Post Test in Radiation Physics, Radiation Protection, Radiation Biology and QA/Qc

(Cluster 1)

I. Multiple Choice.

1. This image which was recorded on a photographic plate was demonstrated by

Prof. Wilhelm Roentgen to support his discovery of x-rays in 1895.

a. Bertha’s hand
b. Wilhelm’s hand
c. Curie’s foot
d. Edison’s fingers

2. Which of the following tube was used by Roentgen while conducting an

experiment with cathode rays?

a. Coolidge tube
b. Crookes tube
c. Cathode ray tube
d. Test tube

3. This x-ray tube is considered as a replica of modern x-ray tubes because the glass
envelope is highly evacuated. Its tube voltage is controlled by which of the following
type of transformer?

a. Autotransformer
b. High voltage transformer
c. Snook transformer
d. Filament transformer

4. The use of radiographic intensifying screen was first demonstrated by this person
in 1896.

a. Clarence Daly
b. Thomas Edison
c. Charles Leonard
d. Michael Pupin

5. The first x-ray fatality occurred in the United States in _____.

a. 1990
b. 1896
c. 1904
d. 1942

6. William Rollins is known to have adopted this technique first.

a. Collimation
 b. Rectification
c. Electrification
d. Ionization

7. The study of matter and energy at the microscopic level describes _____.

a. Physics
b. Newtonian physics
c. Quantum physics
d. Thermodynamics

8. A branch of physics that describes the motion of macroscopic objects such as cars,
spacecrafts, planets, stars and galaxies.

a. astronomy
b. classical mechanics
c. quantum mechanics
d. nuclear physics

9. The basic quantities measured in mechanics are _____, _______, and ______.

a. radioactivity, dose, exposure

b. mass, length, time
c. volume, length, meters
d. meters, kilogram, seconds

10. What is the acceleration of an object that is travelling at constant velocity along a
straight line?

a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. constant
d. zero

11. A particle that is travelling in a uniform circular motion with respect to the
center is said to be ______.

a. accelerating
b. increasing its mass
c. decreasing its mass
d. stationary

12. The amount of mass contained in matter measures this property.

a. Charge
b. Inertia
c. Acceleration
 d. Speed
13. This equation was derived from Einstein’s Theory of Relativity.

a. E= mc2
b. E= 1/2 mv2
c. E= mgh
d. E= hf

14. What physical quantity describes energy?

a. Force
b. Mass
c. Work
d. Current

15. How much work is done on an object that is displaced 2 meters from its origin
after a force of 1 Newton was exerted on the object?

a. 2 ergs
b. 2 Joules
c. 2 Gy
d. 2 volts

16. The formula which describes the quantity of electromagnetic energy.

a. E= mc2
b. E = 1/2 mv2
c. E= mgh
d. E= hf

17. The value of Planck’s constant, h is 4.15 x 10 -15 eV.sec . What is the
electromagnetic energy associated to a wave frequency of 1000 THz? 1 GHz = 1 x
1012 THz.

a. 415 eV
b. 41.5 eV
c. 4.15 eV
d. 0.415 eV

18. How many cGy are there in 100 mGy?

a. 1
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1000

19. The following are examples of electromagnetic radiation EXCEPT

 a. X-rays
b. Neutrons
c. Radiowaves
d. Laser

20. When a hydrogen atom absorbs x-ray energy , one of the following occurs.

a. The K-electron is raised to one of the sub shells.

b. The K- electron is removed from the hydrogen atom.
c. The absorbed x-ray energy is re-emitted.
d. The K-electron remains in its orbital.

21. The total annual dose to the population from natural radiation sources is ___
mSv.

a. 3.0
b. 3.1
c. 3.2
d. 3.4

22. This natural source of radiation contributes the highest percentage of radiation
dose to the environment.

a. Uranium
b. Radium
c. Radon
d. Potassium

23. This force is responsible for keeping the protons bound to the nucleus.

a. Strong
b. Weak
c. Elecromagnetic
d. Gravitational

24. The intensity of light emitted by bulbs mounted inside a negatoscope - a device
for reading x-rays is measured using this standard unit.

a. Lumen
b. Candela
c. Flux
d. Kelvin

25. The effective dose limit for the embryo is 0.5 rem for the entire gestational
period. What is its effective dose limit/month in mSv?
 a. 0.05
b. 0.5
c. 5
d. 50

26. This quantity is described by the unit Gya .

a. Absorbed dose
b. Equivalent dose
c. Effective dose
d. Air Kerma

27. The Plum Pudding atomic model was conceptualized by one of the following
scientists.

a. J.J. Thomson
b. Mendeleev
c. Rutherford
d. Bohr

28. The following statement about the modern atomic theory is true EXCEPT :

a. Atoms are indivisible.

b. Atoms of a given element are identical.
c. Chemical reactions involve the destruction of atoms.
d. Atoms of different elements have different properties.

