ANAPHY
1ST PRACTICE QUESTIONS SCORE: 33
D (1) Which of the following terms describes the body's ability to maintain its normal
state?
(A) Anabolism
(B) Catabolism
(C) Tolerance
(D) Homeostasis
(E) Metabolism
B 2) Which of the following best describes the human body's defense mechanism
against environmental bacteria?
(A) Hair in the nose
(B) Mucous membranes
(C) Osteoblasts
(D) Saliva
(E) Tears
C 3) Which cells in the blood do not have a nucleus?
(A) Lymphocyte
(B) Monocyte
(C) Erythrocyte
(D) Basophil
(E) Neutrophil
B 4) Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the
joints?
(A) Adipose
(B) Cartilage
(C) Epithelial
(D) Muscle
(E) Nerve
E 5) Which of the following allows air to pass into the lungs?
(A) Aorta
(B) Esophagus
(C) Heart
(D) Pancreas
(E) Trachea
B 6) Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?
(A) Abdominal
(B) Cranial
(C) Pleural
(D) Spinal
(E) Thoracic
B 7) Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing?
(A) Alveoli
(B) Epiglottis
(C) Larynx
(D) Uvula
(E) Vocal cords
E 8) Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant
of the abdominal cavity?
(A) Appendix
(B) Duodenum
(C) Gallbladder
(D) Pancreas
(E) Spleen
A 9) Which of the following anatomical regions of abdomen lies just distal to the
sternum?
(A) Epigastric
(B) Hypochondriac
(C) Hypogastric
(D) Lumbar
(E) Umbilical
E 10) Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?
(A) Abdominal and pelvic
(B) Cranial and spinal
(C) Dorsal and ventral
(D) Pericardial and pleural
(E) Thoracic and abdominal
C 11) Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward
the body?
(A) Abduction
(B) Eversion
(C) Flexion
(D) Pronation
(E) Supination
D 12) In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?
(A) Dorsal
(B) Erect
(C) Lateral
(D) Prone
(E) Supine
B 13) If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction?
(A) Inward
(B) Outward
(C) Upward
(D) Downward
B 14) The anatomic location of the spinal canal is
(A) caudal
(B) dorsal
(C) frontal
(D) transverse
(E) ventral
A 15) Which of the following is a structural, fibrous protein found in the dermis?
(A) Collagen
(B) Heparin
(C) Lipocyte
(D) Melanin
(E) Sebum
A 16) A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced, and the skin
is intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following?
(A) Closed, greenstick
(B) Complex, comminuted
(C) Compound, transverse
(D) Open, spiral
(E) Simple, pathologic
B 17) Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to
the ischium?
(A) Calcaneus
(B) Femur
(C) Symphysis pubis
(D) Tibia
(E) Ulna
B 18) The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an X-
ray study of the fibula. The procedure will be performed on which of the following
structures?
(A) Heel
(B) Lower leg
(C) Toes
(D) Thigh
(E) Pelvis
D 19) Which of the following is a disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of
falling asleep during the day?
(A) Dyslexia
(B) Epilepsy
(C) Hydrocephalus
(D) Narcolepsy
(E) Shingles
D 20) Which of the following is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one
neuron to another neuron?
(A) Dendrite
(B) Glial cell
(C) Nerve center
(D) Synapse
(E) Terminal plate
B 21) Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?
(A) Adrenal glands
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thalamus
(E) Thyroid gland
C 22) Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell?
(A) Abducens
(B) Hypoglossal
(C) Olfactory
(D) Trochlear
(E) Vagus
A 23) Which of the following is a substance that aids the transmission of nerve impulses
to the muscles?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Cholecystokinin
(C) Deoxyribose
(D) Oxytocin
(E) Prolactin
D 24) Which of the following best describes the location where the carotid pulse can be
found?
(A) In front of the ears and just above eye level
(B) In the antecubital space
(C) In the middle of the groin
(D) On the anterior side of the neck
(E) On the medial aspect of the wrist
E 25) A patient sustains severe blunt trauma to the left upper abdomen and requires
surgery. Which one of the following organs is most likely to be involved?
