JKg K ). (Ans : 836000 J)
o
Solution: Mass of ice at 0 c = 2 kg
Specific latent heat of fusion of water (L) = 334000J/kg
ww
o
Mass of water at 20 c(M) = 2 kg
-1 -1
Specific heat capacity of water (C) = 4200JKg K
o o o
Change in temperature ((DT)D T) = 20 C - 0 C = 20 C
Heat energy (Q) = mL + MC MCDTDT
= (2X334000)+(2x4200x20)
= 668000+168000
Q = 836000J

40 UNIT - 7

1. When heat energy is added to a substance the kinetic energy of its particles
..........
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Do not change (d) None of them
Ans :(a) Increases
2. ........... are good conductors of heat
(a)Metals (b) Non-metals (c) Metalloids (d) Both a and b
et
Ans : (a) metals
3. Transfer of heat energy from the sun reaches us in the form of...........
(a)Conduction (b) Convection (c) Radiation (d) Sublimation
Ans : (c) Radiation
i.N
4. ........... surface absorbs more heat
(a)White (b) Black (c) Green (d) Blue
Ans : (b) Black
5. Melting point of water is ...........
o o o o o
(a) 10 c (b) 0 c (c) 150 c (d) 180 c Ans :(b) 0 c
la
6. Condensation of water is...........
o o o o o
(a)0 c (b) 100 c (c) 150 c (d) 180 c Ans :(b) 100 c
7 The process in which a solid is converted to gaseous state is called ...........
sa
(a)Freezing (b) Condensation (c) Sublimation (d) Vaporization
Ans : (c) Sublimation
II. Short questions.

da
1. How does heat transfer?
Ans :
Heat transfer takes place in three ways
1. Conduction
2. Convection
Pa
3. Radiation
2. Define Sublimation.
Ans :
The process in which a solid is converted to gaseous state is called sublimation.
w.
(Ex.) Dry ice, Iodine.

ww

41 UNIT - 8
UNIT - 8. Sound
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Which of the following vibrates when a musical note is produced by the cymbals
in a orchestra?
a) stretched strings b) stretched membranes
c) air columns d) metal plates Ans : d) metal plates
et
2. Sound travels in air:
a) if there is no moisture in the atmosphere.
b) if particles of medium travel from one place to another.
i.N
c) if both particles as well as disturbance move from one place to another.
d) if disturbance moves. Ans : d) if disturbance moves
3. A musical instrument is producing continuous note. This note cannot be heard
by a person having a normal hearing range. This note must then be passing
through
la
a) wax b) vacuum
c) water d) empty vessel Ans : b) vacuum
4. The maximum speed of vibrations which produces audible sound will be in
sa
a) sea water b) ground glass
c) dry air d) human blood Ans : b) ground glass
5. The sound waves travel faster
a) in liquids b) in gases
c)vacuum
d) in in solids Ans d) in vacuum Ans : c) in solids
da
II. Fill in the blanks :
2. Number of vibrations produced in one second is ___________. Ans : frequency
3. The velocity of sound in solid is __________than the velocity of sound in air.
Pa
Ans : greater
4. Vibration of object produces ________. Ans : sound
III. Match the following :

1. Tuning fork a) The point where density of air is maximum
w.
2. Sound b) Maximum displacement from the equilibrium position

3. Compressions c) The sound whose frequency is greater than 20,000 Hz
4. Amplitude d) Longitudinal wave
ww
5. Ultrasonics e) Production of sound

Ans :
1. Tuning fork e) Production of sound
2. Sound d) Longitudinal wave
3. Compressions a) The point where density of air is maximum
4. Amplitude b) Maximum displacement from the equilibrium position
5. Ultrasonics c) The sound whose frequency is greater than 20,000 Hz

42 UNIT - 8
IV. Answer briefly :

1. Through which medium sound travels faster, iron or water? Give reason.
Ans :
¬ Sound travels faster through iron.
Reason :
¬ Sounds travels faster in solids than in liquids.
¬ In any medium the speed of sound increases if we increase the temperature of the
medium.
2. Name the physical quantity whose SI unit is 'hertz'. Define.
et
Ans : Frequency :
¬ The number of vibrations produced in one second is called frequency of the wave. It
is denoted as ‘n’.
i.N
-1
¬ The SI unit of frequency is s (or) hertz (Hz).
3. What is meant by supersonic speed?

Ans :
-1
¬ When the speed of any object exceeds the speed of sound in air (330 m s ) it is said to
la
be travelling at supersonic speed.
5. You and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound
Ans :
sa
produced by your friend?
¬ No, I will not be able to hear any sound produced by my friend.

¬ Sound needs a medium for its propagation.
atmosphere. ¬ In the moon there is no atmosphere.
da
¬ So sound cannot travel.
3. List the applications of sound.
Pa
Ans :
Applications of ultrasonic waves :
H Ultrasounds can be used in cleaning technology.
H Minute foreign particles can be removed from objects placed in a liquid bath through
which ultrasound is passed.
w.
H Ultrasounds can also be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks
H Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various parts of the heart and form the image
of the heart.
H This technique is called 'echo cardiography'.
H Ultrasound may be employed to break small 'stones' formed in the kidney into fine
ww
grains.
H These grains later get flushed out with urine.
VI. Numerical problems.

1. The frequency of a source of sound is 600 Hz. Calculate the number of times it
vibrates in a minute?
Solution : The frequency of sound 100 hertz means that the source of sound vibrates
100 times in 1 second.
The frequency of sound is 600 Hz means the source of sound vibrates 600 times in a
second.

43 UNIT - 8
1 min = 60 sec
In one second no of vibrations = 600
In 60 Seconds ( 1 minute ) No. of vibrations = 600 x 60 = 36000
~ Hence it vibrates 36000 times in a minute
2. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 750 m high into a pond of water at the
base of the tower. Calculate the number of seconds for the splash to be heard?
-2 -1
(Given g = 10 m s and speed of sound = 340 m s )
Solution : Distance travelled by a stone s = 750m
-2
g = 10ms
et
Initial velocity of stone = u = 0
-1
Speed of sound = 340 ms
equation of the dynamics of stone
i.N
2
s = ut+ ½ gt ((~ ~ a=g)
1 5 2
750 = 0+ x10x t
2
2 1
750 = 5t
2
la
t = 150
t = 12.25 sec
distance to travel 750
Time for sound to reach the top =
sa =
speed of sound 340
t = 2.2 sec
Total time = 12.25+2.2
da
T = 14.45 s T = 14.45 s

1. The speed of Sound is .............. in gaseous medium compared to solid medium
Pa
(a) greater (b) more less than

(c) less (d) equal Ans :(b) more less than

1. Sounds are produced by ............. . of substances. Ans : vibrations
w.
2. Sound needs ............. to propagate. Ans : medium

3. Sound travels about ........... faster in water than in air. Ans : 5 times
4. The speed of sound increases if we ........... the temperature of the medium.
Ans : increase
ww
-1
5. The speed of sound in sea water is ........... Ans : 1531 ms
-1
6. The speed of sound in air is ........... Ans : 340 ms

1. What are the characteristics of a sound wave?
Ans :
H Amplitude
H Frequency
H Time period
H Wave length
H Velocity or speed

44 UNIT - 8
2. Define Amplitude.
Ans : Amplitude (A) :
H The maximum displacement of the particles of the medium from their original
undisturbed positions, when a wave passes through the medium is called amplitude of
the wave.
H Its SI unit is meter (m).
3. Define speed of sound.

Ans : The speed of sound is defined as the distance travelled by a sound wave per unit
time as it propagates through an elastic medium.
et
Distance
Speed (v) = ¾¾¾¾¾
Time
i.N
4. Explain why the flash of lightning reaches us first and the sound of thunder is
heard little later.
Ans : Sound travels with a speed which is much less than the speed of light. So the sound
of thunder is heard a little later than the flash of light is seen.
la
5. What are 'Infrasonics' and 'Ultrasonics' ?
Ans : Sound waves with frequencies below audible range are termed as 'Infrasonics'
and those above audible range are termed as 'Ultrasonics'.
sa
IV. Answer in detail :
1. Explain the applications of ultrasonic waves.
Ans : Applications of ultrasonic waves :
da
Ultra sound
used in cleaning Htechnology. can foreign
Minute be used in cleaning technology. Minute foreign particles can be
removed from objects placed in a liquid bath through which ultrasound is passed.
H Ultrasounds can also be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks.
H Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various parts of the heart and form the
image of the heart. This technique is called 'echo cardiography'.
Pa
H Ultrasound may be employed to break small 'stones' formed in the kidney into fine
grains. These grains later get flushed out with urine.
w.
ww

45 UNIT - 9
UNIT - 9. Universe
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Who proposed the heliocentric model of the universe?
(a) Tycho Brahe (b) Nicolaus Copernicus
(c) Ptolemy (d) Archimedes
Ans : (b) Nicolaus Copernicus
et
4. The third law of Kepler is also known as the Law of ________. Ans : Harmonies
i.N
III. State whether True or false. If false, correct the statement.
1. ISS is a proof for international cooperation. Ans : True
IV. Answer briefly.
la
7. State Kepler's laws.
Ans :
First Law - The Law of Ellipses:
sa
All planets revolve around the Sun in elliptical orbits with Sun at one of their foci.
Second Law - The Law of Equal Areas :
The line connecting the planet and the Sun covers equal areas in equal intervals of
time.
Harmonies : Third Law - The Law of Harmonies :
da
The square of time period of revolution of a planet around the Sun is directly
proportional to the cube of the distance between sun and the planets.
V. Answer in Detail.
2. Discuss the benefits of ISS.
Pa
Ans : Supporting water-purification efforts :

H Using the technology developed for the ISS, areas having water scarcity can gain
access to advanced water filtration and purification systems.
H The water recovery system (WRS) and the oxygen generation system (OGS)
developed for the ISS have already saved a village in Iraq from being deserted due to
w.
lack of clean water.

Eye tracking technology :
H The Eye Tracking Device, built for a microgravity experiment, has proved ideal to be
used in many laser surgeries.
ww
H Also, eye tracking technology is helping disabled people with limited movement and
speech.
H For example, a kid who has severe disability in body movements can use his eye-
movements alone and do routine tasks and lead an independent life.
Robotic arms and surgeries :
H Robotic arms developed for research in the ISS are providing significant help to the
surgeons in removing inoperable tumours (e.g., brain tumours) and taking biopsies with
great accuracies.
H Its inventors say that the robot could take biopsies with remarkable precision and
consistency.

46 UNIT - 9

1. Who proposed geocentric model ?
(a) Ptolemy (b) Aryabhatta (c) Nicholaus (d) Ampere Ans : (a) Ptolemy
2. ............. proposed three laws of Planetary motion
(a) Ptolemy (b) Aryabhatta (c) Kepler (d) Nicolaus
Ans :(c) Kepler
et
1. ............. . is a large space craft which can house astronauts.
Ans : International Space Station (ISS)
2. The first human crew went to the ISS in the year .............. Ans : 2000
i.N
3. The name ISS in America is............ Ans : NASA
4. The basic for Kepler laws is .............. Ans : Sun-cetered Solar System
III. Match the following.

1. a) Kepler's first law - Robotic arms
la
b) Kepler's second law - Law of Harmonies
c) Kepler's third law
sa - Law of ellipses
d) Biopsy - Law of Equal areas
Ans :
1. a) Kepler's first law - Law of ellipses
law - Law of Equal areas second law
b) Kepler's - Law of Equal areas
da
c) Kepler's third law - Law of Harmonies
d) Biopsy - Robotic arms
IV. Short questions :

Pa
1. What is International Space Station?

Ans :
A large, manned satellite in space used as a base for space exploration.
2. What is the purpose of ISS ?

w.
Ans :
The purpose of ISS is to provide an international lab for conducting experiments in
space.
ww

47 UNIT -10
CHEMISTRY
UNIT - 10. Matter Around Us
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

et
2. Among the following ______ is a mixture
a)Common Salt b) Juice c) Carbon dioxide d) Pure Silver Ans :b) Juice
3. When we mix a drop of ink in water we get a ______
a) Heterogeneous Mixture b) Compound
i.N
c) Homogeneous Mixture d) Suspension Ans : c) Homogeneous Mixture
5. _____has the same properties throughout the sample
a) Pure substance b) Mixture c) Colloid d) Suspension
Ans : a) Pure substance
la
II. State whether True or False. If false, correct the statement.
2. A compound cannot be broken into simpler substances chemically.
Ans : False. A compound can be broken into simpler substances chemically.
sa
4. Buttermilk is an example of heterogeneous mixture. Ans : True
5. Aspirin is composed of 60% Carbon, 4.5% Hydrogen and 35.5% Oxygen
by mass. Aspirin is a mixture.
is composed of 60% Carbon,
Ans 4.5%
: False. Aspirin
Hydrogen
is composed of 60% Carbon, 4.5% Hydrogen and 35.5%
da
is a compound. Oxygen by mass. Aspirin is a compound.
III. Match the following Ans :

Element Impure substance Element Made up of atoms
Pa
Compound Made up of molecules Compound Made up of molecules

Mixture Made up of atoms Mixture Impure substance
IV. Fill in the blanks

w.
1. A ______ mixture has no distinguishable boundary between its components

Ans : Homogeneous
V. Answer very briefly.

3. A few drops of 'Dettol' when added to water the mixture turns turbid. Why?
ww
Ans : The oil droplets of dettol get suspended in water and create an emulsion.
5. Name the components in each of the following mixtures.

i) Ice cream ii) Lemonade (iii) Air (iv) Soil
Ans :
i)Ice cream : sugar, milk, water
ii) Lemonade : lemon juice, sugar and water
iii) Air : hydrogen, oxygen, carbondioxide, water vapour and other gases.
iv) soil : sand, clay, various types of salts.

48 UNIT -10
VI. Answer briefly .

1. Which of the following are pure substances? Ice, Milk, Iron, Hydrochloric acid,
Mercury, Brick and Water.
Ans : Pure substances :
Iron, Hydrochloric acid and Mercury, Water
2. Oxygen is very essential for us to live. It forms 21% of air by volume. Is it an

element or compound?
Ans : Oxygen is an element.
et
3. You have just won a medal made of 22-carat gold. Have you just procured a
pure substance or impure substance?
Ans :
i.N
¬ 22 carat gold metal is made up of 91.6% gold and 8.4% other metals.
¬ So It is impure substance.
5. How are homogenous solutions different from heterogeneous solution?

