Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Verbal - Question Booklet

Time: 30-Minutes

1. Pick the anagram that best completes the sentence:

The chef was known for his incredible ability to create delicious meals with the
perfect __________.

A. OAFULRV
B. AOMRFI
C. EOSTLU
D. TALVEN
E. TSARIPE

2. All Quibbles are Draxels with spots. No green Draxels have spots. No Quibbles are
green. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. Impossible to determine
E. None of these

3. An online chess game has 10 pieces in 4 different colors - red, yellow, black, and
white, and each piece is placed with another in a row consisting of two pieces. The
following combinations are possible and others are excluded: red pieces must be
placed with yellow pieces (and vice versa) or themselves, and black pieces must be
placed with white pieces (and vice versa) or themselves, and all white pieces must
be paired with red pieces (and vice versa). What pair combination is NOT possible?

A. Red & Yellow

B. White & Yellow
C. Black & Black
D. White & Red
E. Black & White

4. Seven actors are competing for a spot in a national theater production. They each
submit an audition tape along with a performance review. The actor with the most
technical skill and emotional expression is selected for the production. Actor M
submitted a more technically skilled performance than Actor L, and both were
emotionally expressive. Actors K and J both submitted more technically skilled

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 performances than Actor M and P. Actor P's performance review noted a lack of
emotional expression, as did Actor J's. Which actor was chosen for the production?

A. Actor M
B. Actor J
C. Actor L
D. Actor K
E. Actor P

5. Five packages have been left for pickup at the local courier office. Package 56
arrived two spots behind Package 40, but in front of Package 18. Package 33 is in
front of Package 18, but behind Packages 22 and 56. Which package arrived second
at the courier office?

A. Package 22
B. Package 40
C. Package 56
D. Package 33
E. Package 18

6. If all SNIRKS are BLIRKS, some CLIRKS are SNIRKS, and no FRIRKS are BLIRKS,
which is true?

A. Some CLIRKS are FRIRKS.

B. All FRIRKS are CLIRKS.
C. Some CLIRKS are BLIRKS.
D. All SNIRKS are FRIRKS.
E. None of these

7. What is a synonym for "recalcitrant"?

A. Dangerous
B. Obedient
C. Defiant
D. Reclusive
E. None of these

8. What is a synonym for "effulgent"?

A. Spark
B. Radiant
C. Dim
D. Effuse
E. None of these

9. What word means almost the opposite of "reticent"?

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 A. Talkative
B. Righteous
C. Reserved
D. Resolute
E. None of these

10. Here are some words translated from an artificial language:

norgak means blue sky

gaknor means sky blue
norbal means blue ocean

Which word could mean "ocean sky"?

A. balknor
B. balgak
C. balnor
D. norgak
E. None of these

11. What word means almost the same as "recondite"?

A. Reconcile
B. Obscure
C. Recognize
D. Obvious
E. None of these

12. Which of the following is the odd word out?

A. Bold
B. Timid
C. Modest
D. Meek
E. None of these

13. Which of the following is the odd word out?

A. Reticent
B. Reserved
C. Outspoken
D. Introverted
E. None of these

14. What word means almost the opposite of "ebullient"?

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 A. Enigmatic
B. Melancholic
C. Insouciant
D. Vivacious
E. None of these

15. Embellishing the Truth occurs when a person adds fictitious details or exaggerates
facts or true stories. Which situation below is the best example of Embellishing the
Truth?

A. A real estate agent describes a small townhouse as having an “olympic pool."

B. Linda watches a play she found average, but later tells her friends it was probably
worth watching if you have the time.
C. Rodney, who just played his first game of basketball, told his neighbours he was in
the NBA Hall of Fame.
D. The principal mentions that students who study consistently often get top grades.
E. None of these

16. What word means almost the same as "lustrous"?

A. Shiny
B. Scratched
C. Dull
D. Tactile
E. None of these

17. What word means almost the opposite of "proficient"?

A. Incompetent
B. Adept
C. Rookie
D. First-timer
E. None of these

18. What word means almost the same as "scrupulous"?

A. Negligent
B. Meticulous
C. Fast
D. Mindful
E. None of these

19. It's a bustling Friday morning at the train station, and many people are arriving for
their weekend trips. The station is packed, and the ticket counter is dealing with a
long line of passengers. The ticket manager, Mr. Johnson, is trying his best to issue

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 tickets efficiently, but he suspects that he might have double-booked someone. Anna
is arriving 50 minutes before Brian, and 20 minutes before Emma. Emma is arriving
10 minutes earlier than James, who is 15 minutes after Brian. Olivia is arriving 35
minutes before James. If Brian is getting his ticket at 11:00 am, who has Mr. Johnson
double-booked?

A. Anna & Olivia

B. Olivia & Emma
C. Anna & James
D. Brian & Emma
E. None of these

20. What word means almost the same as "vacillation"?

A. Stability
B. Fluctuation
C. Vaccination
D. Indecision
E. None of these

21. What word means almost the opposite of "gregarious"?

A. Sociable
B. Outgoing
C. Recluse
D. Loquacious
E. None of these

22. What word means almost the same as "ephemeral"?

A. Permanent
B. Enduring
C. Fleeting
D. Effusive
E. None of these

23. Five letters have been left for pickup at the local courier office. Letter 21 arrived two
spots behind Letter 34, but in front of Letter 13. Letter 29 is in front of Letter 13, but
behind Letters 45 and 21. Which letter arrived first at the courier office?

A. Letter 45
B. Letter 21
C. Letter 29
D. Letter 34
E. Letter 13

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24. Four packages have been left for pickup at the local courier office. Package B arrived
immediately after Package D but before Package C. Package A arrived after
Package D but before Package C. Which package arrived last at the courier office?

A. Package A
B. Package B
C. Package C
D. Package D
E. None of these

25. What word means almost the opposite of "exuberant"?

A. Lively
B. Blue
C. Boisterous
D. Crying
E. None of these

26. CARVE is to SCULPT as PEN is to:

A. Write
B. Paint
C. Scrub
D. Sweep
E. None of these

27. Here are some words translated from an artificial language:

drinfak means green grass

fakdrin means grass green
drinbal means green field

Which word could mean "field grass"?

A. balkdrin
B. fakbal
C. baldrin
D. balfak
E. None of these

28. Alex and Taylor were born on the same day in 1985. They have three children:
Ethan, Lily, and Grace. Ethan married Hannah, and Grace married Noah. The former
couple has one child: Oliver. The latter has two children: Sophie and Liam. What is
Liam's relationship to Oliver?

A. Cousin

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 B. Brother
C. Uncle
D. Nephew
E. None of these

29. A shopping mall has several stores in a row. The Clothing store is directly next to the
Electronics store, and two places to the right of the Toy store. The Bookstore is three
places to the right of the Toy store. The Jewelry store is four places to the left of the
Bookstore. If the entrance to the mall is on the far left-hand side, which store is
closest to the entrance?

A. Bookstore
B. Toy store
C. Jewelry store
D. Clothing store
E. Electronics store

30. If no FRIMPS are GRIMPS, some TRIMPS are FRIMPS, and all TRIMPS are
DRIMPS, which is true?

A. No FRIMPS are DRIMPS.

B. Some GRIMPS are TRIMPS.
C. All DRIMPS are TRIMPS.
D. Some DRIMPS are FRIMPS.
E. None of these

31. What word means almost the same as "surmise"?

A. Confirm
B. Doubt
C. Suppose
D. Refute
E. None of these

32. If some BINKS are CINKS, all CINKS are DINKS, and some FINKS are BINKS,
which may be true?

A. Some FINKS are CINKS.

B. All BINKS are DINKS.
C. No FINKS are DINKS.
D. All DINKS are BINKS.
E. None of these

33. What word means the same as "ostentatious"?

A. Ostensibly

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 B. Gaudy
C. Stylish
D. Unsightly
E. None of these

34. If all JINKS are LINKS, all LINKS are BINKS, and no KINKS are BINKS, which is
true?

A. No JINKS are KINKS.

B. Some LINKS are KINKS.
C. All KINKS are LINKS.
D. Some JINKS are KINKS.
E. None of these

35. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?

A. Terrestrial
B. Definately
C. Recieve
D. Seperate
E. None of these

36. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?

A. Maintainance
B. Unrepentant
C. Superfical
D. Submisive
E. None of these

37. If all TINKS are PINKS, some WINKS are TINKS, and no SINKS are PINKS, which is
true?

A. Some WINKS are SINKS.

B. All SINKS are WINKS.
C. No WINKS are PINKS.
D. No TINKS are SINKS.
E. None of these

38. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?

A. Inoculate
B. Suprise
C. Ninty
D. Indispensible
E. None of these

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39. ARID: DRY :: TEMPESTUOUS:

A. Calm
B. Moderate
C. Stormy
D. Breezy
E. None of these

40. MEAGER: ABUNDANT :: FEEBLE:

A. Slow
B. Strong
C. Timid
D. Fast
E. None of these

41. OBSTINATE: STUBBORN :: TRANQUIL:

A. Angry
B. Excited
C. Peaceful
D. Noisy
E. None of these

42. INDUSTRIOUS: LAZY :: ADROIT:

A. Clumsy
B. Skillful
C. Quick
D. Slow
E. None of these

43. LIBERAL: CONSERVATIVE :: EXTRAVAGANT:

A. Lavish
B. Frugal
C. Excessive
D. Generous
E. None of these

44. In a marathon race, the winner has a blue bib, wears a cap, and is a female runner.
Runner 1 has a red bib and a green cap. Runner 2's bib is the same color as Runner
1's cap and is a male. Runners 3 and 4 have blue bibs, with Runner 4 being a male
runner. Runner 5 isn't wearing a cap, the opposite of Runner 3. Who could the winner
be?

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 A. Runner 1
B. Runner 2
C. Runner 3
D. Runner 4
E. Runner 5

45. What is a synonym for "perfidious"?

A. Futile
B. Faithless
C. Honest
D. Fastidious
E. None of these

46. What is a synonym for "entente"?

A. Begrudge
B. Agreement
C. Enter
D. Disagreement
E. None of these

47. What is a synonym for "doleful"?

A. Deed
B. Joyful
C. Sad
D. Bemoan
E. None of these

48. It's a bustling evening at the Grand Theatre, where tonight's premiere is drawing a
full house. The ticket booth is swamped with patrons, and the ticket manager, Mr.
Robinson, is working diligently to ensure everyone gets their tickets promptly.
However, he is concerned that he might have issued duplicate seats.

Anna arrives 25 minutes before Brian and 10 minutes before Catherine. Catherine
arrives 20 minutes earlier than Daniel, who is 15 minutes after Brian. Emma arrives
10 minutes before Catherine. If Brian is scheduled to collect his ticket at 7:15 pm,
who has Mr. Robinson double-booked?

A. Anna & Emma

B. Emma & Catherine
C. Anna & Daniel
D. Brian & Catherine
E. None of these

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49. The scientist’s groundbreaking __________ was published in a prestigious journal.

