Topic 1- Basic civil Engineering

1) The component of paint that imparts color to it is called:

a) Pigment

2) For repetitive use, formworks in concrete construction, what material is preferred:

b) Steel

3) Early strength of cement is achieved by:

a) C3S

4) Brick is soaked in water before use:

b) To prevent moisture loss from mortar

5) Indentation on the surface of a brick is called:

a) Frog

6) If a two-point load acts above two supports in a simply supported beam:

c) MB is max at mid span.

7) Before plastering, the surface has to be:

a) Rough

8) The effect on timber due to electric seasoning is:

a) Splitting

9) What is the composition of quartzite?

 b) Siliceous

10) The component of paint that imparts color to it is called:

a) Pigment

11) Which lime is used in lime mortar?

b) Hydraulic lime

12) Plastic bitumen is used in:

c) Filling Cracks

13) Which of the following is primary raw material in cement manufacturing?

b) Limestone

14) Lacquer is:(( fresh Polisds)

b) Spirit Varnish

15) Seasoning of timber is done:

c) to remove water

16) The initial setting time of ordinary Portland cement is:

b) 30 minutes

17) The presence of sand in brick earth prevents:

a) Warping of bricks

18) Compressive strength of 1st class bricks is:

a) >10.5 MPa
19) Vicat apparatus is used in:

a) Consistency test

20) Soundness test is performed by:

b) Le Chatelier's apparatus

21) For 1st class bricks, the water absorption should not be more than:

a) 0.15

22) Le-Chatelier's device is used for determining the:

c) Soundness

23. Terracotta is used in buildings for:

a) Ornamental work

24. __ is prepared on the basis of plinth area of the building, the rate being deducted from the cost of a
similar building having similar specifications, heights, and construction in the locality.

d) Plinth Area Estimate

25. The number of treads in a flight is equal to:

a) Risers minus one

26. Which is the weakest bond in building?

d) Ranking bond

27. In case of cavity walls where both walls are load bearing the effective thickness is:

d) Larger of b and c
28. What is the purpose of providing waterproof tiles?

d) Prevents water from entering

29. What is used in rainwater gutter in roof?

c) Bitumen,sand, cement

30. A projecting piece usually provided to support a truss, is:

d) Corbel, frieze

31. An arch in which the intrados and geometric center don't coincide:

c) Right angle Tringle

32. Second moment of area of triangle about base:

d) bh3/12

33. The angle for well conditional triangle should not be less than:

a) 60 degree

34. MOI of inertia of hollow circular:

b) π/64 * (R^4 - r^4)

35. MOI of semicircle about the base:

c) πD^4/128

36. Section modulus of a hollow circular section:

d) Z = π(D^4 - d^4)/32D
37. What is the moment of inertia of a rectangular section about a horizontal axis passing through the
base?

b) bd^3/3

38. The CG of a cone from its base is:

b) h/4

39. Calculate the second moment of area of a hollow circular section with external and internal diameter
20 cm and 10 cm respectively:

b) 7363 cm^4

40. Find the CG of trapezoidal section for depth h with parallel side a and b from the base of b?

d) h/3 * [(b^2 + b(a))/(b+a)]

41. The perpendicular axis theorem is used to calculate the MOI of:

c) Circular lamina

42. Moment of inertia of rectangle about CG with axis parallel to x-axis is:

c) bd^3/12

43. Center of gravity of hemisphere is:

c) 3r/8
44) A solid having an equilateral triangle as base and other faces converging towards its axis is:

b) Pyramid

45) Which of the following shapes is made up of uniform triangles?

c) Prism

46) The radius of gyration of a rectangular section is not proportional to:

d) none of these

47) If the level is located at the midpoint, then which error is eliminated?

a) Both

48) How many satellites are used for GPS by the US Department of Defense?

a) 24

49) Right Face zenith angle if Left Face zenithal angle is 98° 30' 30'':( (RF-LF=180)

a) 278° 29' 30''

50) Topography survey is done in:

d) Engineering

51) Which of the following doesn't determine the capability of GIS?

a) Transferring Data

52) Find the perpendicular distance if the radius of the curve is 10.26 m and the angle is θ = 10° 24'☹(R-
Rcos θ/2 )

b) 0.042 m
53) Which of the following indicates the formula for arithmetic check?

a) ΣB.S - ΣF.S = Last RL - First R.L

54) Find the value of the radius of curvature if D is given as 23.76: ((D=5730/R)

a) 241.16 m

55) In closed traverse, if the sum of the north latitudes is more than the sum of the south latitudes and
also the sum of the west departures is more than the sum of the east departures, the bearing of the
closing line is in the:

c) SE direction

56) Readings taken during traversing using a total station are:

b) Horizontal angle, Horizontal distance, vertical distance, station height, height of instrument

57) The bearings of the lines AB and BC are 146° 30' and 68° 30'. The included angle ABC is:

b) 120°

58) What is the direction of closing error?

a) Tan θ = ΣD/ΣL

59) Which of the following is an obstacle to chaining but not for ranging?

a) River

60) The bench marks are fixed during the:

c) Detailed survey

61) Contour lines of different elevations can unite to form one line, only in the case of:

a) a vertical cliff
62) The magnetic bearing of a line is 32° and the magnetic declination is 10° 15' W. The true bearing is:

b) 21° 45'

63) For 1m³ volume of 1:1.5:3 PCC, how many bags of cement are required?

c) 8 bags

64) Binding wire quantity in 1 quintal reinforcement:

c) 1 kg

65) In the long wall short wall method, the length of the long wall is the sum of the centerline and:

a) b

66) Given the carpet area of a floor is 100m² and the circulation area is 50% of the plinth area, and the
rate per sq. m of plinth area is Rs. 40,000, what is the total estimate of the building?

d) 8 lakhs

67) The quantity of brickwork with mortar in the foundation used per mason per day is:

a) 1.25 m³

68) The process of determining the fair price or value of a property is known as:

c) valuation
Topic:02: Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering

1) What is the formula to compute dry density of soil?

a) γ/(1+w)

2) The water content of soil is defined as the ratio of:

d) weight of water to weight of solids of given mass of soil

3) Meaning of SC in soil classification?

c) Sand with plastic fines

4) The ratio of the volume of water present in a given soil mass to the total volume of its voids, is known
as:

d) degree of saturation

5) What is the type of soil which have Pl below A-line?

c) Low plasticity, High plasticity, organic

6) The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its surface dry, is known as:

d) dry aggregate

7) The maximum water content at which a reduction in water content does not cause a decrease in
volume of a soil mass, is known as:

c) shrinkage limit

8) Coefficient of uniformity is:

b) D60/D10

9) Falling head permeability test can be used for:

b) Less permeable soil, clayey soil, coarse grain soil

10) Soil of Kathmandu valley is:

c) Black cotten

11) What is the sieve size in mm for an aggregate to be a fine-grained aggregate if it retains on it?

c) 4.75mm

12) Which of the following is correct?

b) 1-n = 1 / (1 + e)

13) Coefficient of curvature graded soil must be:

b) 1.0 to 3.0

14) What is the value of the coefficient of uniformity for well-graded sand?

a) >6

15) Soil exists in how many states?

d) 4

16) A moist soil sample weighing 108 g has a volume of 60 cc. If water content is 25% and value of the G
= 2.52, the void ratio is:

a) 0.75

17) Find the porosity if specific gravity is 2.6 & water content is 45% for fully saturated condition of soil:

b) 0.55

18) The weight of a pycnometer containing 400 g sand and water full to the top is 2150 g. The weight of
pycnometer full of clean water is 1950 g. If specific gravity of the soil is 2.5, the water content is:(((M2-
M1)/(M3-M4)*(G-1)/G -1
a) 0.2

19) What is the formula for seepage discharge in flow net?

b) q = kh Nf/Nd

20) Relative compaction is defined as:

b) γd/γd,max

21) The active earth pressure of a soil is defined as the lateral pressure exerted by soil:

c) when the retaining wall tends to move away from the back fill

22) Which roller is used for compacting clayey soils?

c) Sheepsfoot roller

23) The soil which has been acted upon by stress greater than present stress is called:

c) Over-consolidated

24) The coefficient of compressibility of soil is the ratio of:

b) Strain to stress

25) Critical hydraulic gradient is formed if:

c) All of the above

26) Consolidation settlement is calculated for:

e) clay layer with WT at the ground surface

27) Compaction is a process in which change in volume is due to:

b) Removal of air

28) The immediate settlement can be computed from the expression, based on:

c) Theory of elasticity

29) A clay is over-consolidated if it has been subjected to a pressure in excess of its present pressure.

c) Over-consolidated

30) The direction of seepage water is:

a) perpendicular to the equipotential line

31) Compaction depends on:

d) All of the above

32) The factor of safety for infinite slope with steady seepage is:

c) approx. half of the dry-slope

33) On wetting, cohesive soils:

d) decrease their shear strength

34) What is the meaning of bulking of sand?

a) Increase in volume of sand due to moisture absorption

35) Arrange the following regarding the coefficient of cohesion:

c) Hard clay > Dense sand > Medium clay > Soft clay

36) Consolidation settlement occurs due to:

b) Expulsion of water from voids

37) How will the water table affect the effective stress if it rises above GL?

b) No effective

38) What would be the effect on effective stress if water table is above the GL?

a) Remain Constant

39) The Oedometer is used for:

b) Consolidation

40) Cm is also called:

a) Cohesion value of soil

41) The ratio of settlement at any time 't' to the final settlement is known as:

b) Degree of consolidation
42) Water is flowing at a rate of 0.04 m³/s in a soil sample with a thickness of 12 m and sectional area of
50 m². If the coefficient of permeability is 1.6 x 10⁻¹ m/s, what is the seepage pressure?((q=kiA,rw*i*L)

a) 58.86 kN/m²

43) The void ratio of a soil is 0.68 and specific gravity is 2.68. The hydraulic gradient for quick sand
condition is:

a) 1

44) Which of the following has the minimum compressibility?