Explain with examples.
la
Ans :
S.No. Homogenous Mixtures Heterogeneous Mixtures
1. A mixuture in which the components A mixture in which the components can
sa
cannot be seen separately is called a be seen separately is called a
homogenous mixture. heterogeneous mixture.
2. It has a uniform composition and every It does not have a uniform composition
has the same andpart of the mixture has the same
properties. and properties.
da
properties
3. Eg:Tap water, milk, air, ice cream, Eg:Soil a mixture of iodine and common
sugar syrup, ink, steel, bronze and salt, a mixture of sugar and sand,
salt solution a mixture of oil and water,
Pa
a mixture of sulphur and iron filings, and

a mixture of milk and cereals.

1. Write the differences between elements and compounds and give an example
w.
for each.
Ans :
S.No. Elements Compounds
ww
1. Made up only one kind of atom. Made up more than one kind of atom.
2. The smallest particle that retains all The smallest particle that retains all
its properties is the atom. its properties is the molecule.
3. Cannot be broken down into simpler Can be broken down into elements
substances. by chemical methods.
4. E.g: Copper, Oxygen, Hydrogen E.g. : Water, Sugar, Salt.

49 UNIT -11
UNIT - 11. Atomic Structure

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
1. Among the following the odd pair is
18 19 40 14 30 31 40 39
a) 8
O, 9
F b) 18
Ar , 7
N, c) 14
Si , 15
P, d) 20
Cr , 19
K
et
30 31
Ans : c) 14
Si , 15
P
2. Change in the number of neutrons in an atom changes it to
a) an ion b)an isotope c) an isobar d) another element
i.N
Ans : b) an isotope
3. The term nucleons refer to
a) Protons and electrons b) only Neutrons
c) electrons and neutrons d) Protons and neutrons
Ans : d) Protons and neutrons
la
80
4. The number of protons,neutrons and electrons present respectively in 35 Br are
a) 80,80,35 b)35,55,80 c) 35,35,80 d) 35,45,35
sa Ans : d) 35,45,35
5. The correct electronic configuration of potassium is
a) 2,8,9 b) 2,8,1 c) 2,8,8,1 d) 2,8,8,3 Ans : c) 2, 8, 8, 1
II. State whether True or false. If false, correct the statement.

orbits.revolve around the nucleus in fixed orbits. Ans : True
da
revolve around the
1. nucleus in fixed
In an atom, electrons
2. Isotopes of an element have different atomic numbers
Ans : False : Isotopes of an element have same atomic numbers.
3. Electrons have negligible mass and charge. Ans : True
4. Smaller the size of the orbit, lower is the energy of the orbit. Ans : True
Pa
5. The maximum number of electron in L Shell is 10.

Ans : False : The maximum number of electron in L shell is 8 8..
III. Fill in the Blanks:-

w.
1. Calcium and Argon are examples of a pair of ______ Ans : Isobars

2. Total Number of electrons that can be accommodated in an orbit is given by
2
______ Ans : 2n
3. ______ isotope is used in the nuclear reactors. Ans : Uranium - 235
ww
7
4. The number of neutrons present in 3
Li is ______ Ans : 4
5. The valency of Argon is ______ Ans : Zero
9 Sci - 4

50 UNIT -11
V. Complete the following table

Atomic Mass Number of Number of Number of Name
Number Number Neutrons Protons Electrons of the
Element
9 - 10 - - -
16 - 16 - - -
- 24 - - 12 Magnesium
- 2 - 1 - -
et
- 1 0 1 1 -
Ans :
i.N
Atomic Mass Number of Number of Number of Name of the
Number Number Neutrons Protons Electrons Element
9 19 10 9 9 Fluorine
la
16 32 16 16 16 Sulphur
12 24 12 12 12 Magnesium
1 2 sa 1 1 1 Hydrogen
(Deuterium)
1 1 0 1 1 Hydrogen
(Protium)
. VI. Answer very briefly

briefly.
da
1. Name an element which has the same number of electrons in its first and second
shell.
Ans : K L
9
Beryllium Be - 2, 2
Pa
2. Write the electronic configuration of K and Cl

Ans : K - 2, 8 , 8, 1 and C l - 2, 8 , 7
4. For an atom 'X', K, L and M shells are completely filled. How many electrons will
w.
be present in it?
Ans : 28 electrons (K - 2, L- 8, M - 18, = 2 + 8 + 18 = 28)
5. What is the same about the electron structures of

ww
a) Lithium, Sodium and Potassium

b) Beryllium, Magnesium and Calcium
Ans : a) Lithium, Sodium, Potassium atoms are having one electron in their valence
shell. So their valency is1
S.No. Elements Electron distribution Valency
1. Lithium 2, 1 1
2. Sodium 2, 8,1 1
3. Potassium 2, 8,8,1 1

51 UNIT -11
b) Beryllium, Magnesium, Calcium are having two electrons in their valence shell. So,
their valency is 2.
S.No. Elements Electron distribution Valency
1. Beryllium 2, 2 2
2. Magnesium 2, 8,2 2
3. Calcium 2, 8,8,2 2
et
35 37
2. Why do 17 Cl and 17
Cl have the same chemical properties? In what respect do
these atoms differ?
35 37
i.N
Ans : 17
Cl and 17
Cl have the same chemical properties of same atom number.
3. Draw the structure of oxygen and sulphur atoms.

Ans : i) oxygen - 8 ii) Sulphur - 16
la
sa 8p
8n
16p
16n
da
(2,6) (2, 8, 6)
Pa
4. Calculate the number of neutrons, protons and electrons

(i) atomic number 3 and mass number 7
(ii)atomic number 92 and mass number 238
Ans : (i) Atomic number = 3 Ans : (ii) Atomic number = 92
w.
Mass number = 7 Mass number = 238

Atomic number = Number of protons Atomic number = Number of protons
Number of Protons = 3 Number of Protons = 92
Number of electrons = 3 Number of electrons = 92
ww
Number of neutrons = 7-3 = 4 Number of neutrons =238-92 =146

\ Number of protons = number of electrons
Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons
Number of neutrons = Mass number of - Number of protons

52 UNIT -11
5. What are nucleons? How many nucleons are present in Phosphorous? Draw its
structure.
Ans : The protons and neutrons collectively found in the nucleus of an atom are called
nucleons
et
i.N
( 15 p + 16 n) = 31 nucleons are present in phosphorus
VIII. Answer in detail.

3. State the Gay Lussac's law of combining volumes, explain with an
la
illustration.
Gay Lussac's law of Combining volumes :
Ans : According
A ccording to Gay Lussac's Law, Whenever gases react together, the volumes of
sa
the reacting gases bear a simple ratio, and the ratio is extended to the product when the
product is also in gaseous state, provided all the volumes are measured under similar
conditions of temperature and pressure.
mple.
This law may be illustrated by the following exa
example.
da
It has
ally observed that one been of
volume experiment
hydrogen react
experimentally observed that one volume of hydrogen reactss with one
volume of chlorine to form two volume of hydrogen chloride.
The ratio of volume which gases bears is 1 : 1 : 2 which is a simple whole number
ratio.
Pa
w.
1 volume of 1 volume of 2 volume of

hydrogen chlorine hydrogen chloride
ww
Additional questions & Answers

I. Fill in the Blanks:
1. Protons and Neutrons are collectively called as _______ Ans : Nucleons
2. Number of Neutrons in sodium Atom is _______ Ans : 12
31
3. Symbolic representation of phosphorus is _______ Ans : 15 P
4. Examples for radio active isotopes _______ Ans : Uranium
Uranium-- 235, Cobalt -60

53 UNIT -11

1. Define - Valency
Ans : Valency of an element is the combining capacity of the element with other
elements and is equal to the number of electrons that take part in a chemical reaction.
2. Define - Isotopes
Ans : Isotopes are defined as the atoms of the same element, which have same atomic
number but different mass numbers.
3. State reciprocal proportions Law.
et
Ans : It states that, "If two different elements combine separately with the same weight
of a third element, the ratios of the masses in which they do so are either the same or a
simple multiple of the mass ratio in which they combine."
i.N
4. State multiple proportions Law.
Ans : It states that, "When two elements A and B combine together to form more than
one compound, then masses of A which separately combines with a fixed mass of B are
in simple ratio".
la
5. Define - isotones.
Ans : Atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers and different mass
sa
numbers, but with same number of neutrons are called isotones
da
Pa
w.
ww

54 UNIT -12
UNIT - 12. Periodic Classification of Elements

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. If Dobereiner is related with 'law of triads', then Newlands is related with
a) Modern periodic law b) Hund's rule
et
c) law of octaves d) Pauli's Exclusion principle
Ans :c) law of octaves
i.N
1. In Dobereiner's triads, the atomic weight of the middle element is the .............. of the
atomic masses of 1st and 3rd elements. Ans : average
3. The basis of the classifications proposed by Dobereiner, Newlands and Mendeleev
was ............ Ans : atomic mass
4. Example for liquid metal is ................. Ans : Mercury
la
III. Match the following
1. Triads
sa
2. Alkali metal
3. Law of octaves
a)
b)
d)
Newlands
Calcium
Sodium
4. Alkaline earth metal e) Dobereiner
Ans :
da
1. Triads e) Dobereiner
2. Alkali metal d) Sodium
3. Law of octaves a) Newlands
4. Alkaline earth metal b Calcium
Pa
IV. State whether true or false . If false, correct the statement.

1.Newlands' periodic table is based on atomic masses of elements and modern periodic
table is based on atomic number of elements Ans : True
2. Metals can gain electrons Ans : False
w.
Correct statement : Metals lose the electrons

3. Alloys bear the characteristics of both metals and nonmetals Ans : False
Correct statement : Metalloids bear the characteristics of both metals and
nonmetals
ww
V. Assertion and Reason type Questions.

Statement: Elements in a group generally possess similar properties but elements
along a period have different properties.
Reason: The difference in electronic configuration makes the element differ in their
chemical properties along a period.
a) Statement is true and reason explains the statement.
b) Statement is false but the reason is correct.
Ans : a) Statement is true and reason explains the statement.

55 UNIT -12
VI. Answer the following :

3. What are the limitations of Mendeleev's periodic table?
Ans : Limitations :
(i) Elements with large difference in properties were included in the same group.
¬ Eg: Hard metals like copper (Cu) and silver (Ag) were included along with soft metals
like sodium (Na) and potassium (K).
(ii) No proper position could be given to the element hydrogen.
¬ Eg: Non-metallic hydrogen was placed along with metals like lithium (Li), sodium
(Na) and potassium (K).
(iii) The increasing order of atomic mass was not strictly followed throughout.
¬ Eg. Co & Ni, Te & I
et
(iv) No place for isotopes in the periodic table .
i.N
Additional Questions :
1. Number of elements have been discovered is .........
(a) 112 (b) 116 (c) 110 (d) 118 Ans : (d) 118
2. Who proposed the law of periodicity?
la
(a) Dobereiner (b) Newland (c) Mendeleev (d) Moseley
Ans :(c) Mendeleev
3. Example for soft metal is ...........
sa
(a) Sodium (b) Copper (c) Silver (d)Mercury Ans :(a) Sodium

1. ............... are good electrical and thermal conductivity Ans : Metals
da
al is............... 2.An example for Ans Non :Oxygen
met
metal is............... Ans :Oxygen
3. The only non metal which is a good conductor of electricity is ...............
Ans :Graphite
III. Short questions

Pa
1. What are called metalloids?

Ans : Elements which have the properties of both metal and non-metals are called as
metalloids.
« E.g : Boron, Arsenic.
w.
IV. Detail :
1. Explain the physical properties of Metals and Non-metals
Ans : Metals :
« Metals are typically hard, shiny, malleable (can be made as sheet), fusible and
ductile (can be drawn into wire) with good electrical and thermal conductivity.
ww
« Except mercury, most of the metals are solids at room temperature.

« Metals occupy larger area in the periodic table and are categorized as:
(i) Alkali metals. e.g. Lithium to Francium (top to bottom)
(ii) Alkaline earth metals. e.g: Beryllium to Radium (top to bottom)
(iii) Transition Metals. Group III B to II A
(iv) P-Block metals. e.g: Al, Ga, In, Tl, Sn, Pb and Bi.
Non-metals :
« A non-metal is an element that does not have the characters like hardness, shiny,
malleable, suitable and ductile.
« In other words, a non-metal is an element that does not have the properties of metal.
« e.g. All non metals are arranged in P-Block only. P-Block non metals: C, N, O, P, S,
Se, Halogen (F, Cl, Br and I) and inert gases (Heto Rn).

56 UNIT - 13
UNIT - 13 Chemical Bonding

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Number of valence electrons in carbon is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 5 Ans : b) 4
2. Sodium having atomic number 11, is ready to ___________________ electron/
electrons to attain the nearest Noble gas electronic configuration.
et
a) gain one b) gain two c) lose one d) lose two Ans :c) lose one
3. The element that would form anion by gaining electrons in a chemical reaction is
_______________
i.N
a) Potassium b) Calcium c) Fluorine d) Iron Ans :c) Fluorine
4. Bond formed between a metal and non metal atom is usually __________
a) ionic bond b) covalent bond c) coordinate bond Ans :a) ionic bond
5.______________ compounds have high melting and boiling points.
a) Covalent b) Coordinate c) Ionic Ans :c) Ionic
la
6. Covalent bond is formed by __________
a) transfer of electrons b) sharing of electrons c) sharing a pair of electrons
sa Ans : b) sharing of electrons
II. Answer briefly.

2. Nacl is insoluble in carbon tetrachloride but soluble in water. Give reason.
Ans :
Ionic compounds
¬ are
NaCl is ansoluble in
ionic compound. Ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvents like
da
water and insoluble in non polar solvents.
¬ Hence, Nacl is insoluble in carbon tetrachloride but soluble in water.
4. Write a note on different types on bonds?

Pa
Ans : (i) Ionic :

An ionic bond is a chemical bond formed by the electrostatic attraction between
positive and negative ions
(ii) Covalent bond :
Bond formed between atoms by the mutual sharing of electrons.
w.
(iii) Coordinate covalent bond :

In some compounds the formation of a covalent bond between two atoms takes
place by the sharing of two electrons, both of which comes from only one of the
combining atoms.
ww
This bond is called coordinate covalent bond or Dative bond.
5. Correct the wrong statements.

a. Ionic compounds dissolve in non polar solvents
Ans : Ionic compounds dissolve in polar solvents
b. Covalent compounds conduct electricity in molten or solution state.
Ans : Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten or solution state.