A. YOTREH
B. MAROET
C. IDTSNU
D. NCEICSE
E. SYITNEV

50. Which part of speech does the word "bemoan" belong to?

A. Noun
B. Adjective
C. Verb
D. Adverb
E. Preposition

51. Which part of speech does the word "quickly" belong to?

A. Noun
B. Adjective
C. Verb
D. Adverb
E. Preposition

52. Which two statements together prove that Tim stole four forks?

1. Tim has an unusual number of forks in his apartment.

2. Tim has stolen a Kingson Cutlery Set.
3. Jack mentioned he saw Tim acting suspiciously.
4. In the Kingson Cutlery Set, there are 16 forks.

A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 2 & 4
D. 4 & 1
E. None of these

53. Michael can swim and play basketball, while Michelle plays soccer and basketball.
Steven plays soccer but not swimming, and Stephanie swims but not basketball. If
each child participates in two of the three activities, which one is likely to be similar to
Michelle?

A. Michael
B. Michelle
C. Steven

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 D. Stephanie
E. None of these

54. Samantha is meeting her brother at 8:00 AM for breakfast to discuss their father's
birthday present, which they'll buy at 5:00 PM. Samantha works from 10:00 AM for
eight hours, taking a half-hour for lunch. After shopping, Samantha and her brother
went to a concert that started at 8:00 PM. The problem was that she booked two
things at the same time. What were they?

A. Breakfast and work

B. Work and concert
C. Shopping and work
D. Concert and shopping
E. None of these

55. 643 years ago, deep in the African savannah, two explorers, Zara and Kofi, shared
the following conversation:

Zara: Lia ko fa re
Kofi: Lia ko fa re dan lum
Zara: Dan lum? Lia ko fa re bita sen
Kofi: Lia ko fa re dan lum

If Zara saw a lion near the river, is it true that:

A. Both explorers saw the lion in the same place

B. Kofi might have seen the lion in the grasslands
C. Zara was confused
D. Kofi was hesitant
E. Kofi was crying

56. A group of uni students live in a four-storey house with one apartment per floor. Alice
is in the apartment below Brian, and Emma is in the apartment above David. David is
in the apartment below Alice, and Brian lives with Grace. Noah lives on the top floor.
Who is in the bottom apartment?

A. Alice and Emma

B. Brian and Grace
C. Emma
D. David
E. None of these

57. During a marathon, five friends finished the race in different positions. Olivia finished
before Liam, and Noah finished after Sophia. Sophia finished before Olivia. Emma
finished before Noah but after Liam. Who finished last?

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 A. Olivia
B. Liam
C. Noah
D. Emma
E. None of these

58. In a fictional language used in a book, the following sentences are translated to
English as below:

Dakoti liruk wopo means "They admire courage"

Wopo fanik tiru means "Courage is essential"
Liruk dakoti jahup means "They admire strength"

What do the words "liruk," "fanik," “tiru,” and "dakoti" mean?

A. Strength, courage, admire and is

B. Essential, they, admire and is
C. Is, courage, they and admire
D. They, admire, strength and essential
E. None of these

59. James, Emily, Lucas, and Ava are all participating in a track race. James is sprinting,
Emily is running, Lucas is jogging, and Ava is walking. All friends start the race at the
same time. James finishes two places behind Ava, who is just ahead of Lucas but
one behind Emily. Who finished third?

A. James
B. Emily
C. Lucas
D. Ava
E. None of these

60. In a baking contest, there are 5 bakers in the final. Baker 1 is tall and wears a white
apron. Baker 2 is shorter, along with Baker 3 who is wearing a green apron. Baker 4
is shorter and also wears a green apron. Baker 5 is also shorter but has to wear a
blue apron.

The winner of the contest is shorter and wears a red apron.

Who can it be?

A. Baker 1
B. Baker 2
C. Baker 3
D. Baker 4
E. Baker 5

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Reading - Question Booklet

Time: 35-Minutes

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

In my younger and more vulnerable years my father gave me some advice that I’ve
been turning over in my mind ever since. "Whenever you feel like criticizing anyone,"
he told me, "just remember that all the people in this world haven’t had the
advantages that you’ve had." He didn’t say any more, but we’ve always been
unusually communicative in a reserved way, and I understood that he meant a great
deal more than that. In consequence, I’m inclined to reserve all judgments, a habit
that has opened up many curious natures to me and also made me the victim of not
a few veteran bores. The abnormal mind is quick to detect and attach itself to this
quality when it appears in a normal person, and so it came about that in college I was
unjustly accused of being a politician because I was privy to the secret griefs of wild,
unknown men. Most of the confidences were unsought—frequently I have feigned
sleep, preoccupation, or a hostile levity when I realized by some unmistakable sign
that an intimate revelation was quivering on the horizon—for the intimate revelations
of young men, or at least the terms in which they express them, are usually
plagiaristic and marred by obvious suppressions. Reserving judgments is a matter of
infinite hope. I am still a little afraid of missing something if I forget that, as my father
snobbishly suggested, and I snobbishly repeat, a sense of the fundamental
decencies is parceled out unequally at birth.

Source: The Great Gatsby by F. Scott Fitzgerald

1. Analyze the significance of the advice given by the narrator's father and its impact on
the narrator's worldview.

A. It makes the narrator afraid to speak badly of others.

B. It encourages the narrator to withhold judgment and be more understanding.
C. It leads the narrator to trust openly and wholeheartedly in other people.
D. It makes the narrator afraid that he’s wasting and unworthy of his advantages.
E. None of these

2. How does the narrator's habit of reserving judgment affect his relationships with
others?

A. It makes him more popular and well-liked.

B. It causes him to have superficial friendships.
C. It attracts people with unusual or troubled backgrounds to him.

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 D. It results in people seeing him as a politician who is playing everyone.
E. None of these

3. What does the passage suggest about the narrator's perception of social equality?

A. He feels a little unworthy of the privileges that have been bestowed upon him.
B. He acknowledges that social advantages are distributed unequally.
C. He cares deeply about the impacts of social inequality.
D. He feels guilty about his advantages over those who are less privileged.
E. None of these

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

Cleopatra was of an energetic and masculine character, and she possessed a

degree of talent and intellectual power seldom surpassed by women of any age or
nation. Her mother died when she was about eleven years old, and her father,
Ptolemy Auletes, afterward married another wife, by whom he had one son. This
second wife had, of course, her own separate family interest to pursue, and she
naturally became jealous of Cleopatra’s ascendency. Cleopatra’s brother was quite
young, being only ten or twelve years of age, and of a timid and yielding disposition.
The idea of associating him with his sister in the government of Egypt was only a
pretense. Cleopatra was the real sovereign. She governed the country and controlled
the ministers of state with the power and the decision of a man, and yet she was
endowed with all the fascination and charms of a woman. It is said that in the graces
of her person and the bewitching power of her conversation there was a charm which
no one could resist.

4. How does the author portray Cleopatra’s character and abilities in the passage?

A. As possessing only masculine qualities.

B. As masculine and intellectually powerful.
C. As charming but lacking in political acumen.
D. As displaying a completely unmatched level of talent and intellectual power.
E. None of these

5. Which of the following details is not mentioned or implied in the passage about
Cleopatra's life and character?

A. Cleopatra's ability to govern with both power and charm.

B. The jealousy of Cleopatra's father's second wife towards Cleopatra.
C. Cleopatra's intellectual power being seldom surpassed by women of any age or
nation.
D. The role Cleopatra's brother played in the actual governance of Egypt.
E. The specific accomplishments Cleopatra achieved during her reign.

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6. Discuss the significance of Cleopatra’s combination of political power and personal
charm in her rule.

A. It made her a highly popular leader.

B. It led to her being overthrown.
C. It enhanced her ability to govern and influence others.
D. It caused jealousy and rivalry within her family
E. None of these

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

If, then, there is some end of the things we do, which we desire for its own sake,
clearly this must be the good and the chief good. Will not the knowledge of it, then,
have a great influence on life? Shall we not, like archers who have a mark to aim at,
be more likely to hit upon what we should? If so, we must try, in outline at least, to
determine what it is, and of which of the sciences or capacities it is the object. It
would seem to belong to the most authoritative art and that which is most truly the
master art. And politics appears to be this master art, for it ordains which of the
sciences should be studied in a state, and which each class of citizens should learn
and up to what point they should learn them. And we see that even the most highly
esteemed of capacities, e.g. strategy, economics, rhetoric, are subordinate to it.
Since then, politics uses the rest of the sciences, and, moreover, legislates as to
what we are to do and what we are to abstain from, the end of this science must
include those of the others, so that this end will be the good for man.

Source: The Complete Aristotle (Nicomachean Ethics)

7. Analyze the relationship between politics and other sciences as described by

Aristotle in the passage.

A. Politics appears to be a master art of intelligence.

B. Politics is the master art that governs other sciences.
C. Politics is a master art that controls science.
D. Science is controlled solely by the politics of the time.
E. None of these.

8. Which of the following aspects is not mentioned or implied in the passage about
Aristotle's view on politics and the sciences?

A. The specific methods by which politics determines which sciences should

bestudied.
B. The comparison of politics to a master art.
C. The inclusion of various esteemed capacities like strategy, economics, and
rhetoric under politics.
D. The idea that politics legislates what citizens should do and abstain from.
E. The concept that politics aims to achieve the good for man.

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9. How does Aristotle’s view of politics reflect his broader philosophical beliefs about
human purpose and society?

A. He sees politics as a sacred aspect of personal and universal happiness.

B. He believes politics is essential for achieving the good life.
C. He thinks political influence is a fundamental part of human nature.
D. He views politics as vital, but secondary to individual purpose.
E. None of these

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

Long, long ago there lived, in Japan a brave warrior known to all as Tawara Toda, or
"My Lord Bag of Rice." His true name was Fujiwara Hidesato, and there is a very
interesting story of how he came to change his name. One day he sallied forth in
search of adventures, for he had the nature of a warrior and could not bear to be idle.
He buckled on his two swords, took his huge bow, much taller than himself in his
hand, and slinging his quiver on his back, started out. He had not gone far when he
came to the bridge of Seta-no-Karashi spanning one end of the beautiful Lake Biwa.
No sooner had he set foot on the bridge than he saw lying right across his path a
huge serpent-dragon. Its body was so big that it looked like the trunk of a large pine
tree and it took up the whole width of the bridge. One of its huge claws rested on the
parapet of one side of the bridge, while its tail lay right against the other. The monster
seemed to be asleep, and as it breathed, fire and smoke came out of its nostrils. At
first, Hidesato could not help feeling alarmed at the sight of this horrible reptile lying
in his path, for he must either turn back or walk right over its body. He was a brave
man, however, and putting aside all fear went forward dauntlessly. Crunch, crunch!
he stepped now on the dragon's body, now between its coils, and without even one
glance backward he went on his way.

Source: Japanese Fairy Tales by Yei Theodora Ozaki

10. What qualities does Hidesato demonstrate in this passage?

A. Grit and hesitation

B. Courage and sacrifice
C. Bravery and tenacity
D. Power and influence
E. None of these

11. How does the encounter with the serpent-dragon serve as a pivotal moment in
Hidesato’s story?

A. It shows his ability to look past fear, despite his prior judgments.
B. It highlights his endless pursuit to keep going on his way.
C. It marks the beginning of his adventures and his new name.

