1. Accidents and engineering faults are.

A. insignificant and decreasing.

B. significant and increasing.
C. insignificant and increasing.

2. Murphy's law is perpetuated mainly by.

A. violations.
B. poor aircraft design.
C. complacency.

3. Murphy's law can be regarded as the notion.

A. If something can go wrong it will'.
B. It can never happen to me'.
C. If something goes wrong I am certain to get the blame'.

4. A company's safety policy should be defined in.

A. in CAP 716.
B. the Maintenance Schedule.
C. the Maintenance Organization Exposition.

5. The percentage of accidents attributable to aircraft maintenance and inspection causes is.
A. now less significant due to the introduction of more sophisticated aircraft.
B. significant and rising.
C. now less significant due to more advanced maintenance practices.

6. What is the most common cause of in-flight engine shutdown?.

A. Incomplete installation.
B. Improper fault isolation, inspection or test.
C. Foreign object damage.

7. Most engineering related incidents are due to.

A. installing dirty connectors.
B. installing components incorrectly.
C. installing worn or old components.

8. What causes the most aircraft accidents?.

A. Technical faults.
B. Communication.
C. Misunderstanding between ATC and pilot on approach.

9. 70 - 80% of the total focusing ability of the eye is carried out by the.
A. iris.
B. cornea.
C. lens.

10. What is white finger?.

A. A disorder of the finger which may occur through continuous use of pneumatic
tools because of reduced blood flow.
B. A reaction when the white blood cells die and contaminate the fingers.
C. A skin disorder caused by extensive contact with oils and solvents.
11. When someone is working in an enclosed space (such a fuel tank), another person should
be outside the space in constant communication to.
A. provide instructions to the tradesman.
B. ensure compliance with the maintenance manual.
C. for safety reasons.

12. What part of the eye controls the amount of light that is allowed to enter the eye?.
A. The pupil.
B. The iris.
C. The cornea.

13. Learning of a routine by repeated practice is known as.

A. cognitive learning.
B. motor programming.
C. episodic memory.

14. The ear is used to detect.

A. speed.
B. neither acceleration or speed.
C. acceleration.

15. Light enters the eye through the.

A. cornea.
B. visual cortex.
C. retina.

16. To focus on a near object, the lens of the eye must.

A. be widened.
B. be flattened.
C. be thickened.

17. Which type of memory is most susceptible to interference from external influences?.
A. Long term.
B. Ultra short term.
C. Short term.

18. Peripheral vision is detected by the.

A. cones.
B. fovea.
C. rods.

19. Extreme discomfort experienced by a maintenance engineer due to working in a confined

space is known as.
A. claustrophobia.
B. acrophobia.
C. agoraphobia.

20. What part of the eye is colour sensitive?.

A. The rods.
B. The cones.
C. The iris.

21. What type of lens is used to overcome short sightedness?.

A. Concave.
B. Bi-focal.
C. Convex.

22. The type of memory which is most easily influenced by a person's expectations of what
should have happened is the.
A. long term memory.
B. semantic memory.
C. episodic memory.

23. An aircraft maintenance engineer who wears glasses or contact lenses should.
A. not require their duties to be restricted providing they wear their glasses/contact lenses
at all times they carry out their duties.
B. have their duties restricted accordingly.
C. not require their duties to be restricted providing they have frequent checks to
ensure the adequacy of their glasses/contact lenses.

24. Ultra short term memory has a duration of about.

A. 10 to 20 seconds.
B. 80 - 100 milliseconds.
C. 2 seconds.

25. What type of lens is used to correct long sightedness?.

A. Concave.
B. Convex.
C. Bi-focal.

26. Visual Acuity is the ability.

A. to differentiate between different colours.
B. to detect objects in the peripheral vision.
C. of the eye to discriminate sharp detail at varying distances.

27. The 'working memory' is.

A. long term memory.
B. short term memory.
C. ultra short term memory.

28. At lower light levels, the visual sensing is performed mainly by the.
A. fovea.
B. cones.
C. rods.

29. People with colour defective vision usually have difficulty differentiating between.
A. red and green.
B. blue and yellow.
C. blue and green.
30. The 'cocktail party effect' is descriptive of.
A. selective attention.
B. divided attention.
C. focused attention.

31. Hypermetropia is the medical name for.

A. short sightedness.
B. long sightedness.
C. deafness.

32. Long term memory capacity is usually.

A. unlimited.
B. 4 - 8 years.
C. 12 months.

33. Ultra short term memory has a duration of about.

A. 10 to 20 seconds.
B. 2 seconds.
C. 80 - 100 milliseconds.

34. The memory can be aided by.

A. a checklist.
B. memory checking.
C. mind logging.

35. The retina is situated.

A. behind the cornea with the lens.
B. in front of the cornea.
C. at the back of the eye with the optic nerve.

36. Motor programme refers to.

A. motivational computer software.
B. a task that has been carried out so many times that it becomes automatic.
C. a task that becomes programmed into short term memory.