29. Cathode rays are actually charged particles called ______.

a. Neutrons
b. Protons
c. Positron
d. Electron

30. This atomic particle has a mass that is 1000 times lighter than the hydrogen
atom.

a. Muon
b. Electron
c. Quark
d. Gluon

31. Which atomic model describes the atom as a shapeless mass of positive
electrification?

a. plum pudding
b. nuclear model
 c. hook and eye
d. miniature solar system
32. Rutherford’s experiment in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of _____.

a. Electrons in well defined orbits

b. A positive nucleus
c. Hooks and eyes
d. Electrons embedded on shapeless mass of positive charges

33.One electron has a charge of 1.6 x 10-19 Coulomb . How many electrons are there
in 1 coulomb ?

a. 0.625 x10-18 electrons

b. 6.25 x 1018 electrons
c. 1.6 x 1018 electrons
d. 6.25 x 10-19 electrons

34. Which quantum mechanics principle describes that the number of electron
states that can share the same principal quantum number, n is equal to 2n2?

a. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle

b. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle
c. Octet’s rule
d. Coulomb’s law

35. How many electrons can occupy the M-shell?

a. 2
b. 8
c. 18
d. 32

36. 60 Co 27 is an isotope. How many neutrons does it have?

a. 60
b. 27
c. 87
d. 33

37. The distance travelled by one wave in one complete cycle.

a. Frequency
b. Wavelength
c. Period
d. Amplitude
38. How long will it take for a wave to travel one complete wave cycle if its frequency
is 5 Hz?

a. 5 sec
b. 5 min
c. 0.2 sec
d. 0.2 min

39. Which of the following wavelength has the highest wave energy?

a. 1 m
b. 0.5 cm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 2.0 nm

40. Which of the following colors has the shortest wavelength?

a. Red
b. Orange
c. Yellow
d. Green

41. The following are not deflected by magnets EXCEPT ____.

a. radiowaves
b. microwaves
c. photons
d. Electrons

42. X-ray intensity decreases with increasing distance because of this x-ray property.

a. Attenuation
b. Scattering
c. Ionization
d. Beam divergence

43. Carbon is an element in the periodic table which contain 6 protons an 6

neutrons. Its atomic number is _____.

a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
d. 30

44. If the intensity at 1 meter is 100 mR/hr, at what distance will the intensity be 400
mR/hr?
 a. 2m
b. 0.5m
c. 1.5m
d. 0.25m

45. Which of the following pairs of charges will neither attract nor repeel?

a. Proton-proton
b. Electron-proton
c. Neutron-neutron
d. Electron-electron

46. Which atomic shell electron will experience the strongest electrostatic force?

a. K-shell
b. L-shell
c. M-shell
d. N-shell

47. What is the electrostatic force in Newton present between 2 coulombs of

electron charge and a 4 coulombs of nuclear charge separated by a distance of 2
meters?

a. 2N
b. 4N
c. 6N
d. 8N

48. The electrostatic force of attraction between two opposite charges is directly
proportional to its _________ , and inversely proportional to the ____ between the
charges.

a. Mass, distance
b. Magnitude, charge
c. Magnitude, mass
d. Magnitude, distance

49. Electric charge distribution is uniform ____.

a. along the sharpest curvature of the surface of the conductor.

b. throughout or on the surface of the conductor .
c. on the sides of the conductor.
d. Underneath the surface of the conductor.