(A) Appendix
(B) Gallbladder
(C) Pancreas
(D) Urinary bladder
(E) Spleen
E 26) Where is the sinoatrial node located?
(A) Between the left atrium and the left ventricle
(B) Between the right atrium and the right ventricle
(C) In the interventricular septum
(D) In the upper wall of the left ventricle
(E) In the upper wall of the right atrium
C 27) Blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart into which of the following
structures?
(A) Inferior vena cava
(B) Left ventricle
(C) Pulmonary arteries
(D) Pulmonary veins
(E) Right atrium
D 28) Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by which of the following structures?
(A) Aorta
(B) Carotid arteries
(C) Inferior vena cava
(D) Pulmonary veins
(E) Superior vena cava
D 29) The thoracic cage is a structural unit important for which of the following
functions?
(A) Alimentation
(B) Menstruation
(C) Mentation
(D) Respiration
(E) Urination
C 30) Which of the following substances is found in greater quantity in exhaled air?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Oxygen
(E) Ozone
A 31) Which of the following allows gas exchange in the lungs?
(A) Alveoli
(B) Bronchi
(C) Bronchioles
(D) Capillaries
(E) Pleurae
B 32) At which of the following locations does bile enter the digestive tract?
(A) Gastroesophageal sphincter
(B) Duodenum
(C) Ileocecum
(D) Jejunum
(E) Pyloric sphincter
C 33) Which of the following structures is part of the small intestine?
(A) Ascending colon
(B) Cecum
(C) Ileum
(D) Sigmoid colon
(E) Transverse colon
C 34) Which of the following conditions is characterized by incompetence of the
esophageal sphincter?
(A) Crohn's disease
(B) Esophageal varices
(C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
(D) Pyloric stenosis
(E) Stomatitis
C 35) Which of the following organs removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures
plasma proteins, and is involved with the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen?
(A) Gallbladder
(B) Kidney
(C) Liver
(D) Spleen
(E) Stomach
D 36) Which of the following is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal system that is
responsible for secreting insulin?
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Gallbladder
(C) Liver
(D) Pancreas
(E) Spleen
D 37) Which of the following is the lymphoid organ that is a reservoir for red blood cells
and filters organisms from the blood?
(A) Appendix
(B) Gallbladder
(C) Pancreas
(D) Spleen
(E) Thymus
C 38) Which of the following best describes the process whereby the stomach muscles
contract to propel food through the digestive tract?
(A) Absorption
(B) Emulsion
(C) Peristalsis
(D) Regurgitation
(E) Secretion
A 39) Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients?
(A) Starches
(B) Proteins
(C) Fats
(D) Minerals
(E) Vitamins
E 40) In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most commonly obtained from
which of the following structures?
(A) Anus
(B) Bladder
(C) Skin
(D) Testicle
(E) Urethra
B 41) Which of the following describes the cluster of blood capillaries found in each
nephron in the kidney?
(A) Afferent arteriole
(B) Glomerulus
(C) Loop of Henle
(D) Renal pelvis
(E) Renal tubule
C 42) Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney
stones (renal calculi)?
(A) Glomerulonephritis
(B) Interstitial nephritis
(C) Nephrolithiasis
(D) Polycystic kidney
(E) Pyelonephritis
A 43) Which of the following best describes the structure that collects urine in the body?
(A) Bladder
(B) Kidney
(C) Ureter
(D) Urethra
(E) Urethral meatus
B 44) In men, which of the following structures is located at the neck of the bladder and
surrounds the urethra?
(A) Epididymis
(B) Prostate
(C) Scrotum
(D) Seminal vesicle
(E) Vas deferens
D 45) Male hormones are produced by which of the following?
(A) Glans penis
(B) Prepuce
(C) Prostate
(D) Testes
(E) Vas deferens
B 46) Which of the following are mucus-producing glands located on each side of the
vaginal opening?
(A) Adrenal
(B) Bartholin's
(C) Bulbourethral
(D) Corpus luteum
(E) Parotid
B 47) Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in which of the following
structures?