37. Memory which can be influenced by a persons expectations of what should have happened
is.
A. echoic.
B. semantic.
C. episodic.

38. Information in the long term memory.

A. is easily transferred to the short term memory.
B. is easily lost.
C. is only available under hypnosis.

39. In the eye, the cones are used mainly in.

A. bright light to give fine detail.
B. bright light levels and they give poor colour vision.
C. low light levels and they give poor colour vision.
40. A person suffering from presbyopia would normally.
A. wear spectacles when reading or carrying out close detail work.
B. have defective colour vision and not be allowed to carry out maintenance work on cable
looms.
C. be short sighted and need to wear spectacles to see objects more than 30 cm away.

41. The nose.

A. filters the air into the lungs.
B. filters, warms and moistens the air into the lungs.
C. filters the air into the lungs.

42. A regular behaviour of an individual is known as.

A. the norm.
B. habit.
C. culture.

43. In a discussion, the person who is most likely to be agreed with is.
A. the person who repeats the point most times.
B. the most argumentative person.
C. the person with the highest status.

44. An engineer who has developed his own way of performing a task.
A. is in regular violation.
B. is improving maintenance efficiency.
C. should be commended for his resourcefulness.

45. An aircraft engineer who has 'responsibility'.

A. must be licensed on the particular type of aircraft.
B. are liable to be called to account as being in charge or control of, or answerable for
something.
C. is in a management position within their company hierarchy.

46. Risky shift' is.

A. the probability of being assigned to a work task which involves some element of risk or
physical danger.
B. the name given to an inadequate shift handover.
C. the tendency for a group of workers to arrive at a course of action which is riskier
than that which any individual member might pursue.

47. The difference between what a person 'can' do and what he 'will' do is largely determined
by his.
A. motivation.
B. education and training.
C. physical and mental health.

48. Whose responsibility is it that an engineer remains current on new technology and
procedures?.
A. The organization's.
B. The CAA's.
C. The engineer's.
49. The symptoms of de-motivation are very similar to the symptoms of.
A. stress.
B. tiredness.
C. mental illness.

50. Motivation is.

A. a reward or punishment designed to reduce errors.
B. a reward or punishment designed to increase work rate.
C. the thing that drives someone to do something.

51. Peer pressure is

A. the perceived pressure to carry out a task in the same way your colleagues would.
B. the perceived pressure to conform to what you believe your colleagues expect of
you.
C. Nothing

52. The eyesight of an engineer is the responsibility of.

A. the Quality Manager.
B. the optician.
C. the engineer.

53. A good team is one where every member has.

A. an opinion.
B. an input.
C. a job.

54. An effective group work is when.

A. everyone contributes in some way.
B. everyone discusses ideas and opinions.
C. everyone has a job to do.

55. Which of the following defines a peer pressure situation?.

A. Your supervising manager pressuring you to complete the current task on time.
B. Your girlfriend telling you to go out with her.
C. Your colleagues pressuring you to work faster so they can go home.

56. Successful working teams have the following attributes:-.

A. Members participate in team activities but retain their own individual
requirements.
B. All the members participate in team activities and discussions.
C. All the team members work in isolation and therefore provide highly individual
solutions to the same problems.

57. In an organization which practices human factors there is.

A. punishment for all violations.
B. no blame unless there is a deliberate violation.
C. a no blame culture.
58. A person can be said to be motivated if.
A. they cut corners to get the job done quickly.
B. they are on a productivity bonus.
C. they are taking action to achieve something.

59. Who is most likely to deviate from standard procedure?.

A. Young, inexperienced man.
B. Over confident, young man.
C. Old tired man.

60. Your doctor has prescribed you tranquillizers as you are suffering from depression. You
should.
A. not tell your employer and carry on work as normal.
B. tell your employer and carry on work as normal.
C. not work at all when taking the tranquillizers.

61. Human error can be caused by.

A. high body temperature.
B. normal body temperature.
C. low body temperature.

62. What meal is most recommended after a long shift?.

A. High carbohydrates.
B. Low carbohydrates.
C. High protein.

63. Long shift work will.

A. initially decrease your diagnostic and maintenance ability but eventually increase your
diagnostic and maintenance ability as you get used to it.
B. always decrease your diagnostic and maintenance ability.
C. always increase your diagnostic and maintenance ability.