a) Water at room temperature

45) What is the formula for shear strength from the vane shear test?

c) S = T / (πD²) * 2(H/2 + D/6)

46) Cohesionless soil doesn't depend on:

b) Stress history

47) The angle subtended by a rigid cone below foundation with respect to the horizontal is:

c) 45 degrees + φ/2

48) The X and Y-axes of Mohr's circle represent:

a) Normal stress and shear stress

49) The shear strength of plastic undrained clay depends upon:

b) Cohesion

50) The neutral stress in a soil mass is:

c) Stress taken up by the pore water

51) For testing a saturated clay for shear strength, the test recommended is:

b) Unconfined compression test

52) A dry specimen is put through a tri-axial test, with cell pressure 150 kPa and deviator stress at failure
100 kPa. The angle of internal friction is:

a) 30 degrees

53) An angle θ in the physical element is represented by:

b) 2θ on Mohr's circle

54) Bearing stress is 1800 kN/m3 , unit weight =20kN/m3, internal angle of friction=30 degree then
according to Rankine's theory, the minimum depth of foundation is:

c) 1 m

55) Formula for area ratio is:

a) ((D₂² - D₁²) / D₁²) x 100

56) Based on the assumptions of Rankine's theory, the soil mass is:

c) Homogeneous

57) The depth of exploration is independent of:

c) Type of structure

58) What is the relation of active earth pressure in cohesive soil?

c) Kaγz - 2c√(Ka)

59) Pick up the correct statement from the following:

b) Failure plane does not carry maximum shear stress

60) Cullman Graph is used in:

a) Coulomb wedge theory

61) Calculate the active pressure intensity when the backfill has a unit weight of 18 KN/m³, a wall height
of 6 m, an angle of internal friction of 30°, and a surcharge of 36 KN/m²:

d) 78 KN/m²

62) What is the formula for Active earth pressure coefficient?

a) (1 - sin φ) / (1 + sin φ)
63) In infinite slope, FOS = 1.5, angle of internal friction = 360°, then find the safe angle☹(FoS=i/phi)

b) 260°

64) When do strap footings are used in the foundation?

c) Distance between the column is long

65) Mat is a type of:

a) Shallow foundation

66) Pile foundation is which of the following?

b) Deep

67) Which foundation is constructed in group?

a) Pile

68) Gross area of footing is dependent on:

a) All of the above

69) Mat foundation is provided when:

b) Isolated footing covers more than 50% area

70) Which of the following is not among the common types of Mat foundation?

d) Double flat plate thickened

71) If there are 2 or more columns in a foundation, then what is the name of foundation?

a) Combined footing

72) How much minimum depth below soil, footing is provided?

c) 500 mm
73) The minimum depth of foundation, according to Rankine's formula will be (Given that q = 180 kN/m²,
γ = 20 kN/m² and φ = 30°):

a) 0.8 m

74) Bearing capacity is calculated from:

d) All of the above

75) The bearing capacity depends upon:

d) All of the above

76) Settlements formula for cohesionless soil from plate load test:

b) Sf /sf=((Bp(Bf+0.3))/(Bf(Bp+0.3)))^2

77) Formula for Ultimate bearing capacity of square footing:

b) Qult=1.2CNc+qNq+0.4ByNy

78) The bearing capacity of square footing is:

d) Qult=1.3CNc+qNq+0.4ByNy

79) For purely cohesive soil, the bearing capacity is given by which of the following equations:

b) qf = 5.7c + sigma

80) Which of the following is not an assumption of Terzaghi's bearing capacity theory:

c) Base of footing is smooth

81) Bearing capacity formula for cohesionless soil from the plate load test:

a) Bf/Bp * Qu(p)

82) Bearing capacity of soil does not depend on Rw1, Rw2:

b) B depth Below foundation

83) Soft rocks bearing capacity:

b) 440 KN / (m^2)

84) The bearing capacity of soft clay in kPa is:

b) 100

85) Piston sampler is used for which type of soil:

a) Very soft clay

Topic 3-Water Resource

1. *The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube depends on*

- *d) the inner radius of the tube.

2. *Match the following:*

- *b) A-a, B-d, C-c, D-b.

3. *Maximum density of water at Degree Celsius.*

- *4 degrees Celsius.

4. *Bulk modulus of liquid*

- *increase with pressure.

5. *Buoyancy force is*

- *a) Force acts in the opposite direction to the weight of an object submerged in a fluid

6. *A non-newtonian fluid is one which*

- *a) Doesn't follow Newton's law of viscosity

7. *Two soap bubbles have d and 2d diameter respectively. Which bubble has more internal pressure?*

- *a) The bubble with diameter d has more internal pressure.

8. *Specific volume is defined as reciprocal of*

- *b) Density

9. *The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all directions when the fluid is*

- *b)Viscous and Moving

10. *The radius of curvature of the arc of the bubble tube is generally kept*

- *100 m.

11. *Coefficient of friction for laminar flow is*

- *16/Re.

12. *With increase in temperature, viscosity*

- *b) Cannot be said

13. *If the dew point is above 0°C, then*

- *b) Dew will form.

14. *If the jar is placed 1m above the floor and a tap with cross-sectional area 1m² at the bottom of the
jar is open, then water jet discharges 0.2m³/s water and hits the floor at 1.8m distance. If the height of
the jar is 1m and fully filled, what would be the coefficient of velocity?*

- *0.9

15. *If the depression in a glass tube of 1.2mm diameter immersed in mercury is 8mm, then find the
diameter of the tube to have a depression of 4mm*

- *2.4mm

16. *Two capillary tubes P and Q are dipped in water. The height of water level in capillary P is 2/3 to the
height in Q capillary. The ratio of their diameters is*

- *3:2

17:* Which of the following is right?

- Answer: b) Pabs = Patm + Pgauge

18:* Force on Hemispherical part if pressure acted is Po

- Answer: b) π * r^2

19:* When the barometer reads mm of mercury, a pressure 10 kPa suction at that location is equivalent
to

- Answer: b) 88.72 (abs)

20:* The piezometric head for the static fluid is:

- Answer: d) Remain constant at all points in the liquid

21:* What is the pressure in Pascal at a depth of 1m below the water surface?

- Answer: a) 9810 Pa

22:* Which of the following expression is correct?

 - Answer: d) GM=i/v-BG

23:* What is the value of pressure inside a soap bubble having radius R?

- Answer: d) 8T/R

24:* A rectangular surface 2.5m*3m is immersed in water touching its surface. Find the depth of center
of pressure.

- Answer: c) 2m

25:* A floating body attains stable equilibrium if its metacenter is

- Answer: a) above the centroid

27:* In a vertical stationary plate, the jet after striking moves

- Answer: c) Along the plate

26:* In Bernoulli's equation each term represents:

- Answer: b) Total energy per unit weight

29:* Momentum principle is not applicable to

- Answer: a) Venturi meter

31:* The equation of continuity for a fluid that is compressible and flow that is steady is:

- Answer: d) p1A1V1=P2A2V2

33:* Water is flowing at 1 m/sec through a pipe of 10cm diameter with a right-angle bend. The force in
Newton exerted on the bend by water is

- Answer: c) 5pi/2

35:* The difference of EGL and HGL gives

 - Answer: a) Velocity head

36. *In which of the following conditions can the Bernoulli equation not be used?*

- Answer: Viscous flow

37. *Prandi mixing length is*

- Answer: Zero at the pipe wall

38. *A pitot tube is used to measure*

- Answer: Velocity of flow

39. *Two identical pipes of length L, diameter D, and friction f, are connected in parallel between two
points. The length of a single pipe of diameter D and the same friction f, equivalent to the above pair is*

- Answer: L/4

41. *Head loss formula \( h = f \cdot \left(\frac{L}{D}\right) \cdot \left(\frac{V^2}{2g}\right) \) is given by*

- Answer: Darcy-Weisbach

42. *Formula for sudden expansion loss*

- Answer: (V1-V2)2/2g

43. *Coefficient of discharge for an orifice meter is in the range*

- Answer: 0.62 to 0.65

44. *The three liquids 1, 2, and 3 with vapor pressures V1, V2, and V3 respectively, are kept under the
same pressure. If V1 > V2 > V3, which liquid will start boiling early?*

- Answer: Liquid 1

45. *Viscosity is defined as the*

 - Answer: Resistance to flow of fluid

46. *Fluids which undergo strain rates proportional to the applied shear stress are termed as?*

- Answer: Newtonian fluid

47. *The frictional resistance for fluids in motion is*

- Answer: Proportional to the velocity in laminar flow and to the square of the velocity in turbulent
flow

48. *Two pipes, each of diameter d, converge to form a pipe of diameter D. What should be the relation
between d and D such that the flow velocity in the third pipe becomes double of that in each of the two
pipes?*

- Answer: D = d

49. *Calculate the critical shear stress for usual turbulent flow, given a mean diameter of grain particles
in the bed material of 0.3 mm.*

- Answer: 0.206 N/(m²)

50. *e/D is a parameter in the Moody diagram. What is that e in terms used in the moody diagram?*

- Answer: Surface roughness height thickness

51. *What is the specific gravity of block if its weight in air is 60 N and the weight is 40 N when immersed
in water?*

- Answer: 3

52. *The head loss at the entrance of the pipe is*

- Answer: Half

53. *Water flows through a circular tube with a velocity of 2 m/s. The diameter of the pipe is 14 cm. Take
kinematic viscosity of water \( \nu = 10^{-6} \) m²/s and density of water \( \rho = 1000 \) kg/m³.*

- Answer: 2.8 * 10^8

54. *Water is flowing down steadily in a constant cross-sectional pipe. According to Bernoulli principle*

- Answer: velocity increase with height

58. *Question:* What is the ratio of the velocity at the axis of the pipe to the mean velocity of flow in
case of pipe flow under viscous condition?