(A) Cervix
(B) Fallopian tube
(C) Ovary
(D) Uterus
(E) Vagina
C 48) Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following?
(A) Androgens
(B) Catecholamines
(C) Electrolytes
(D) Estrogens
(E) Prostaglandins
D 49) Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system?
(A) Adrenal
(B) Pancreas
(C) Pineal
(D) Pituitary
(E) Thyroid
E 50) Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin
B-12?
(A) Bell's palsy
(B) Crohn's disease
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Graves' disease
(E) Pernicious Anemia
ANSWERS
1) D
2) B
3) C
4) B
5) E
6) B
7) B
8) E
9) A
10) E
11) C
12) D
13) B
14) B
15) A
16) A
17) B
18) B
19) D
20) D
21) B
22) C
23) A
24) D
25) E
26) E
27) C
28) D
29) D
30) C
31) A
32) B
33) C
34) C
35) C
36) D
37) D
38) C
39) A
40) E
41) B
42) C
43) A
44) B
45) D
46) B
47) B
48) C
49) D
50) E
2ND PRACTICE QUESTIONS SCORE: 36
B 1) The general meaning of "corpus" is best described by which of the following?
(A) Abdomen
(B) Body
(C) Chest
(D) Head
(E) Trunk
D 2) Which of the following is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count?
(A) Anemia
(B) Leukemia
(C) Leukocytosis
(D) Leukopenia
(E) Leukoplakia
D 3) An area of dead myocardial tissue is best described by which of the following?
(A) Angina pectoris
(B) Hypertrophy
(C) An induration
(D) An infarct
(E) Stenosis
C 4) The term "lithiasis" is best described by which of the following?
(A) Constriction of tissue
(B) Dissolving
(C) Abnormal condition of stones
(D) Penetrating a cavity
(E) Stretching of tissue
A 5) Menarche refers to which of the following?
(A) Beginning of menstruation
(B) Development of female characteristics
(C) End of childhood
(D) End of pregnancy
(E) Primary infertility
A 6) Adipose tissue is made of which of the following?
(A) Fat cells
(B) Lymph nodes
(C) Muscles
(D) Skin
(E) Tendons
E 7) Which of the following terms refers to the ability to breathe comfortably only when in
an upright position?
(A) Apnea
(B) Dyspnea
(C) Eupnea
(D) Hypercapnia
(E) Orthopnea
C 8) Which of the following is the term for abnormally large breasts in men?
(A) Gynander
(B) Gynecomania
(C) Gynecomastia
(D) Gynephobia
(E) Gynoplastics
E 9) Which of the following terms means drainage from the nose?
(A) Rhinolalia
(B) Rhinomycosis
(C) Rhinophyma
(D) Rhinorrhaphy
(E) Rhinorrhea
B 10) The combining form "cephal/o" refers to which of the following?
(A) Abdomen
(B) Head
(C) Neck
(D) Ribs
(E) Spine
E 11) The prefix pertaining to fingernail is which of the following terms?
(A) Odont-
(B) Olfact-
(C) Omphal-
(D) Onco-
(E) Onych-
C 12) Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as which of the following terms?
(A) Colitis
(B) Fasciitis
(C) Hidradenitis
(D) Pimelitis
(E) Rhinitis
D 13) The prefix meaning outside or outer is which of the following?
(A) Ana-
(B) Dia-
(C) Epi-
(D) Exo-
(E) Peri-
D 14) The prefix "brady-" means which of the following?
(A) Away from
(B) Downward
(C) Irregular
(D) Slow
(E) Without
B 15) The patient's complaint of painful menstrual periods will be documented in the
medical record as which of the following?
(A) Amenorrhea
(B) Dysmenorrhea
(C) Menorrhagia
(D) Menorrhea
(E) Metrorrhagia
A 16) Which of the following suffixes refers to eating?
(A) "phagia"
(B) "phasia"
(C) "phonia"
(D) "plegia"
(E) "praxia"
A 17) Which of the following terms refers to pain?