64. Missing a break in an effort to get a job done within a certain time frame.
A. can be done by those actually doing the job providing the supervisors take regular
breaks.
B. can be counterproductive, as fatigue diminishes motor skills, perception,
awareness and standards.
C. can be done providing adequate rest period is available at the end of the shift.

65. Tiredness causes visual acuity to.

A. decrease.
B. Visual acuity is not affected by tiredness.
C. increase.

66. If a maintenance engineer has a cold or flu he should.

A. only absent himself from duty if his work contract includes sickness pay.
B. only absent himself from duty if there are no staff shortages at his workplace or within
his work team.
C. absent himself from duty until fully recovered, regardless of other factors.
67. Consumption of alcohol.
A. increases mental and physical reaction times.
B. Has no affect upon mental and physical reaction times.
C. decreases mental and physical reaction times.

68. Alertness and performance is reduced when the body temperature is.
A. above normal.
B. below normal.
C. either above or below normal.

69. Finding that familiar tasks (such as programming the video recorder) seems more
complicated than usual, could be an early indication of.
A. acute stress.
B. chronic fatigue.
C. a cold or flu.

70. The only permitted stimulant is.

A. bromine.
B. caffeine.
C. amphetamine.

71. Large amounts of caffeine can.

A. cause anxiety, headaches and stress.
B. reduce anxiety and stress.
C. improve alertness and increase awareness.

72. The symptoms of stress are.

A. violence, sickness, absence from work, drug and alcohol abuse.
B. indications of improved work performance.
C. irritability, forgetfulness, sickness, absence from work, drug and alcohol abuse

73. Sleeping tablets can.

A. slow reaction and dull the senses.
B. increase alertness after waking the following morning.
C. help REM sleep and realign circadian rhythms.

74. Long shift work.

A. decreases the ability to recognize defects.
B. increases the ability to recognize defects.
C. has no effect on the ability to recognize defects.

75. The intake of caffeine in moderate quantities can result in.

A. anxiety, headaches and negative mood states.
B. lack of sleep and subsequent disruption to the circadian rhythms.
C. a temporary increase in the ability to sustain vigilance and increased alertness.

76. Working excessively long shifts during unsociable hours can lead to.
A. decreased ability to detect defects during aircraft maintenance.
B. an increased immunity to stress.
C. increased ability to detect defects during aircraft maintenance.
77. In theory, human error is most likely to occur.
A. when the body temperature is at its lowest.
B. during very hot weather.
C. when the body temperature is stable.

78. Which is important in sleep?.

A. Quantity.
B. Quality.
C. Both.

79. Stressors in the environment of noise and heat will cause.

A. no loss of attention.
B. a total loss of attention.
C. a loss of attention and a distraction.

80. When going from day shift to night shift, efficiency.

A. stays the same.
B. will drop off after the first four weeks.
C. will drop off in the first four weeks.

81. When working on aircraft, the consumption of alcohol.

A. is permissible providing the drink driving limit is not exceeded.
B. you cannot work on aircraft even 8 hours after consuming large quantities of
alcohol.
C. a certain amount is permissible.

82. What effect does alcohol have on sleep?.

A. Both.
B. Decreases quantity of sleep.
C. Decreases quality of sleep.

83. Which of the following is an acceptable substance, with regard to aircraft maintenance?.
A. Penicillin.
B. Caffeine.
C. Beta Blockers.

84. After drinking alcohol, absorption is dependant on.

A. weight.
B. age.
C. time.

85. When comparing noise levels on Human Performance.

A. noise has no effect on the number of errors or the speed of performance of an
individual.
B. an individual can find noise levels annoying but still perform well indefinitely.
C. noise is directly proportional to the number of errors and the speed of
performance of an individual.

86. Environmental stresses are.

A. caused by noise, fumes, heat and vibration.
B. tolerated by everyone equally.
C. not normally cumulative.

87. Employers must provide their employees with personal ear protectors if the noise level
reaches.
A. 70 dB.
B. 85 dB.
C. 60 dB.

88. The maximum allowable noise dose is.

A. 85 dB.
B. any combination of noise and time which exceeds 90 dB TWA.
C. 90 dB for 24 hours.

89. Environmental capture' is a type of error possible when an engineer does the same job
repeatedly.
A. but on different types of aircraft.
B. on the same type of aircraft.
C. in a short timescale.

90. When working with bright lights consideration should be given to.
A. blurred image.
B. shadows.
C. glare.

91. Which of the following is true?.

A. Noise affects the standard of work proportionately with the level of the noise.
B. Noise does not affect a person's standard of work.
C. Noise does affect the standard of work with certain people.