57 UNIT - 13
7. Draw the electron distribution diagram for the formation of Carbon di oxide
(CO 2) molecule.
Ans : Carbon di oxide compound
(2,4) (2,6) (2,6) (2,8) (2,8) (2,8)

Carbon atom Two oxygen atoms
et
Two shared
Electron pairs
i.N
8. Fill in the following table according to the type of bonds formed in the given
molecule.
CaCl 2, H 2O, CaO, CO, KBr, HCl, CCl 4, HF, CO 2, Al 2Cl 6
Ans :
Ionic bond Covalent bond Coordinate Ionic bond Covalent bond Coordinate
la
covalent bond covalent bond
CaCl 2 H 2O CO
sa CaO HCl Al 2CI 6
KBr CCl 4
HF
CO 2
da
9. The property which is characteristics of an Ionic compound is that
a. it often exists as gas at room temperature b. it is hard and brittle
c. it undergoes molecular reactions d. it has low melting point
Ans : b). It is hard and brittle
Pa
11. Identify the compounds as Ionic/ Covalent/Coordinate based on the given

characteristics.
a. Soluble in non polar solvents Ans: Covalent (Coordinate )
b. undergoes faster/instantaneous reactions Ans: Ionic
c. Non conductors of electricity Ans: Covalent ( coordinate)
w.
d. Solids at room temperature Ans: Ionic
13. Considering MgCl 2 as ionic compound and CH 4 as covalent compound give any
two differences between these two compounds.
ww
Ans :
S.No. MgCl 2 as Ionic bond CH 4 as Covalent bond
1. It has two electron excess to the nearest Carbon has four valence electrons
stable electronic configuration of a needs four electrons to stable
noble gas - Neon electronic configuration.
2. So, magnesium has a tendency to lose So, carbon shares four electrons
two electrons from its outer most shell of hydrogen to achieve stable
and acquire a stable electronic configu- electronic configuration.
2+
ration forming magnesium cation (Mg )

58 UNIT - 13
III. Answer in detail

1. List down the differences between Ionic and Covalent compounds
Ans :
S.No. Ionic Compounds Covalent Compounds
1. Formed by the transfer of electrons from Formed by sharing of electrons between
a metal to a non-metal atom. non - metal atoms.
2. Strong electrostatic force of attraction Mutual sharing of electrons and so weak
between cations and anions. force of attraction between atoms.
et
3. Ionic compounds are crystalline solids Covalent compounds exists in gaseous,
at room temperature. liquid and solid form.
4. In molten state their aqueous Do not contain charged particles, so
i.N
solutions conduct electricity they are bad conductors of electricity.
5. High melting and boiling points Low melting point
6. Soluble in polar solvents like water. They are insoluble in polar solvents like water
7. They are insoluble in non-polar soluble in non-polar solvents like
la
solvents like benzene, carbon tetra benzene, carbon tetra chloride.
chloride.
8. High density and quite hard. They
sa They are soft and waxy
are highly brittle
9. Undergo ionic reactions which are Undergo molecular reactions in solutions
practically rapid and instantaneous and these reactions are slow.
da
2. Give an example for each of the following statements.
a. A compound in which two Covalent bonds are formed Ans : O 2 (O = O)
+ -
b. A compound in which one ionic bond is formed Ans : NaCl(Na Cl )
c. A compound in which two Covalent and one Coordinate bonds are formed
Pa
Ans : CO (C = O)
d. A compound in which three covalent bonds are formed Ans : N 2 (N º N)
+
e. A compound in which Coordinate bond is formed Ans : NH 4
3. Identify the incorrect statement and correct them.

w.
a. Like covalent compounds, Coordinate compounds also contain charged

particles (ions), so they are good conductors of electricity.
Ans : Like covalent compounds, coordinate compounds do not contain charged
particles (ions), so they are bad conductors of electricity.
ww
b. Ionic bond is a weak bond when compared to Hydrogen bond.

Ans : Ionic bond is a stronger bond when compared to hydrogen bond.
c. Ionic or electrovalent bonds are formed by mutual sharing of electrons between
atoms.
Ans : Covalent bonds are formed by mutual sharing of electrons between atoms.
e. The electrons which are not involved in bonding are called valence electrons.
Ans : The electrons which are involved in bonding are called valence electrons

59 UNIT - 13
4. Discuss in brief about the properties of Coordinate covalent compounds.

Ans :
Characteristics of coordinate covalent compounds :
Physical state: These compounds exist as gases, liquids or solids.
Electrical conductivity: Like covalent compounds, coordinate compounds also do
not contain charged particles (ions), so they are bad conductors of electricity.
Melting point: These compounds have melting and boiling points higher than those
of purely covalent compounds but lower than those of purely ionic compounds.
Solubility: Insoluble in polar solvents like water but are soluble in non - polar
solvents like benzene, CCl 4 ,and toluence.
et
Reactions: Coordinate covalent compounds undergo molecular reactions which
are slow.
i.N
1. ..........is a chemical bond formed by the electrostatic attaraction
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond
(c) Metallic bond (d) Hydrogen bond Ans : (a) Ionic bond
la
2. The chemical reactions in covalent compounds are ..............
(a) Fast (b) Slow (c) Moderate (d) Very fast Ans : (b) Slow
3. ........... Compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents.
sa
(a) Ionic (b) Metallic (c) Covalent (d) Electrovalent
Ans : (c) Covalent
4. ........... Compounds are non conductors of electricity
Metallic (a) Ionic (d) Electrovalent
(c) Covalent (b) Metallic (c) Covalent (d) Electrovalent
da
Ans : c) Covalent
5. .............. are hard and brittle
(a) Covalent compounds (b) Electrovalent compounds
(c) Metallic compounds (d) Ionic compounds
Ans :(d) Ionic compounds
Pa

1. Two atoms that binds them together as a unit called. ............... Ans : Molecule
2. ............... is called as atomic bond Ans : Covalent bond
3. Carbon tetra chloride (CCl 4) is a ...............compound. Ans : Covalent
w.
4. Gold has ............... resistance to corrosion Ans : High

ww

60 UNIT - 14
UNIT - 14. Acids, Bases and Salts

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. Zn + 2 HCl à ZnCl 2 + … á (H 2, O 2, CO 2) Ans : H 2
2. Apple contains malic acid. Orange contains ............
(citric acid, ascorbic acid) Ans : ascorbic acid
3. Acids in plants and animals are organic acids. Whereas Acids in rocks and
et
minerals are .............. (Inorganic acids, Weak acids) Ans : Inorganic acids
4. Acids turn blue litmus paper to..............
(Green, Red, Orange) Ans : Red
i.N
5. Since metal carbonate and metal bicarbonate are basic, they react with acids to
give salt and water with the liberation of .............. (NO 2, SO 2, CO 2) Ans :CO 2
II. Answer in briefly.

1. Classify the various types of Acids based on their sources.
la
Ans :
Organic Acids: Acids present in plants and animals (living things) are organic acids.
Example: HCOOH, CH 3COOH
sa
Inorganic Acids: Acids prepared from rocks and minerals are inorganic acids or
mineral acids. Example: HCl, HNO 3, H 2SO 4
2. Write any four uses of acids.

Ans :
da
(i) Sulphuric acid is used in car batteries
(ii) Hydrochloric acid is used as a cleaning agent in toilets
(iii) Carbonic acid is used in aerated drinks
(iv) Tartaric acid is a constituent of baking powder
Pa
6. Two acids 'A' and 'B' are given. Acid A gives one hydrogen ion per molecule of
the acid in solution. Acid B gives two hydrogen ions per molecule of the acid in
solution.
(i) Find out the acid A and acid B.
w.
Ans : A is HCl (Hydro Chloric Acid)

B is H 2SO 4 (Sulphuric Acid)
(ii) Which acid is called the King of Chemicals?
Ans : H 2SO 4 (Sulphuric acid) is called the king of chemicals
ww
9. What is neutralization reaction? Give an example.

Ans :
The reaction between a base and an acid is known as neutralization reaction.
Eg : Bases react with acids to form salt and water
KOH + HCl à KCl + H 2O

61 UNIT - 14
III. Answer in detail

2. Give the tests to identify Acids and Bases.
Ans :
a) Test with a litmus paper:
¬ An acid turns blue litmus paper into red. Blue Red
¬ A base turns red litmus paper into blue. litmus litmus
b) Test with an indicator Phenolphthalein: paper paper
¬ In acid medium, phenolphthalein is colourless.
¬ In basic medium, phenolphthalein is pink in colour.
Test for acid and base using litmus paper
et
c) Test with an indicator Methyl orange:
¬ In acid medium, methyl orange is pink in colour.
¬ In basic medium, methyl orange is yellow in colour.
i.N
Acid base indicator
Indicator Colour in acid Colour in base
Litmus Blue to Red Red to Blue
Phenolphthalein Colourless Pink Test for acid and base
la
using indicator
Methyl orange Pink Yellow
3. Write any four uses of bases.

sa
Ans : (i) Sodium hydroxide is used in the manufacture of soap.
(ii) Calcium hydroxide is used in white washing of building.
(iii) Magnesium hydroxide is used as a medicine for stomach disorder.
hydroxide is used to remove grease
(iv) Ammonium hydroxide is used to remove grease stains from cloths.
stains from
da
5. Sulphuric acid is called King of Chemicals. Why is it called so?
Ans :
Sulphuric acid is called King of Chemicals because it is used in the preparation of
Pa
many other compounds. It is used in car batteries also.

1. Acids are .............. in taste
w.
(a) Bitter (b) Sour (c) Sweet (d) Salty Ans : (b) Sour
2. Curd contains ...........
(a) Tartaric acid (b) Malic acid (c) Lactic acid (d) citric acid
Ans : (c) Lactic acid
3. ........... is a weak acid
ww
(a) HCl (b) HNO 3 (c) CH 3COOH (d) H 2SO 4 Ans : (c) CH3COOH
4. HCL is a .............. acid
(a) Strong (b) Weak (c) Dibasic (d) Tribasic Ans : (a) Strong
5. .............. acid is used as a food preservative
(a) Nitric (b) Sulphuric (c) Citric (d) Carbonic Ans : (c) Citric
6. .............. is used in the manufacture of soap
(a) NaOH (b) KoH (c) NH 4OH (d) CaCOH 2 Ans : (a) NaOH
7. In basic medium, phenolphthalein is .............. in colour
(a) Red (b) Pink (c) White (d) Yellow Ans : (b) Pink
8. In acidic medium, phenolphthalein is .............. in colour
(a) Red (b) Pink (c) Colourless (d) yellow Ans : (c) Colourless

62 UNIT - 14

1. A base is the compound that forms . ............... ions in solution Ans : Hydroxide
2. The acid present in ant and Bee is ............... Ans : Formic acid
3. When HCl is dissolved in water, it gives...............and ........... ions in water
+ -
Ans : H Cl
4. ............... are acids that ionise completely in water.
Ans : Strong Acids
5. Bases that are soluble in water are called ............... Ans : Alkalis
6. ............... is used in white washing of building Ans : Calcium Hydroxide
7. ............... is used as a medicine for stomach disorder
et
Ans : Magnesium Hydroxide
8. ...............is used to remove grease stains from cloths
Ans : Ammonium Hydroxide
i.N
9. ...............is the hardest substance in our body
Ans : White enamel coating of teeth

1. Source Acid present Source Acid present
la
(i) Apple a) Tartaric acid (i) Apple d) Malic acid
(ii) Vinegar b) Citric acid (ii) Vinegar c) Acetic acid
(iii) Lemon c) Acetic acid (iii) Lemon b) Citric acid
(iv) Grapes
sa d) Malic acid (iv) Grapes a) Tartaric acid
IV Short questions :
1. What are Acids?
da
Ans :
+ +
Acid is a substance which furnishes H ions or H 3O ions in aqueous solution.
2. What are Bases?

Pa
-
Ans : Bases are substances that ionise in water to form hydroxyl ions (OH )
3. Define Acidity.
Ans : The term acidity is used for base, which means the number of replaceable
hydroxyl groups present in one molecule of a base
w.
ww

63
UNIT - 15. Carbon and its Compounds

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. A phenomenon in which an element exists in different modification in same
physical state is called
(a) Isomerism (b) Allotropy
et
(c) Catenation (d) Crystallinity Ans : (a) Isomerism
2 . Carbon forms large number of organic compounds due to
(a) Allotropy (b) Isomerism
(c) Tetravalency (d) Catenation Ans : (d) Catenation
i.N
5. Graphene is one atom thick layer of carbon obtained from
(a) Diamond (b) Fullerene
(c) Graphite (d) Gas Carbon Ans : (c) Graphite
6. The legal measures to prevent plastic pollution come under the ______
Protection Act 1988.
la
(a) Forest (b) Wildlife
(c) Environment (d) Human Rights Ans : (c) Environment
sa
1. _________ named carbon. Ans :Antoine Lavoisier
3. Compounds with same molecular formula and different structural formula are known
as ________. Ans : Isomerism
da
solvent for sulphur.
4. _________ is aAns suitable
: Carbon
solvent for sulphur. Ans : Carbon disulphide

1. Alkyne - c) Graphene 1. Alkyne - d) Triple bond
2. Andre Geim - d) Triple bond 2. Andre Geim - c) Graphene
Pa
IV. Answer briefly.

2. Write all possible isomers of C 4 H 10
Ans :
The given formula C 4 H 10 is having two kinds of arrangement of atoms as shown below
w.
a) CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 3 b) CH 3 - CH - CH 3
CH 3
ww
3. Carbon forms only covalent compounds. Why?

Ans :
« The shell electronic configuration of carbon is 2, 4
« It has four electrons in its outermost orbit.
« Catenation is binding of an element to itself or with other elements through covalent
bonds to form open chain or closed chain compounds.
« Hence carbon force only covalent compounds due to catenation.

64 UNIT - 15
1. What is catenation? How does carbon form catenated compounds?
Ans :
Catenation : Catenation is binding of an element to itself or
with other elements through covalent bonds to form open
chain or closed chain compounds. Branched chain
Catenated compounds:
« Carbon is the most common element which undergoes
Linear chain
catenation and forms long chain compounds.
« Carbon atom links repeatedly to itself through covalent
et
bond to form linear chain, branched chain or ring structure.
« This property of carbon itself is the reason for the
Ring chain
presence of large number of organic carbon compounds.
Catenation in carbon
i.N
« So organic chemistry essentially deals with catenated
carbon compounds.
« For example, Starch and Cellulose contain chains of hundreds of carbon atoms.
VI. Higher Order Thinking Skills.
la
1. Why do carbon exist mostly in combined state?
Ans : Carbon exists mostly in combined state due to the property of catenation.
2. When a carbon fuel burns in less aerated room, it is dangerous to stay there. Why?
sa
Ans :
« When the carbon fuels are burned they releases unburnt carbon particles in the air.
« It leads to formation of carbon monoxide (CO) which is very poisonous.
toxic gas.« CO is a colourless, odourless toxic gas.
da
« When poeple exposed to CO, it enters into human body through breathing and
affects the function of haemoglobin.
« CO displaces oxygen from haemoglobin thereby stops its function leading to death.
3. Explain how dioxins are formed? Which plastic type they are linked to and why
Pa
they are harmful to humans?