(A) Arthralgia
(B) Diplopia
(C) Dysplasia
(D) Hemiplegia
(E) Urticaria
C 18) Which of the following is the definition for aphagia?
(A) Extreme thirst
(B) Inability to hear
(C) Inability to swallow
(D) Loss of hair
(E) Pain free
E 19) Which of the following suffixes means "cutting operation"?
(A) -ectomy
(B) -plasty
(C) -scopy
(D) -stomy
(E) -tomy
C 20) Which of the following is the CORRECT spelling for the plural of bronchus?
(A) Bronchuses
(B) Bronchii
(C) Bronchi
(D) Bronchae
(E) Broncha
E 21) Which of the following is the plural form of the medical term that means chest?
(A) Alveoli
(B) Apices
(C) Calyces
(D) Pleurae
(E) Thoraces
D 22) Which of the following is the medical term for hair loss?
(A) Folliculitis
(B) Eczema
(C) Pediculosis
(D) Alopecia
(E) Impetigo
B 23) Which of the following terms is used to describe a lateral curvature of the spine?
(A) Kyphosis
(B) Scoliosis
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Lordosis
(E) Stenosis
C 24) Which of the following terms is used to describe a condition in which the body
produces too much cortisol?
(A) Gigantism
(B) Myxedema
(C) Cushing's syndrome
(D) Diabetes insipidus
(E) Grave's Disease
E 25) "K" is the chemical symbol for which of the following substances?
(A) Barium
(B) Calcium
(C) Iron
(D) Hydrogen
(E) Potassium
B 26. Which of the following is the chemical symbol for iron?
(A) F
(B) Fe
(C) Fr
(D) I
(E) Ir
E 27) Which of the following is the term for reconstruction of the eardrum?
(A) Myringotomy
(B) Otoplasty
(C) Stapedectomy
(D) Tympanocentesis
(E) Tympanoplasty
E 28) Colporrhaphy is the repair of which of the following?
Colporrhaphy-a minimally invasive surgical procedure that repairs and strengthens the
vaginal wall after a pelvic organ prolapse (POP)
(A) Bladder
(B) Intestines
(C) Spleen
(D) Uterus
(E) Vagina
C 29) Which of the following terms describes surgical fixation of the uterus in a
suspended position?
(A) Hysterectomy
(B) Hysterodesis
(C) Hysteropexy
(D) Hysteroscopy
(E) Hysterotripsy
B 30) A pyloromyotomy is performed in which of the following body systems?
(A) Cardiovascular
(B) Gastrointestinal
(C) Musculoskeletal
(D) Nervous
(E) Reproductive
D 31) Which of the following is a surgical procedure in which a pendulous breast is lifted
and fixed to the chest wall?
(A) Mastostomy
(B) Mastotomy
(C) Mastectomy
(D) Mastopexy
(E) Mesopexy
B 32) Which of the following is an incision made to enlarge the opening of the external
urethra?
(A) Cystotomy
(B) Meatotomy
(C) Nephrostomy
(D) Pyelostomy
(E) Ureterotomy
B 33) Korotkoff sounds are evaluated by which of the following procedures?
(A) Counting the apical heartbeat
(B) Determining the blood pressure
(C) Performing ultrasonography
(D) Counting the respirations
(E) Evaluating the pulse
D 34) Which of the following is a nonsterile procedure?
(A) Amniocentesis
(B) Cystoscopy
(C) Peritoneal dialysis
(D) Proctosigmoidoscopy
(E) Renal biopsy
B 35) Which of the following is a procedure in which synovial fluid is removed for
analysis?
(A) Apheresis
(B) Arthrocentesis
(C) Arthrography
(D) Arthroscopy
(E) Articulation
C 36) Which of the following procedures is indicated when an abnormal growth is
identified on a barium enema X-ray study?
(A) Arthroscopy
(B) Bronchoscopy
(C) Colonoscopy
(D) Cystoscopy
(E) Colposcopy
B 37) A patient scheduled for echoencephalography will undergo a study of which of the
following?
(A) Abdomen
(B) Brain
(C) Heart
(D) Lungs
(E) Spine
B 38) Which of the following physicians specializes in treating patients with diseases of
the liver?