- *b) 2

59. *Question:* What is the formula of sequent depth?

- *c) Y2/Y1=05(root(8f^2+1)-1

60. *Question:* Fr value for Steady jump?

- *a) 4.5-9

61. *Question:* The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel is 16.48. What is
the Froude number (approximate) at the beginning of the jump?

- *b) 12

62. *Question:* If Manning's n is doubled then slope should be changed to?

- *a) Quadruple

63. *Question:* Condition for supercritical flow?

- *c) Fr > 1

10. *Question:* In an open channel flow, the alternate depths are?

- *b) Which occurs at the same specific energy

11. *Question:* The area of a channel section is 8m² and the wetted perimeter is 8m. Calculate the value
of the bed slope of the channel if the discharge is 33.33m³/s and Manning's coefficient is 0.012

- *a) 1 in 400

12. *Question:* In defining the Froude number which depth parameter is used?

- *b) Hydraulic mean depth

13. *Question:* Weighted perimeter calculation for trapezoidal section?

- *a) \( B + y_v \sqrt{1 + z^2} \)

14. *Question:* if y1=1m and y2=5m in hydraulic jump, find out energy loss?

- *c) 3.2m

15. *Question:* The portion between two successive flow lines is known as?

- *b) flow channel

16. *Question:* What measures velocity at a point of fluid in a stream?

- *d) Pitot Static tubes

17. *Question:* At what value of Froude number is the jump considered a steady jump?

- *c) \( F_r = 4.5 - 9

18. *Question:* The area of a triangular section is 66.72m² and the wetted perimeter of the section is
24.03m. Calculate the value of the Manning's roughness, if the bed slope of the channel is 1:500 and the
discharge through the channel is 117.6 cusec

- *d) 0.05

19. *Question:* The sequent depths in a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel are
0.25m and 1.25m. The energy lost in this jump is:

- *a) 0.8m
20. *Question:* Length of hydraulic jump is equal to?

- *b) 5 to 7 times the jump height

21. *Question:* In case of most economical trapezoidal section top width is equals to?

- *c) sum of side slope

1. The discharge passing over ogee weir is proportional to

- *Answer: b) H^(3/2)*

2. Froude number of a triangular channel of depth y with side slope 2H:1 is

- *Answer: d) V/root(gy/3)*

3. Which of the following statements is correct about stream length of fan-shaped and fern-shaped
catchment?

- *Answer: c) Stream length of both catchments is the same*

4. When the flow in an open channel is gradually varied, the flow is said to be

- *Answer: c) steady non-uniform flow*

5. The value of hydraulic radius in the most economical triangular channel is

- *Answer: a) y/2root 2*

6. What will be the effect on probability of annual damage if design flood is increased?

- *Answer: a) Decreases*

7. Ordinate of Unit hydrograph is obtained by dividing

 - *Answer: b) Runoff depth*

8. Precipitation caused by lifting of an air mass due to the pressure difference is called

- *Answer: b) cyclonic precipitation*

9. Rational method is applicable for

- *Answer: c) Duration of rainfall ≥ time of concentration

9. Recession limb of a hydrograph is independent of:

Ans.Storm Characteristics

10. Given a Gumbel's distribution with u=0 and B = 1, find the probability that X is less than or equal to 2

- *Answer: a) 0.864*

11. Which method gives an accurate estimate of average rainfall in a hilly area catchment?

- *Answer: a) Isohyetal method*

12. Which among the following methods is very accurate?

- *Answer: b) Thiesson method*

13. What do you mean by cold frontal precipitation?

- *Answer: b) Small catchment area with havey precipitation is used*

14. The double mass curve technique is used

- *Answer: b) To check the consistency of rain gauge records*

15. Isohytes are the imaginary lines joining the points of equal

- *Answer: b) rainfall*
16. Which method gives accurate flow characteristics in the context of river of Nepal?

- *Answer: a) DHM 2004*

Topic: 04- Structural Mechanics

1) *A bending moment M acts at each support of a simply supported beam, the SFD has ordinates:

- (c) Zero at all Sections

2) *If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero, the bending moment at the section is:

- (b) maximum

3) *For a simply supported beam, a neutral axis is:

- (d) where bending stress is zero and shear stress maximum

4) *During ultimate shear failure, the resistance provided is due to:

- (a) Shear reinforcement only

5) *Which of the following is important while designing Beam:

- (c) BM at Center

6) *Correct relation between SF and M:*

- (a) SF = dM/dx

7) *The load beyond which a body will have permanent set is:*

- (b) Proof Load

8) *The deflection at the center of a simply supported beam when a concentrated load P is acting at its
center is:

- (b) PL³/48EI
9) *In a simply supported beam, two equal point loads P are acting at a distance of 1/3 from both
supports A and B. What is the value of shear force at a distance L/6 from support A:*

- (d) P

10) *The ductility of a material, with the increase in percentage reduction in the area of a specimen
under a tensile test:*

- (a) Increases

11) *A beam is said to be Continuous if:*

- (c) Supported on more than two supports

12) *Abrupt change in BMD if is applied:*

- (a) Couple

13) *Positive bending moment has the shape of:*

- (a) Concave downward

14) *If a simply supported beam carries a UDL across the entire span, then the shear force:*

- (a) changes linearly

15) *If a beam is subjected to a constant bending moment along its length, then the shear force will:*

- (b) be zero at all sections along the beam

16) *A moment M is acting at the free end of a cantilever beam. What will be the maximum moment
developed in the beam:*

- (b) M
### Question 17

A rod of area 1000 mm² has an axial pull of 20 kN. Then what is the shear stress at 30° inclined to the
horizontal axis?(sigma=Force/Area, T=1/2 sigma sin(2*30°)

- *Answer: c) 0.866N/m²*

### Question 18

Support reaction in a simply supported beam of span 1m is 1 kNm clockwise couple acts at its midspan:

- *Answer: a) 1 kN downward, 1 kN upward*

### Question 19

In the case of a propped cantilever beam, the internal hinge is located at what distance from the
propped end?

- *Answer: b) 0.25L*

### Question 20

The deflection of a simply supported beam having point load \( W \) acting at its center is:

- *Answer: a) {W L^2}/{48 EI}*

### Question 21

Find the normal stress:

- *Answer: a) \(\sigma_x / 2 - \nu (\sigma_x^2 / 4 + \tau_x y^2)\)*

### Question 22

The relation of E,G and miu

- *Answer: c) Miu=E/2G-1
### Question 23

Principal Planes are subjected to:

- *Answer: c) Normal stress only *

### Question 24

Along the Principal Planes subjected to maximum principal stress:

- *Answer: a) no shear stress acts*

### Question 25

Shear stress in the edge of the shaft is?

- *Answer: c) Maximum*

### Question 26

Which of the following statements is correct about the shear stress distribution in circular pipes with
laminar flow?

- *Answer: b) It is linear with zero value at the center*

### Question 27

The permissible stress to which a structural member can be subjected to, is known as:

- *Answer: b) working stress*

### Question 28

A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa
on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress. The maximum normal stress
will be:

- *Answer: c) 900 MPa*

### Question 29
A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple shear
stress of 200 MPa. The maximum normal stress on the plane will be:

- *Answer: c) 400 MPa*

### Question 30

If a body is subjected to stresses in the xy plane with stresses of 60 N/m² and a shear stress of 80 N/m²,
find the maximum shear stress to which the body is subjected:

- *Answer: d) 27.71 N/m²*

### Question 31

A moment of 15 kNm is acting at the cantilever beam. What will be the value of shear force and bending
moment at the fixed end?

- *Answer: a) 0 and M*

### Question 32

The maximum shear stress is times the average shear stress for rectangular beams:

- *Answer: b) 1.5*

### Question 33

A circular shaft is subjected to torsion, the stress at the center of the shaft is:

- *Answer: a) Zero*

### Question 34

Which of the following doesn't have the same unit as the modulus of rigidity?

- *Answer: b) Shear stress (N/m²)*

### Question 35
In purely bending, stress distribution in the beam is:

- *Answer: a) linear*

### Question 36

Relationship between flexural strength and modulus of elasticity?

- *Answer: d) fcr = 0.7√fck*

### Question 37

Which one is wrong with respect to the strain energy method for finding deflection?

- *Answer: d) Deflection can be found at any point in the desired direction.

### Question 38

The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply supported girder:

- *Answer: a) always occurs at the center of span*

### Question 39

Virtual work refers to:

- *Answer: b) Virtual work done by Virtual forces*

### Question 40

A simply supported beam is subjected to a concentrated load at the midpoint. The shape of BMD is:

- *Answer: b) triangle*

### Question 41

For a compound truss to be determinate, \( m = m1 + m2 + 3 \).

### Question 42

Effective length used in the crippling load formula for a column with both ends fixed:

- *Answer: d) L/2*
### Question 43

What is the value of the effective length of a column with both ends fixed?

- *Answer: c) L/2*

### Question 44

In the case of a simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load at the mid-span, what will be the
length of the plastic hinge formed?

- *Answer: a) L/4*

### Question 45

Given that the unsupported length of a column with both ends fixed is L, what will be the unsupported
length of an equivalent column with one end fixed and the other end free?

- *Answer: d) L/4*

### Question 46

The ratio of maximum deflections between beams A and B is \( 5/8 \).