Ans :
« Burning polyvinyl chloride releases dioxins.
« PVC is a resin code #3 type of plastics.
« PVC is one of the most dangerous chemicals known to human.
w.
« It affects hormones and most toxic chemicals known to humans.

ww

1. Carbon is one of the most important .............. element
(a) metallic (b) non-metallic (c) metalloid (d) valuable
Ans : (b) non-metallic
2. The earth's crust contains only ............. of carbon
(a) 0.013% (b) 0.023% (c) 0.032% (d) 0.432% Ans :(c) 0.032%
3. ........... is an organic carbon compound
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Carbon-di -oxide
(c) Calcium carbonate (d) Ethanol Ans :(d) Ethonal
4. ........... is used as a fire extinguisher
(a) CO (b) CO 2 (c) CaC 2 (d) CS 2 Ans :(b)CO 2

65 UNIT - 15
5. .............. is used as dry ice in refrigerator

(a) CO 2 (b) CO (c) CS 2 (d) CaC 2 Ans :(a)CO 2
6. .............. is used in baking powder
(a) H 2CO 3 (b) NaHCO 3 (c) CaCO 3 (d) Na 2CO 3
` Ans :(b) NaHCO 3
7. ........... is toxic oxide gas of carbon
(a) Carbon-di -oxide (b) Carbon sulphide
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Calcium carbide
Ans :(c) Carbon monoxide
et
III. Fill in the blanks.
1. ............. . is a main constituent of coal. Ans : Carbon
2. .............. % of the weight of human body is carbon. Ans : 18 %
i.N
3. ........... is highly toxic sparingly solube in water. Ans : Carbon monoxide
4. ............. . is used as preservative for fruits. Ans : Carbon dioxide
5. ............. is used to prepare acetylene gas for welding . Ans : Calcium Carbide
6. .............. is crystalline solid used as an Antacid. Ans : Calcium Carbonate
7. .............. is in making electrode in dry cell. Ans : Gas carbon
la
8. .............. is a colourless, odourless toxic gas. Ans : Carbon monoxide

1. Which is called as Living chemistry ? why?
sa
Ans : Organic chemistry is called as Living chemistry. Because, without carbon, there is
no possibility for the existence of plants and animals including human.
2. What are the special features of carbon?

features of carbon?
da
Ans :
« Catenation « Tetra valency « Multiple bonds « Isomerism « Allotropy
3. Define tetra valency.

Ans : Carbon has the tendency to share its four electrons with other atoms to complete
Pa
its octet. This is called its tetravalency.
IV. Answer in detail.

1. How to avoid use of plastic in our daily life?
Ans :
w.
« Do not litter the environment by throwing plastic items.

« Do not use Thermocol (resin code #6 PS) for your school projects.
« Do not use one-time use or throwaway plastics like plastics bags, tea cups,
Thermocol plates and cups, and plastic straws.
ww
« Do not burn plastics since they release toxic gases that are harmful to our health and
contribute to climate change.
« Burning PVC plastic releases dioxins which are one of the most dangerous
chemicals known to humans.
« Do not eat hot or spicy food items in plastic containers.
9 Sci - 5

66 UNIT - 16
UNIT - 16. Applied Chemistry

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

4. The cathode of an electrochemical reaction involves ________
(a) oxidation (b) reduction
(c) neutralisation (d) catenation Ans : (b) reduction
5. The age of a dead animal can be determined by using an isotope of _________
et
(a) carbon (b) iodine
(c) phosphorous (d) oxygen Ans : (a) carbon
8. Radiochemistry deals with
i.N
(a) oxidants (b) batteries
(c) isotopes (d) nanoparticles Ans : (c) isotopes

1._______ is an electrochemical cell which converts electrical energy into chemical
la
change(Reaction). Ans : Electrolytic cell

2. Corrosion prevention
sa - b) Iodine-131
3. Hyperthyroidism - e) Electroplating
Ans :
2. Corrosion prevention - e) Electroplating
- b) 3.Iodine-131
Hyperthyroidism - b) Iodine-131
da
IV. Answer very briefly.

1. What is Radio Carbon Dating?
Ans :
Pa
Radio Carbon Dating : It is a method by which the age of fossil wood or animals is
determined using C-14 isotope.
VI. HOTS
w.
1. Batteries that are used in mobile phone can be recharged. Likewise, can you
recharge the batteries used in watches? Justify your answer.
Ans :
« No, we cannot recharge the batteries used in watches.
ww
« Because, watch batteries are primary cells which takes irreversible reaction and
cannot be recharged.

1. ............. is the chemistry of drugs.
(a) Nano chemistry (b) Pharmaceutical chemistry
(c) Electro chemistry (d) Radio chemistry
Ans :(b) Pharmaceutical chemistry

67 UNIT - 16
2. .............. isotope is used in Radio carbon dating.

(a) P-32 (b) C-14 (c) I-131 (d) O-18 Ans : (b) C-14
III. Fill in the blanks.

1. .............. is an electrochemical cell which converts chemical energy into electrical
energy. Ans : Galvanic Cell
2. .............. in the ground can decay into radon gas which can be very dangerous to
humans. Ans : Uranium
3. .............. radio isotope is used for blood disorder. Ans : Phosphorous-32
et
1. Ans :
Radioisotope Diagnosis used for Radioisotope Diagnosis used for
i.N
(i) Iron - 59 (a) Thyroid gland disorder (i) Iron - 59 (d) Anaemia
(ii) Cobalt-60 (b) Blood clot (ii) Cobalt-60 (c) Cancer
(iii) Hydrogen-3 (c) Cancer (iii) Hydrogen-3 (e) Water
(iv) Sodium-24 (d) Anaemia content of the
(v) Iodine - 131 (e) Water content of the human body
la
human body (iv) Sodium-24 (b) Blood clot
sa (v) Iodine - 131 (a) Thyroid gland
disorder
2. Ans :
Treatment used for Radioisotope
Radioisotope T
Treatment used for Radioisotope reatment used for
Treatment
da
(i) Phosphorous-32 (a) Cancer (i)Phosphorous-32 (c) Skin disease
(ii) Cobalt - 60 (b) Hyperthyroidism (ii) Cobalt - 60 (a) Cancer
(iii) Iodine - 131 (c) Skin disease (iii) Iodine - 131 (b) Hyperthyroidism
Pa
IV. Short questions :

1. Define drugs :
Ans :
Drugs : ‘It is a substance or product that is used or intended to be used to modify or
explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefits of the recipient'.
w.
2. What is Electrochemical cell ?

Ans : The device that make use of a chemical change to produce electricity or electricity
to produce chemical change is called Electrochemical Cell.
ww

68 UNIT -17
BIOLOGY
UNIT - 17. Animal Kingdom

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
et
1. Find the group having only marine members
a) Mollusca c) Coelenterata c) Echinodermata d) Porifera
i.N
Ans : c) Echinodermata
2. Mesoglea is present in
a) Porifera b) Coelenterata c) Annelida d) Arthropoda
Ans : b) Coelenterata
5. The animal without skull is
la
a) Acrania b) Acephalia c) Apteria d) Acoelomate
Ans : a) Acrania
6. Hermaphrodite organisms are
sa
a) Hydra, Tape worm, Earth worm, Amphioxus
b) Hydra, Tape worm, Earth worm, Ascidian
c) Hydra, Tape worm, Earth worm, Balanoglossus
d) Hydra, Tape worm, Ascaris, Earth worm
Ans : b) Hydra, Tape worm, Earth Ans : b) Hydra, Tape worm, Earth worm, Ascidian
da
9. Excretory organ of tape worm is
a) flame cells b) nephridia c) body surface d) solenocytes
Ans : a) Flame cells
10. Water vascular system is found in.
Pa
a) Hydra b) Earthworm c) Star fish d) Ascaris

Ans : c) Star fish

1. The skeletal framework of Porifera is ______________. Ans : Spicules
w.
2. Ctenidia are respiratory organs in ______________. Ans : Phylum Mollusca
III. State whether true or false. If false correct the statement.

1. Canal system is seen in coelenterates.
ww
Ans : False. Correct statement: Canal system is seen in Porifera

2. Hermaphrodite animals have both male and female sex organs. Ans : True
3. Trachea are the respiratory organ of Annelida.
Ans : False. Correct statement: Trachea is the respiratory organ of Arthropoda
Arthropoda..
4. Bipinnaria is the larva of Mollusca.
Ans : False. Correct statement: Bipinnaria is the larva of Echinodermata
Echinodermata..
5. Balanoglossus is a ciliary feeder Ans : True

69 UNIT -17
IV. Match the following :

PHYLUM EXAMPLES
(A) Coelenterata (i) Snail
(B) Platyhelminthes (ii) Star Fish
(C) Echinodermata (iii) Tapeworm
(D) Mollusca (iv) Hydra
Ans :
PHYLUM EXAMPLES
(A) Coelenterata (iv) Hydra
et
(B) Platyhelminthes (iii) Tapeworm
(C) Echinodermata (ii) Star Fish
(D) Mollusca (i) Snail
i.N
1. Define taxonomy ?
Ans : Taxonomy is the science of classification which makes the study of wide variety of
la
organisms easier.
2. What is nematocyst ?
sa
Ans : The tentacles bear stinging cells called cnidoblast or nematocyst.
3. Why coelenterates are called diploblastic animals?

Ans : Coelenterates are called as diploblastic animals because, the body wall is made
up of twoand
the outer ectoderm layers ofmesoderm.
inner cells namely the outer ectoderm and inner mesoderm.
da
5. How does locomotion take place in starfish?
Ans : In starfish the locomotion is affected by tube feet.
Pa
6. Are jelly fish and star fish similar to fishes? If no justify the answer.
Ans : Jelly fish - Coelenterata - Invertebrates
Star fish - Echinodermata - Invertebrates
Fish - Vertebrates - chordata
w.
VI. Answer briefly.

1. Give an account on phylum Annelida.
Ans : Phylum Annelida (Segmented worms):
« These are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, first true coelomate animals with
organ-system grade of organization.
ww
« Body is externally divided into segments called metameres joined by ring like
structures called annuli.
« It is covered by moist thin cuticle.
« Setae and parapodia are locomotor organs.
« Sexes may be separate or united (hermaphrodites).
« e.g- Nereis, Earthworm, Leech.

70 UNIT -17
2. Differentiate between flat worms and round worms?

Ans :
S.No. Flat worms Roundworms
1. It belongs to the phylum It belongs to the phylum Nematoda.
platyhelminthes
2. Alimentary canal is absent or simple The alimentary canal is a straight tube.
3. Acoelomate Pseudocoelomate
4. Having both male and female They reproduce sexually and the sexes
reproduction organism a single are separate.
et
individual.
5. Most of them are parasitic in nature. They exist as free - living soil forms.
6. E.g : Liver fluke E.g : Ascaris
i.N
2. Give an account on phylum Arthropoda.
Ans : Phylum Arthropoda (Animals with jointed legs) :
« Arthropoda is the largest phylum of the animal kingdom.
« They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals.
la
« The body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen.
« Each segment bears paired jointed legs.
« Exoskeleton is made of chitin and is shed periodically as the animal grows.
« The casting off and regrowing of exoskeleton is called moulting.
sa
« Body cavity is filled with haemolymph (blood).
« The blood does not flow in blood vessels and circulates throughout the body (open
circulatory system).
« orRespiration
body surface, gills is through
tracheae (air tubes). body surface, gills or tracheae (air tubes).
da
« Excretion occurs by malphigian tubules or green glands.
« Sexes are separate.
« E.g., Prawn, Crab, Cockroach, Millipedes, Centipedes, Spider, Scorpions.

Pa
I. Choose the best answer :

1. Tapeworm is and example of an....................
a) Pseudocoelomate b) Acoelomate c) Coelomate Ans : b) Acoelomate
2. In Protozoa, locomotion occur through....................
a) Cilia b) Flagella c) Pseudopodia Ans :c) Pseudopodia
w.
3. Amoebic dysentry is caused by ....................

a) Entomoeba histolytica b) Plasmodium sp c) Ascaris lumbricoides
Ans : a) Entomoeba histolytica
ww
II. Fill in the blanks:

1. .................... introduced the method of naming the animals.
Ans : Carolus Linnacees
2.. Cutturing of aquatic organisms is referred to as.................... Ans : Aqua culture
2
III. Answer in briefly.
1. Define - Coelom.
Ans : Coelom is a fluid-filled body cavity. It separates the digestive tract from the body
wall.
2. Define Pseudocoleomates.
Ans :
« Pseudocoleomates- False body cavity which is not bounded by true epithelial lining
« E.g. Roundworm

71 UNIT - 18
UNIT - 18. Organisation of Tissues

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. The tissue composed of living thin walled polyhedral cell is
a. Parenchyma b. Pollenchyma c. Pclerenchyma d. None of above
et
Ans : a. Parenchyma
2. The fibres consists of
a. Parenchyma b. Sclerenchyma c. Collenchyma d. None of above
Ans : b. Sclerenchyma
i.N
3. Companion cells are closely associated with
a. sieve elements. b. vessel elements c. Trichomes d. guard cells.
Ans : a. sieve elements.
4. Which of the following is a complex tissue?
a. parenchyma b. collenchyma c. xylem d. sclerenchyma
la
Ans : c. xylem
5. Aerenchyma is found in
a. Epiphytes sa b. hydrophytes c. halophytes d. xerophytes
Ans : b. hydrophytes
6. Smooth muscles occur in
a. Uterus b Artery c. vein d. All of the above
Ans : d. All of Ans : d. All of the above
da
7. Nerve cell does not contains
a. axon b. nerve endings c. tendons d. dendrites
Ans : c. tendons
II. Match the following Ans :

Pa
1. Sclereids a) Chlorenchyma 1. Sclereids b) Sclerenchyma

2. Chloroplast b) Sclerenchyma 2. Chloroplast a) Chlorenchyma
3. Simple tissue c) Collenchyma 3. Simple tissue c) Collenchyma
4. Companion cell d) Xylem 4. Companion cell e) Phloem
5. Trachieds e) Phloem 5. Trachieds d) Xylem
w.