(A) Hematologist
(B) Hepatologist
(C) Nephrologist
(D) Oncologist
(E) Rheumatologist
C 39) Which of the following branches of medicine specializes in the study of the
musculoskeletal system?
(A) Gynecology
(B) Nephrology
(C) Orthopedics
(D) Pediatrics
(E) Urology
C 40) A patient with encephalitis is most likely to be treated by which of the following
specialists?
(A) Endocrinologist
(B) Hematologist
(C) Neurologist
(D) Oncologist
(E) Radiologist
E 41) A cystoscope is an instrument used most commonly by a specialist in which of the
following?
(A) Endocrinology
(B) Gastroenterology
(C) Gynecology
(D) Radiology
(E) Urology
D 42) A patient who has hypergonadism, prolactinoma, and hirsutism will most likely be
referred to which of the following specialists?
(A) Immunologist
(B) Pathologist
(C) Rheumatologist
(D) Endocrinologist
(E) Gerontologist
A 43) Polydipsia, polyuria, good appetite with weight loss, and blurred vision are signs
and symptoms of which of the following conditions?
(A) Diabetes mellitus
(B) Gout
(C) Hypothyroidism
(D) Marasmus
(E) Polyposis coli
B 44) Dysphonia is a common symptom of which of the following conditions?
(A) Iritis
(B) Laryngitis
(C) Pneumonitis
(D) Rhinitis
(E) Stomatitis
E 45) Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the eye that is known to be
hereditary?
(A) Glioblastoma
(B) Neuroblastoma
(C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Pheochromocytoma
(E) Retinoblastoma
B 46) Which of the following are round bacteria that grow in pairs?
(A) Streptococci
(B) Diplococci
(C) Bacilli
(D) Spirilla
(E) Staphylococci
B 47) Which of the following words is MISSPELLED?
(A) Adenopathy
(B) Basaphil
(C) Edematous
(D) Hemopoiesis
(E) Myeloid
B 48) Which of the following medical terms is spelled CORRECTLY?
(A) Albumine
(B) Hemorrhoid
(C) Larinx
(D) Opthalmology
(E) Amenorrhia
C 49) Which of the following spellings is CORRECT?
(A) Abecess
(B) Abces
(C) Abscess
(D) Abscus
(E) Absess
B 50) Which of the following is the CORRECT spelling for the focusing ability of the eye?
(A) Accomedation
(B) Accommodation
(C) Acomodation
(D) Acommodation
(E) Acommedation
ANSWERS
1) B
2) D
3) D
4) C
5) A
6) A
7) E
8) C
9) E
10) B
11) E
12) C
13) D
14) D
15) B
16) A
17) A
18) C
19) E
20) C
21) E
22) D
23) B
24) C
25) E
26) B
27) E
28) E
29) C
30) B
31) D
32) B
33) B
34) D
35) B
36) C
37) B
38) B
39) C
40) C
41) E
42) D
43) A
44) B
45) E
46) B
47) B
48) B
49) C
50) B
1. A 43-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to his primary care
physician for a routine check-up. The patient is concerned
about the potential acid-base imbalance due to his chronic
respiratory condition. During the discussion, the physician
explains the importance of maintaining a precise pH range in
the blood for optimal physiological functioning. He then
quizzes the medical student accompanying him about the
normal pH range of blood. Which of the following ranges
represents the typical pH of human blood, ensuring a balance
conducive to the well-being of the organism?
A. 7.30–7.40
B. 7.35–7.45
C. 7.20–7.30
D. 7.45–7.55
Rationale: The blood pH in humans is tightly regulated to stay
within this range. This pH range ensures that the blood
remains slightly alkaline, which is essential for the optimal
functioning of various enzymatic reactions and physiological
processes in the body.