- *Answer: d) 8\5

### Question 47

A cantilever beam 2m long is subjected to a point load of 2.4 kN at its free end. The size of the beam is
40mm x 60mm. Find the stress during the collapse of the beam.

- *Answer: c) 200 N/mm²*

### Question 48

If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its center is doubled, the deflection
of the beam at the center is changed by:

- *Answer: b) 1/8*

### Question 49
The deflection of a cantilever beam subjected to a point load W at its free end is:

- *Answer: b) (W * L^3) / 3 * EI*

### Question 50

The deflection at the center of a fixed beam with a total load W applied uniformly over its length is:

- *Answer: d) (W * L^3) / 348 * EI*

### Question 51

Strain energy in a simply supported beam loaded with a point load W at the center is:

- *Answer: d) (W^2 * L^2) / 96 * EI*

### Question 52

One end of a column is kept free and the other end fixed, then the ratio of \( L_{eff} \) to \( L_{is} \):

- *Answer: c) 2*

### Question 53

In a three-hinged arch with supports at different heights \( h1 \) and \( h2 \), and a load \( W \) acting at
the center of the arch, the horizontal thrust \( H \):

- *Answer: c) {WL}/ root{h1 + h2}

### Question 54

When a uniformly distributed load (UDL) of length greater than the length of the girder is moved from
left to right, then the bending moment (BM) is maximum:

- *Answer: c) When the UDL crosses the middle of the beam*

### Question 55

In the influence line diagram (ILD) for shear force of a cantilever beam:

- *Answer: a) rectrangle between free end and fixed end*

### Question 56

A train of wheel loads is moving over a simply supported beam. The shear force will be maximum at
support A when:

- *Answer: b) Leading load is at A*

### Question 57

The influence line diagram for bending moment in a simply supported beam is:

- *Answer: b) Triangle*

### Question 58

In influence line diagrams (ILD):

- *Answer: b) Points remain fix, position of loads change*

### Question 59

In influence line diagrams (ILD):

- *Answer: a) Points remain fixed, position of load changes*

### Question 60

Maximum bending moment in three-hinged arches under point load occurs at:

- *Answer: d) L/(2 sqrt 3)

### Question 61

In a three-hinged symmetric semicircular arch of span 40m and central rise 8m, with an 80 kN point load
acting at a distance of 6m from support A, determine the horizontal thrust:

- *Answer: b) 30 kN*

### Question 62

Increase in permissible stress in design of wall subjected to eccentric load with eccentricity ratio >1/24
is:
- *Answer: a) 0.25*

### Question 63

A plane truss has 11 members and 8 joints, how many additional members are needed to make the truss
stable?

- *Answer: c) 2*

### Question 64

Which of the following is an indeterminate structure?

- *Answer: d) Two hinge arch*

### Question 65

The bending moment in an arch is zero when:

- *Answer: a) The line of thrust is coinside to the line of the axis*

### Question 66

The locus of reaction of a two-hinged semi-circular arch is:

- *Answer: b) straight line*

### Question 67

Radial shear in a two-hinged arch, tangent to the arch makes an angle theta with horizontal:

- *Answer: a) Vcosθ + Hsinθ*

### Question 68

Stiffness matrix method is also called:

- *Answer: d) Displacement method)*

### Question 69

Stiffness of end A if the far end B is vertical guided roller is:

- *Answer: c) EI/L

### Question 70

The simultaneous equations of slope deflection method can be solved by iteration in:

- *Answer: b) moment distribution method*

### Question 71

In plastic analysis of structures, the segment between any two successive plastic hinges is assumed to
deform as:

- *Answer: c) A rigid material*

### Question 72

For a fixed-end beam of length L and central point load of W, the value of W at collapse is:

- *Answer: a) 8Mp/L*

### Question 73

The horizontal thrust in a two-hinged semi-circular arch subjected to UDL of w kN/m over the left half
span will be:

- *Answer: b) 2wR/3 pi*

### Question 74

Stiffness for free end if the far end is fixed:

- *Answer: d) 4EI/L*

### Question 75

For two hinged semicircular arches A, B, and C of radii 5 m, 7.5 m, and 10 m respectively, carrying
concentrated crown load "W", the ratio of horizontal thrust at their supports will be:

- *Answer: a) 1:1:1*

### Question 76
For a two-hinged arch having constant EI, the horizontal thrust H at a point (x, y) on the arch, in terms of
beam moment M is given by:

- *Answer: c) (M * y² * dy/dx) / (y² * ds/EI)*

### Question 77

The equivalent length of a column of length L having both ends fixed is:

- *Answer: a) L/2*

### Question 78

A column of length L is fixed at both ends. It is equivalent to another column with both ends hinged
having length:

- *Answer: b) L*

### Question 79

In slope deflection method, the slope and deflection of joints are computed using:

- *Answer: c) Equilibrium of joint*

### Question 80

For a simply supported beam of effective span 10m, the normal span to depth ratio is:

- *Answer: b) 20*

### Question 81

How can you strengthen a wall of 50m length and 5m height built with brick masonry?

- *Answer: a) By constructing buttress*

### Question 82

A shaft is subjected to bending moment M and a torque T simultaneously. The ratio of the maximum
bending stress to maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is:

- *Answer: a) 2M/T*
Topic:05, Design of Structures

1. *The snow load is calculated as*

- Answer: S=miu So

2. *Which of the following is not dead load? Students in class LL*

- Answer: d) Student in class

3. *Live loads, with time can vary in-*

- Answer: c) Position as well as magnitude

4. *Provisions for live loads are made in which of the following IS codes?*

- Answer: c) IS 875 II

5. *According to NBC, the velocity of wind in higher hills?*

- Answer: b) 1815

6. *How many wind zones are there in Nepal?*

- Answer: a) 2

7. *Grout is a mixture of*

- Answer: b) Water, cement and sand

8. *If enough water for workability of concrete is already added, then increasing w/c ratio in the
concrete results in?*

- Answer: b) strength will decrease

9. *Which test gives good results for rich mixes?*

- Answer: b) Slump test

10. *Moisture condition of aggregate used in concrete is*

- Answer: d) Saturated surface dry

11. *What nominal mix of concrete is required for roofing of RCC?*

- Answer: b) M20

12. *Water to be used in concrete is similar to*

- Answer: b) Potable

13. *The Length required for full transfer of bar stress to concrete is called*

- Answer: a) development length

14. *Slump test is used to measure?*

- Answer: a) Consistency

15. *Which metallic element is highest in cement?*

- Answer: a) Calcium

16. *If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of concrete is 3 minutes, the output of a
concrete mixer of 150 liter capacity, is*

- Answer: b) 16,900 liters

17. *Slump test of concrete is a measure of its*

- Answer: a) Consistency

18. *While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator , the slump should not exceed?*

- Answer: d) 5.0 cm
20. *If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of concrete is 3 minutes, the output of a
concrete mixer of 150 liter capacity, is*

- Answer: b) 18,900 liters

21) *The mixture of cement sand and coarse aggregate is increase by to get dry volume of concrete*

- Answer: d) 50-55%

22) *The maximum compressive strain in concrete in axial compression is taken as*

- Answer: c) 0.002

23) *In doubly reinforced means*

- Answer: d) Steel in both compression and tension

24) *In slab the minimum thickness is designed to resist*

- Answer: d) Tension

25) *The cracking of cement occurs first in*

- Answer: b) Over reinforced

26) *What is the name of that slab which is continuously two way supported and carries load in one
direction only?*

- Answer: a) One-way slab

27) *After reaching yield point, strain in a test sample than stress*

- Answer: b) Increases slowly

28) *The moment of resistance of an over reinforced section is*

 - Answer: d) more then balance section

29) *What is permanent action according to the classification of actions by the IS code?*

- Answer: a) Due to self-weight

30) *Shear reinforcement is provided in RC section to*

- Answer: c) Counteract crack and shear failure

31) *Determine the section modulus for a beam of 100 mm diameter*

- Answer: b) 98 x 10³ mm³

32) *The maximum spacing of contraction joints in 10m unreinforced concrete slabs for a slab thickness
of 20cm is*

- Answer: c) 4.5m

33) *What is the slenderness ratio of a 200mm wall with RCC slab at the top and bottom with 5m length
and 3.8m of height?*

- Answer: a) 25

34) *The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed*

- Answer: b) 0.04% of gross area

35) *When two column loads are unequal, which of the possible footing can be provided?*

- Answer: a) Trapezoidal combined footing

36) *In case of long columns, direct stress is*

- Answer: b) negligence
37) *Why circular column is generally not used?*

- Answer: d) difficult to connect to beam,

38) *Prestress loss results in*

- Answer: c) All of the above

39) *What is the maximum theoretical percentage of longitudinal reinforcement in an RCC column?*

- Answer: c) 6% of gross area

41:* The minimum cube strength of concrete used for a pre-stressed member is:

- *c) 350 kg/cm²

42:* If the diameter of a rebar is D = 20mm, for U-bend, what is the value of anchorage length?

- *b) 320 mm

43:* Vertical formwork of column can be removed after:

- *c) 24 hr

44:* The strength of the column with helical reinforcement shall be times the strength of a similar
column with lateral ties.

- *a) 1.05

45:* Minimum % reinforcement required for footing for Fe415 grade steel.

- *b) 0.12

46:* Permissible stress in steel is taken as:

 - *c) Yield stress

47:* The section in which the area of tensile steel is such that at the ultimate limit state, the ultimate
compressive strain in concrete is reached, however, the tensile strain in the reinforcing steel is less than
the yield strain is known as:

- *d) over reinforced section

48:* Spot welding is used when two plates are placed:

- *b) One below the other

49:* Steel is preferred over other materials in reinforcement because:

- *b) The coefficient of thermal expansion of steel and concrete is almost same

50:* Commonly used steel section for columns:

- *a) ISSC

51:* Web crippling in steel beam occurs due to:

- *c) Failure of web under concentrated load

52:* A fillet weld whose axis is parallel to the direction of the applied load is known as:

- *b) side fillet weld

53:* Which of them makes the maximum influence on steel?