50. One of the following is an example of a semiconductor.

a. Copper
 b. Silicon
c. Rubber
d. Glass

51. Which electrical states of matter does not require electric potential?

a. Superconductor
b. Conductor
c. Insulator
d. Semiconductor

52. How much current is flowing through a conductor carrying 3 Coulombs of charge
moving in 4 seconds?

a. 1 ampere
b. 0.75 ampere
c. 0.50 ampere
d. 0.25 ampere

53. An energy of 5 Joules is applied to an electron charge of 1 millicoulombs. How

much voltage is generated?

a. 1000 volts
b. 5000 volts
c. 10000 volts
d. 50000 volts

54. The ratio of voltage and current is a measure of electrical _____.

a. Power
b. Energy
c. Resistance
d. Capacitance

55. A kilovolt ampere (KVA) is equal to ------ watts.

a. 1 watt
b. 100 watts
c. 1000 watts
d. 10 watts

56. Two directional current flow describes this type of current.

a. Direct current
b. Alternating current
c. Indirect current
d. Sinusoidal current
57. The flow of current in a conductor is from _____ terminal to _____ terminal.

a. Negative, negative
b. Positive, positive
c. Negative, positive
d. Positive, negative

58. The flow of electrons inside the x-ray tube is from ____ to _____.

a. Anode, cathode
b. Cathode, anode
c. Positive, negative
d. Anode, ground

59. Alternating current is produced by a ______.

a. Battery
b. Generator
c. Capacitor
d. Resistor

60. Direct current is produced by a ____.

a. Battery
b. Generator
c. Capacitor
d. Resistor

61. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Conventional electric current flow is from positive to negative terminals.

b. Electron flows from negative to positive terminals.
c. Electrons tend to move from the cathode to the anode side of the x-ray
tube.
d. Electric current never flows from negative to positive.

62. Alternating current is required in the operation of the following devices EXCEPT
_______.

a. Transformers
b. Rectifiers
c. Induction motors
d. X-ray tubes

63. This type of rectification generates only 60 wave cycles in one second.
 a. Half wave rectification
b. Full wave rectification single phase
c. Full wave rectification 3 phase , 6 pulse
d. Full wave rectification, 3 phase 12 pulse

64. The minimum wave voltage for three phase full wave rectified 6 pulse unit is
____.

a. 100 V
b. 99 V
c. 0 volt
d. 86 volt

65. The amount of opposition to the flow of current in a circuit is _____, measured in
______.

a. Capacitance,farad
b. Resistance, ohm
c. Conductance, ohm
d. Current, ampere

66. A potential difference of one volt requires how many Joules of electric energy to
be applied on one Coulomb of electric charge?

a. 1
b.2
c.3
d.4

67. Which of the following factors is/are inversely proportional to electric resistance?

1. Cross-sectional diameter
2. Temperature
3. Conductivity

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3

68. What is the electrical resistance in a circuit that draws a current of 10A with
200V applied across the circuit?

a. 100 Ω
b. 200 Ω
c. 10 Ω
d. 20 Ω
69. An x-ray imaging system that draws a current of 80A is supplied with 220V. The
power consumed in the operation is ____ kW.

a. 2.75
b. 3.63
c. 17.6
d. 1.76

70. The overall resistance of a mobile x-ray machine is 10 Ω. When plugged into a
110V AC source, how much current is drawn and how much power is consumed?

a. 0.091A, 10kW
b. 11A, 1.2kW
c. 10A, 0.091kW
d. 1.2A, 11kW

71. A pathway for electricity to flow in a complete cycle from the source through a
conductor and back to source.

a. series circuit
b. parallel circuit
c. electrical circuit
d. short circuit

72. One of the following factors does not affect resistance.

a. The ability to conduct electrons

b. The length of the conductors
c. The cross-sectional diameter
d. The ambient pressure and humidity

73. The voltage across the total circuit or any portion of the circuit is equal to the
current times the resistance is a statement describing this law.

a. Oersted Law
b. Faradays law
c. Lenz’s Law
d. Ohm’s Law

74. A system of controlling current flow when the conductor is made into a closed
path.

a. Series circuit
b. Electrical circuit
c. Parallel circuit
d. Circuit breaker
75. A series circuit contains three resistive elements that have values of 5, 10 and 20
Ω. If the voltage is 140V, what is the total resistance?

a. 15 ohms
b. 35 ohms
c. 45 ohms
d. 50 ohms

76. The current through each resistor in item #75 is _______ ampere

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

77. The voltage across R1, R2 , and R3 respectively are ____, ______ and ______ volts

a. 40, 20, 80
b. 80, 20, 40
c. 20, 40, 80
d. 40,20, 80

78. A type of circuit where circuit elements are connected in the same path along the
same conductor.

a. series circuit
b. parallel circuit
c. electrical circuit
d. short circuit

79. This device is constructed to permit the breaking of the circuit before a
dangerous temperature is reached and can be reset once the problem has been
located

a. Overload protection relay

b. Safety switch
c. Fuse
d. Circuit breaker

80. An electron moving around the positive nucleus while spinning on its own axis
create this magnetic effect.

a. nuclear magnetic moment

b. orbital magnetic moment
c. spin magnetic moment
d. magnetic field strength
81. Magnetic effect established by movement of protons on their axis.

a. nuclear magnetic moment

b. orbital magnetic moment
c. spin magnetic moment
d. magnetic field strength

82. This force field is created when magnetic dipoles orient to create a magnet.

a. magnetic field
b. magnetic moment
c. magnetic spin
d. magnetic domain

83. The Earth’s magnetic field strength is ______.

a. 1 Gauss
b. 1000 Gauss
c. 10,000 Gauss
d. 20,000 Gauss.