100. The effect on an engineer of environmental noise is.

A. it improves concentration and quality of work.
B. it decreases concentration and quality of work.
C. it has no affect on concentration of quality of work.

101. Excess noise in a working environment can.

A. raise resistance to other stresses.
B. not affect performance.
C. lower resistance to other stresses.

102. Which of the following environments is best suited to aircraft maintenance?.

A. Working outside, at night, in the rain.
B. Working outside, in the direct midday sun.
C. Working inside in a well lit, comfortable hangar.

103. Intense or loud noise may lead to.

A. deafness.
B. fatigue.
C. no effects.
104. Itemized checklists should be dealt with.
A. in any order, provided all steps are completed.
B. item by item, in order, to cover every step diligently.
C. as memorized.

105. The main disadvantage of carrying out critical inspections under very bright artificial light
is.
A. glare.
B. shadows.
C. filtered light.

106. What constitutes a good work handover?.

A. A written and verbal account of the work done.
B. A written documentation of the work done.
C. A verbal account of the work done.

107. A good shift handover should include details of.

A. tasks that have been completed; persons who carried out the tasks; tasks to be carried
out and general company and technical information.
B. tasks that have been completed; tasks in progress, their status, any problems
encountered etc.; tasks to be carried out and tools required to carry out the tasks.
C. tasks that have been completed; tasks in progress, their status, any problems
encountered etc.; tasks to be carried out and general company and technical information.

108. The most effective form of communication is.

A. verbal communication.
B. written communication.
C. explicit communication.

109. What is the most important means of communication in aircraft maintenance

engineering?.
A. Written.
B. Implicit.
C. Verbal.

110. If you are given a task that you are unsure of you should.
A. consult the appropriate approved data.
B. ask someone who has done it before.
C. consult type course notes.

111. The alerting system for an important system failure should be.
A. an aural warning.
B. a flashing visual signal, preferably red.
C. a dolls-eye indicator.

112. A violation in an aircraft maintenance procedure.

A. is usually carried out with the best intentions from a genuine desire to 'get the job
done'.
B. is always considered an act of vandalism or sabotage.
C. is always carried out to satisfy some personal need, often unrelated to the actual task.

113. Which type of human error is easiest to correct?.

A. Constant error.
B. Reversible error.
C. Variable error.

114. On a task that is complex, an engineer uses his own procedures due to pressure. This is
legally termed.
A. modification.
B. initiative.
C. violation.

115. Visual inspection by an 'experienced' maintenance engineer is.

A. knowledge and rule base behaviour.
B. skill and knowledge based behaviour.
C. skill and rule based behaviour.

116. Troubleshooting is.

A. rule based.
B. skill based.
C. knowledge based.

117. A violation is.

A. an unintentional error.
B. a deliberate departure from the rules.
C. an intentional act of sabotage.

118. A mistake is.

A. a deliberate departure from the rules.
B. an intentional act of sabotage.
C. an unintentional error.

119. Whilst working on an aircraft a spanner placed on the wing surface is kicked off and
subsequently falls into an open engine cowl, breaking off a sensor connector. This is an
example of.
A. a skill based error.
B. Murphy's law.
C. a punishable occurrence.

120. An experienced engineer fits the wrong seal during a routine component change. This is.
A. skill based.
B. rule based.
C. knowledge based.

121. The difference between a mistake and a violation is.

A. a mistake is less serious than a violation.
B. a violation is not deliberate.
C. a mistake is unintentional and a violation is deliberate.
122. An experienced engineer is fitting a valve. A required seal is not fitted. What type of error
is this?.
A. Knowledge based.
B. Rule based.
C. Skill based.

123. What is the difference between error and violation?.

A. Violation is deliberate, error is not.
B. Error is deliberate, violation is not.
C. No difference.

124. What is a latent failure?.

A. A mistake that has already been made, but has not yet caused an accident.
B. Receiving bad instruction from a manager who is out of touch with maintenance.
C. A failure which could not have been predicted.

124. An engineer who has developed his or her own method of performing a complex task.
A. should be commended for his/her resourcefulness.
B. is performing a rule based behaviour.
C. is violating on a regular basis.

125. Engineers often work on raised platforms, ladders etc. What dangers can this contribute
to?.
A. Staging may be made of wood.
B. Ladder may slip and man falls.
C. Two workers may be carrying out maintenance on the same lift.

126. Risk assessment and management is.

A. reduction of risks to a tolerable standard and monitoring the situation.
B. the investigation of risks and totally removing them and the monitoring of new work
practices.
C. choosing a cheaper supplier or manufacturer for parts.

127. When carrying out a risk assessment.

A. a hard hat should be worn.
B. it is necessary to identify where equipment/procedures might fail.
C. Nothing.