- *a) Carbon

54:* For the reversal of stresses, the most suitable bolt is:

- *c) Friction grip bolt

55:* The overlap for a weld connection in a batten should not be less than:
 - *c) 4t

56:* What is the net section area of a steel plate 40cm wide and 10mm thick with one bolt if the
diameter of the bolt hole is 18mm?

- *d) 465 mm²

57:* The Euler's crippling load for a 2 m long slender steel rod of uniform cross-section hinged at both
ends is 1 kN. The Euler's crippling load for a 1 m long steel rod of the same cross-section and hinged at
both ends will be:

- *b) 4 kN

58:* Minimum edge distance and end distance for rolled, machine flame cut is:

- *a) 1.5x hole diameter

59:* Shape factor of rolled beam lies between:

- *b) 1.10 to 1.20

60:* The shape factor of standard rolled beam section varies from:

- *a) 1.10 to 1.20

61:* Strengths of a rivet in single shearing, in bearing, and in tearing are 3425 kg, 4575 kg, and 5025 kg
respectively. If the load in the member is 35 tonnes, the number of rivets required is:

- *c) 11

62:* For an I-beam, the shape factor is 1.12. The factor of safety in bending is 1.5. If the allowable stress
is increased by 20% for wind and earthquake loads, then the load factor is:

- *c) 1.4

63:* The lowest edge of the sloping surface of a roof is called:

 - *d) Eaves

64:* Strength of timber is maximum in the direction:

- *a) Parallel to grain

65:* Which NBC code deals with earthquake-resistant design for low strength masonry?

- *b) NBC-203

66:* The law that governs the standards of construction of structural and non-structural buildings in
Nepal is:

- *b) Building by law

67:* When purlins are placed between panel points, the principal rafter is to be designed for:

- *c) axial compression and bending moment

68:* The maximum limit of the weight of fiberboards is:

- *a) 960 kg/m³

69:* In roof truss, the value of snow load is taken as:

- *d) 2.5 N/m²

70:* In the non-parallel system of seismic design, 100% design seismic force of one direction and X%
design seismic force of orthogonal direction is considered. The value of X is:

- *b) 30

71:* With a percentage increase of carbon in steel, decreases its:

- *d) ductility

72:* \( S/d \) of solid circular timber column should not exceed:

 - *d) 50

Topic 6- Water Supply , Sanitation and Environment

1. Water may not contain much impurities if its source is:

- d) spring along hill slopes

2. Demography is the study of:

- a) population

3. The per capita demand of water is calculated in liters:

- c) per person per day

4. Harmful bacteria are called:

- c) Pathogens

5. Blue baby syndrome is caused due to:

- b) Nitrate

6. Such bacteria that grow more at high temperature (40 to 70°C) are called Thermophilic:

- c) Thermophilic

7. Trachoma can be avoided by:

- b) Providing clean water

8. Turbidity of water is expressed:

- d) in ppm

9. Which method is used to measure the color of water?

 - c) Tintameter method

10. A disease which is widespread and can reach globally is termed as:

- a) Pandemic

11. Population forecasting for water supply for large & old town?

- a) Arithmetical increase method

12. For a rapidly growing population, which method of projection is preferred?

- b) Geometrical increase method

13. Find fire demand of 1 lakh population by Kuchling's method:

- a) 530 l/hr

14. In the process of finding fixed inorganic solid in a sludge sample, the temp is:

- b) 550° ±50 for 15 min

15. Permissible pH value for public water supply ranges between:

- c) 6.5 to 8.5

16. If 40 ml of sewage is diluted to 240 ml of mixture, what is the TON value?

- b) 6

17. If the initial population of a country is 1000000 and the birth rate and death rate are 10% and 4%
respectively, what is the population of the country after 2 years?

- c) 1123600

18. E. Coli dies when pH of water is:

- c) 9.5
19. The livestock demand should not exceed:

- a) 20% of total domestic demand

1. What type of fitting is used to connect pipes of different diameters?

- c) Reducer

2. Which of the following is the use of Altitude valves?

- c) Supplies water to elevated tanks or standpipes

3. 1 TCU is equivalent to:

- c) The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1 l of distilled water

4. Water from reservoirs comes under the category of:

- a) Surface water

5. In the water-supply distribution network, the dead-end system is not favored because:

- c) It is cumbersome in terms of design

6. If three pipes are connected in series, then:

- b) discharge is same for all

7. Which of the following pipe fittings provide a deviation of 90° in the pipework system?

- a) Tee

8. Which distribution is used in an irregularly developed old city?

- a) Dead end system

9. Which pipe is strong in resisting inside stress but weak when stressed from outside?

- a) Steel

10. Scour valves are provided:

- b) At every depression and dead ends to drain out the wastewater that may collect there

11. The reserve of water for the breakdown period is generally not more than:

- c) 25%

12. The exhausted permute is generally regenerated by percolating through it a solution of:

- a) sodium chloride

13. When the impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is called:

- a) Sedimentation

14. Vacuum filter is most suitable for:

- b) Removal of fines from liquid

15. For a given discharge, the efficiency of the sedimentation tank can be increased by:

- c) increasing the area of the basin

37 What would be the effect on PH if Bleaching powder is added?

Ans:Decrease

3) Which of the following it a better test to identify Coliforms?

Ans:-Membrane filter technique

4: By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to

a) calcium bicarbonate

41) Use of chlorine in water does not reduce?

Ans Dissolved oxygen

42) Thickness of filter media of slow sand filter is

Ans:90 to 110 cm

43) What is the opening spacing of bars in case of coarse screen?

Ans ;50mm

4) What is the rate of filtration of a rapid sand filter?

Ans ;3000-5000 l/hr/m²

45) Zeolite used in zeolite softening process for the treatment of hard water gets exhausted after certain
time of usage but can be regenerated by flushing it with

Ans;10% sodium chloride solution

47) if a circular sewer is partially full & depth is increased, then?

Ans:Wetted perimeter increases

48) Inverted siphon is provided when

Ans:A sewer crosses a river

49) Why is air gap left at the top of sewers?

Ans:all of the above

50) What is the detention time for septic tank?

a) 24 hours

51) What is the name of the sewer that collects water from a number of other large sewers or outlets? bi
Force main c) Branch sewer Intercepting sewer.

d) Intercepting sewer

52) The legal entity that is responsible for the wastewater collection system is called

Ans:Sewer system agericy

53) The minimum size of sewer is

Ans:-15 cm
54) A manhole is classified as shallow if its depth is between

Ans :- 0.7 to 0.9 m

55) What is the main objective of toxicity assessment?

Ans:-To estimate how much of a substance does what kind of harm.

d) To analyse chemical exposre

56) Removal of oil and grease from sewage, is known

Ans:- Skimming

57. *The pH value of fresh sewage is usually:*

- c) more than 7.
58. *What is the formula for overall efficiency of HRTF?*

- b) E1+E2(1-E1)

59. *If D.O. concentration falls down to zero in any natural drainage, it indicates the zone of:*

- a) active decomposition.

60. *Which of the following causes greasing in flocculation?*

- b) surfactant.

61. *Calculate the amount of air required for the equalization tank with a flow of 500 m³/h and BOD load
of 800 mg/L:*

- c) 2000 m³/h.

62. *DO of fresh pond water at 20°C temp, 760mm of Hg pressure, zero salinity:*

- a) 9.08 mg/L.

63. *In slow sand filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up to:*

- a) 60 mg/L.

64. *DO value below which the survival of aquatic life is not possible:*

- c) 4 mg/L.

65. *If 2% solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and depletion of oxygen be 5 ppm,
B.O.D. of the sewage is:*

- b) 250 ppm.

66. *The detention period in a septic tank is:*

- d) 30 minute.
67. *What is the minimum amount of DO required for the life survival of aquatic animals?*

- b) 4 mg/L.

68. *What will be the sludge volume index (SVI) if 100 ml of sludge collected in 30 minutes on drying
weighs 800 mg?*

- c) 125.

69. *One liter of sewage, when allowed to settle for 30 minutes gives a sludge volume of 27 cm². If the
dry weight of this sludge is 3.0 grams, then its sludge volume index will be:*

- c) 9.

70. *In a treatment plant, if BOD decreases from 300 mg/L to 30 mg/L, then the efficiency of the
treatment plant is:*

- 90%.

71. *What is the definition of mitigation in the context of risk management?*

- c) The implementation of strategies to reduce the impact or likelihood of identified risks.

72. *Which one among the following is the correct order of steps taken during the process of
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?*

- c) Screening, Scoping, EIA, Public Hearing, Issue of Environmental Clearance.

73. *Variability in the rate of return is known as:*

- d) Risk.

74. *Vulnerability analysis comes in which part of the Disaster Management Cycle?*

- Mitigation

75) What term denotes reduction of risk to a threshold level?

Ans:-mitigation

76) Which ministry passes DRM strategy? ministry of home affairs

b) ministry of home affairs

77) In which phase, detailed risk analysis is done?

Ans-Planning phase

78) What is EIA?

b) EIA stands for Economic Investment Appraisal, focusing on financial considerations rather than
environmental

79) in which of the following scoping is required?

Ans:-EIA

80) What is included in an Impact assessment?

d) TOR

Ans:-All of the above

81) When was the first environmental act introduced in Nepal?