84. 1 Tesla (T) = 10,000Gauss(G). If a household magnet has a magnetic field

strength of 1000G then the magnetic field strength in T is _____.

a. 0.01
b. 0.10
c. 10.0
d. 100.0

85. A type of temporary magnet that is produced by passing an electric current

through a coil of wire wrapped around an iron core.

a. artificial magnet
b. magnetite
c. Iron Oxide
d. electromagnet

86. When a material is easily magnetized, it has high magnetic _______.

a. permeability
b. susceptibility
c. retentivity
d. resistivity

87. Gadodiamide is an MRI contrast media. It is _______.

 a. ferromagnetic
b. paramagnetic
c. diamagnetic
d. non-magnetic

88. Materials that cannot be artificially magnetized are classified as _______.

a. ferromagnetic
b. paramagnetic
c. diamagnetic
d. non-magnetic

89. When current is generated in a conductor by the action of a changing magnetic

field near the same conductor, the current generated is a product of what
phenomenon in physics?

a. Electrification
b. Magnetism
c. Electromagnetism
d. Charging

90. The first demonstration of electromagnetic induction was made by this scientist.

a. Michael Faraday
b. Hans Oersted
c. Heinrich Lenz
d. Max Planck

91. The purpose of passing alternating current to a transformer is to cause a ______

field.

a. steady magnetic
b. changing magnetic
c. continuous flow of magnetic
d. changing electric

92. It states that induced current flow sets up a magnetic field opposing the action
that produced the original current.

a. First Law of Electrodynamics

b. Law of Thermodynamics
c. Faraday’s Law
d. Lenz Law

93. The production of current within a single conductive coil opposing the magnetic
field that induced it is a principle employed in the operation of an autotransformer.
What principle is this?
 a. Principle of Electromagnetic Induction
b. Principle of Self Induction
c. Principle of Mutual Induction
d. All of these

94. A device that is supplied with electric current to produce mechanical motion.

a. electric generator
b. electric motor
c. transformer
d. electromagnet

95. A device that converts mechanical energy to electrical energy using Faraday’s
law.

1. dynamo 2. electric generator 3. electric motor

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 only

96. An electrical device that is designed to either increase or decrease the magnitude
of the applied voltage or current for a specific purpose.

a. rectifier
b. diode
c. transformer
d. semiconductor

97. One of the following relationship describes the Transformer Law.

a. Vs/Vp = Np/Ns
b. Is/Ip = Ns/Np
c. Vs/Vp = Ns/Np
d. Ip/Is = Np/Ns

98. A transformer is supplied with 100V on the primary side. For every 20 turns in
the secondary side, there are 5 turns in the primary side, the secondary voltage
would then be ______ V.

a. 200
b. 400
c. 100
d. 300
99. If the same transformer has a primary current of 10 A, the secondary current is
_____ A.

a. 5
b. 2.5
c. 25
d. 1.25

100. The primary side of a filament transformer has 1000 turns while the secondary
side has 500 turns. What is the filament current if the current through the primary
winding is 2A?

a. 1A
b. 2A
c. 3A
d. 4A

101. Copper loss in transformers can be minimized by one or any of the following.

1. Use of low resistance wire

2. Use of high voltage
3. Use of low amperage

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

102. This type of power loss in transformers is characterized by an additional

resistance caused by alternate reversal of the magnetic field brought about by
alternating current.

a. Copper Loss
b. Hysteresis Loss
c. Eddy Current Loss
d. I2R Loss

103. This type of power loss in transformers is characterized by an additional

resistance caused by alternate reversal of the magnetic field brought about by
alternating current.

a. Copper Loss
b. Hysteresis Loss
c. Eddy Current Loss
d. I2R Loss
104. This component of the x-ray machine supplies a precise voltage to the filament
circuit and high voltage circuit.