1. ............ tissues provide mechanical support to organs. Ans : collenchyma
ww
2.Parenchyma, collenchyma, Sclerenchyma are ............ type of tissue. Ans : Simple

3. ............ and .................. are complex tissues. Ans : Xylem, Phloem
4. Epithelial cells with cilia are found in .......... of our body . Ans : Trachea
5. Lining of small intestine is made up of ................... Ans : Columnar epithelium
IV. State whether True or false. If false, correct the statement

1. Epithelial tissue is protective tissue in animal body. Ans : True
2. Bone and cartilage are two types of areolar connective tissues. Ans : False
Correct statement : Bone and cartilage are two types of supportive connective
tissue.
3. Parenchyma is a simple tissue. Ans : True

72 UNIT - 18
4.Phloem is made up of tracheids Ans : False

Correct statement : xylem is made up of Tracheids
5. Vessels are found in collenchyma Ans : False
Correct statement : Vessels are found in Xylem
V. Answer briefly.
1. What are intercalary meristems? How do they differ from other meristems?
Ans : Intercalary meristem:
« It lies between the region of permanent tissues and is part of primary meristem
which is detached due to formation of intermittent permanent tissues.
et
« It is found either at the base of leaf e.g. Pinus or at the base of internodes e.g.
grasses.
2. What is complex tissue? Name the various kinds of complex tissues.
i.N
Ans :
« Complex tissues are made of more than one type of cells that work together as a
unit
« There are of two types namely (i) xylem (ii) phloem.
la
3. Mention the most abundant muscular tissue found in our body. State its
function. sa
Ans : a) Skeletal muscle :
« These muscles are attached to the bones and are responsible for the body
movements and are called skeletal muscles.
« They work under our control and are also known as voluntary muscles.
b) Smooth muscle :
da
« The walls of the internal organs such as the blood vessels, gastric glands, intestinal
villi and urinary bladder contain this type of smooth muscle.
c) Cardiac muscle :
« It is a special contractile tissue present in the heart.
Pa
« The contraction of cardiac muscle is involuntary and rhythmic.
4. What is skeletal connective tissue? How is it helpful in the functioning of our

body?
Ans :
w.
« The supporting or skeletal connective tissues forms the endoskeleton of the

vertebrate body.
« Which protect various organs and help in locomotion.
VI. Answer in Detail.

ww
1. What are permanent tissues? Describe the different types of simple permanent
tissues.
Ans : Permanent Tissues Tissues::
« Permanent tissues are those in which, growth has stopped either completely or for
the time being.
« At times, they become meristematic partially or wholly.
« Permanent tissues are of two types, namely : (a) simple tissue (b) complex tissue.
Simple Tissues :
« Simple tissue are homogeneous tissues composed of structurally and functionally
similar cells. (eg). (i) Parenchyma, (ii)Collenchyma, (iii)Sclerenchyma.

73 UNIT - 18
(i).Parenchyma :
« Parenchyma are simple permanent tissues composed of living cells.
« Parenchyma cells are thin walled, oval, rounded or polygonal in shape with well
developed spaces among them.
« In aquatic plants, Parenchyma possesses intercellular air spaces, and is named as
Aerenchyma.
« When exposed to light, parenchyma cells may develop chloroplasts and are known
as Chlorenchyma.
Functions:
« Parenchyma may store water in many succulent and xerophytic plants.
et
« It also serves the functions of storage of food reserves, absorption, buoyancy,
secretion etc.,
Types of Parenchyma :
i.N
la
Parenchyma Aerenchyma Chlorenchyma
(ii). Collenchyma :
« Collenchyma is a living tissue found beneath the
sa
epidermis.
« Cells are elongated with unevenly thickened non-
lignified walls.
« Cells
oblique or tapering have
ends andrectangular oblique or tapering ends and
da
persistent protoplast.
« They possess thick primary non-lignified walls.
Functions:
« They provide mechanical support for growing organs. Collenchyma
Pa
(iii). Sclerenchyma :
« Sclerenchyma consists of thick walled cells which are often
Narrow
lignified. Lumen
« Sclerenchyma cells are dead and do not possess living
protoplasts at maturity. Lignified
w.
Thick wall
« Sclerenchyma cells are grouped into (1) fibres (2) sclereids.
(1) Fibres :
« Fibres are elongated sclerenchymatous cells, usually with Fibres
pointed ends.
ww
« Their walls are lignified. Fibres are abundantly found in many plants.
« The average length of fibres is 1 to 3 mm, however in plants like Linum
usitatissimum (flax), Cannabis sativa (hemp) and Corchorus capsularis (jute), fibres
are extensively longer, ranging from 20 mm to 550 mm.
(2) Sclereids :
« Sclereids are widely distributed in plant body.
« They are usually broad, may occur in single or in groups.
« Sclereids are isodiametric, with liginified walls.
« Pits are prominent and seen along the walls.
« Lumen is filled with wall materials. Sclereids
« Sclereids are also common in fruits and seeds.

74 UNIT - 18
2. Write about the elements of Xylem

Ans : Xylem :
« Xylem is composed of :
« (i) xylem tracheids (ii) xylem fibres (iii) xylem vessels (iv) xylem parenchyma.
i. Xylem tracheids:
« These are elongated or tube-like dead cells with hard, thick and lignified walls.
« Their ends are tapering, blunt or chisel-like and devoid of protoplast.
« They have large lumen without any content.
« Their function is conduction of water and providing mechanical support to the plant.
ii. Xylem fibres :
et
« These cells are elongated, lignified and pointed at both the ends.
« Xylem fibres provide mechanical support to the plant.
iii. Xylem vessels :
« These are long cylindrical, tube like structures with lignified walls and wide central
i.N
lumen.
« These cells are dead as these do not have protoplast.
« They are arranged in longitudinal series in which the partitioned walls (transverse
walls) are perforated, and so the entire structure looks-like a water pipe.
« Their main function is to transport of water and also to provide mechanical strength.
la
iv. Xylem parenchyma :
« These are living and thin walled cells.
« The main function of xylem parenchyma is to store starch and fatty substances.
sa
VII. Higher Order Thinking Skills.
1. What is the consequence that occur if all blood platelets are removed from the
blood?
da
Ans :
« Blood platelets play an important role in blood clotting mechanism.
« So, if all blood platelets are removed from the blood, there is no blood clotting
mechanism.
Pa
« A bleeding person continues to bleed and he eventually dies.
2. Which are not true cells in the blood? why?

Ans :
« In the blood Red blood cells and blood platelets are anucleated (Nucleus absent)
w.
« So, those blood cells are not true cells.

1. When exposed to light, parenchyma cells may develop chloroplasts and are
ww
known as ..............
(a) Collenchyma (b) Aerenchyma
(c) Chlorenchyma (d) Sclerenchyma Ans : (c) Chlorenchyma
2. ........... tissue in the skin functions as a waterproof membrane.
(a) Epithelial (b) Cardiac (c) Adipose (d) Connective
Ans : (a) Epithelial
3. Large cartilage cells are called as ...........
(a) Osteocytes (b) Lacunae (c) Canaliculi (d) Chondrocytes
Ans :(d) Chondrocytes

75 UNIT - 18
4. RBC Contain a .............. pigment called haemoglobin.

(a) Respiratory (b) excretory (c ) circulatory (d) Digestive
Ans :(a) Respiratory
II Match the following Ans :

Cells Duration of cell replacement Cells Duration of cell
replacement
1. Skin cells a) 300 - 500 days 1. Skin cells c) 2 weeks
2. Liver cells b) 120 days 2. Liver cells a) 300 - 500 days
et
3. Bone cells c) 2 weeks 3. Bone cells d) 10 years
4. RBC d) 10 years 4. RBC b) 120 days
i.N
1. ..............causes genetic variations among the species from one generation to the
next Ans :Crossing over
2. The muscle cells are composed of numerous............... Ans : Myofibrils
3. Sprain is caused by excessive pulling of ............... Ans : Ligaments
la
IV. Give Reasons:
1. Nerve cells do not undergo cell division.
Reason : Nerve cells do not undergo cell division due to the absence of centrioles.
sa
V. Analogy :
1. (i) Yellow fibres : Elastin
: Collagen (ii) White fibres : Collagen
da
2. (i) Erythrocytes : RBC
(ii) Leucocytes : WBC
VI. Answer the following :

1. What are fibers ? Mention its average length?
Pa
Ans :
« Fibres are elongated, sclerenchymatous cells, usually with pointed ends.
« Average length of fibres is 1 to 3 mm.
2. Define - Bone marrow.

w.
Ans :
In bones, the hollow cavities of spaces are called marrow cavities filled with bone
marrow.
ww
3. Name the minute fibres of tendon which enter into peristomium of bone
Ans :
Nano fibres - Sharpey's fibres.
4. What are the types of WBC?

Ans :
« Granulocytes (with granules in the cytoplasm)
They are neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils.
« Agranulocytes (without granules in the cytoplasm)
They are lymphocytes, Monocytes.

76 UNIT - 18
5. Draw neat sketch of Longitudinal section of shoot apex and its parts.
et
i.N
Longitudinal section of shoot apex
la
sa
da
Pa
w.
ww

77 UNIT - 19
UNIT - 19. Plant physiology
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1.The tropic movement that helps the climbing vines to find a suitable support is
............
a) phototropism b) geotropism c) thigmotropism d) chemotropism
et
Ans : c) thigmotropism
3. The bending of root of a plant in response to water is called..............
a) Thigmonasty b) Phototropism c) Hydrotropism d) Photonasty
i.N
Ans : c) Hydrotropism
4. A growing seedling is kept in the dark room. A burning candle is placed near it
for a few days. The tip part of the seedling bends towards the burning candle. This
is an example of........................
a) Chemotropism b) Geotropism c) Phototropism d) Thigmotropism
la
Ans : c) Phototropism
5. The root of the plant is.................
(i) positively phototropic but negatively geotropic
sa
(ii) positively geotropic but negatively phototropic
(iii) negatively phototropic but positively hydrotropic
(iv) negatively hydrotropic but positively phototropic
a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (i) and (iv)
An Ans s : b) (ii ) and ( iii )
da
6. The non-directional movement of a plant part in response to temperature is
called.......
a) thermotropism b) Thermonasty c) chemotropism d) thigmonasty
Ans : b) Thermonasty
Pa

1. The shoot system grows upward in response to __________
Ans : sunlight
2. __________ is positively hydrotropic as well as positively geotropic.
w.
Ans : Root
4. The solar tracking of sunflower in accordance with the path of sun is due to
___________. Ans : photonasty
5. The response of a plant part towards gravity is __________. Ans : Geotropism
ww
III. Match column A with column B

S.No. Column A Column B
1. Roots growing downwards a) Positive phototropism
into soil
2. Shoots growing towards b) Negative geotropism
the light
3. Shoots growing upward c) Negative phototropism
4. Roots growing downwards d) Positive geotropism
away from light

78 UNIT -19
Ans :
1. Roots growing downwards d) Positive geotropism
into soil
2. Shoots growing towards a) Positive phototropism
the light
3. Shoots growing upward b) Negative geotropism
4. Roots growing downwards c) Negative phototropism
away from light
et
IV. State whether true or false. If false, correct statement.
1. The response of part of plant to the chemical stimulus is called phototropism.
i.N
Ans : False. Correct statement: The response of a part of plant to the chemical
stimulus is called chemotropism.
2. Shoot is positively phototropic and negatively geotropic.

Ans : True
la
1. What is nastic movement?
sa
Ans : Nastic movements are non-directional response of a plant or part of a plant to
stimulus.
2. Name the plant part

da
a)but
the direction of gravity Which bends
away from in
the light.
the direction of gravity but away from the light.
Ans : Root
b) Which bends towards light but away from the force of gravity.
Ans : Shoot
Pa
3. Differentiate phototropism from photonasty.

Ans : S.No. Phototropism Photonasty
1. Movement of a plant part Movement of a part of a plant in
towards light. response to light.
w.
2. Growth dependent Growth independent movements

movements
3. Growth of stem towards light E.g. : Taraxacum officinale, blooms
in morning and closes in the evening.
ww
VI. Answer in briefly.

1. Give the technical terms for the following :
(a) Growth dependent movement in plants.
Ans : Tropic movements.
(b) Growth independent movement in plants.
Ans : Nastic movements.
2. Explain the movement seen in Pneumatophores of Avicennia.

Ans :
¬ Nagatively geotropic roots.
O
¬ These roots turn 180 upright for respiration

79 UNIT -19
5. Name the part of plant which shows positive geotropism. Why?

Ans :
¬ The part of plant which shows positive geotropism is Root,
¬ Because the roots grow downwards towards gravity to provide stability for the plant.
6. What is the difference between movement of flower in sunflower plant and

closing of the leaves in the Mimosa pudica. ?
pudica.?
Ans :
S.No. Movement in Sunflower Movement in Mimosa pudica
1. Photonasty Thigmonasty
et
2. Movement of a part of plant in response Movement of a part of plant in
to light response to touch.
i.N
9.To which directional stimuli do
(a) roots respond
Ans : Roots respond - Gravity
(b) Shoots respond
la
Ans : Shoots respond - Light
VII. Answer in Detail.

sa
1. Differentiate between tropic and nastic movements.
Ans :
S.No. Tropic movements Nastic movements
to the stimulus.
1. Non-directional responseto the stimulus. Non-directional response to the stimulus.
Unidirectional response
da
2. Growth dependent movements. Growth independent movements.
3. More or less permanent and irreversible. Temporary and reversible.
4. Found in all plants. Found only in a few specialized plants.
5. Slow action. Immediate action.
Pa
VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

1. There are 3 plants A, B and C. The flowers of A open their petals in bright light
during the day but closes them when it gets dark at night. On the other hand, the
flowers of plant B open their petals at night but closes during the day when there is
w.
bright light. The leaves of plant C fold up and droop when touched with fingers or
any other solid object.
a) Name the Phenomenon shown by the flowers of plant A and B.
Ans : Photonasty
ww
b) Name one plant each which behaves like the flowers of plant A and B
Ans : Plant A - Taraxacum officinale (Common Dandelion)
Plant B - Ipomoca albe (Moon flower)
c) Name the phenomenon exhibited by the leaves of plant C
Ans : Thigmonasty
d) Name the plant which behaves like the leaves plant C.
Ans : Mimosa pudica

80 UNIT - 21
UNIT - 21. Nutrition and Health

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

1. The nutrient required in trace amounts to accomplish various body functions
is .................
a) carbohydrate b) protein c) vitamin d) fat Ans : c) vitamin
et
2. The Physician who discovered that scurvy can be cured by ingestion of
citrus fruits is ................
a) James Lind b) Louis Pasteur c) Charles Darwin d) Isaac Newton
i.N
Ans :a) James Lind

1. Deficiency diseases can be prevented by taking.................. diet.
Ans :balanced
la
3. Vitamin D is called as..................... vitamin as it can be synthesised by the body from
the rays of sun light. Ans : sunshine
sa
III. State whether true or false. If false, correct the statement
1. Iron is required for the proper functioning of thyroid gland. Ans :False
Correct Statement : Iodine is required for the proper functioning of thyroid gland.
2. Vitamins are required in large quantities for normal functioning of the body.
Ans :False
da
Correct Statement : Vitamins are required in Minute quantities for normal functioning
of the body.
3. Vitamin C is a water soluble Vitamin Ans :True
4. Lack of adequate fats in diet may result in low body weight Ans : True
Pa
IV) Match the following Ans :

Column A Column B Column A Column B
1. Calcium a. Muscular fatigue 1.Calcium c. Osteoporosis
2. Sodium b. Anaemia 2.Sodium e. Muscular cramps
w.
3. Potassium c. Osteoporosis 3. Potassium a. Muscular fatigue

4. Iron d. Goitre 4.Iron b. Anaemia
5. Iodine e. Muscular cramps 5.Iodine d. Goitre
ww
V) Fill in the blanks with suitable answers
Vitamins Dietary Source Deficiency disease

Calciferol Rickets
Papaya Night blindness
Ascorbic acid
Whole grains Beriberi

81 UNIT - 21
Ans :
Vitamins Dietary Source Deficiency disease

Calciferol Dairy Products Rickets
Retinol Papaya Night blindness
Ascorbic acid Citrus fruits Scurvy
Thiamine Whole grains Beriberi
VII. Assertion and Reason
et
Direction : In the following question, a statement of a Assertion is given and a
corresponding Reason is given just below it. Of the statements given below, mark
the correct answer as:
1. Assertion : Haemoglobin contains iron.
i.N
Reason : Iron deficiency leads to anaemia.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
la
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) If both Assertion and Reason is false
sa Ans : (d) If both Assertion and Reason is false
VIII. Give reasons for the following statements.

c) Deficiency of calcium in diet leads to poor skeletal growth...............
Ans
in diet leads to :poor
Deficiency of calcium in diet leads to poor skeletal growth because calcium
skeletal growth
da
is the major consituent of bone.
IX. Answer briefly.