2. A 68-year-old female patient with a history of type 2 diabetes
mellitus and hypertension presents to the emergency department
with a 2-day history of vomiting and diarrhea. On examination, the
patient appears lethargic, has dry mucous membranes, sunken
eyes, and her skin turgor is poor. The physician suspects severe
dehydration and decides to run a comprehensive metabolic panel to
assess her electrolyte levels, kidney function, and to better
understand her fluid balance. The medical student accompanying
the physician is asked to identify the major constituent of plasma
crucial for maintaining proper blood volume and fluid balance. Which
of the following components is the predominant constituent of
plasma playing a pivotal role in the preservation of blood volume
and fluid equilibrium?
A. GASES
B. IONS
C. NUTRIENTS
D. PROTEINS
E. WATER
Rationale: Water is the major constituent of plasma, making up
about 90-92% of its volume. It plays a pivotal role in maintaining
blood volume and fluid balance. The body’s hydration status directly
affects the blood volume and, consequently, impacts blood pressure
and cellular hydration. In the clinical scenario provided, the
evaluation of the comprehensive metabolic panel alongside
rehydration measures are crucial steps in managing this patient’s
dehydration and its underlying causes.
3. A 45-year-old marathon runner comes to a health clinic for a
routine checkup before participating in an upcoming running event.
The patient’s medical history is unremarkable and he denies any
complaints or recent illnesses. The healthcare provider decides to
perform a complete blood count (CBC) to ensure there are no
underlying conditions that might affect the patient’s performance or
health during the event. The results of the CBC show that the
formed elements in the patient’s blood sample predominantly
consist of a specific cell type known for its vital role in oxygen
transport throughout the body, ensuring the tissues receive the
necessary oxygen for metabolic activities. Based on this information,
which of the following cell types is most likely to be predominant in
this patient’s blood sample?
A. ALBUMINS
B. GLOBULINS
C. LEUKOCYTES
D. ERYTHROCYTES
E. THROMBOCYTES
Rationale: Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are the most common
cell type among the formed elements in the blood and are essential
for transporting oxygen from the lungs to tissues throughout the
body. They contain hemoglobin, a molecule that binds oxygen and is
crucial for aerobic respiration in the tissues, making them the
primary cell type involved in oxygen transport.
4. A 35-year-old female patient, with a history of leukemia, is
scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy as a component of her ongoing
diagnostic workup. The patient is concerned about the necessity of
the procedure and inquires about its importance. The healthcare
provider explains that the biopsy is crucial to evaluate the patient’s
hematopoiesis, ensuring her bone marrow is functioning correctly in
producing blood cells. Furthermore, it could provide insights into her
disease status and response to treatment. With regard to the
explanation provided by the healthcare provider, which of the
following options best defines hematopoiesis, the process that
occurs within the bone marrow?
A. A serious medical condition that most commonly results from
maternal-fetal blood type (Rh factor) incompatibility
B. An abnormally high absorption of iron by the intestinal tract,
resulting in excessive storage of iron, particularly in the liver, skin,
pancreas, heart, joints, and testes
C. The process of blood cell production or the formation of
blood cellular components
D. The presence of megakaryocytes in the blood or of excessive
numbers in the bone marrow
Rationale: This choice correctly defines hematopoiesis as the
process of blood cell production, which occurs in the bone marrow.
Hematopoiesis generates the cellular components of blood,
including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which are
vital for oxygen transport, immune defense, and hemostasis,
respectively.
5. During a prenatal check-up, a 27-year-old primigravida patient
expresses concern regarding her recent fatigue and shortness of
breath. The healthcare provider decides to check her hemoglobin
levels to ensure adequate oxygen transport to both the mother and
the fetus. She educates the patient about the structure of
hemoglobin and its paramount role in oxygen transportation. In this
context, which of the following statements accurately describes a
key component of hemoglobin, fundamental to its function in
oxygen transport?
A. contains 1 iron atom.
B. contain 2 globin protein molecules.
C. Consists of 4 protein chains and 4 heme groups
D. can carry 1 oxygen molecule only.
Rationale: Each hemoglobin molecule consists of 4 globin protein
chains, and each of these chains is associated with a heme group.
The iron atom present in each heme group allows for the binding of
an oxygen molecule, thus playing a crucial role in oxygen transport.