a. autotransformer
b. filament transformer
c. high voltage transformer
d. line voltage compensator

105. An autotransformer connected to a 200V supply contains 500 turns, all of which
are enclosed by primary connections, If 2500 turns are enclosed by secondary
connection, what voltage is supplied to the high voltage generator?

a. 40V
b. 100V
c. 1000V
d. 2000V

106. A process employed in the operation of an x-imaging system to ensure that

electrons flow from the cathode to the anode side of the x-ray tube.

a. Voltage rectification
b. Line focus principle
c. Voltage saturation
d. Voltage reversal

107. The percentage difference between the maximum voltage and the minimum
voltage waveform relative to the maximum voltage describes a voltage waveform
characteristic called ____.

a. Voltage Rectification
b. Voltage Ripple
c. Voltage Transformation
d. Voltage Induction

108. What is the minimum voltage of a rectified imaging system with 4% ripple?

a. 0V
b. 100V
c. 4V
d. 96V

109. Which type of rectified x-ray imaging system produces 35% more average
photon energy than single phase full wave units?

a. three phase six pulse

b. three phase twelve pulse
c. high frequency generator
 d. half wave rectification

110. A single phase full wave rectified x-ray machine uses 100kVp and 15mAs . If a
three phase 6 pulse rectified x-ray unit is used, only ____kVp and ____mAs is needed
to yield the same x-ray output.

a. 95, 5
b. 90, 10
c. 85, 7.5
d. 80, 5

111. The power rating of a high voltage generator for diagnostic x-ray imaging
system ranges between ______kW to ________ kW.

a. 10, 20
b. 20, 30
c. 30, 50
d. 100, 150

112. Calculate the heat units generated for the following exposures 250 mA, 0.7
seconds and 100 kVp in three phase six pulse full wave rectified x-ray unit. Hint: HU =
kVp x mAs x 1.35

a. 17,500 HU
b. 23,625 HU
c. 24,675 HU
d. 25,375 HU

113. Which component of the x-ray unit is not connected in the low voltage control
console section?

a. Autotransformer
b. mA selector
c, timer selector
d. mA meter
114. This component of the x-ray circuit is connected to the secondary side of the
high voltage transformer .

a. filament
b. mA meter
c. kVp selector
d. kVp meter

115.In which of the following portions of the x-ray circuit is a step down transformer
located?

a. high voltage side

 b. filament circuit
c. rectification circuit
d. secondary side

116.An automatic exposure control device (AEC) operates on which of the following
principles?

1. A PMT charged by fluorescent screen

2. A parallel plate ionization chamber charged by x-ray photons
3. Motion of magnetic fields inducing current in a conductor

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
117.Excessive anode heating can cause vaporized tungsten to be deposited on the
port window resulting in:

1. decreased tube output

2. tube failure
3. electrical sparking

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1,2 and 3

118.This component of the x-ray machine controls leakage radiation, isolates the
high voltage and provides means to cool the tube.

a. tube insert
b. glass envelope
c. collimator assembly
d. tube housing

119.An element added to tungsten filament to enhance the efficiency of thermionic

emission.

a. Rhenium
b. Molybdenum
c. Thorium
d. Rhodium

120.The area of the focal spot that is projected onto the patient and image receptor.

a. actual focal spot

 b. effective focal spot
c. small focal spot
d. large focal spot

121. Part of the rotor that acts as a high temperature lubricant and maintains
vacuum inside the tube.

a. mineral oil
b. bellows
c. ball bearings
d. air cushion

122. Line focus principle made possible the following advantages:

1. reduce the effective area of the focal spot

2. increase thermal conductivity
3. absorbs heat

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 only
d. 1,2, and 3

123. The consequence of anode angulation is ___.

a. line focus principle

b. anode heel effect
c. off focus radiation
d. rebounding electrons

124. This type of radiation is produced by way of coulombic interaction between an

accelerated charge and a target atom with high atomic number.

1.bremsstrahlung x-ray 2. fluorescent x-ray 3.characteristic x-ray

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

125.The efficiency of Bremsstrahlung production is less than 1% for 100 keV

electrons and is dependent on any of the following:

1. tube voltage 2. atomic number of the target 3. tube

current

a. 1 only
 b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
126.The angle of emission of the Bremsstrahlung photons depends upon any of the
following.