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 D. It shows he is sometimes still scared by events.
E. None of these

12. Discuss the symbolic meaning of the serpent-dragon in the context of the story.

A. It represents good fortune.

B. It symbolizes an insurmountable obstacle.
C. It stands for Hidesato's inner fears.
D. It is a test of courage and bravery.
E. None of these

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

New Renewable Energy Plant Opens in Green Valley

Green Valley, May 20, 2024 - In a major step towards sustainability, Green Valley
inaugurated its new renewable energy plant today. The plant, which utilizes solar and
wind power, is expected to generate enough electricity to power the entire valley,
significantly reducing the community's reliance on fossil fuels. The opening ceremony
was attended by local government officials, environmental activists, and community
members.

"This plant is a testament to our commitment to environmental responsibility and

innovation," said Mayor Jane Smith. "We are leading the way in sustainable energy
solutions and setting an example for other communities to follow."

The plant features state-of-the-art technology, including advanced solar panels and
wind turbines designed to maximize energy output while minimizing environmental
impact. According to the plant's engineers, the facility will reduce greenhouse gas
emissions by approximately 50,000 tons per year.

Local residents have expressed their support for the project, citing benefits such as
cleaner air and reduced energy costs. "It's exciting to see our community taking such
a proactive approach to sustainability," said resident Laura Johnson. "This plant will
make a big difference for future generations."

13. What are the expected environmental benefits of the new renewable energy plant in
Green Valley?

A. An escalation in greenhouse gas emissions.

B. Reduced reliance on fossil fuels, with a small swell of greenhouse gas emissions.
C. Lower energy costs for local residents.
D. Better air quality for residents of the area.
E. None of these

14. How does the new plant demonstrate Green Valley's commitment to sustainability?

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 A. By relying on completely new energy technologies
B. By utilizing sustainable sources of energy to generate electricity
C. By prioritizing the improvement of air quality and residents quality of life
D. By increasing investment in renewable and non-renewable energy
E. None of these

15. What can be inferred about the potential long-term impact of the new renewable
energy plant on Green Valley?

A. The plant will eliminate greenhouse gas emissions in Green Valley.

B. The community will continue to rely heavily on fossil fuels despite the new plant.
C. The plant is expected to contribute significantly to environmental sustainability and
reduce energy costs for residents.
D. Local residents are completely supportive of the new renewable energy plant.
E. None of these

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

Breakthrough in Cancer Research Announced by Medical Institute

New York, May 21, 2024 - Scientists at the New York Medical Institute have
announced a groundbreaking discovery in the fight against cancer. In a press
conference held earlier today, Dr. Emily Carter, lead researcher on the project,
revealed that her team has developed a new treatment that has shown promising
results in early clinical trials.

"Our new therapy targets cancer cells with unprecedented precision, minimizing
damage to healthy cells," explained Dr. Carter. "This approach not only improves the
efficacy of the treatment but also significantly reduces side effects compared to
traditional chemotherapy."

The new treatment involves a combination of immunotherapy and advanced

gene-editing techniques. By harnessing the power of the body's immune system and
precisely modifying cancer cells, the therapy effectively halts the progression of the
disease. Preliminary results from the clinical trials indicate a high success rate, with
many patients experiencing complete remission.

The announcement has been met with enthusiasm from the medical community and
patient advocacy groups. "This breakthrough represents a major milestone in cancer
research," said Dr. Michael Thompson, president of the American Cancer Society.
"We are optimistic about the potential impact of this new treatment on patient
outcomes."

However, researchers caution that more extensive trials are needed before the
therapy can become widely available. "While the initial results are promising, we

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 must conduct further studies to ensure the treatment's long-term safety and
effectiveness," emphasized Dr. Carter.

16. What can be inferred about the potential impact of the new cancer treatment on
future patient care?

A. The treatment will immediately replace traditional chemotherapy for all cancer
patients.
B. The new therapy is expected to improve patient outcomes due to its targeted
approach and reduced side effects.
C. The therapy is extremely likely to be effective and safe for all patients in the long
term.
D. The medical community is skeptical about the new treatment's efficacy and
potential benefits.
E. None of these

17. How has the medical community responded to the announcement of the new cancer
treatment?

A. With a mixture of optimism, hope and prudent caution

B. With strong enthusiasm but widespread skepticism
C. With enthusiast support for the treatment
D. By questioning the treatment and suggesting more research
E. None of these

18. What do researchers emphasize about the new cancer treatment despite the
promising initial results?

A. Additional research is necessary to verify the findings.

B. Extensive testing is required to confirm long-term success.
C. It's unlikely to be effective for every cancer patient.
D. Further studies are unnecessary at this stage.
E. None of these

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

The atom is composed of a central nucleus surrounded by electrons. The nucleus

contains protons and neutrons, with protons carrying a positive charge and neutrons
being neutral. Electrons, which are negatively charged, orbit the nucleus at various
energy levels. The number of protons in the nucleus determines the atomic number
and defines the element. For instance, hydrogen has one proton, while helium has
two.

The interactions between these subatomic particles are governed by fundamental

forces. The electromagnetic force causes the attraction between the positively
charged protons and the negatively charged electrons, while the strong nuclear force

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 binds protons and neutrons together within the nucleus. These forces work in
harmony to maintain the stability of the atom.

Atoms can combine to form molecules through chemical bonds, which result from the
interactions of their electrons. Covalent bonds occur when atoms share electrons,
and ionic bonds form when electrons are transferred from one atom to another,
creating charged ions that attract each other.

Source: The Structure of the Atom by J.J. Thomson

19. How does the number of protons in the nucleus influence the identity of an element?

A. It defines the atomic number and the element.

B. It determines the atomic number.
C. It controls the number of neutrons.
D. It affects the element number.
E. None of these

20. What role do fundamental forces play in the structure of an atom?

A. They maintain the atom's stability by binding subatomic particles together.

B. They are responsible for the repulsion between subatomic particles.
C. They influence the interaction between electrons and the nucleus.
D. They primarily affect the electrons' energy levels.
E. None of these

21. What is the main difference between covalent and ionic bonds?

A. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of neutrons, while ionic bonds involve the
sharing of protons.
B. Covalent bonds form between identical atoms, while ionic bonds form between
similar atoms.
C. Covalent bonds result from atoms sharing electrons, whereas ionic bonds occur
due to the complete transfer of electrons between atoms.
D. Covalent bonds only happen in non-metals, while ionic bonds can only happen in
metals.
E. None of these

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants and some other organisms use
sunlight to synthesize foods with the aid of chlorophyll pigments. This process takes
place in the chloroplasts of plant cells. Photosynthesis can be divided into two
stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions, also
known as the Calvin cycle.

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 During the light-dependent reactions, which occur in the thylakoid membranes of the
chloroplasts, sunlight is absorbed by chlorophyll and other pigments. This energy is
used to split water molecules into oxygen, protons, and electrons. The oxygen is
released as a byproduct, while the electrons and protons are used to generate ATP
and NADPH, which are energy carriers.

The light-independent reactions occur in the stroma of the chloroplasts. In these

reactions, ATP and NADPH produced in the light-dependent reactions are used to
convert carbon dioxide and other compounds into glucose. This process does not
require light directly, but depends on the products of the light-dependent reactions.

22. What is the primary function of the light-dependent reactions in photosynthesis?

A. To produce oxygen and glucose using carbon dioxide.

B. To generate ATP and NADPH by absorbing sunlight.
C. To convert glucose into carbon dioxide and water.
D. To split water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
E. None of these

23. How do the light-independent reactions depend on the light-dependent reactions?

A. They utilize the oxygen generated during the light-dependent reactions.

B. They depend on the ATP and NADPH synthesized in the light-dependent
reactions.
C. They need direct sunlight to function effectively.
D. They take place within the same membranes as the light-dependent reactions.
E. None of these

24. Where do the light-dependent and light-independent reactions take place within the
chloroplast?

A. Both occur in the thylakoid membranes.

B. Both occur in the stroma.
C. Light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes, while
light-independent reactions occur in the stroma.
D. Light-dependent reactions occur in the stroma, while light-independent reactions
occur in the thylakoid membranes.
E. None of these

Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

The decline of Rome was the natural and inevitable effect of immoderate greatness.
Prosperity ripened the principle of decay; the causes of destruction multiplied with the
extent of conquest; and as soon as time or accident had removed the artificial
supports, the stupendous fabric yielded to the pressure of its own weight. The story

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 of its ruin is simple and obvious; and instead of inquiring why the Roman Empire was
destroyed, we should rather be surprised that it had subsisted so long.

The victorious legions, who in distant wars acquired the vices of strangers and
mercenaries, first oppressed the freedom of the republic, and afterward violated the
majesty of the purple. The emperors, anxious for their personal safety and the public
peace, were reduced to the base expedient of corrupting the discipline which
rendered them alike formidable to their sovereign and to the enemy. The vigour of the
military government was relaxed, and finally dissolved, by the partial institutions of
Constantine; and the Roman world was overwhelmed by a deluge of Barbarians.

The decay of Rome has been frequently ascribed to the translation of the seat of
empire; but this history has already shown that the powers of government were
divided rather than removed. The throne of Constantinople was erected in the East,
while the West was still possessed by a series of emperors who held their residence
in Italy and Gaul. The policy of Constantine and his successors, who established
their residence in the East, contributed, indeed, to the decline of the empire in the
West, but their institutions only accelerated an inevitable event.

Source: The Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire by Edward Gibbon

25. According to Gibbon, what was the primary cause of the decline of the Roman
Empire?

A. Immoderate greatness and the splitting of resources.

B. The immoderate greatness and internal decay.
C. The translation of the seat of empire to Constantinople.
D. The oppressive actions of the victorious legions.
E. None of these

26. How did the policies of Constantine affect the Roman military, according to the
passage?

A. They led to the weakening and eventual breakdown of military discipline.

B. They reinforced the military discipline and organization.
C. They led to its weakening, and eventual takeover by Constantinople.
D. They weakened the military, and led to a complete breakdown in coherence.
E. None of these

27. What does Gibbon suggest about the division of the Roman Empire's government?

A. It was the main factor leading to the empire's downfall.

B. It had little to no impact on the empire's stability.
C. It split the powers of government rather than relocating them.
D. It bolstered the Western Empire while weakening the Eastern Empire.
E. None of these

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 Read the following paragraph to answer the next 3 questions.

The Egyptians, before the reign of Psammetichus, considered themselves to be the

most ancient of the human race. However, after Psammetichus became king, he
sought to discover who were indeed the first men; and on this subject, as I heard at
Heliopolis from the priests of Hephaestus, he made the following experiment. He took
two newborn children and gave them to a shepherd to bring up among his flocks. He
instructed the shepherd to let no one utter a word in their presence, but to leave them
in a lonely hut and visit them at regular intervals to see to their needs. His object was
to know what word the children would first articulate after they had got rid of the
inarticulate sounds of infancy. And it happened as he had ordered. The shepherd for
two years acted as he had been directed, and at length, on his opening the door of
their hut and going in, both the children ran up to him, stretching out their hands, and
cried "Bekos." At this, the shepherd was much surprised, but when this had
repeatedly occurred, he informed his master, and by his orders took the children
before him. Psammetichus then himself heard them say the word; and he inquired to
what language the word "Bekos" belonged. He found it to be a Phrygian word
signifying "bread." Thus, the Egyptians yielded their claim to antiquity and considered
the Phrygians to be the most ancient people.