1. Differentiate
a) Kwashiorkar from Marasmus.
Pa
Ans :
S.No. Kwashiorkar Marasmus
1. It is a condition of severe protein It is due to the diet is poor in Carbohydrates
deficiency . fats and protiens.
w.
2. It affects children between 1-5 It usually affects infants below the age of one
years of age. year.
b) Macronutrients from micronutrients.

ww
Ans :
S.No. Macronutrients Micronutrients
1. Nutrients required for the growth and Nutrients required for the growth and
development of the body in large development of the body in small
quantities are called Macronutrients. quantities are called Micronutrients.
2. Eg. Calcium, Phosphorus, Potassium, Eg. Sulfur, Iron, Chlorine, Cobalt,
Sodium and Magnesium. Copper, Zinc, Manganese,
Molybdenum, Iodine and Selenium.
9 Sci - 6

82 UNIT - 21
5.What factors are required for the absorption of Vitamin D from the food by the
body?
Ans : 1) Sunlight 2) Dehydro Cholestrol.
6. Write any one function of the following minerals.

a) Calcium b) Sodium c) Iron d) Iodine
Ans :
SI.no Minerals Functions
a) Calcium Constituent of bones
et
b) Sodium Maintains fluid balance
c) Iron Important component of haeomoglobin
d) Iodine Formation of thyroid hormones
i.N
X. Answer in detail.
1. How are vitamins useful to us? Tabulate the sources, deficiency diseases and
symptoms of fat soluble vitamins.
Ans : a) Vitamin : Vitamins are vital nutrients required in minute quantities of perform
la
specific physiological and biochemical functions.
b) Fat soluble vitamins :
Vitamins
Vitamin A
sa Sources
Carrot,papaya, leafy
Deficiency disorders
Xerophthalmia
Symptoms
Dryness of Cornea
(Retinol) vegetables, fish liver oil Nyctalopia Unable to see in the
liver, diary (Night blindness) night
egg yolk, liver, diary (Night blindness) night (dim light)
da
products Scaly skin
Vitamin D Egg,liver, diary products, Rickets Bow legs, defective ribs,
(Calciferol) Fish, synthesized by the (in children) development of pigeon
skin in sunlight chest
Pa
Vitamin E Whole wheat, meat , Sterility in rats, Sterility

(Tocopherol) Vegetable oil, milk Reproductive
abnormalities
Vitamin K Leafy vegetables, Blood clotting is Excessive bleeding due
w.
(Derivative of Soyabeans, milk prevented to delayed blood clotting

Quinone)
XI. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

ww
2. The doctor advices an adolescent girl who is suffering from anaemia to include
more of leafy vegetables and dates in her diet. Why so?
Ans :
« Anaemia is a condition resulting from deficiency of haemoglobin in the blood
« Iron is necessary for the formation of a haemoglobin.
« Therefore the doctor advices the girl to include leafy vegetables and dates in her diet
since they are rich in iron content.

83 UNIT - 21

I. Short answers.
1. Write the classes of nutrients.
Ans :
« Carbohydrates, « Proteins, « Fats, « Vitamins, « Minerals
2. Define Carbohydrate.
Ans : Carbohydrates are organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen and
et
oxygen.
3. Define Proteins.
Ans : Proteins are the essential nutrients and also the building blocks of the body.
i.N
4. Define Vitamins.
Ans : Vitamins are the vital nutrients, required in minute quantities to perform specific
physiological and biochemical functions.
la
5. What is a minerals.
Ans : Minerals are inorganic substances required as an essential nutrient by
organisms to perform various biological functions necessary for life. They are the
sa
constituents of teeth, bones, tissues, blood, muscle and nerve cells.
da
Pa
w.
ww

84 UNIT - 22
UNIT - 22. World of Microbes

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
1. Which of the following is transmitted through air?
a) Tuberculosis b) Meningitis
c) Typhoid d) Cholera Ans : a)Tuberculosis
2. One of the means of indirect transmission of a disease is
a) sneezing b) coughing
et
c) vectors d) droplet infection Ans : c) vectors
3. Diptheria affects the
a) Lungs b) Throat
i.N
c) Blood d) Liver Ans : b) Throat
4. The primary organ infected during tuberculosis is
a) bone marrow b) intestine
c) spleen d) lungs Ans : d) lungs
5. Microbes that generally enter the body through nose are likely to affect
la
a) gut b) lungs
c) liver d) lymph nodes Ans : b) lungs
6. The organ affected by jaundice is
a) liver sa b) lungs
c) kidney d) brain Ans : a) liver
7. Poliomyelitis virus enters the body through
a) skin b) mouth and nose
d) eye c) ears Ans : b) d) eye Ans : b) mouth and nose
da
1. _________ break down organic matter and animal waste into ammonia.
Ans : Putrefying bacteria
2. Typhoid fever is caused by ________. Ans : Salmonella typhi
Pa
3. H 1N 1 virus causes _________. Ans : Swine Flu

4. __________is a vector of viral disease dengue. Ans : Aedes aegypti mosquito
5. ________ vaccine gives considerable protection against tuberculosis. Ans : BCG
6. Cholera is caused by _________ and malaria is caused by _________.
Ans :Vibrio cholerae, Plasmodium
w.
III. Expand the following.

1) ORS - Oral Rehydration Solution
ww
2) HIV - Human Immuno Deficiency Virus

3) DPT - Diptheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
4) WHO - World Health Organisation
5) BCG - Bacillus Calmette Guerin
IV. Pick out the odd one.

i) AIDS, Retrovirus, Lymphocytes, BCG,
Ans :
Odd one : BCG

85 UNIT - 22
ii) Bacterial disease, Rabies, Cholera, Common cold and Influenza

Ans :
Odd one : Rabies
V. State whether True or False. If false correct the statement.

2. Non- infectious diseases remain confined to the person who develops the disease
and do not spread to others. Ans : True
3. The process of vaccination was developed by Jenner . Ans : True
4. Hepatitis B is more dangerous than Hepatitis A. Ans : True
et
VI. Match the following.
1. Swine flu a) Human Papilloma virus
2. Genital warts b) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
i.N
3. AIDS c) Mycobacterium
4. Tuberculosis d) Influeuza virus H1N1
Ans :
1. Swine flu d) Influeuza virus H1N1
la
2. Genital warts a) Human Papilloma virus
3. AIDS b) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
4. Tuberculosis c)
sa Mycobacterium
VII. Define the following.

1. Pathogen
Ans :
da
« A pathogen is a biological agent that causes disease to its host.
« Eg: Bacteria, Virus, Fungi.
3. Vaccines
Ans :
Pa
« Vaccines are preparation of living or killed micro organisms or their products used for
prevention or treatment of diseases.
VIII. Answer very briefly.

2. Name the vector of the malarial parasite. Mention the species of malarial
w.
parasite which cause malignant and fatal malaria.

Ans :
a) Vector of the malarial parasite : The female Anopheles mosquito.
ww
b)Malignant and fatal malaria : Plasmodium falciparum
3. What is triple antigen? Mention the disease which can be prevented by using the
antigen.
Ans :
a) DPT (Triple vaccine) triple antigen.
b) Diseases prevented by DPT antigen :
H Diphtheria,
H Pertussis (Whooping cough)
H Tetanus

86 UNIT - 22
4. Name the chronic diseases associated with respiratory system.

Ans : 1. Tuberculosis 2. Diphtheria 3. Whooping cough
5. Name the organism causing diarrhoeal disease and give one precaution against
it.
Ans :
a) Rotavirus
b) Proper sanitation and hygiene.
6. Name two common mosquitoes and the diseases they transmit.
et
Ans :
1. Female Anopheles Mosquito - Malaria
2. Aedes aegypti - Dengue, Chikungunya
i.N
IX. Answer briefly.
4. Suggest the immunization schedule for a new born baby till 12 months of age.
Why it is necessary to follow the schedule?
Ans : a)Immunization Schedule for Children
la
Age Vaccine Dosage
st
New born BCG 1 dose
15 days
sa
6th week
Oral Polio
DPT and Polio
st
1 dose
st
1 dose
st
10th week DPT and Polio 1 dose
st
DPT and Polio 1 dose14th week DPT and Polio 1 st dose
da
st
9 -12 months Measles 1 dose
b) It is necessary to follow the schedule to protect the children from infectious diseases.
Pa
X. Assertion and Reason type Questions.

Mark the correct statement as.
1. Assertion: Chicken pox is a disease indicated by scars and marks in the body.
Reason: Chicken pox causes rashes on face and further spreads throughout the body.
a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
w.
b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) If A is true but R is false
d) If both A and R are false
Ans : a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
ww
Assertion:: Dengue can be treated by intake of antibiotics.

2. Assertion
Reason: Antibiotics blocks the multiplication of viruses.
a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) If A is true but R is false
d) If both A and R are false
Ans : d) If both A and R are false

87 UNIT - 22
XI. Higher order Thinking Skills.
1. Suggest precautionary measures you can take in your school to reduce the
incidence of infectious disease.
Ans :
1) Using a hand kerchief while sneezing or coughing
2) Staying away from an infected student
3) Drinking clean and hygienic water
4) Keeping the toilet neat and clean
2. Tejas suffered from typhoid while, Sachin suffered from tuberculosis. Which
disease could have caused more damage and why?
et
Ans :
H Tuberculosis causes more damage to the patient than Typhoid.
H It is mostly affect the lungs.
i.N
H Infected person has to be treated with anti-tuberculosis drugs for a long period of 6
months to one year.
la
1. Occurence of goitre in sub-Himalayan regions is ........... disease
sa
(a) Sporadic (b) Epidemic
(c) Pandemic (d) Endemic Ans :(d) Endemic

by the bite of infected .............
1. Filaria mosquito. by the bite of infected ............. mosquito.
is transmitted Ans : Culex
da
III) Match the following :
25 th April
th
1. World Health Day -
th
2. World Malaria Day - 24 March
Pa
th
3. World AIDS Day - 7 April
st
4. World Anti-Tuberculosis Day - 1 December
Answer :
7 th April
th
1. World Health Day -
w.
th
2. World Malaria Day - 25 April
st
3. World AIDS Day - 1 December
th
4. World Anti -Tuberculosis Day - 24 March
ww

88 UNIT - 23
UNIT - 23. Economic Biology

TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

2. Which one of the following is not an exotic breed of cow?
a) Jersey b) Holstein-Friesan
c) Sahiwal d) Brown Swiss Ans : c) Sahiwal
3. Which one of the following is an Italian species of honey bee?
et
a) Apis mellifera b) Apis dorsata
c) Apis florae d) Apis cerana
Ans : a) Apis mellifera
i.N
5. Drones in the honey bee colony are formed from
a) unfertilized egg b) fertilized egg
c) parthenogenesis d) both b and c Ans : a) unfertilized egg
6. Which of the following is an high milk yielding variety of cow?
a) Holstein- Friesan b) Dorset
la
c) Sahiwal d) Red Sindhi Ans : a) Holstein- Friesan
7.Which Indian variety of honey bee is commonly used for apiculture?
a) Apis dorsatasa b) Apis florea
c) Apis mellifera d) Apis indica Ans : d) Apis indica

1. Quinine drug is obtained from ________. Ans : Cinchona Officinalis
cure ________ disease.
2. Carica Ans
papaya leaf can cure ________ disease. Ans : Dengue
: Dengue
da
3. Vermicompost is a type of soil made by ________ and microorganisms.
Ans : earthworm
5.The largest member in a honey bee hive is the_________ Ans : Queen Bee
6._________ is a preservative in honey. Ans :Formic Acid
Pa
III. Say true or false, If false, correct the statement.

2. Milch animals are used in agriculture and transport. Ans : False
Correct statement : Milch animals are used in Milkproduction
3. Apis florea is a rock bee. Ans : False
w.
Correct statement : Apis florea is a little bee.

4. Ongole is an exotic breed of cattle. Ans : False
Correct statement : Ongole is an Indian breed of cattle
5. Sheep manure contains high nutrients than farm yard manure. Ans : True
ww
IV. Differentiate the following.

a. Exotic breed and Indigenous breed
Ans :
S.No. Exotic breed Indigenous breed
1. The exotic breeds are imported Indigenous breeds are
from foreign countries native of India
2. These are selected for long lactation Milk production depends on the
periods duration of the lactation period
have excellent resistant to diseases.

89 UNIT - 23
3. Eg : Jersey Brown Swiss and Eg : Sahiwal, Red sindhi,

Holstein Friesian. Deoni and Gir.
b. Pollen and Nectar

Ans :
Pollen Nectar
Pollen is the male fertilizing agent of It is a sweet, viscous secretion
flowering plants, trees, grasses and weeds secreted by the flower of plants.
et
d. Farmyard manure and Sheep manure
Ans :
S.No. Farmyard manure Sheep manure
i.N
1. It is a mixture of cattle dung, urine, litter It contains higher nutrients than
material and other dairy wastes. farmyard manure
2. It contains 0.5% Nitrogen, 0.2% Phosphate It contains 3% of Nitrogen,
and 0.5 % potash. 1% Phosphorus pentoxide and
la
2% potassium oxide.
V. Match the following.