1. tube voltage 2. atomic number of the target 3. tube current

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

127. A high speed electron inside the x-ray tube is a/an _____.

a. electromagnetic wave
b. photon
c. particulate radiation
d. charged particle

128. The maximum distance traversed by an accelerated electron before gradually

losing all its energy until they are stopped describes ______.

a. stopping power
b. electron range
c. electron density
d. build-up depth

129. In diagnostic x-ray range, the interactions are most commonly between ______
and _____.

a. low energy x-rays, whole atom

b. moderate energy x-rays, orbital electrons
c. high energy x-rays, nucleus
d. low energy x-rays, nucleus

130. A type of scattering resulting from the interaction between low energy x-rays
and the whole atom involving a single electron.

a. coherent
b. incoherent
c. Rayleigh
d. Thomson

131. One of the following factors does not have any effect on Compton scattering.

a. mass density
 b. atomic number
c. electron density
d. x-ray energy

132. The quality of the radiographic image is significantly reduced when this
interaction is dominant.

a. coherent scattering
b. Compton scattering
c. photoelectric effect
d. pair-production

133. This type of interaction is responsible in the formation of cassette hinge image
on the radiograph.

a. forward scattering
b. backward scattering
c. sideward scattering
d. 90 degree scattering

134. In this type of interaction, the incident photon transfers all its energy to an
inner shell electron and disappears.

a. coherent scattering
b. Compton scattering
c. photoelectric effect
d. pair-production

135. This type of interaction predominates during soft-tissue radiography.

a. coherent scattering
b. Compton scattering
c. photoelectric effect
d. pair-production

136. The energy of the incident photon is converted into matter and anti-matter
during this interaction.

a. coherent scattering
b. Compton scattering
c. photoelectric effect
d. pair-production

137. This process can be observed following the transformation of electron pairs
having opposite charges into an electromagnetic wave.

a. ionization
 b. attenuation
c. nuclear decay
d. annihilation

138. The HVL of a specific material is 2 cm. How much thickness is required to reduce
the incident intensity to 10%?

a. 3.3 cm
b. 6.6 cm
c. 10 cm
d. 33 cm

139. How many HVL is needed to reduce original intensity to 10%?

a. 1.3
b. 2.3
c. 3.3
d. 4.3

140. The maximum characteristic x-ray energy emitted from an x-ray tube with a
tungsten target is _____ keV.

a. 49
b. 59
c. 69
d. 79

141. The input phosphor of an image intensifier is ____.

a. Zinc Cadmium Sulfide

b. Barium platinocyanide
c. Cesium Iodide
d. Iron oxide

142.This type of digital imaging uses a photo-stimulable plate(PSP) instead of x-ray

films.

a. Digital radiograpy
b. Computed radiography
c. Computed Tomography
d. Digital Subtraction Angiography
143. Flat panel detectors are used for this type of digital imaging system.

a. Digital radiography
b. Computed radiography
c. Computed Tomography
d. Digital Subtraction Angiography
144. A quality assurance program monitors ____.

a. personnel performance
b. management performance
c. machine performance
d. radiation output

145. A QC program should include _____, routine performance monitoring, and

maintenance.

a. outcome analysis
b. acceptance testing
c. personnel monitoring
d. personnel performance

146. Acceptance testing should never be done by the _____.

a. medical physicist
b. radiologic technologist
c. hospital maintenance engineer
d. manufacturer’s representative

147. X-ray machine operating above 70 kVp shall have a minimum total filtration of
_____ mm Al.

a.1.0
b. 1.5
c. 2.0
d. 2.5
148. HVL measurement is done to measure beam _____.

a. filtration
b. attenuation
c. collimation
d. Absorption

149. What is the expected image that will be displayed on a radiograph exposed to
70 kVp , 100 mA , 100ms from a full wave 3 phase x-ray unit?

a. 6 dots
b. 12 dots
c. 36 deg arc
d. 6 deg arc

150. Comparing the mR output at 50 mA @ 0.2 s, 100 mA@ 0.1s and 200 [email protected]
is part of which QC test?
 a. uniformity
b. linearity
c. reproducibility
d. filtration

151. The _______ is the basic functional unit of all plants and animals.

a. DNA
b. Cell
c. Macromolecule
d. Lipid

152.The _____ in the body provide fuel for cell metabolism.

a. protein
b. water
c. carbohydrates
d. hormones

153. DNA is located in the _____ of the cell.

a. nucleus
b. cytoplasm
c. wall
d. organelles

154. Which type of radiation induced DNA damage is most important for cell killing
caused by exposure to ionizing radiation.

a. base damage
b. DNA double strand break
c. DNA single strand break
d. DNA protein crosslink