Source: The Histories by Herodotus

28. What method did Psammetichus use to determine the most ancient human race,
according to Herodotus?

A. He tasked a shephered with determining the answer via any means necessary.
B. He conducted an experiment isolating two newborns from all spoken language.
C. He traveled extensively to gather information from different civilizations.
D. He ran a significant and sophisticated study via two newborns.
E. None of these

29. What conclusion did Psammetichus draw from his experiment?

A. The Egyptians were the most ancient human race.

B. “Bekos” was the first word spoken by the children.
C. The Phrygians were the most ancient human race.
D. The concept of the most ancient race was inconclusive.
E. None of these

30. How does the experiment conducted by Psammetichus reflect the scientific curiosity
and methods of inquiry in ancient times?

A. It shows a reliance on myth and legend rather than empirical evidence.

B. It highlights the use of supernatural and religious rituals to determine truth.
C. It indicates the first known case of scientific experimentation.

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 D. It demonstrates an early form of controlled experimentation to seek answers.
E. None of these

31. What lesson can be derived from the following saying?

"Walking through the shadows of time."

A. Embrace the unknown future with confidence.

B. Reflect on the past to understand the present.
C. Avoid dwelling on negative past experiences.
D. Accept that time will heal all wounds.
E. The past is irrelevant to the present.

32. What lesson can be derived from the following saying?

"Planting seeds of kindness."

A. Kindness is a noble quality that should be cultivated.

B. Kindness should be reserved for those who deserve it.
C. Small acts of kindness can grow into significant positive impacts.
D. Kindness is a learned trait and can be cultivated through practice.
E. Only grand gestures of kindness are valuable.

33. The sentence below contains grammar errors. Choose the option with the correct
grammar.

"She didn't know whether to laugh or cry," he said "the news was so unexpected."

A. "She didn't know whether to laugh or cry," he said "the news was so unexpected."
B. "She didn't know whether to laugh or cry" he said, "the news was so unexpected."
C. "She didn't know whether to laugh or cry," he said, "the news was so unexpected."
D. "She didn't know whether to laugh or cry," he said. "the news was so unexpected."
E. "She didn't know whether to laugh or cry, he said, the news was so unexpected."

34. The sentence below contains grammar errors. Choose the option with the correct
grammar.

"please bring me the book," she asked "I left it on the table."

A. "Please bring me the book," she asked "I left it on the table."
B. "Please bring me the book" she asked, "I left it on the table."
C. "Please bring me the book," she asked, "I left it on the table."
D. "Please bring me the book," she asked. "I left it on the table."
E. "Please bring me the book, she asked, I left it on the table."

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35. The sentence below contains multiple spelling errors. Choose the option with the
correct spelling.

"The enterprenuer recieved a rare oppurtunity to aquire a lucrative buisness."

A. "The entrepreneur received a rare opportunity to acquire a lucrative business."

B. "The enterprenuer received a rare oppurtunity to acquire a lucrative business."
C. "The entrepreneur recieved a rare opportunity to aquire a lucrative business."
D. "The entrepreneur received a rare oppurtunity to aquire a lucrative buisness."
E. "The enterprenuer received a rare opportunity to acquire a lucrative buisness."

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Maths - Question Booklet

Time: 30-Minutes

1. A mobile phone manufacturer has 10 unique models of phones. For a special

promotional event, they plan to display pairs of these models side by side to
showcase their variety. How many unique pairs of phone models can the
manufacturer display?

A) 45
B) 90
C) 100
D) 55
E) None of these

2. On a popular social media platform, a user can earn a 'Star' on their post with a
probability of 1 out of 4. If a user posts 2 times in a day, what is the probability that
they earn exactly one 'Star'?

A) 1/4
B) 3/8
C) 1/2
D) 1/8
E) None of these

3. A designer is creating a whiteboard with a unique proportion. The whiteboard is

designed to have a length to height ratio of 4:3. If the area of the whiteboard is to be
exactly 1.5 square metres without exceeding, and the length must be a whole
number, what is the maximum length in metres the whiteboard can have?

A) 2
B) 1.5
C) 3
D) 2.5
E) None of these

4. Evaluate the following expression:

5 x (4 + 6) - 8 ÷ 4 + 7

A) 50
B) 52

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 C) 54
D) 56
E) None of these

5. A factory produces 2500 widgets in a week. Due to an increase in demand,

production is increased by 12% the following week. However, due to a supply
shortage, they can only meet 90% of the following week's production goal. How many
widgets does the factory produce in the second week?

A) 2520
B) 2780
C) 2625
D) 2400
E) None of these

6. What is the linear equation of a line which has a gradient of -3, and a coordinate (1,
-2) on the line?

A) y = -3x - 5
B) y = -3x + 1
C) y = -3x + 5
D) y = -3x - 1
E) None of these

7. An electronics company manufactures headphones with a specific wire length to

speaker diameter ratio to maintain sound quality. If the optimal ratio is maintained at
8:3 and the company decides to produce a model with a speaker diameter of 4.5cm,
what should be the wire length (in cm) for this model to preserve the optimal sound
quality ratio?

A) 9
B) 12
C) 6
D) 18
E) None of these

8. If there are twice as many apples as oranges in a fruit basket and the ratio of
oranges to bananas is 3:4, how many oranges are there if there are 16 bananas?

A) 12
B) 15
C) 18
D) 24
E) None of these

9. Simplify the following: √6 (√2 + √6)

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 A) √12 + 6
B) √18 + 6
C) √12 + √36
D) √12 + √6
E) None of these

10. John is considering purchasing a local McDonald's franchise. The initial investment
required is $2,000,000. If he expects an annual revenue of $150,000 with operational
costs amounting to $100,000 annually, how many years will it take for John to
recover his initial investment purely based on profit?

A) 30 years
B) 35 years
C) 40 years
D) 45 years
E) None of these

11. Tony Stark decides to sell the Avengers Tower for $600 million. If the sale incurs a
5% sales commission to the real estate agent and additional selling costs of $20
million for repairs and legal fees, what is the net amount Tony Stark will receive from
the sale?

A) $550 million
B) $540 million
C) $530 million
D) $570 million
E) None of these

12. Given that a = 2(√27 + √12) and b = √75 - 3√3, simplify the expression (a/2) + b.

A. 5√3
B. 7√3
C. 12√3
D. 10√3
E. None of these

13. If x = 2√50 - √8 and y = 3√2 + √18, what is the simplified form of xy?

A) 48
B) 16
C) 96
D) 72
E) None of these

14. If 3x = 81 and 3(y+2) = 27, what is x + y?

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 A) 6
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
E) None of these

15. What is the result of simplifying the expression 45 / 43?

A) 45
B) 44
C) 43
D) 42
E) None of these

16. If a line passes through the points (4, -2) and (-1, 3), what is the equation of the line
in slope-intercept form?

A) y = x + 2
B) y = -2x + 3
C) y = -x + 2
D) y = x - 2
E) None of these

17. What is the equation in slope-intercept form of the line that is perpendicular to the
line y = 3/4x - 5 and passes through the point (8, -2)?

A) y = -4/3x + 2/3
B) y = -4/3x + 10
C) y = 4/3x - 26/3
D) y = -4/3x - 26/3
E) None of these

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18. The graph of two linear equations forms an X shape on a Cartesian plane,
intersecting at the point (3,2). If one of the lines has the equation y = x - 1, what is the
equation of the other line if it is known that its slope is -1?

A) y = -x + 5
B) y = -x + 4
C) y = -x + 2
D) y = -x + 1
E) None of these

19. If the line intersecting the points (2, k) and (k, 2) has a slope of 1, what is the value of
k?

A) 0
B) 2
C) -2
D) 4
E) None of these

20. The sum of three consecutive even integers is 54. What is the smallest of these
integers?

A) 16
B) 17
C) 18
D) 19
E) None of these

21. Solve for y: 3(2y - 3) + 4(5 - y) = 18

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 A) 2.5
B) 3
C) 3.5
D) 4
E) None of these

22. If the product of two consecutive integers is 56 less than the square of the larger
integer, what is the smaller integer?

A) 54
B) 55
C) 56
D) 57
E) None of these

23. A geometric sequence has a first term of 3 and a sum of the first four terms equal to
120. What is the common ratio?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 2
E) None of these

Use the following information to solve questions 24 - 25:

Jordan is waiting in line to purchase the newly released sneakers at a local store. If the
number of people ahead of him is represented by the equation P = 4n + 20, where n is the
number of hours since the store opened, and P is the total number of people in line. After
waiting for 3 hours, Jordan notices that there are exactly 32 people ahead of him in line.

24. Based on the equation, how long had the store been open when Jordan joined the
line?

A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 4 hours
E) None of these

25. Given the same scenario with Jordan waiting in line and the number of people ahead
of him represented by P = 4n + 20, if there are exactly 32 people ahead of him after
waiting for 3 hours, what was the total number of people in line including Jordan at
that time?

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 A) 33
B) 35
C) 52
D) 53
E) None of these

26. If the total distance of Jae's flight from the United States to South Korea is
represented by the equation D = 2x + 300, where x is the number of hours into the
flight and D is the distance in miles. If Jae is halfway to South Korea and has
travelled 900 miles, how many total hours is the flight?

A) 5
B) 15
C) 20
D) 10
E) None of these

27. A tour group is planning a trip across South Korea, travelling between cities
exclusively by bus. The total travel cost for the group can be represented by the
equation C = 50n + 15m, where n is the number of people in the group and m is the
number of cities planned to visit. If the group consists of 8 people and plans to visit 5
cities, what is the overall cost?

A) $650
B) $375
C) $550
D) $475
E) None of these

28. The Yarra River flows through Melbourne and is approximately 242 kilometres long.
A school is planning a rowing competition and wants to use a 4.8-kilometer section of
the river for the race. If the race needs to start 32 kilometres downstream from the
river's source and finish 38 kilometres upstream from its mouth, what is the total
distance from the source of the river to the race's finish line?

A. 220 kilometres
B. 204 kilometres
C. 246 kilometres
D. 274 kilometres
E. None of these

29. A library decides to reorganise its collection and finds that it can fit 15 books on each
shelf. If a particular section has 120 books and they decide to add 45 more books to
this section, how many shelves will they need to accommodate all the books in this
section?

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 A. 8 shelves
B. 11 shelves
C. 10 shelves
D. 9 shelves
E. None of these

30. A researcher is observing the growth of two different plant species. The first species
doubles its height every day, while the second species triples its height every day.
Initially, each plant starts at 1 cm tall. If, after some time, the researcher returns to
find the second plant to be 729 cm tall, how many days was the researcher away for?