S.No. Column A
7. Sarpagandha
sa Column B
f) Psoriosis
8. Olericulture h) Reserpine
i) Vegetable9.
farming
Wrighta tinctoria i) Vegetable farming
da
Ans :
7. Sarpagandha h) Reserpine
8. Olericulture i) Vegetable farming
Pa
9. Wrighta tinctoria f) Psoriosis
VI. Answer in brief.

1.What are secondary metabolites?
Ans : Secondary metabolites :
w.
« Most medicines are obtained either directly or indirectly from plants.

« These drugs from medicinal plants are called secondary metabolites
« Secondary metabolites for protection, competition and species interaction.
« e.g. : Alkaloids, Terpenoids, Flavonoids.
ww
2. What are the types of vegetable garden?

Ans : Types of vegetable garden are,
(i) Kitchen or Nutrition gardening
(ii) Commercial gardening
(iii) Vegetable forcing.
4. Enumerate the advantages of vermicompost over chemical fertiliser.

Ans : Advantages of Vermicompost :
« It is a rich source of nutrients essential for plant growth it makes the soil fertile.
« It improves the water holding capacity and helps to prevent soil erosion.

90 UNIT - 23
« It contains valuable vitamins, enzymes and growth regulator substances for

increasing growth, vigour and yield of plants.
« It enhances decomposition of organic matter in soil.
« It is free from pathogens and toxic elements.
« It is rich in beneficial microflora.
5. What are the species of earthworm used for vermiculture?

Ans : The Species of earthworm used for vermiculture are,
« Perionyx excavatus - Indian blueworm
« Eisenia fetida - Redworms
et
« Eudrilus eugeniae - African night crawler
6. List the medicinal importance of honey.

Ans : The medicinal importance of Honey :
i.N
« Honey has an antiseptic and antibacterial property. It is a blood purifier.
« It helps in building up of haemoglobin content in the blood.
« It is used in Ayurvedic and Unani system of medicines.
« It prevents cough, cold, fever and relieves sore throat.
« It is a remedy for ulcers of tongue, stomach and intestine.
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« It enhances digestion and appetite.

sa
3. What are the sources of organic resources for vermicomposting?
Ans : (i) Agricultural wastes (crop residue, vegetables waste, sugarcane trash)
(ii) Crop residues (rice straw, tea wastes, cereal and pulse residues, rice husk,
tobacco wastes, coir wastes)
da
(iii) Leaf litter
(iv) Fruit and vegetable wastes
(v) Animal wastes (cattle dung, poultry droppings, pig slurry, goat and sheep
droppings)
(vi) Biogas slurry
Pa
5. Classify the different breeds of the cattle with suitable examples.

Ans :
Different breeds of the cattle :
They are classified into three types :
w.
(i) Dairy breeds

(ii) Drought or Draft breeds
(iii) Dual purpose breeds
(i) Dairy breeds :
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H Dairy animals are domesticated for obtaining milk.

H The cows are high milk yielders
H The dairy breeds are ,
a) Indigenous breeds
b) Exotic breeds
a) Indigenous breeds :
H Indigenous breeds are native of India.
H Example : Sahiwal, Red Sindhi, Deoni and Gir.
H These cattle are well built with strong limbs, prominent hump and loose skin.
H Milk production depends on the duration of the lactation period (the period of milk
production after the birth of a calf).

91 UNIT - 23
H These local breed animals show excellent resistant to diseases.

b) Exotic breeds :
H The exotic breeds ( Bos taurus ) are imported from foreign countries.
H Example : Jersey, Brown Swiss and Holstein - Friesian etc.
H These foreign breeds are selected for long lactation periods.
(ii) Draught (or) Draft breeds : They are used for agricultural work, such as tilling,
irrigation and carting.
H Example : These include Amritmahal, Kangayam, Umblachery, Malvi, Siri and
Hallikar breeds.
H Bullocks are good draft animals while the cows are poor milk yielders.
et
(iii) Dual purpose breeds : The cows of these breeds provide milk and the bulls are
useful for farm work.
H In India these breeds are favoured by farmers.
H Examples : Haryana, Ongole, Kankrej and Tharparkar.
i.N
VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills .
1. Biomanuring plays an important role in agriculture. Justify
Ans : Biomanuring :
H Organic manures are predominantly derived from plant debris, animal faeces and
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microbes.
H They make the soil fertile by adding nutrients like nitrogen.
H Few of them are listed below.
sa
H i) Animal manure :
a) Farm yard manure.
b) Sheep and goat manure.
H ii) Compost
da
H iii) Green manure
2. Each bee hive consists of hexagonal cells. Name the material in which the cell is
formed and mention the significance of the hexagonal cells.
a) Comb : The comb of the bees is formed mainly by the secretion of the wax glands
Pa
present in the abdomen of the worker bee.

b) Significance of hexagonal cells :
H A comb is a vertical sheet of wax with double layer of hexagonal cells.
H The cells of the comb are of various types.
H Storage cells :
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H It contain honey and pollen.

H They are built in the margin and at the top of the comb.
H Brood cells:
H It contain the young stages of the honey bees and they are built in the centre and the
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lower part of the comb.

H The brood chamber is divided into three types.
H They are Worker chamber, Drone chamber and Queen chamber where the larvae
developing into worker, drone and queen are reared.

92 UNIT - 23

1. Kangayam is native to ................
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Andhrapradesh
Ans :(a) Tamilnadu
2. Dr. Verghese kurien was the father of ............. revolution
(a)Blue (b) Green (c) White d) Yellow Ans :(c) White
3. One kilogram of honey contains .............. calories and is an energy rich food.
(a)1200 (b) 2100 (c) 2300 (d) 3200 Ans :(d) 3200
et
1. ............. is the method of growing vegetables in buildings, green houses, cold
i.N
farms. Ans : Vegetable forcing
2. India's first anti diabetic ayurvedic drug ........... Ans : BGR-34
III. Complete the Analog:

a) Fertile female : Queen bee
la
Fertile male : Drones
b) Deoni : Indigenous breed
Brown swiss
sa : Exotic breed
IV. Answer the following :

1. Name the Indigenous and exotic varieties of Honey bee?
Ans : Indigenous and Exotic varieties of Honey Bee :
a) Indigenous varieties
da
(i) Apis dorsata (Rock bee or Wild bee) (ii) Apis florea (Little bee)
(iii) Apis indica (Indian bee)
b) Exotic varieties
(i) Apis mellifera (Italian bee) (ii) Apis adamsoni (African bee)
Pa
w.
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93 UNIT - 24
UNIT - 24. Environmental Science
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES
TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

et
1. All the factors of biosphere which affect the ability of organisms to survive and
reproduce are called as _______.
a) biological factors b) abiotic factors
c) biotic factors d) physical factors Ans : b) abiotic factors
i.N
2. The ice sheets from the north and south poles and the icecaps on the mountains,
get converted into water vapour through the process of________.
a) evaporation b) condensation
c) sublimation d) infiltration Ans :c) sublimation
3. The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters into the plants through the process
la
of_______.
a) photosynthesis b) assimilation
c) respiration sa d) decomposition Ans : a) photosynthesis
4. Increased amount of _______ in the atmosphere, results in greenhouse effect
and global warming
a) carbon monoxide b) sulphur dioxide
c) nitrogen
d) carbon dioxide dioxideAns : d) carbon d) carbon dioxide Ans : d) carbon dioxide
da
II. Match the following. Ans :
S.No. S.No. Microorganism Role Played
Microorganism Role Played
1. Nitrosomonas a) Nitrogen fixation 1. Nitrosomonas c) Nitrification
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2. Azotobacter b) Ammonification 2. Azotobacter a) Nitrogen fixation

3. Pseudomonas 3. Pseudomonas
species c) Nitrification species d) Denitrification
4. Putrefying bacteria d) Denitrification 4. Putrefying bacteria b) Ammonification
w.
III. State whether true or false. If false correct the statement.

1. Nitrogen is a greenhouse gas. Ans : False
Correct Statement : Carbon - di - oxide is a greenhouse gas gas..
3. Bats are the only mammals that can fly. Ans : True
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4. Earthworms use the remarkable high frequency system called echoes. Ans : False
Correct Statement : Bats use the remarkable high frequency system called echoes.
5. Aestivation is an adaptation to overcome cold condition. Ans : False
Correct Statement : Hibernation is an adaptation to overcome cold condition.
IV. Give reason for the following.

2. Why streamlined bodies and presence of setae is considered as adaptations of
earthworm?
Ans : (i) Streamlined bodies of earthworm, helps them to live in narrow burrows
underground and for easy penetration into the soil.
(ii) Setae in earthworm help to move through the soil and provide anchor in the
burrows.

94 UNIT - 24
3. Why is it impossible for all farmers to construct farm ponds in their fields?
Ans : It is impossible for all farmers to construct it in their fields because,
(i) Farm ponds reduce water flow to other tanks and ponds situated in lower-lying
areas.
(ii) They occupy a large portion of farmer's lands.
V. Answer in brief.
1. What are the two factors of biosphere?
Ans : Biosphere can be grouped into two major categories namely :
(i) Biotic or living factors : - Which include plants, animals and all other living
et
organisms.
(ii) Abiotic or Non-living factors : - Which include all factors like temperature,
pressure, water, soil, air and sunlight.
i.N
2. How do human activities affect nitrogen cycle?
Ans :
« Burning fossil fuels, application of nitrogen-based fertilizers and other activities can
increase the amount of biologically available nitrogen in an ecosystem.
« Nitrogen applied to agricultural fields enters rivers and marine systems.
la
« It alters the biodiversity, changes the food web structure and destroys the general
habitat.
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3. What is adaptation?
Ans : Any feature of an organism or its part that enables it to exist under conditions of
its habitat is called adaptation.
VI. Answer in detail.

da
1. Describe the processes involved in the water cycle.
Ans : a) Evaporation
Water evaporates from the surface of the earth and
water bodies such as the oceans, seas, lakes, ponds and
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rivers.
b)Sublimation
Ice sheets and ice caps from north and south poles,
and icecaps on mountains, get converted into water
vapour directly, without converting into liquid.
w.
c)Transpiration
Transpiration is the process by which plants release
water vapour in to the atmosphere through stomata in
leaves and stems. Water Cycle
d) Condensation
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At higher altitudes, the temperature is low. The water vapour present there
condenses to form very tiny particles of water droplets. These particles come close
together to form clouds and fog.
e) Precipitation
Due to change in wind or temperature, clouds combine to make bigger droplets, and
pour down as precipitation(rain). Precipitation includes drizzle, rain, snow and hail.
f) Run off
As the water pours down, it runs over the surface of earth. Runoff water combines to
form channels, rivers, lakes and ends up into seas and oceans.

95 UNIT - 24
2. Explain carbon cycle with the help of a flow chart?

Ans : Carbon cycle :
H All living organisms are made up of
carbon containing molecules like proteins
and nucleic acids.
H The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters
into the plants through the process of
photosynthesis to form carbohydrates.
H From plants, it is passed on to
herbivores and carnivores.
H During respiration, plants and animals
et
release carbon into atmosphere in the form
of carbon dioxide.
H Carbon dioxide is also returned to the
i.N
atmosphere through decomposition of
dead organic matter, burning fossil fuels
and volcanic activities. Carbon Cycle
4. How does a bat adapt itself to its habitat ?

Ans : Adaptations of Bat :
la
H Bats are the only mammals that can fly.
H Mostly, bats live in caves.
H Apart from caves, bats also live in trees, hollowed logs and rock crevices.
sa
H They are extremely important to humans as they reduce insect population and help to
pollinate plants.
H Adaptations of bat in relation to their habitat are explained below.
Nocturnality :
da
H Bats are active at night.
H This is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day.
H Their thin, black wing membrane (Patagium) may cause excessive heat absorption
during the day.
H This may lead to dehydration.
Pa
Flight adaptation :
H Forelimbs are modified serve wings.
H Tail supports and controls movements during flight.
H Muscles are well developed and highly powerful and achieve in beating of wings.
H Tendons of hind limbs provide a tight grasp when the animals are suspended upside
w.
down at rest.
Hibernation :
H Hibernation is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered
metabolic rate during winter.
ww
H Bats are warm blooded animals but unlike other mammals, they let their internal
temperature reduce when they are resting.
H They go to a state of decreased activity to conserve energy.
Echolocation :
H Bats use a remarkable high-frequency system called echolocation.
H Bats give out high-frequency sounds ((ultrasonic
ultrasonic sounds
sounds). ).
H These sounds are reflected back from its prey and perceived by the ear.
H Bats use these echoes to locate and identify the prey.

96 UNIT - 24

1. ................ is an essential component of proteins , DNA and Chlorophyll.
(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon (d) Oxygen Ans :(b) Nitrogen
2. Charcoal, Diamond and Graphite are elemental forms of .............
(a)Carbon (b) Potassium (c) Iron d) Zinc Ans :(a) Carbon
3. An earthworm is a segmented worm which belongs to phylum ...........
(a) Porifera (b) Mollusca (c) Arthropoda (d) Annelida Ans :(d) Annelida
et
1. Thin, black wing membrane in bats are ............. . Ans : Patagium
2. Earthworms can sense light through light sensitive cells called ............. .
Ans : Photo - receptors
i.N
III. Answer the following :
1. List out the environmental issues.
Ans :
H Pollution
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H Global warming
H Ozone layer depletion
H Acid rain
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H Deforestation
H Land slide
H Drought
H Desertification
da
2. Give the kinds of Precipitation.
Ans : Drizzle, rain, snow, hail.
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w.
ww

97 PRACTICALS
PRACTICAL - TABLE OF CONTENTS
SI.NO NAME OF THE EXPERIMENT TIME
1. To find the diameter of a spherical body 40 minutes
et
2. To find the thickness of given iron nail 40 minutes
4. Measurement of volume of liquids 40 minutes
i.N
5. Identification of adaptations in animals 40 minutes
la
6. Identification of plant and animal tissues 40 minutes
sa
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w.
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9 Sci - 7

98 PRACTICALS
PRACTICALS
PHYSICS
1. TO FIND THE DIAMETER OF A SPHERICAL BODY
Marks : 10
Time : 40 Minutes
Aim :
« To determine the diameter of a spherical body using Vernier Caliper
et
Apparatus required :
« Vernier Caliper, given spherical body ( cricket ball )
Formula :
i.N
i) Least count (LC) = 1 Main scale division - 1 Vernier scale division
LC = 1mm - 0.9mm
LC = 0.1mm ( or ) 0.01cm
ii) Diameter of the spherical object (d) = M.S.R. + ( VC x LC ) ± ZC cm
where , MSR = Main Scale Reading
la
VC = Vernier Coincide
LC = Least Count ( 0.01cm )
sa ZC = Zero Correction.
Procedure :
« Find the least count of the Vernier caliper.
« Find the zero correction of the Vernier caliper.
« Fix the object firmly in between the two lower jaws of the Vernier.
Measure
reading and the«Vernier the
scale main scale reading and the Vernier scale Coincidence.
Coincidence.
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« Repeat the experiment by placing the jaws of the Vernier at different position of the
object.
« Using the formula find the diameter of the object.
Least Count :(LC) 0.01cm Zero correction :(ZC) 0
Pa
SI.No Main Scale Reading Vernier Coincidence Diameter of object d = MSR