155. The DNA damage produced by ionizing radiation cause:

a. Double strand breaks as the exclusive form of damage

b. Irreparable damage
c. Single strand brakes more frequently than double strand breaks
d. Cell death

156.Radiation induced anaphase bridges generally result from:

a. dicentric chromosomes
b. ring chromosomes
c. acentric fragment
d. isochromatid breaks
157. Site of protein synthesis

a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Ribosomes
d. Endoplasmic reticulum

158. 80% of the molecular composition of the human body is attributed to this
molecule.

a. Water
b. Protein
c. Nucleic acids
d. Lipids

159. During this phase , chromosomes become visible under the microscope.

a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase

160. The following types of cell have high radiosensitivity EXCEPT ______.

a. Lymphocytes
b. Intestinal crypt cells
c. Nerve cells
d. Spermatogonia

161. This statement does not describe the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau.

a. Stem cells are radiosensitive; mature cells are radioresistant.

b. Younger tissues and organs are radiosensitive.
c. Tissues with high metabolic activity are radiosensitive.
d. High proliferation rate for cells and high growth rate for tissues result in
decreased radiosensitivity.

162. The following are physical factors affecting radiosensitivity of cells EXCEPT
_______.

a. Linear energy transfer

b. Relative biological effectiveness
c. Oxygen enhancement ratio
d. Fractionation

163. The study of the effects of ionizing radiation on the biological matter.
 a. Radiation physics
b. Photobiology
c. Biology
d. Radiation biology

164. The main interaction with biological tissues that leads to the induction of
biological effect.

a. Electrification
b. Ionization
c. Excitation
d. Attenuation

165. Which of the following radiation induced chromosome aberrations is a single

hit type?

a. terminal deletion
b. acentric ring
c. dicentric
d. inversion

166. Which law states that the radiosensitivity of living tissue is a function of the
metabolism and maturation of the tissue?

a. Watson and Crick

b. Roentgen and Planck
c. Hurter and Driffield
d. Bergonie and Tribondeau

167. Tissues that are ____ with a _____ metabolic rate are more radiosensitive.

a. immature, low
b. immature, high
c. mature, low
d. mature, high

168. This type of radiation effects occurs within minutes, hours or days following a
whole body exposure to high doses of radiation.

a. Stochastic effects
b. Late effects
c. Chronic effects
d. Early effects

169. A dose of 100 cGy given to a patient in 5 doses of 200 cGy per day is a _____
dose.
 a. protracted
b. fractionated
c. diagnostic
d. fatal

170. The dose received per person in Sv multiplied by the number of persons
exposed per year.

a. Colllective dose
b. Effective dose
c. Absorbed dose
d. Equivalent dose

171. It is the sum of the products of equivalent doses to each organ/tissue (Ht)
and the tissue weighting factor (Wt)

a.Collective dose
b.Effective dose
c.Absorbed dose
d.Equivalent dose

172. Human cells cannot recover from radiation damage after _____.

a. cellular repair
b. repopulation
c. interphase death
d. sublethal damage

173. The effect of radiation at the molecular level.

1. Ionization
2. Degradation
3. Crosslinking

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3

173. Human cells cannot recover from radiation damage after _____.

a. cellular repair
b. repopulation
c. interphase death
d. sublethal damage

174.Which dose response relationship follows a sigmoid curve?

 a. linear, non-threshold
b. linear, threshold
c. non-linear, non-threshold
d. non-linear, threshold

175.For diagnostic x-ray personnel, the highest occupational exposure occurs during
which examinations?

1. fluoroscopy 2. mobile radiography 3. spinal

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 only
d. 2 only

176. Personnel working in interventional radiography should be provided with this

type of monitoring.

a. collar monitoring only

b. waist monitoring under the apron
c. extremity monitoring
d. gonadal monitoring

177.Dose limits are described as ____ .

a. exposure dose
b. threshold dose
c. effective dose
d. dose equivalent

178. This branch of physics is concerned with providing occupational radiation

protection & minimizing radiation dose to the public.

a. Medical physics
b. Health physics
c. Radiological physics
d. Radiobiological physics

179. One of the following is not part of the ten commandments of radiation
protection.

a. Always collimate to the smallest field size appropriate to the examination.

b. Always wear a lead rubber apron when not behind a protective barrier
during the conduct of an x-ray examination.
c. It is not mandatory not to stand in the primary beam.
d. Do not allow familiarity to result in false security.
180. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about the goals of radiation
protection?

a. The stochastic effects of radiation cannot be prevented but can be limited.

b. It is the probability of the occurrence of stochastic effects that needs to be
limited.
c. The deterministic effects of ionizing radiation can be prevented by
observing that the threshold doses are not exceeded.
d. The severity of deterministic effects is unaffected by the radiation dose.