A) 4.5 days
B) 5.0 days
C) 5.8 days
D) 6.0 days
E) None of these

31. In a playground, there are two slides that face each other forming a V-shape. If the
angle between the two slides is 60 degrees, and you slide down one and then slide
up the other, what is the total change in direction you make when switching from the
first slide to the second?

A. 60 degrees
B. 120 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 240 degrees
E. None of these

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32. In a triangle, one angle is three times as large as the smallest angle, and the third
angle is 30 degrees more than the smallest angle. What is the degree measure of the
smallest angle?

A. 25 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 35 degrees
D. 40 degrees
E. None of these

33. In a rectangular room, a laser is pointed from one corner to the opposite corner, and
the light beam reflects off the mirror-like walls. The laser starts in the bottom-left
corner, reflects off the top-left corner, and then heads towards the top-right corner.
What is the measure of the angle between the original direction of the laser and its
direction after the first reflection?

A. 22.5 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 135 degrees
E. None of these

34. Bob lives directly south of Carol, the same distance as Alice, who is west of Carol.
Carol is organising a book club meeting and both Bob and Alice left their homes at 2
pm. Bob travelled on his bicycle at a constant speed of 20 km/h and arrived 15
minutes late. Alice arrived 45 minutes early because she took a bus travelling at 60
km/h. What was the time of the book club meeting?

A) 2:45 pm
B) 3:00 pm
C) 3:15 pm
D) 3:30 pm
E) None of these

35. Transpose the following equation to express x2 in terms of y:

6x2 - 9y = 3x2 + 12y + 18.

A) x2 = 9y + 6
B) x2 = 21y + 6
C) x2 = 21y + 18
D) x2 = 7y + 6
E) None of these

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Quantitative - Question Booklet

Time: 30-Minutes

1. The US Presidential Election is scheduled for early 2025 between Joe Bode and
Dean Trone. If Joe receives 10,000 more votes, he will have 30% of the total votes.
However, if he receives 10,000 fewer votes, he will have only 20% of the total votes.
How many voters participated in the election?

A. 10,000
B. 20,000
C. 200,000
D. 100,000
E. None of these

2. There are 800 ripe apples on a farm. Each day, half of the ripe apples become rotten.
How many days will it take for the number of ripe apples to fall below 20?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6
E. None of these

3. In Mr. Johnson's classroom, he has a number of markers on his desk. He has at least
3 of each kind of marker. The number of green markers is a square number. The
number of blue markers is a cube number. The number of red markers is a factorial
number. If there are a total of 42 markers together, how many red markers are there?

A. 6
B. 24
C. 9
D. 16
E. None of these

4. Mark lives 90 miles from his office. He usually drives at an average speed of 45 miles
per hour. However, today he was delayed by 30 minutes and had to increase his
average speed to reach the office at the same time as usual. Assuming Mark
maintained a constant speed throughout his journey today, what was his average
speed in miles per hour?

A. 54

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 B. 60
C. 65
D. 72
E. None of these

5. Find the missing number in the sequence:

6 19 38

3 10 20

26 ? 158

A. 78
B. 52
C. 77
D. 79
E. None of these

6. A shop opens at 8 AM with a 10% discount on all items for the first 2 hours. After 10
AM, the discount increases to 20%. Jackson bought a coat priced at $110 at 9:46
AM, and Jenny bought a scarf priced at $260 at 11:41 AM. What is the total discount
they received on their purchases?

A. $59
B. $63
C. $65
D. $69
E. None of these

7. Nestled in a serene countryside, a boutique bakery known for its exquisite pastries
operates with a focus on artisanal quality and customer satisfaction. Each pastry is
crafted with care, using locally sourced, organic ingredients. The production cost per
pastry is $2.00, reflecting the bakery's commitment to maintaining affordable yet
high-quality products. With a determined sales target of 5,000 pastries, the bakery
invests in engaging community events and creative marketing campaigns. Following
a period of enthusiastic sales efforts, the target is joyously achieved, highlighting the
bakery's strategic marketing success. The bakery garners a notable profit of $15,000
from these sales. What is the profit margin on each pastry?

A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 60%
E. 75%

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8. A farm buys a total of 120 animals, consisting of chickens and goats, for $7,200.
Each chicken costs $45, and each goat costs $75. How many of each type were
purchased?

A. 64 chickens and 56 goats

B. 80 chickens and 40 goats
C. 100 chickens and 20 goats
D. 60 chickens and 60 goats
E. None of these

9. A music store obtained a total of 200 records, including vinyls and CDs, for $5,000.
Each vinyl costs $35, while each CD costs $10. How many records of each type were
obtained?

A. 100 vinyls and 100 CDs

B. 120 vinyls and 80 CDs
C. 140 vinyls and 60 CDs
D. 160 vinyls and 40 CDs
E. None of these

10. In a university library, there are 1,800 books, including novels and scientific books. If
there are 2/3 as many novels as scientific books, how many scientific books are
there?

A. 1080
B. 1200
C. 1350
D. 1500
E. None of these

11. For a barbecue event, Emily and Lucas are preparing lemonade by mixing lemon
juice with water in a 1:3 ratio. If they use 4 liters of lemon juice and serve the
lemonade in 200 milliliter cups, how many cups can they fill?

A. 70
B. 75
C. 80
D. 85
E. None of these

12. How many blue marbles are in a jar of 1,200 marbles if there are 1/4 as many red
marbles as blue?

A. 960
B. 975
C. 1000

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 D. 1050
E. None of these

13. Sarah allocates 3 out of every 5 dollars she earns for a new bike. If she made $150
this week, how much did she save?

A. $50
B. $70
C. $90
D. $110
E. None of these

14. In the center of a creative arts district, a studio specializing in ceramic pottery
operates with a blend of traditional and modern techniques. Each pottery piece incurs
a production cost of $2.00. With a production goal of 8,000 pieces, the studio focuses
on efficient methods and quality. After achieving their sales goal, the studio's profit
amounts to $16,000. What is the profit margin on each pottery piece?

A. 33.3%
B. 35%
C. 40%
D. 50%
E. None of these

15. My optometrist appointment was scheduled for 4:00 pm, but it was moved 30
minutes earlier. My watch is 3 minutes fast, but the clock in my car is 5 minutes slow.
It takes 30 minutes to drive to the optometrist's office. What time should I leave,
according to my watch, to be on time?

A. 2:55 pm
B. 3:00 pm
C. 3:05 pm
D. 3:10 pm
E. None of these

16. My train is scheduled to depart at 8:00 am after it was moved up by 10 minutes. My

wristwatch is 2 minutes slow, and the clock at the train station is 3 minutes fast. It
takes me 35 minutes to get to the station. What time should I leave, according to the
clock at the station, to catch my train?

A. 7:12 am
B. 7:20 am
C. 7:25 am
D. 7:28 am
E. None of these

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17. Apple juice is mixed with mineral water in a 2:8 ratio. If one liter of apple juice is
used, how many drinks can be poured if each drink is 200 milliliters?

A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60
E. None of these

18. A city map has a scale of 1:1000. On this map, two centimeters represent:

A. 2 m
B. 20 m
C. 100 m
D. 200 m
E. None of these

19. Each keystroke on a typewriter types 8 characters. To complete an article, 320

characters must be typed. How many keystrokes are needed to complete the article?

A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
E. None of these

20. Which of the following is less than its cube:

A. 0.5
B. 0.6
C. 0.7
D. None of them
E. All of them

21. I start baking cookies from a recipe at 2:00 pm. The recipe makes four dozen
cookies. I can bake 16 cookies every 10 minutes. What time will I finish baking?

A. 2:20 pm
B. 2:30 pm
C. 2:40 pm
D. 2:50 pm
E. None of these

22. Rachel Black sold a painting for an amount that was 4 times more than what her
friend Jason Blue paid for a sculpture. If Jason paid $3,000 for the sculpture, how
much did Rachel sell the painting for?

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 A. $9,000
B. $12,000
C. $15,000
D. $18,000
E. None of these

23. Amy buys a set of golf clubs on sale for 20% off. The sale price is $100 less than the
original price. There is also a 5% sales tax on the discounted price. What is Amy's
total cost of the golf clubs?

A. $190.00
B. $195.00
C. $200.00
D. $205.00
E. None of these

24. Find the largest number: 63 √36 4! 133

A. 63
B. √36
C. 4!
D. 133
E. None of these

25. A fair die is rolled. What is the probability of getting an even number?

A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 1/6
E. None of these

26. The scores of 5 students on a quiz are: 91, 85, 75, 82, and 88. What is the average
score?

A. 82.8
B. 84.2
C. 86.4
D. 88.6
E. None of these

27. In Mr. Smith's classroom, he has a number of markers on his desk. He has at least 3
of each type of marker. The number of green markers is a square number. The
number of blue markers is a cube number. The number of red markers is a factorial
number. If there are a total of 36 markers together, how many red markers are there?

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 A. 6
B. 24
C. 12
D. 16
E. None of these

28. There are 16 teams in a basketball league competition. Each team plays every other
team once. Due to unforeseen circumstances, 4 matches are cancelled. At the end of
the season, the top 2 teams compete in a final match to determine the winner. How
many total matches are played in this competition?

A. 116 matches
B. 117 matches
C. 121 matches
D. 119 matches
E. None of these

29. If Jack had $20 more, he would have four times as much money as Jill. If he had $10
less, he would have three times as much as Jill. How much money does Jack have?

A. $30
B. $80
C. $100
D. $110
E. None of these

30. Lucy would like to make a photo album from A3 paper. She cuts it into 3 pieces, and
then binds the individual pieces together. If she originally had 36 sheets of A3 paper,
after the process of creating her photo album, how thick is it?

A. 108 pages
B. 216 pages
C. 324 pages
D. 432 pages
E. None of these

31. Emma can walk at a speed of 5 km/h. Unfortunately, she cannot maintain this speed
beyond 2 hours. For every hour of walking, her speed drops by 0.5 km/h. What is the
distance that Emma can cover over 5 hours of walking?

A. 22 km
B. 22.5 km
C. 23.5 km
D. 24 km
E. None of these

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32. The perimeter of a square garden is 40 meters. The length is 5 meters more than the
width. Find the dimensions of the garden.

A. Length: 15 m, Width: 10 m
B. Length: 20 m, Width: 10 m
C. Length: 22.5 m, Width: 17.5 m
D. Length: 25 m, Width: 20 m
E. None of these

33. A shop sold a total of 240 shoes in three different styles: sneakers, loafers, and
boots. The number of loafers sold was three times the number of sneakers, and the
number of boots sold was 40 more than the number of sneakers. How many loafers
were sold?

A. 120
B. 150
C. 180
D. 210
E. None of these

34. The sum of three consecutive even integers is 90. What is the middle number?

A. 28
B. 30
C. 32
D. 34
E. None of these

35. If 4 clinks make a clank and 4 clanks make a clonk, how many clinks are in 12
clonks?

A. 48
B. 96
C. 192
D. 256
E. None of these

36. A car travels at a constant speed of 60 miles per hour. How far, in miles, will the car
travel in 4 hours and 30 minutes?

A. 270 miles
B. 275 miles
C. 280 miles
D. 285 miles
E. None of these

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37. Sophie is planning a road trip from City E to City F. The distance between the two
cities is 500 miles. If Sophie drives at an average speed of 50 miles per hour, how
many hours will it take her to complete the journey?