Ans:-1997

82) The number of goals of sustainable development is

Ans:-17

Topic 7- Irrigation Engineering

1. *Which crop has the highest water resistance?*

- b) Wheat

2. *Weight of Capillary water is held by?*

- c) Surface tension

3. *Saline soil can be improved by*

- a) Leaching

- c) Gypsum application

4. *The consumptive use of water for a crop*

- d) All the above

5. *What is the name of water which flows under gravity?*

- b) Gravity Water

6. *Which of the following water is usable to plant?*

- c) Capillary Water

7. *What is ponding?*
 - a) All of above

8. *Water available for plants is*

- a) FC-PWP (Field Capacity - Permanent Wilting Point)

9. *What is consumptive use in terms of losses?*

- a) Evaporation and Transpiration

10. *Farm pond is used for*

- d) All of the above (Erosion control, Flood control, Storing water for using in peak period)

11. *Capacity of an irrigation channel is fixed based on:*

- d) All of the above (Cultivable command area and water transmission losses, Duty of water, Crop)

12. *Irrigation requirement depends on which of the following parameters?*

- d) All of the above (Soil, Crop, Climate)

13. *The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor for this will be*(864

14/19)

- b) 637 hectares/m³/sec

14. *What is the consumptive use for a crop in the month of April having a consumptive use coefficient
equal to 0.80 and pan evaporation is 35 cm?*

- a) 28 cm

15. *Find the duty of irrigation water required for rice transplantation, considering 18 days duration and
60 cm water depth, with 10 cm of rain being utilized and 25% losses in watercourses.*

- a) 233.28 hectares/cumec
16. *If the irrigation efficiency is 80%, conveyance losses are 20% and the actual depth of watering is 16
cm, the depth of water required at the canal outlet is*

- c) 20 cm

17. *The mean depth of water is 1.5 cm and the mean deviation from the mean is 0.1 cm. Determine its
distribution efficiency*

- b) 0.93

18. *Due to lined channel section:*

- d) All of these (Water logging increases, cross sectional area increases, command area increases)

19. *What is the purpose of providing free board?*

- a) d/s slope erosion control

20. *Aggrading channel is:*

- a) Silting

21. *Which type of canal does not need cross drainage structures?*

- b) Side slope Canal

22. *Canal irrigation is generally preferred in:*

- d) Alluvial canal

23. *The placement of intake is not optimal when it is placed in?*

- c) Both (a) and (b) (Natural Channel and Navigation Channel)

24. *Design canal discharge is based on?*

 - b) Maximum irrigation water requirement

25. *Which canal is not considered to be used for irrigation?*

- d) Main canal

26. *The capacity of irrigation canal is determined by:*

- b) Kor water depth (Kharif)

27. *What is the problem in Nepal for artificial channels?*

- d) Improper Usage of Channels

28. *Water in canal is based on:*

- c) Gross irrigation requirement

29. *Which of the following conditions is NOT applicable to a true regime?*

- a) Channel can be scoured more easily than it can be deposited

30. *The structure provided to discharge extra water from canal is:*

- d) Canal escape

31. *Which hydraulic structure allows drainage to mix with the canal?*

- c) Canal inlet

32. *What are the sediments that are rolling, sliding and bouncing called?*

- a) Bed load

33. *If B is the formation width and depth y with a slope of s 1 then what is the area of cross section?*

- b) Bd + sd²
34. *If an irrigation channel has a side slope of 1: S, width B, depth y and length L then the total area of
side slope is:*

- a) 2L * y√(1 + S²)

35. *For a bridge on the river in alluvial plain having dominant discharge of 3600 cumecs should be:*

- 285 m

36. *Determine the discharge required at the head of the distributary in a canal for irrigating 2400
hectares of Kharif area and 1800 hectares of Rabi area, assuming suitable values for kor depth and kor
period.*

- a) 2.08 cumec

37. *Calculate the top width of the weir wall if the head of water over the weir wall during maximum
flood is 2 m, considering the specific gravity of the floor material as 2.4.*

- a) 1.7 m

38. *Lacey scour depth for a stream carrying a discharge of 3 cumecs per meter width having a silt factor
1.2 is:*

- a) 2.64 m

39. *If D10 of particle is 2mm with discharge of 2 m³/s then longitudinal slope is:*

- a) 1 in 520

40. *If Q = 5 m³/s and the mean size of sediments is 0.5mm then what is the velocity using Lacey's
formula?*

- c) 0.764 m/s

41. *For the design of non-scouring channels in coarse alluviums, the Shield's entrainment function
should be:*

- c) 0.056
42. *Cost of lining for 20m perimeter is Rs 40/m² if net area yields to saving of water of 3 cumecs/million
m² of lining area and each per cumecs of water yields to crop production of Rs 3,00,000 if life of lining is
40 years and the maintenance cost is 12 paisa/m² and maintained by annual interest rate of 6%, find the
B/C ratio.*

- a) 12

43. *What is the value of \(f\) if \(d = 1mm\)?*

- a) 1.76

44. *Lacey silt factor for 0.35 mm diameter particles:*

- c) 1

45. *The tractive force ratio for regime canal with angle of repose 36° and side slope 30° is:*

- b) 0.53

46. *In a wide rectangular channel, the normal depth is increased by 20%. The discharge in the channel
would increase by:*

- c) 0.56

47. *Which type of weir is of recent origin?*

- c) Masonry or concrete sloping Weir

48. *What is the main function of Weir & Barrage?*

- a) To increase water height

49. *According to Bligh's creep theory, percolating water flows along:*

- c) The outline of the base of the foundation of the dam

50. *What is the major differentiating point between weirs and barrages?*

- c) Presence of gates
51. *Which method is evolved by Khosla for designing of hydraulic structures?*

- a) Method of Independent Variables

52. *A quantum of discharge with high enough magnitude and frequency to bring about changes to the
river boundary and surrounding area is:*

- d) Dominant discharge

53. *Which of the following structures is constructed to separate under sluices from the main weir?*

- b) Divide wall

54. *The weir constructed such that the weight of structure is completely balanced by upward seepage
force of water is:*

- b) gravity weir

55. *Which material has the lowest safe exit gradient using Khosla's theory?*

- a) line sand

56. *Bligh's theory of seepage assumes:*

- a) Equal weightage to the horizontal and vertical creep

57. *Uplifting pressure is important for the stability of which type of dam?*

- b) Concrete dam

58. *Which of the following is the most efficient weir?*

- d) Sloping weir

59. *Calculation of Lane's creep length (u/s cutoff 5m, floor length 54m, d/s cutoff 8m):*
 - b) 57m

60. *A barrage with 400 m length is designed across an alluvial river. The U/S and D/S lengths of the
proposed guide banks of this barrage will be about:*

- c) 500 m and 100 m

61. *What should be the length of weir for a 50-years design flood of 4000 m³/s. Bank to bank width of
river is 280m:*

- b) 285 m

62. *The discharge passing through an ogee spillway is 90 m³/s. Calculate the length of crest if the head
over the crest is 1.6 m. (Take value of C = 1.7):*

- b) 24 m

63. *By how many considerations is the depth downstream vertical cutoff governed?*

- d) 2

64. *Guide banks are provided to:*

- a) Train the flow of a river along a specified course

65. *Launching apron is made of:*

- c) Gabion

66. *Not a component of river training work:*

- c) Catchment area

67. *Length of upstream guidebank is. than downstream guidebank length:*

- a) Greater

68. *Cross regulators are provided:*

 - d) All of the above (to rise the water level to its upstream during the periods of low discharge, in the
parent channel, to help in closing the supply to downstream of the parent channel)

69. *The function of cross regulator in irrigation is to:*

- d) All of the above (maintain the head for flow in off-taking canal, overflow excessive flow water,
regulate the water supplies in the distributaries)

70. *The crossing arrangement preferably made at the junction of a huge canal and a river stream
carrying a short-lived high flood discharge at almost equal bed levels is a:*

- b) Aqueduct

71. *The structure at the head of the regulator to remove silt is:*

- b) Silt excluder

72. *For a saddle siphon, the maximum operative head is 4.53 m. The width and height of the throat of
the siphon are 5 m and 2.25 m respectively. The coefficient of discharge is 0.90. How many units are
required to pass a flood of 350 cumecs?*

- d) Four

73. *Canal fall is provided if:*

- a) Ground slope exceeds designed bed slope

74. *What can't you provide at head regulator?*

- a) Canal aqueduct

75. *Which of the following CD works carry drainage over the canal?*
 - a) Super passage and syphon

76. *What are cross drainage works carrying canal over natural drain called?*

- a) Aqueduct and Syphon Aqueduct

77. *In a siphon flume, having length 100m, width 10m, and depth 2m, velocity is reduced to 2.5 m/s.
Calculate head loss, given 0.015 for concrete lining:*

- c) 87mm

78. *In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest may be used for discharge up to:*

- c) 14 cumecs

79. *A broad crested weir (Cwx1.5) having length 30m and height 2.5m is placed across the river having
RL of upstream bed as 1080m. If the discharge passing the weir is 90m³/s. Find the RL of flood wall. (Take
free board as 1.2m):*

- a) 1085.28m

80. *The sensitivity of a rigid module is:*

- c) 0

81. *The method which uses dead furrows on cropped farms for drainage of excess irrigation or
rainwater is called:*

- d) Bedding

82. *Considering canals as a factor, what causes waterlogging?*

- a) Seepage of water through the canals

83. *When a canal is taken as an example, what factor causes its waterlogging?*

- b) Seepage through the canals

84. *Under what strata the tile drainage should not be placed?*

- d) Less Pervious strata

85. *Which factor causing waterlogging suggests extensive irrigation?*

- a) over and intensive irrigation

86. *Which of the following doesn't prevent waterlogging?*

- a) Frequent irrigation

87. *A tile drain is suitable for:*

- c) Wet soil

88. *The drainage provided to escape water from a waterlogged area is:*

- a) Drains

89. *The spacing of tile drains to relieve water-logged land is directly proportional to the:*