181. According to this principle “ No radiological practice shall be done unless its
introduction produces a positive net benefit.”

a. ALARA principle
b. Principle of Justification
c. Principle of Shielding
d. Principle of time

182. Which of the following statement is true about the cardinal principle of
radiation protection?

a. Minimize distance and increase time

b. Minimize distance and reduce time
c. Maximize distance and increase time
d. maximize distance and decrease time

183. The national regulatory body that regulates the use of all radiation emitting
devices.

a. Philippine Nuclear Research Institute

b. Center for Device Regulation, Radiation Health and Research
c. International Commission on Radiological Protection
d. National Council on Radiation Protection

184. The measured exposure at 1 meter from the source is 300 mR. The exposure at
3 meters is approximately _____ mR.

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d.40

185.The exposure rate at 1 meter from a point source is 200 mR/hr. At what distance
will the exposure rate be reduced to 50 mR/hr?

a. 0.5 m
b. 1.5 m
 c. 2.0 m
d. 4.0 m

186. The dose limit allowed for all radiation worker shall not exceed ____ mSv in a
single year but the averaged dose limit over five year period shall not exceed ____
mSv.

a. 20, 50
b. 50, 20
c. 10, 50
d. 50, 10

187.Occupational radiation monitoring is required if the individual may get ___ % of

the recommended dose limit.

a. 100
b. 50
c. 25
d. 10

188. The annual dose limit to the lens of the eye in mSv.

a. 150
b. 15
c. 300
d. 30

189.When is it appropriate to wear a personnel monitoring device?

1.. While assisting during a fluoroscopic procedure

2. During a personal dental x-ray examination
3. While having a personal chest radiograph done

a. I only
b 2 only
c. 3 only
190. The national regulatory body that regulates the use of all radiation emitting
devices.

a. Philippine Nuclear Research Institute

b. Center for Device Regulation, Radiation Health and Research
c. International Commission on Radiological Protection
d. National Council on Radiation Protection

191. For a pregnant radiologic technologist, which of the following is the required
radiation protection practice?
 a. no fluoroscopy
b. wearing of two personal badge
c. use of gonad shield
d. only one personal badge should be worn

192. The greatest non lethal radiation hazard to an embryo or fetus occurs during:

a. the first two weeks of gestation

b. 2 to 6 weeks of gestation
c. the 2nd trimester
d. the 3rd trimester
193. The design limit for exposures of occupants in controlled areas is:

a. 1 mrem per week

b. 10 mrem per week
c. 100 mrem per week
d. 500 mrem per week
194.If a technologist is exposed to 8 mR/hr for 45 min during a fluoroscopy
examination, what is her total exposure?

a. 2 mR
b. 4 mR
c. 6 mR
d. 8 mR
195.The primary protective barrier for the fluoroscopic x-ray tube.

a. Ceiling
b. Floor
c. Radiographic table
d. Image intensifier

196. Type of gonad shield that is suspended over the region of interest.

a. Contact shield
b. Shaped contact shield
c. Shadow shield
d. Flat contact shield

197. Which is not true about the use of gonad shield.

a. Gonad shielding should be used only when it interferes with the x-ray
examination.
b. Gonad shielding should be used when the gonads lie in or near the useful
beam.
c. Gonad shielding should be considered for all patients especially the
children and those who are potentially reproductive.
 d. Proper patient positioning and beam collimation should not be relaxed
when gonad shields are in use.

198. Which is the measure of the rate at which radiation energy is translated from
exposure to radiation risk?

a. LET
b. OER
c. RBE
d. ESE

199. A pregnant patient with low back pain is scheduled for lumbo sacral x-ray
examination. As she is pregnant , she asked the radiologic technologist if the
examination will affect her pregnancy, What should be the first thing that the
radiologic technologist do?

a. Seek advise from the radiologist before proceeding

b. Refuse to do the x-ray examination
c. Ignore the patient and proceed with the procedure
d. Use a high kV technique and provide gonad shield for the patient.

200. This system of dose limitation does not apply to patient protection.

1. Justification
2. Optimization
3. Dose Limitation

a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 d.3 only