A. 8 hours
B. 9 hours
C. 10 hours
D. 11 hours
E. None of these

38. Apples are $3, but bananas are 30% more expensive. How much do they cost
together?

A. $7.90
B. $8.90
C. $9.90
D. $6.90
E. None of these

39. There are 160 balls in the school's playground. 1/5 of them are soccer balls. 1/4 of
them are tennis balls. The rest are baseballs. How many baseballs are there?

A. 64
B. 72
C. 80
D. 88
E. None of these

40. In the under-18s Victoria State Basketball Team, 20% of players are from rural clubs
whilst the other 12 are from urban clubs. How many total players are in the team?

A. 15
B. 18
C. 21
D. 24
E. None of these

41. The area of a rectangle is 80 m². What is the new area if each dimension is doubled?

A. 160 m²
B. 240 m²
C. 320 m²
D. 400 m²
E. None of these

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42. Eva is thinking of a number. She triples it, then adds 15 to the result. After that, she
squares the result and ends up with the number 225. What number is Eva thinking
of?

A. -2
B. -3
C. 0
D. 3
E. None of these

43. Which sequence follows the rule 8n + 3, where n represents the position of a term in
the sequence?

A. 3, 11, 19, 27, 35

B. 11, 19, 27, 35, 43
C. 11, 18, 26, 34, 42
D. 8, 19, 30, 41, 52
E. None of these

44. The Sydney Swans, an Australian rugby team, have won 18 of their last 36 matches
they have played. At this rate, which of the following is the best prediction of the
number of matches they will win out of their next 10 matches?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
E. None of these

45. A number z is reduced by 10. If the square root of that result equals 4, what is the
value of z?

A. 6
B. 14
C. 16
D. 26
E. None of these

46. Sarah is driving through the scenic countryside in her Tesla Model S at a speed of 60
km/h. She is very familiar with the area and feels comfortable increasing her speed
as she drives. Every hour, she increases her speed by 20%. Assuming she travels
for 3 hours and stops for a 30-minute break at a roadside cafe during the final hour,
how many kilometers does she cover in total?

A. 168.2 km
B. 175.2 km

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 C. 176.8 km
D. 182.4 km
E. None of these

47. Find the missing number in the series:

6, 3, 12, ?, 18, 5, 24

A. 15
B. 16
C. 4
D. 3
E. None of these

48. How many prime numbers are there between 20 and 50?

A. 7
B. 9
C. 4
D. 6
E. None of these

49. What number comes next?

3, 7, 15, 27, ?

A. 39
B. 41
C. 45
D. 43
E. None of these

50. What is the 15th term of this sequence?

-14, -8, -2, 4

A. 70
B. 72
C. 64
D. 68
E. None of these

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Writing - Persuasive

Time: 20-Minutes

‘Reading is a waste of time. Do you agree?’

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Writing - Creative

Time: 20-Minutes

‘A full moon’

Use this as the basis of your creative writing piece.

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Maths - Answers

1. A mobile phone manufacturer has 10 unique models of phones. For a special

promotional event, they plan to display pairs of these models side by side to
showcase their variety. How many unique pairs of phone models can the
manufacturer display?

A) 45
B) 90
C) 100
D) 55
E) None of these

Explanation: To determine the number of unique pairs that can be formed from 10 unique
phone models, we use the formula n(n-1)/2, where n is the number of models. By
substituting 10 for n, we calculate 10(10-1)/2 = 10*9/2 = 45 unique pairs of phone models
that the manufacturer can display.

2. On a popular social media platform, a user can earn a 'Star' on their post with a
probability of 1 out of 4. If a user posts 2 times in a day, what is the probability that
they earn exactly one 'Star'?

A) 1/4
B) 3/8
C) 1/2
D) 1/8
E) None of these

Explanation: The probability of earning a 'Star' on a post is 1/4, and the probability of not
earning a 'Star' is 3/4. The scenarios where the user earns exactly one 'Star' from two posts
are either in the first try or the second try. Therefore, the calculation for exactly one 'Star'
from two tries is adding the probabilities of these two scenarios: (1/4) * (3/4) for the first post
and (3/4) * (1/4) for the second post, which equals 3/16 + 3/16. Adding these probabilities
gives us 6/16, which simplifies to 3/8.

3. A designer is creating a whiteboard with a unique proportion. The whiteboard is

designed to have a length to height ratio of 4:3. If the area of the whiteboard is to be
exactly 1.5 square metres without exceeding, and the length must be a whole
number, what is the maximum length in metres the whiteboard can have?

A) 2
B) 1.5

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 C) 3
D) 2.5
E) None of these

4. Evaluate the following expression:

5 x (4 + 6) - 8 ÷ 4 + 7

A) 50
B) 52
C) 54
D) 56
E) None of these

Explanation: First, calculate inside the parentheses: 4 + 6, which equals 10. Next, multiply: 5
x 10, which equals 50. Then, divide: 8 ÷ 4, which equals 2. Finally, perform the remaining
operations: 50 - 2 + 7, which equals 48 + 7 = 55. Since 55 is not listed in the options, the
correct answer is e) None of these.

5. A factory produces 2500 widgets in a week. Due to an increase in demand,

production is increased by 12% the following week. However, due to a supply
shortage, they can only meet 90% of the following week's production goal. How many
widgets does the factory produce in the second week?

A) 2520
B) 2780
C) 2625
D) 2400
E) None of these

Explanation: First, find the increased production target by calculating 12% increase on 2500,
which gives 2800 widgets. Then, due to the supply shortage, they can only meet 90% of this
target, so you calculate 90% of 2800, resulting in 2520 widgets.

6. What is the linear equation of a line which has a gradient of -3, and a coordinate (1,
-2) on the line?

A) y = -3x - 5
B) y = -3x + 1
C) y = -3x + 5
D) y = -3x - 1
E) None of these

Explanation: First, we are given:

A gradient (slope) of -3

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A point (1, -2) on the line

We use the point-slope form of a linear equation:

y - y₁ = m(x - x₁)

Substitute the given values:

y - (-2) = -3(x - 1)
y + 2 = -3(x - 1)

Next, simplify the equation:

y + 2 = -3x + 3

Finally, isolate y:
y = -3x + 3 - 2
y = -3x + 1

So, the correct answer is:

b) y = -3x + 1

7. An electronics company manufactures headphones with a specific wire length to

speaker diameter ratio to maintain sound quality. If the optimal ratio is maintained at
8:3 and the company decides to produce a model with a speaker diameter of 4.5cm,
what should be the wire length (in cm) for this model to preserve the optimal sound
quality ratio?

A) 9
B) 12
C) 6
D) 18
E) None of these

Explanation: To maintain the optimal ratio of wire length to speaker diameter (8:3), for every
3 units of speaker diameter, there must be 8 units of wire length. Given a speaker diameter
of 4.5cm, which is 1.5 times the base ratio unit (since 4.5 / 3 = 1.5), the wire length must be
8 * 1.5 = 12 to maintain the sound quality ratio. Therefore, the wire length should be 12cm.

8. If there are twice as many apples as oranges in a fruit basket and the ratio of
oranges to bananas is 3:4, how many oranges are there if there are 16 bananas?

A) 12
B) 15
C) 18
D) 24
E) None of these

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Explanation: Given the ratio of oranges to bananas is 3:4, for every 4 bananas, there are 3
oranges. With 16 bananas, which is four times the amount in the ratio (since 16 divided by 4
equals 4), there would be 3 times 4 = 12 oranges.

9. Simplify the following: √6 (√2 + √6)

A) √12 + 6
B) √18 + 6
C) √12 + √36
D) √12 + √6
E) None of these

10. John is considering purchasing a local McDonald's franchise. The initial investment
required is $2,000,000. If he expects an annual revenue of $150,000 with operational
costs amounting to $100,000 annually, how many years will it take for John to
recover his initial investment purely based on profit?

A) 30 years
B) 35 years
C) 40 years
D) 45 years
E) None of these

Explanation: To find out how many years it will take for John to recover his investment, we
need to calculate the profit John makes annually. The profit can be calculated by subtracting
the operational costs from the revenue each year: Profit = Revenue - Operational Costs =
$150,000 - $100,000 = $50,000. To recover an investment of $2,000,000 at a profit of
$50,000 per year, it will take 40 years ($2,000,000 / $50,000 = 40).

11. Tony Stark decides to sell the Avengers Tower for $600 million. If the sale incurs a
5% sales commission to the real estate agent and additional selling costs of $20
million for repairs and legal fees, what is the net amount Tony Stark will receive from
the sale?

A) $550 million
B) $540 million
C) $530 million
D) $570 million
E) None of these

Explanation: First, calculate the sales commission: 5% of $600 million = $30 million. Next,
add the additional costs of repairs and legal fees: $20 million. The total costs subtracted

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from the sale price are $30 million + $20 million = $50 million. Therefore, the net amount
received from the sale is $600 million - $50 million = $550 million.

12. Given that a = 2(√27 + √12) and b = √75 - 3√3, simplify the expression (a/2) + b.

A. 5√3
B. 7√3
C. 12√3
D. 10√3
E. None of these

Explanation: Simplify each term first: a = 2(3√3 + 2√3) = 2(5√3) = 10√3, b = 5√3 - 3√3 = 2√3.
Thus, (a/2) + b = 5√3 + 2√3 = 7√3.

13. If x = 2√50 - √8 and y = 3√2 + √18, what is the simplified form of xy?

A) 48
B) 16
C) 96
D) 72
E) None of these

Explanation: First, we simplify x and y. To simplify x = 2√50 - √8, we notice that 2√50 can be
further simplified to 2√(25×2) or 10√2, and √8 simplifies to √(4×2) or 2√2. Thus, x = 10√2 -
2√2 = 8√2. For y, 3√2 + √18 simplifies as 3√2 + 3√2 = 6√2. Therefore, xy = 8√2 × 6√2 =
48(√2 × √2) = 48 × 2 = 96.

14. If 3^x = 81 and 3^(y+2) = 27, what is x + y?

A) 6
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
E) None of these

Explanation: To find the value of x, we observe that 81 = 3^4, so x = 4. Similarly, since 27 =

3^3, with the equation being 3^(y+2) = 27, it follows that y+2 = 3, which means y = 1. Adding
x and y together gives us x + y = 4 + 1 = 5.

15. What is the result of simplifying the expression 4^5 / 4^3?

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 A) 4^5
B) 4^4
C) 4^3
D) 4^2
E) None of these

Explanation: According to the index laws, when dividing powers with the same base, we
subtract the exponents: 4^5 / 4^3 = 4^(5-3) = 4^2.

16. If a line passes through the points (4, -2) and (-1, 3), what is the equation of the line
in slope-intercept form?

A) y = x + 2
B) y = -2x + 3
C) y = -x + 2
D) y = x - 2
E) None of these

Explanation: First, calculate the slope (m) using the formula m = (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1). This
gives m = (3 - (-2)) / (-1 - 4) = 5 / -5 = -1. Using one of the points to solve for y-intercept (b),
let's use (4, -2). Substitute the values into the equation y = mx + b to get -2 = -1(4) + b, which
simplifies to b = 2. Hence, the equation is y = -1x + 2 or simply y = -x + 2.