- a) coefficient of permeability of the soil to be drained

90. *Which shape is optimal for surface drain?*

- b) Trapezoidal

91. *How many cubic meters of water will be removed from a system designed to use a duty cycle of 1.5
cm, draining 20 hectares for a capacity of 5 days?*

- c) 15000 m³

92. *The topsoil of a waterlogged field becomes more alkaline and infertile if its pH value is:*

- b) 11
*Topic 8 - Hydropower Engineering*

1) *Hydroelectric power plant is:*

- c) Conventional source of energy

2) *Which of the following is not an advantage of a hydroelectric power plant?*

- d) Continuous power source

3) *Identify the correct statement about hydropower.*

- c) The hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load

4) *Most reliable power is:*

- a) Hydroelectric power

5) *The power available continuously is:*

- a) Firm power

6) *If operating cost is high but the plant offers great flexibility, the plant is used for:*

- c) Peak load only

7) *A hydropower plant is going to be installed in Nepal. The power plant has the following
characteristics: Gross Head (H) = 25m, Design flow (Q) = 0.7m³/s, The length of the penstock pipe (L) is
500m long. The effective diameter penstock pipe required is:*

- b) 0.567m

8) *The flow duration curve at a given head of a hydroelectric plant is used to determine:*

- b) Total units of energy available

9) *Coincidence factor is the reciprocal of:*

- d) Diversity factor

11) *A hydropower runs at 20MW in a certain season. If peaking is done, the plant is able to run at
40MW for 6 hours peaking period and 10MW for the remaining off-peak hours. What is the benefit for
peaking if the power rate is Rs. 12/KWh for peak period and Rs. 6/KWh for off-peak hours?*

- b) Rs 1080000

12) *Pondage in a hydropower station is:*

- b) Temporary storage to meet peak demands

13) *Power needed to uplift water can be calculated as:*

- b) P = γQH

14) *If the total hydroelectric potential of a plant is 84GW with a load factor of 60%, convert the
potential into energy:*

- a) 441 TWh

15) *Power calculation with given parameters (H = 423.5m, head loss = 2.5m, Q = 0.9m³/s, n = 85%):*

- b) 3159.45kW

16) *If a power station supplies 1000 MWh of electricity to its consumers for a period of two months,
then the average demand during the period will be:*

- a) 0.694MW
17) *If 400 cumecs of water are released from a dam with an effective head of 50m and a hydro plant
efficiency of 0.8, what is the electrical power generated from this plant?*

- b) 156.8 MW

18) *A power generating station has a plant capacity of 200MW, maximum power demand is 150MW,
and average power generation is 110MW. Find the load factor and capacity factor respectively.*

- a) 0.73 and 0.55

19) *Gravity dam is most suitable when the foundation is:*

- d) Strong

20) *What is the importance of providing core in an earthen embankment?*

- b) To control seepage

21) *Middle 1/3 rule is used in:*

- d) Tenson

22) *In modern day, which type of gates are mostly used in hydraulic structures?*

- b) Fixed

23) *Energy dissipator provided if jump height is more than tail water depth:*

- a) Ski jump

24) *Sloughing is the process of:*

- d) Progressive removal of soil from the D/s face

25) *What is the recommended value of the shear friction factor against sliding?*
 - a) More than 3 to 5

26) *What is dead storage of a storage reservoir?*

- b) Level between bed level and minimum pool level

27) *The bottom portion of a concrete or masonry gravity dam is usually stepped in order to:*

- d) Increase the shear strength

28) *The applicability of middle third rule used in the design of structures under combined direct and
bending stresses is:*

- d) Feasible to rectangular cross-section only

29) *On the basis of hydraulic design, dam is classified as:*

- c) Overflow and non-overflow dam

30) *What should be done to avoid the friction failure of a dam?*

- a) Provide anchorage at the bottom

31) *The device that does not help in energy dissipation at the bottom of a hydraulic structure over
which water spills is:*

- c) Morning glory

32) *The maximum permissible eccentricity of a retaining wall of width B to avoid failure in tension is?*

- c) B/6

33) *If 20% of the reservoir capacity is earmarked for dead storage in a storage reservoir of 30 million
cubic meters and the average annual silt deposition in the reservoir is 0.1 million cubic meters, then the
useful life of the reservoir will start reducing after:*

- b) 60 years
34) *For a BEIRI settling basin, which of the following statements is false?*

- b) Plant needs to be closed during flushing operation

35) *Submerged intake is located at:*

- a) Bottom of river

36) *Which of the following is incorrect for settling basin?*

- c) 1H:5V for vertical direction

37) *What is the minimum submergence that should be provided for a forebay of a draft tube?*

- b) 2.3m

38) *Which element of a hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer
phenomenon?*

- a) Surge tank

39) *What is the function of a surge tank?*

- b) To reduce the effects of pressure

40) *Which is used to protect turbine and runner from damage?*

- a) Power house

41) *The function of a surge tank is to:*

- b) Relieve water hammer pressures in the penstock pipe

42) *Morning glory is the:*

- a) Special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a large dam project.

43) *Pick up the correct statement from the following during tunnel excavation:*

- d) All of the above

44) *What is the function of a surge tank?*

- b) Relieves water hammer

45) *Which one of the following methods of tunneling is used in hard rocks?*

- b) Heading and Benching method

46) *Which of the following drainage is not used in tunnel?*

- c) Side drainage

47) *Which one of the following statements is not correct for heading and benching method of
tunneling?*

- d) Removal of muck from the heading is very easy

48) *Which one of the following linings is suitable for shield driven tunnels particularly in the
subaqueous regions?*

- d) Cast iron lining

49) A flow control valve at the end of a 1 km long pipe is closed gradually in 10 seconds. If the rise of
pressure due to water hammer is 20 meters of water. What the velocity of water before the valve
closure?

a) 2m/s
50) The velocity of propagation of water hammer pressure in a pipe carrying water and having diameter
40 cm, pipe thickness 4 mm, with E (Modulus of elasticity) of the pipe material =2.1×10^11 Pa, and K
(Bulk modulus of water) 2.1×10^9 Pa, is

a) 1000 m/s

51) In high head hydro power, tplanthe velocity of water in penstock is about

a) 7 m/s

52) If discharge of a pump is 0.16 cumecs, the economic diameter of pipe, is

c)0.488m

53) Power generated by unit head under unit discharge condition is

b) Unit power

54) Plant use reversible turbine in

b) Pumped storage

55) The use of draft tube in reaction turbine helps to

a) convert KE to pressure energy

56) In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,

a) pressure decreases while velocity increases

57) Which of the following is correct?

b) Pelton is reaction

58) Francis is impulse turbine

Ans:-Less than one-third of atmospheric pressure

59) What is the use of governor?

b) It controls the mean speed

60) Kaplan turbine is

a) Low head Axial flow turbine

61) The pressure energy of water is converted to kinetic

a) Impulse turbine

62) For the same power output, which power plant of the following has minimum operating charges?

a)Hydel plant

63) The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three parameters...

b)Head, discharge, and efficiency of the system

64) The energy of water entering the reaction turbine is

c)Partly the pressure energy and partly the kinetic energy

65) Which of the following is impulse turbine?

A) pelton

66) Draft tubes are not used in which of the following turbines? b) Reaction

-Pelton

67) The power of the centrifugal pump is proportional to?

a) D ^ * 3

68) Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is a) a pipe connected to runner outlet

A) a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine

69) Which of the following best describes the hydraulic efficiency of a turbine?

a) Fluid Power Transferred to the Runners)/ (Power available at the inlet to the turbine)

70) A turbine develops 2000 hp under a head of 150 m while running at 300 rpm What is the specific
speed?

b)10-35
Topic 9 - Transportation Engineering

1. A road inside the city is called:

- a) street

2. Which can be a feeder for other means of transportation?

- a) Roadway

3. In which stage of survey is a soil survey done?

- a) Preliminary survey

4. Which is not a fixed component?

- d) Railway locomotive

5. Formula of mechanical extra widening in road is:

- c) W = nl2/2R

6. What is the process dealing with vertical curves and gradients?

- b) Vertical alignment

7. The relationship between SSD and ISD is:

- c) ISD = 2SSD

8. Enoscope is used to determine:

- a) spot speed

9. The length visible to the driver at any instance of time is called:

- d) Sight distance
10. Which of the following is not considered when designing highways?