MSR(cm) (VC) + (VC x LC ) ± ZC (cm )
1 7.2 9.5 7.2+ 0.095 = 7.295
2 7.2 9.4 7.2+ 0.094 = 7.294
w.
3 7.2 9.6 7.2+ 0.096 = 7.296
21.885
Average ¾¾¾ = 7.295cm
ww
3
Result : The diameter of the given spherical object ( Cricket ball ) is 7.29 cm
Marks Allotment :
Aim - 1 Mark
Apparatus required - 2 Marks
Formula - 2 Marks
Procedure - 2 Marks
Tabulation - 2 Marks
Result - 1 Mark
Total - 10 Marks

99 PRACTICALS
2. TO FIND THE THICKNESS OF GIVEN IRON NAIL

Marks : 10
Time : 40 Minutes
Aim : HTo find the thickness of the given iron nail
Appartus required : Screw gauge and iron nail
Formula :
Pitch scale Reading
i) Least Count (LC) = ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
No of divisions in the Head Scale
ii) Thickness (t) = Pitch scale Reading ( PSR ) +
et
[ Head scale coincidence (HSC ) x Least Count (LC ) ] ± zero correction
t = PSR + ( HSC x LC ) ± ZC
Error :
i.N
i) If positive error is 5 points, for zero correction, subtract 5 points.
t = PSR + ( HSC x LC) - ZC
t = PSR + ( HSC x LC ) - 5
ii) If negative error is 95 points, for zero correction add 5 points( 100 - 95 =5).
t = PSR + ( HSC x LC )+ ZC
la
t = PSR + ( HSC x LC ) + 5
iii) If no correction is needed,
sa t = PSR + ( HSC x 0.01 ) ± 0
Procedure :
« The Least count of screw gauge is 0.01mm
« The zero error is to be found when the two faces of the screw gauge touch each other.
nail between the two Then of
« faces place the iron
the screw gauge.
nail between the two faces of the screw gauge. The pitch scale
da
reading ( PSR ) and head scale coincidence ( HSC ) are to be noted.
« Repeat the process by placing other parts of the iron nail in the screw gauge
« Tabulate the readings.
Pa
Zero correction : 0 Least count : 0.01mm

SI.No Pitch Scale Reading Head Scale Coincidence Thickness of the iron nail
PSR (mm) ( HSC) t = PSR + ( HSC x LC )
± ZC (mm )
1 2 55 2 + ( 55 x 0.01 )
w.
= 2 + 0.55 = 2.55
2 2 56 2 + ( 56 x 0.01 )
= 2 + 0.56 = 2.56
ww
3 2 57 2 + ( 57x 0.01 )
= 2 + 0.57 = 2.57
Average = 7.68 / 3 = 2.56 mm
Result : The diameter ( Thickness ) of the iron nail is 2.55 mm
Marks Allotment :
Aim - 1 Mark
Apparatus Required - 2 Marks
Formula - 2 Marks
Procedure - 2 Marks
Result - 1 Mark
Total - 10 Marks

100 PRACTICALS
CHEMISTRY
4. MEASUREMENT OF VOLUME OF LIQUIDS
Marks : 10
Time : 40 Minutes
Aim :
« To measure the volume of given colourless and coloured liquids.
Materials Required :
et
Pipette ( 20ml ), sample liquids and beakers
Procedure :
i.N
Take a 20 ml pipette. Wash it thoroughly with water and then rinse it with the given
liquid. Insert the lower end of the pipette into the given liquid and suck the solution slowly
till the solution rises well above the circular mark on the stem. Take the pipette out of the
mouth and quickly close it with the fore finger. Take the pipette out the liquid and keep it
such a way that the circular mark on the stem is at the level of the eyes. Now slowly
la
release the fore finger to let the liquid drop out until the lower meniscus touches the
circular mark on the stem. If the liquid in the pipette is exactly 20ml. This can be
transferred to an empty beaker by removing the fore finger.
sa
Tabulation :
SI.No Name of the liquid Colour of the Nature of the Volume of the
liquid meniscus liquid
da
pink 1 Pottassium permanganate pink
Upper meniscus Upper meniscus 20ml
2 Copper sulphate Blue Upper meniscus 20ml
3 Hydrochloric acid(HCl) Colourless Lower meniscus 20ml
4 NaOH solution Colourless Lower meniscus 20ml
Pa
Result : Exactly 20ml of various liquids are measured using a standard 20ml pipette.
Note :
1) Keeping the circular mark on the stem of the pipette above or below the level of the
w.
eyes will lead to error.

2) When coloured liquids are measured, the upper meniscus should be taken into
account.
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3) Never suck strong acids or strong alkalis using a pipette.
Marks Allotment :
Aim - 2 Marks
Materials Required - 2 Marks
Procedure - 2 Marks
Result - 2 Marks
Total - 10 Marks

101 PRACTICALS
BIOLOGY
5. IDENTIFICATION OF ADAPTATIONS IN
ANIMALS
Marks : 10
Time : 40 Minutes
Aim :
et
« To identify the given vertebrate animal and list out the following adaptations seen in
them.
Required Specimens :
1. Pisces ( Fish ) 2. Amphibian ( Frog ), 3. Reptile ( Calotes ), 4. Aves ( Dove ),
i.N
5. Mammal ( Rat )
The following adaptations are noted.
SI.No Name of the Habitat Body Structure Body Locomotory

Animal Covering Organs
la
1 Pisces(Fish) Aquatic Streamlined body. Scales Fins, tail
sa Body has three parts-
Head, trunk, tail
2 Amphibian Land and Head stout body. Moist skin Fore and hind
water No neck (Frog) waterlimbs. Hind
No neck limbs. Hind
da
limbs have
webbed feet.
3 Reptile Land Slender. Body has Dry scales Fore and hind
Pa
(Calotes) head, trunk and tail limbs
4 Aves(Dove) Arboreal Spindle, head, neck Feathers Wings

Light weight body
with air sacs and
w.
Preumatic bones,tail
5 Mammal Burrows Small head, neck four Epidermal Fore and hind
(Rat) legged with long tail Hairs limbs
ww
Result : Comparitive study about the adaptation of the given specimen was done.
Marks Allotment :
Aim - 2 Marks
Required Specimens - 2 Marks
Observation - 2 Marks
Result - 2 Marks
Record Work - 2 Marks
Total - 10 Marks

102 PRACTICALS
6. IDENTIFICATION OF PLANT AND ANIMAL TISSUES

Aim:
H To identify the structural features of plant and animal tissues from permanent
prepared slides.
Observation:
Identify the given plant and animal tissues.
a) Simple tissues- parenchyma, collenchyma, sclerenchyma
b) Complex tissues-xylem and phloem
c) Epithelial tissue- columnar epithelium, ciliated epithelium
et
d) Connective tissue- section of bone
e) Muscle tissue- skeletal muscle, smooth and cardiac muscle
f) Nerve tissue
Draw a labelled sketch and write the location and function of the tissues observed.
i.N
A ) S i m p l e t i s s u e s - pa r e n c h y m a , c o l l e n c h y m a ,
sclerenchyma
1. Parenchyma :
H Parenchyma are simple permanent tissues composed of
la
living cells.
H Parenchyma cells are thin walled, oval, rounded or
polygonal in shape with well developed spaces among them.
sa
Function :
H When exposed to light, parenchyma cells may develop
chloroplasts and are known as Chlorenchyma.
2. Collenchyma : Parenchyma
da
H Collenchyma is a living tissue found beneath the
epidermis.
H Cells are elongated with unevenly thickened non-
lignified walls.
Pa
H Cells have rectangular oblique or tapering ends and

persistent protoplast.
H They posses thick primary non-lignified walls.
Function :
H They provide mechanical support for growing organs.
Collenchyma
w.
3.Sclerenchyma :
H Sclerenchyma consists of thick walled cells which are
often lignified.
H Sclerenchyma cells are dead and do not possess living
ww
protoplasts at maturity.
H Sclerenchyma cells are grouped into fibres and
sclereids.
H Fibres are elongated sclerenchymatous cells, usually
with pointed ends.
H Their walls are lignified.
H Fibres are abundatly found in many plants.
H The average length of fibres is 1 to 3 mm.
Sclerenchyma

103 PRACTICALS
B) Complex tissues-xylem and phloem .The given micro slide observed as xylem, phloem tissue
Xylem
H Conducts water and minerals
H Conduction is mostly unidirectional i.e., from roots to
apical parts of the plant.
H Conducting channels are tracheids and vessels.
H Component of xylem include tracheid vessels, xylem
parenchyma and xylem fibres. companion cells, phloem
A. Xylem longitudinal section
et
parenchyma and phloem fibres.
B. Xylem transverse section
Phloem
H Conducts organic solutes or food materials.
i.N
H Conduction may be bidirectional from leaves to storage
organs and growing parts or from storage organs to
growing parts of plants.
H Conducting channels are sieve tubes.
la
H Components are sieve elements, companion cells,
phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres.
sa Longitudinal section of phloem tissue
C) Epithelial tissue- columnar epithelium, ciliated epithelium
Columnar Epithelium :
H Columnar Epithelium is composed of a single
layer of slender, elongated and pillar like cells.
at the base. H Their nuclei are located at the base.
da
H It is found lining the stomach, gall bladder, bile duct,
small intestine, colon, oviducts and also fo :
H They are mainly involved in secretion and
absorption
Columnar Epithelium
Pa
Ciliated Epithelium :
H Certain columnar cells bear numerous delicate hair like
out growths called cilia and are called ciliated epithelium.
H Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific
direction over the epithelium.
w.
H It is seen in the trachea of wind-pipe, bronchioles of

respiratory tract, kidney tubules and fallopian tubes of
oviducts.
D) Connective tissue :
Ciliated Epithelium
H It is solid, rigid and strong, non-flexible skeletal
ww
connective tissue.
H The matrix of the bone is rich in calcium salts
and collagen fibres which gives the bone its
strength.
H The matrix of the bone is in the form of
concentric rings called lamellae.
H The bone cells present in Lacunae are called
osteocytes. They communicate with each other
by a network of fine canals called canaliculi. T.S of Bone
H The hollow cavities of spaces are called marrow cavities filled with bone marrow.
H They provide shape and structural framework to the body. Bones support and protect
soft tissues and organs.

104 PRACTICALS
E) Muscle tissue- skeletal muscle, smooth muscle and cardiac muscle

a. Skeletal muscle
muscle::
H These muscles are attached to the bones and are responsible
for the body movements and are called skeletal muscles.
H They work under our control and are also known as voluntary
muscles.
H The muscle fibres are elongated, cylindrical, unbranched and
with alternating dark and light bands, giving them the striped or
striated appearance.
H They possess many nuclei (multinucleate). They occur in the
biceps and triceps of arms and undergo rapid contraction.
et
b. Smooth muscle
muscle:: Skeletal muscle
H These muscles are spindle shaped with broad middle part and
tapering ends.
H There is a single centrally located nucleus (uninucleate).
i.N
H These fibrils do not bear any stripes or striations and hence are
called non-striated.
H They are not under the control of our will and so are called
involuntary muscles.
H The walls of the internal organs such as the blood vessels, gastric
la
glands, intestinal villi and urinary bladder contain this type of smooth
muscle.
Function:
H Movement of food in the alimentary canal or the contraction and Smooth muscle
sa
relaxation of blood vessels are involuntary movements.
C. Cardiac muscle
muscle::
H It is a special contractile tissue present in the heart.
cylindrical, branched
H Theandmuscle
uninucleate.
fibres are cylindrical, branched and uninucleate.
da
H The branches join to form a network called as intercalated disc
which are unique distinguishing features of the cardiac muscles.
H The contraction of cardiac muscle is involuntary and rhythmic.
F) Nerve tissue
Nervous Tissue :
Pa
H Nervous tissue comprises of the nerve cells or neurons.

H They are the longest cells of the body. Cardiac muscle
H Neurons are the structural and functional units of
the nervous tissue.
H The elongated and slender processes of the
w.
neurons are the nerve fibres.

H Each neuron consists of a cell body or cyton with
nucleus and cytoplasm.
H The dendrons are short and highly branched
protoplasmic processes of cyton.
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Function :
H The axon is a single, long fibre like process that Neuron
develops from the cyton and ends up with fine
terminal branches.
H They have the ability to receive stimuli from within or outside the body and send
signals to different parts of the body.
Marks Allotment :
Aim - 2 Marks
Observation - 2 Marks
Diagram with parts - 6 Marks
Total Marks - 10 Marks

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UNIT TITLE PAGE

19. Plant Physiology 77

23. Economic Biology 88

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TEXT BOOK EXERCISES

II. Fill in the blanks.

3. Thickness of a cricket ball is measured by ................ Ans : Vernier caliper

III. State whether True or False. If false, correct the statement :

Correct statement : The SI unit of electric current is Ampere

IV. Match the following.

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V. Assertion and reason type Questions.

2. Define standard unit.

3. What is the full form of SI system ?

4. Define least count of any device.

5. What do you know about pitch of screw gauge ?

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VII. Answer briefly.

4. How will you measure the least count of vernier caliper ?

2. How will you find the thickness of a one rupee coin ?

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S.No. PSR HSC CHSC = HSC ± ZC CHSR = CHSC x LC Total Reading =

IX. Numerical problems.

Thickness of the coin = PSR + CHSR

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Additional Questions and Answers

II. Fill in the blanks.

3. Define Light year.

4. Define Atomic mass unit.

Ans : Temperature is the measure of hotness or coldness of a body.

6. Draw and mark the parts of Vernier Caliper.

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I. Choose the correct answer.

3. Distance covered by a particle never becomes zero but displacement becomes

IV. Assertion and Reason Type Questions.

Reason : Acceleration can be produced only by change in magnitude of the velocity. It

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distances in equal distances in equal

2. Motion with non 2. Motion with non Velocity g

uniform acceleration uniform acceleration

3. Constant retardation 3. Constant retardation

4. Uniform acceleration 4. Uniform acceleration

VI. Answer briefly.

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2. Distinguish distance and displacement.

3. What do you mean by uniform motion ?

4. Compare speed and velocity.

5. What do you understand about negative acceleration ?

VII. Answer in detail.

Circular motion: Motion along a circular path.

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VIII. Exercise Problems.

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Additional questions and answers

Part - I. (One mark)