17. What is the equation in slope-intercept form of the line that is perpendicular to the
line y = 3/4x - 5 and passes through the point (8, -2)?

A) y = -4/3x + 2/3
B) y = -4/3x + 10
C) y = 4/3x - 26/3
D) y = -4/3x - 26/3
E) None of these

Explanation: To find the equation of a line perpendicular to y = 3/4x - 5 and passing through
(8, -2), first find the slope of the perpendicular line. The slope of the given line is 3/4, so the
slope of the perpendicular line is the negative reciprocal, which is -4/3. Using the point (8, -2)
with the slope -4/3 in the point-slope formula, we derive the equation y + 2 = -4/3(x - 8).
Simplifying this into slope-intercept form, we get y = -4/3x - 26/3.

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 18. The graph of two linear equations forms an X shape on a Cartesian plane,
intersecting at the point (3,2). If one of the lines has the equation y = x - 1, what is the
equation of the other line if it is known that its slope is -1?

A) y = -x + 5
B) y = -x + 4
C) y = -x + 2
D) y = -x + 1
E) None of these

Explanation: Given that the lines intersect at the point (3,2), and the slope of the second line
is -1, you can use this information to find its equation. By using the point-slope formula y - y1
= m(x - x1), where m = -1 and (x1, y1) = (3, 2), you can set up the equation as y - 2 = -1(x -
3). Simplifying this equation results in y = -x + 5.

19. If the line intersecting the points (2, k) and (k, 2) has a slope of 1, what is the value of
k?

A) 0
B) 2
C) -2
D) 4
E) None of these

Explanation: To determine the value of k when the line through the points (2, k) and (k, 2)
has a slope of 1, we apply the formula for the slope (m) of a line given two points: m = (y2 -
y1) / (x2 - x1). Therefore, 1 = (2 - k) / (k - 2). After simplifying this equation, we find that 2 - k
must equal k - 2 to satisfy the condition that the slope is 1. Solving for k, we find that k = 2.

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 20. The sum of three consecutive even integers is 54. What is the smallest of these
integers?

A) 16
B) 17
C) 18
D) 19
E) None of these

Explanation: We can designate the smallest even integer as x, and the next two consecutive
even integers as x+2 and x+4. Their sum is then x + (x+2) + (x+4) = 3x + 6. To find x, we can
solve the equation 3x + 6 = 54, which simplifies to 3x = 48, and then x = 16. Thus, the
smallest integer is 16.

21. Solve for y: 3(2y - 3) + 4(5 - y) = 18

A) 2.5
B) 3
C) 3.5
D) 4
E) None of these

Explanation: By expanding and simplifying the given equation, 3(2y - 3) + 4(5 - y) becomes
6y - 9 + 20 - 4y, which simplifies further to 2y + 11. Setting the equation to equal 18, we get
2y + 11 = 18. Solving for y, we subtract 11 from both sides to have 2y = 7, and dividing by 2
yields y = 3.5.

22. If the product of two consecutive integers is 56 less than the square of the larger
integer, what is the smaller integer?

A) 54
B) 55
C) 56
D) 57
E) None of these

Explanation: Let the smaller integer be x and the larger integer be x+1. The equation based
on the problem statement is x(x+1) = (x+1)^2 - 56. Simplifying the equation gives x^2 + x =
x^2 + 2x + 1 - 56, which simplifies to x = 55. Thus, the smaller integer is 55.

23. A geometric sequence has a first term of 3 and a sum of the first four terms equal to
120. What is the common ratio?

A) 3

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 B) 4
C) 5
D) 2
E) None of these

Use the following information to solve questions 24 - 25:

Jordan is waiting in line to purchase the newly released sneakers at a local store. If the
number of people ahead of him is represented by the equation P = 4n + 20, where n is the
number of hours since the store opened, and P is the total number of people in line. After
waiting for 3 hours, Jordan notices that there are exactly 32 people ahead of him in line.

24. Based on the equation, how long had the store been open when Jordan joined the
line?

A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 4 hours
E) None of these

Explanation: Given P = 32 when Jordan checks the number of people ahead of him.
Plugging this into the given equation P = 4n + 20 results in 32 = 4n + 20. Solving for n, we
subtract 20 from both sides to get 12 = 4n, and then divide by 4 to find n = 3. This means
that 3 hours after the store opened, there were 32 people in line, implying that Jordan
checked right at the 3 hours mark, indicating that the store had been open for 3 hours when
he joined the line.

25. Given the same scenario with Jordan waiting in line and the number of people ahead
of him represented by P = 4n + 20, if there are exactly 32 people ahead of him after
waiting for 3 hours, what was the total number of people in line including Jordan at
that time?

A) 33
B) 35
C) 52
D) 53
E) None of these

Explanation: Since there are 32 people ahead of Jordan after he has been waiting for 3
hours, and given the line's dynamic as described by P = 4n + 20, and verifying with Jordan's
observation at n = 3 (which accurately reflects 32 people ahead of him), we can conclude
that Jordan himself makes one additional person in line. Therefore, including Jordan, there
would be 32 + 1 = 33 people in line at that time.

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 26. If the total distance of Jae's flight from the United States to South Korea is
represented by the equation D = 2x + 300, where x is the number of hours into the
flight and D is the distance in miles. If Jae is halfway to South Korea and has
travelled 900 miles, how many total hours is the flight?

A) 5
B) 15
C) 20
D) 10
E) None of these

27. A tour group is planning a trip across South Korea, travelling between cities
exclusively by bus. The total travel cost for the group can be represented by the
equation C = 50n + 15m, where n is the number of people in the group and m is the
number of cities planned to visit. If the group consists of 8 people and plans to visit 5
cities, what is the overall cost?

A) $650
B) $375
C) $550
D) $475
E) None of these

Explanation: Plug in the values of n = 8 and m = 5 into the equation C = 50n + 15m to find
the total cost. This calculation results in C = 400 + 75 = 475. Therefore, the total cost for the
group’s travel is $475.

28. The Yarra River flows through Melbourne and is approximately 242 kilometres long.
A school is planning a rowing competition and wants to use a 4.8-kilometer section of
the river for the race. If the race needs to start 32 kilometres downstream from the
river's source and finish 38 kilometres upstream from its mouth, what is the total
distance from the source of the river to the race's finish line?

A. 220 kilometres
B. 204 kilometres
C. 246 kilometres
D. 274 kilometres
E. None of these

Explanation: The total length of the river is 242 kilometres. The race finishes 38 kilometres
upstream from its mouth, so the distance from the source to the race's finish is the river's
total length minus the distance upstream from its mouth: 242 - 38 = 204 kilometres.

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 29. A library decides to reorganise its collection and finds that it can fit 15 books on each
shelf. If a particular section has 120 books and they decide to add 45 more books to
this section, how many shelves will they need to accommodate all the books in this
section?

A. 8 shelves
B. 11 shelves
C. 10 shelves
D. 9 shelves
E. None of these

Explanation: The library initially has 120 books and decides to add 45 more, making a total
of 165 books. Each shelf can hold 15 books, so the total number of shelves required is 165
divided by 15, which equals 11. Thus, they will need 11 shelves to accommodate all the
books in this section.

30. A researcher is observing the growth of two different plant species. The first species
doubles its height every day, while the second species triples its height every day.
Initially, each plant starts at 1 cm tall. If, after some time, the researcher returns to
find the second plant to be 729 cm tall, how many days was the researcher away for?

A) 4.5 days
B) 5.0 days
C) 5.8 days
D) 6.0 days
E) None of these

Explanation: The second species triples its height every day. Initially, the second species
starts at 1 cm tall. The height growth of the second species can be represented by the
formula: H = H0 × 3^t. Substituting the given values: 729 = 1 × 3^t. Solving for t: 3^t = 729.
We know that 729 = 3^6, so 3^t = 3^6. Therefore, t = 6. So, the researcher was away for 6
days.

31. In a playground, there are two slides that face each other forming a V-shape. If the
angle between the two slides is 60 degrees, and you slide down one and then slide
up the other, what is the total change in direction you make when switching from the
first slide to the second?

A. 60 degrees
B. 120 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 240 degrees
E. None of these

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Explanation: When you slide down the first slide and reach the bottom, you are facing
towards the vertex of the V. As you begin to slide up the second slide, you must turn away
from the vertex to align yourself with the direction of the second slide. Since the slides form a
V-shape with an angle of 60 degrees between them, and you are initially aligned with one
slide, to switch to the direction of the second slide, you essentially need to reverse the angle.
This means you need to make a 180-degree turn minus the 60-degree angle of the V,
resulting in a 120-degree change in direction. The correct answer is B) 120 degrees. This
represents the total change in direction from descending one slide and ascending the other,
taking into account the interior angle of the V-shape they form.

32. In a triangle, one angle is three times as large as the smallest angle, and the third
angle is 30 degrees more than the smallest angle. What is the degree measure of the
smallest angle?

A. 25 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 35 degrees
D. 40 degrees
E. None of these

Explanation: Let the smallest angle be x degrees. Therefore, the second angle, which is
three times as large, is 3x degrees, and the third angle is x + 30 degrees. Since the sum of
angles in a triangle is always 180 degrees, we can write the equation x + 3x + x + 30 = 180

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to describe their relationship. Simplifying this gives 5x + 30 = 180, leading to 5x = 150.
Solving for x gives x = 30 degrees, which is the measure of the smallest angle.

33. In a rectangular room, a laser is pointed from one corner to the opposite corner, and
the light beam reflects off the mirror-like walls. The laser starts in the bottom-left
corner, reflects off the top-left corner, and then heads towards the top-right corner.
What is the measure of the angle between the original direction of the laser and its
direction after the first reflection?

A. 22.5 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 135 degrees
E. None of these

Explanation: The laser starts by pointing vertically upward from the bottom-left to the top-left
corner of the rectangle. After reflecting off the top-left corner, it changes direction to
horizontal, heading towards the top-right corner. Since it moves from a vertical to a
horizontal direction due to the reflection, the angle of change is 90 degrees. Thus, the
correct answer is A) 90 degrees.

34. Bob lives directly south of Carol, the same distance as Alice, who is west of Carol.
Carol is organising a book club meeting and both Bob and Alice left their homes at 2
pm. Bob travelled on his bicycle at a constant speed of 20 km/h and arrived 15
minutes late. Alice arrived 45 minutes early because she took a bus travelling at 60
km/h. What was the time of the book club meeting?

A) 2:45 pm
B) 3:00 pm
C) 3:15 pm
D) 3:30 pm
E) None of these

Explanation: Bob took 1.25 hours (75 minutes) to reach the meeting, arriving 15 minutes
late, indicating he should have arrived at 3:00 pm. Alice, travelling three times faster, took
only 0.25 hours (15 minutes) for the same distance, arriving at 2:15 pm, 45 minutes early.
This suggests the meeting was actually planned for 3:15 pm, making the correct answer C)
3:15 pm.