- d) Settlement

11. Clearance time is indicated by:

- d) Amber

12. Extra widening is:

- c) Both a and b (Psychological widening and Mechanical widening)

13. Speed at a particular place at different times is called:

- a) TMS

14. According to NRRS, Arterial road is called:

- b) Path

15. Any gradient on a road is said to be an exceptional gradient if it is:

- a) Less than minimum gradient or more than maximum gradient

16. An intersection that is provided for different levels of the road is called:

- b) Grade-separated intersection

17. Super elevation formula in hilly roads is:

- b) e = V²/127R

18. The improper alignment of a highway does not cause which of the following?

- d) Fatigue cracking

19. The ideal shape of a transition curve is:

 - d) Clothiod

20. Drainage structure parallel to the road provided to intercept rain in a hilly region is:

- b) Cath drain

21. The thin hairline crack is also known as:

- b) Crazing

22. Daily average traffic calculated based on 30 days survey in 365 days is:

- a) ADT

23. Which of the following is used for speed regulation?

- d) 85th percentile cumulative frequency

24. The minimum radius of curvature for hair pin bend in hill roads is:

- a) 15 m

25. If the coefficient of friction on the road surface is 0.15 and a maximum super-elevation 1 in 15 is
provided, the maximum speed of the vehicles on a curve of 100 metre radius is:

- a) 52.44 km/hour

26. ROW for feeder road:

- c) 30m

27. The maximum vertical clearance in hill road for overhanging cliff is:

- b) 5 m
28. Calculate Round about radius for f = 0.36, e = 0 and v = 60 km/h:

- b) 2.7m

29. What is the brake reaction time of a normal driver?

- a) 2.5 sec

30. If the length of a transition curve to be introduced between a straight and a circular curve of radius
500 m is 90 m, the maximum perpendicular offset for the transition curve is:

- b) 2.70 m

31. The total value of extra widening required at a horizontal curve on a two lane hill road of radius 42 m
for a design speed of 50 km/h and for vehicles with wheel base 6 m is:

- c) 1.669m

32. In water bound macadam roads, binding material is:

- c) stone dust

33. Which premix is used in the base course?

- b) Bituminous bond macadam

34. The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in:

- d) All the options are correct (Building concrete is less than 45, Road pavement concrete is less than

35. In LA Abrasion test, if 1.88kg out of 5kg passed through 1.7mm sieve, then the aggregate is suitable
for:

- d) Bitumen penetration macadam

36. In mass haul diagram, if end is negative, what does it mean?

- b) Burrow
37. If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse aggregates are mixed in a concrete whose water
cement ratio is 0.6, the weight of water required for harsh mix is:

- d) 12 kg

38. If the penetration grade is 62, the penetration value is:

- c) 6.2mm

39. Minimum bitumen ductility value to use in road:

- c) 50 cm

40. Rate of stretching bitumen in ductility test:

- c) 5 cm/min

41. If CBR = 5%, then resilient modulus as per NRS is (10 x CBR):

- d) 50 MPa

42. What is the standard temperature for Marshall Stability test?

- 60°C

43) The distance between two samples in a penetration test should be:

- d) 10 mm

44) Which of the following sieve size is used in Los Angeles abrasion test?

- b) 1.7 mm
45) Which percentile value of CBR is used for design of road DOR with more than 20 Million ESAL as
recommended by AASHTO?

- a) 0.9

46) What is the impact value of aggregate if total weight = 300gm & weight retained on 2.36mm sieve =
180gm?

- b) 0.4

47) The maximum moisture content on Bitumen is:

- b) 0.2%

48) The design factor not considered in CBR is:

- c) Weather

49) Which is the organic binding material used in road pavement?

- a) Bitumen

50) Bitumen content is determined by which test?

- a) Marshall test

51) Which test is used to measure weathering of aggregate?

- d) Soundness test

52) What is the effect of using traffic signals?

- a) reduce right turn conflict as well as rear-end collision

53) Longitudinal ridging due to the channelization of traffic is called as:

- c) Grooving
54) In which of the following, minimum value is taken?

- b) Backward pass

55) For the movement of vehicles at an intersection of two roads, without any interference, the type of
grade separator generally preferred to is:

- b) Clover leaf

56) Which intersection has no conflict?

- b) Clover leaf

57) Which of the following is not related to cross-section of road?

- b) Gradients

58) The normal flows on two approach roads at an intersection corresponding to saturation flow is 1600
pcu/h on each road. The total lost time per single cycle is 16 s. The optimum cycle time by Webster's
method is:

- b) 58.0 s

59) Calculate the capacity of a rotary in PCU per hour for a weaving traffic proportion of 0.5, with a
weaving section width of 12m, average entry width of 0.4m, and a weaving section length of 7.2m:

- a) 1088 PCU

60) The minimum weaving angle in the rotary section is:

- a) 15°

61) What is the value of distribution factor for a 4-lane road in Nepal?

- b) 0.4 for both lanes

62) If total lost time is 10 for a sum of proportion 0.6, then optimal cycle length is:

- b) 50
63) A 160kN load damages pavement times more than 80kN load:

-16

64) The minimum value of 15-minute peak hour factor on a section of a road is?

- b) 0.25

65) One of the probable causes of rutting on flexible pavements is:

- a) inadequate compaction of pavement layers

66) Minimum thickness of the base of a flexible pavement is:

- b) 10 cm

67) The coefficient of subgrade doesn't depend upon:

- c) Water table

68) The bitumen layer spread over old pavement to bind newer pavement layer together is:

- c) Tack coat

69) The dowel bars are provided to:

- a) Transfer stress from one portion to another

70) Which of the following pavement is best for night visibility?

- b) Cement concrete

71) Tie bars in rigid pavements provide across:

- a) Longitudinal joints
72) In penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is:

- b) Sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted

73) For sandy soils, the most common method of stabilization is:

- c) soil-cement

74) A wall constructed with stones to protect slopes of cuttings in natural ground from the action of
weathering agents, is called:

- Breast wall

75) Pot hole maintenance in case of bituminous road is:

- d) routine maintenance

76) Bulking of coarse aggregate is:

- b) Negligible

77) The longitudinal depression in the wheel path in bituminous pavements is:

- a) Ruting

78) Which of the following roller is used to compact the coarse grained soil?

- Vibratory Roller

*Topic 10 - Project Planning Design and Implementation*

1) The size of the letter means the of the letter.

- b) height
2) If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called:

- b) Isometric view

3) What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?

- d) Oblique view

4) The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its:

- d) width to height

5) What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?

- b) Side view

6) The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is:

- c) fixing a fixed point and are

7) Paper is designated by which letter?

- c) A

8) What is the inclination of inclined lettering?

- a) 75 degree

9) The Area of A0 size paper is:

- d) 1m²

10) Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?

- a) Hatching lines

12) IRR is calculated:

 - d) When NPV equal to 0

13) Salvage value is defined as:

- a) estimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled

14) The ratio obtained by dividing quick assets by current liabilities is called:

- b) Acid test ratio

15) Sinking fund is:

- a) The fund for rebuilding a structure when it exceeds its economic life

16) The term (1+i)-n is called:

- b) single payment compound amount factor

17) If rate of interest is 4%. What is the value of purchase?

- c) Rs 25

18) If initial investment for a machine is Rs 10000 and depreciation amount per year is Rs 1600, then
calculate the book value at the end of 5 years.

- b) Rs 2000

19) In Incremental analysis, which project is selected as base alternative?

- a) Project having lower investment

20) Which of the following is unsafe share?

- c) Debentures
21) Which method is mostly adopted by business enterprises?

- b) IRR

22) The time value of money is relation between:

- c) Time & money

23) For increment increase analysis, initial investment must be:

- d) Minimum

24) A debenture:

- a) Does not require security

25) What is the expression for the sinking fund factor?

- i/[(1+i)^n -1]

26) Amount expenditure the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total
cost of maintenance is:

- a+(n-1)b

27) In Resource levelling which of the following is constraint?

- a) Resources

28) Which of the following best defines free float?

- a) The total amount of time a task can be delayed without impacting other taskes in the path

29) A Milestone chart:

- a) shows the interdependencies of various jobs

30) Capital budgeting is:

 - c) Setting objectives

31) Which is the first stage in a project formulation?

- a) Setting objectives

32) In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow:

- a) Beta distribution curve

33) What is a critical path?

- a) It is the longest path

34) Which of the following is true about Dummy?

- b) It doesn't consume resources

35) The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an
activity is known as:

- c) Total float

36) The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is
known as:

- b) Critical ratio scheduling

37) Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known as:

- a) All of the above

38) Which method of project planning was invented first?

- a) Bar chart

39) Which one is incorrect?

 - b) Arrow from left to right in scale

40) Resource smoothing is:

- c) An adjustment of resources without affecting project duration

41) Sealed quotations are used for projects up to?

- d)2 million

42) In a PERT event, optimistic time is 2 days, pessimistic time is 10 days, and most likely time is 3 days,
then calculate the expected time:

- c) 4 days

43) If EST=5, LST=7, and duration=1, then what is TF?

- b) 2

44) Project performance consists of:

- a) Time, Cost, Quality

45) If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called:

- b) Sub-contracting

46) The assessment done by the implementing agency to check the eligibility of the firm to carry out the
contract is:

- c) Pre-qualification

47) In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?

- b) Execution phase

48) EPC contract stands for:

 - c) Engineering, Procurement, and Construction

49) Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of
contract was it?

- d) Boot

50) For a financial institution, the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is:

- d) appraisal

51) Revised estimate is prepared when the original sanctioned detailed estimate exceeds by:

- b) 0.05

52) Which is not a professional engineering body?

- b) Society of Electrical & Electronics Association (SEEN)

53) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?

- d) All of the above

54) Nepal Engineer's Association is:

- b) Independent organization of Nepalese engineers

55) How many categories of NEA memberships are there?

- b) 3

56) Who appoints the chairman of NEC?

- a) Government of Nepal

57) Which of the following is not the function of NEC?

- c) Opening the college

58) If an engineer violates sub-section 3(b) of NEC act 2055, the punishment is:

- b) NRs 10000 fine

59) Non-Nepali Engineer definition according to NEC:

- d) Nepali engineer working under engineering institutions

60) VP of NEC is:

- a) Nominated by GoN

61) Ex-president of NEC is office member in which council:

- a) NEA

62) Which Engineer is registered in category A?

- b) General Engineer

63) Who is the 1st registrar of NEC?

- b) Bindeshor Yadav

64) What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?

- d) BE Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years

65) Professional codes of conduct issued by NEC has:

- d) All of them

66) The Minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of
current NEC like is:

- b) 3 months
67) When Government of Nepal formed the Nepal Engineering Council?

- c) 2055

68) The number of professional engineers registered by the time 2078/12/31 is:

- a) 61

69) The number of female members in NEC committee 2079 is:

- a) 4

70) How many members are selected by NEC itself?

- b) 2

71) How much college should score at least to get affiliation from NEC?

- d) 0.6