35. Transpose the following equation to express x2 in terms of y:

6x2 - 9y = 3x2 + 12y + 18.

A) x2 = 9y + 6

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 B) x2 = 21y + 6
C) x2 = 21y + 18
D) x2 = 7y + 6
E) None of these

Explanation: To isolate x2 in terms of y, combine similar terms from both sides to isolate x2:
3x2 = 21y + 18. Finally, solve for x2 by dividing all coefficients by the lowest common multiple,
which is 3: x2 = 7x + 6.

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Reading - Answers

Q1 - B

The advice given by the narrator's father in "The Great Gatsby" significantly impacts the
narrator's worldview. The father's advice to remember that not everyone has had the same
advantages encourages the narrator to be more understanding and empathetic toward
others.

The passage states: "In consequence, I’m inclined to reserve all judgments, a habit that has
opened up many curious natures to me and also made me the victim of not a few veteran
bores." This indicates that the narrator withholds judgment and attempts to understand
others rather than criticizing them. This habit aligns with option B.

Q2 - C

The narrator's habit of reserving judgment, as described in the passage from "The Great
Gatsby," leads to him being approached by people with unusual or troubled backgrounds.
The passage mentions that this habit has "opened up many curious natures" to him and that
he was "privy to the secret griefs of wild, unknown men." This indicates that people with
complex or troubled backgrounds are drawn to him because they sense his non-judgmental
nature.

Q3 - B

The passage from "The Great Gatsby" clearly indicates that the narrator acknowledges the
unequal distribution of social advantages. The narrator reflects on his father's advice to
remember that "all the people in this world haven’t had the advantages that you’ve had," and
he repeats the idea that "a sense of the fundamental decencies is parceled out unequally at
birth."

Q4 - B

The passage describes Cleopatra as possessing an "energetic and masculine character"

and a "degree of talent and intellectual power seldom surpassed by women of any age or
nation." It also highlights her ability to govern Egypt with power and decision, while
maintaining her feminine charm and fascination.

Q5 - E

The passage discusses Cleopatra's energetic and masculine character, her intellectual
power, the jealousy of her father's second wife, and the pretense of her brother's association

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in governance. However, it does not mention any specific accomplishments or achievements
Cleopatra made during her reign.

Q6 - C

The passage emphasizes that Cleopatra's combination of political power and personal
charm made her an effective and influential leader. It mentions her control over Egypt and
her ability to captivate others with her charm and conversation.

Q7 - B

Aristotle describes politics as the most authoritative art, which ordains which sciences should
be studied and dictates what actions citizens should take. Other capacities, such as strategy,
economics, and rhetoric, are subordinate to politics, making it the governing science that
encompasses and directs all others towards the ultimate good for humanity.

Why not C? This option implies that politics controls all sciences entirely. While Aristotle
does indicate that politics governs the sciences, the term "controls" might imply a more direct
and exclusive control, which isn't exactly what Aristotle is conveying. He suggests that
politics sets the framework and direction for other sciences but not that it exercises direct
control over all scientific inquiry.

Q8 - A

The passage mentions that politics ordains which sciences should be studied and is
considered the master art, including esteemed capacities like strategy, economics, and
rhetoric. It also discusses how politics legislates actions and aims for the good of man.
However, it does not specify the exact methods by which politics determines which sciences
should be studied.

Q9 - B

Aristotle considers politics as the highest and most authoritative art, crucial for determining
and achieving the ultimate good for humans. He believes that through the organization and
governance provided by politics, individuals can attain the good life. This view aligns with his
broader philosophy that humans are inherently social beings whose purpose and well-being
are closely tied to the community and its governance. Politics, therefore, is essential for
creating the conditions necessary for individuals to flourish and live well.

Q10 - C

Q11 - C

The passage describes how Hidesato encounters a huge serpent-dragon on a bridge and,
despite his initial fear, bravely steps over its body and continues on his way. This encounter

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is a significant moment because it demonstrates Hidesato's bravery and marks the
beginning of his adventures.

Answer: C. It marks the beginning of his adventures and his new name.

Q12 - D

In the story, the serpent-dragon serves as a challenge that Hidesato must face and
overcome. His ability to confront and walk over the dragon without hesitation highlights his
courage and bravery. This encounter symbolizes a trial that tests his heroic qualities, setting
the stage for his future adventures and the significant events that follow. Thus, the
serpent-dragon is not just a physical obstacle but a symbolic test of Hidesato's valor and
determination.

Q13 - D

Renewable energy plants typically reduce the reliance on fossil fuels, which in turn reduces
emissions of pollutants that degrade air quality. While option C (Lower energy costs for local
residents) might be an economic benefit, it is not directly an environmental benefit. Option D
directly addresses an environmental improvement that is typically associated with renewable
energy projects.

Q14 - B

This option clearly indicates that the plant uses renewable energy sources, which are a key
aspect of sustainability. By relying on sustainable energy sources, Green Valley is reducing
its environmental footprint and promoting long-term ecological balance, which is central to
sustainability efforts.

Q15 - C

This can be inferred from the passage, which highlights several key points:

Environmental Sustainability: The passage states that the plant will reduce greenhouse gas
emissions by approximately 50,000 tons per year, indicating a significant positive impact on
environmental sustainability.

Reduced Energy Costs: Local residents have expressed support for the project, specifically
mentioning reduced energy costs as one of the benefits.

Community Support and Proactive Approach: The passage mentions that local residents are
excited about the plant and appreciate the community's proactive approach to sustainability,
which suggests a positive long-term impact.

Q16 - B

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This can be inferred from the passage which highlights the promising results of the new
therapy, its precision in targeting cancer cells while minimizing damage to healthy cells, and
the enthusiasm from the medical community about its potential impact on patient outcomes.

Q17 - A

The medical community responded with both optimism and caution to the announcement of
the new cancer treatment. They expressed enthusiasm and hope regarding the potential
impact of the breakthrough on patient outcomes, as highlighted by Dr. Michael Thompson.
However, researchers, including Dr. Carter, emphasized the need for further studies and
extensive trials to ensure the treatment's long-term safety and effectiveness before it can
become widely available. Thus, the response is characterized by a balance of positive
anticipation and prudent caution.

Q18 - B

Researchers emphasize that despite the promising initial results of the new cancer
treatment, more extensive trials are necessary to ensure its long-term safety and
effectiveness. Dr. Carter specifically mentioned the need for further studies to confirm these
aspects before the therapy can become widely available. This indicates that while the initial
findings are encouraging, additional research is crucial to validate the treatment's efficacy
and safety over a longer period.

Q19 - A

The number of protons in the nucleus determines the atomic number, which is unique to
each element and defines its identity. For instance, hydrogen has one proton, making its
atomic number 1, while helium has two protons, giving it an atomic number of 2. This
number is fundamental in defining the element and distinguishing it from others.

Q20 - A

Fundamental forces, specifically the electromagnetic force and the strong nuclear force, play
a crucial role in maintaining the stability of an atom. The electromagnetic force causes the
attraction between the positively charged protons in the nucleus and the negatively charged
electrons orbiting the nucleus. Additionally, the strong nuclear force binds protons and
neutrons together within the nucleus, ensuring the nucleus remains stable despite the
repulsion between the positively charged protons.

Q21 - C

The main difference between covalent and ionic bonds lies in how the electrons are handled
between the atoms involved. In covalent bonds, atoms share electrons to achieve stability,
whereas in ionic bonds, electrons are transferred from one atom to another, creating
charged ions that attract each other.

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Q22 - B

The primary function of the light-dependent reactions in photosynthesis is to absorb sunlight

and use that energy to generate ATP and NADPH. These energy carriers are then used in
the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) to convert carbon dioxide into glucose.

Q23 - B

The light-independent reactions, also known as the Calvin cycle, rely on the ATP and
NADPH produced during the light-dependent reactions to convert carbon dioxide into
glucose. These energy carriers provide the necessary energy and reducing power for the
synthesis of glucose and other carbohydrates.

Q24 - C

Within the chloroplast, the light-dependent reactions take place in the thylakoid membranes,
where sunlight is absorbed and used to generate ATP and NADPH. The light-independent
reactions, also known as the Calvin cycle, occur in the stroma, where ATP and NADPH are
used to convert carbon dioxide into glucose.

Q25 - B

According to Edward Gibbon, the primary cause of the decline of the Roman Empire was its
immoderate greatness, which led to internal decay. He argues that prosperity led to the
principles of decay, and the causes of destruction multiplied as the empire expanded. The
internal weaknesses and the eventual collapse were inevitable once the artificial supports
were removed.

Q26 - A

According to the passage, the policies of Constantine, particularly his partial institutions,
contributed to the relaxation and eventual dissolution of the Roman military's discipline. This
weakening of military discipline played a role in the decline of the Roman Empire, as it made
the military less formidable and effective.

Q27 - C

Gibbon suggests that the division of the Roman Empire's government did not remove the
powers of government but rather divided them. He notes that the seat of empire was
established in Constantinople in the East while the West was still governed by a series of
emperors residing in Italy and Gaul. This division of power contributed to the decline of the
empire but was not the primary cause of its fall.

Q28 - B

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According to Herodotus, Psammetichus conducted an experiment in which two newborn
children were isolated from all speech to see what word they would first articulate. This
experiment aimed to discover the natural language of humans, which Psammetichus
believed would reveal the most ancient human race.

Q29 - C

Psammetichus concluded that the Phrygians were the most ancient human race based on
the experiment where two isolated children first spoke the word "Bekos," which he
discovered was a Phrygian word for bread. This led him to believe that the Phrygians were
older than the Egyptians.

Q30 - D

The experiment conducted by Psammetichus reflects an early form of controlled

experimentation to seek answers, demonstrating the scientific curiosity and methods of
inquiry in ancient times. By isolating the newborn children and observing their first spoken
word, Psammetichus attempted to empirically determine the natural language of humans,
indicating a systematic approach to understanding human origins.

Q31 - B

The phrase "Walking through the shadows of time" suggests moving through history,
memories, or past experiences. It implies reflection and understanding derived from past
events.

Q32 - C

The metaphor of planting seeds implies that small actions can grow over time into something
much larger and more impactful.

Q33 - C

The correct punctuation involves using commas to separate the dialogue tag and ensuring
the sentence is properly punctuated.

Q34 - C

The correct punctuation involves capitalizing the first letter of the sentence and properly
using commas to separate the dialogue tag.

Q35 - A

The correct sentence should fix all spelling errors: entrepreneur, received, opportunity,
acquire, and business.

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Quantitative - Answers

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. D
15. E
16. D
17. E
18. B
19. A
20. D
21. B
22. B
23. E
24. D
25. B
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. A
32. E
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. A
37. C
38. D
39. D
40. A

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41. C
42. C
43. B
44. A
45. D
46. B
47. C
48. A
49. D
50. A

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 Selective Entry - Mock Exam

Verbal - Answers

1. A
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. B
19. E
20. B
21. C
22. C
23. D
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. D
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. A
35. A
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. C
40. B

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41. C
42. A
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. B
47. C
48. A
49. A
50. C
51. D
52. C
53. C
54. C
55. B
56. D
57. C
58. B
59. C
60. B

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