Oral Surgery SRShip Pattern Paper

AIIMS - SRship : ORAL SURGERY : Recent
1. The 4:2:1 Rule applies to:
A. Blood transfusion ratios
B. Crystalloid fluid administration in trauma patients
C. Vasopressor dosage
D. Oxygen therapy
2. Condylar hyperplasia in 26-year-old male with positive SPET-Right condyle. Treatment?
A. Condylectomy if growth is completed
B. Active Orthognathic surgery
C. Active Condylectomy + t'u after 1 year
D. Active Condylectomy + Du after 1 year
3. McGregor's patch?
A. Thickening of Zygomatic ligament
B. Thickening of styloid process
C Thickening of sphenomandibular ligament
D. Thickening of collateral ligament
4. Sequence of double lag screw placement?
A Two lagscrews should have heads in same direction
B. Two lagscrews should have heads in opposite direction
C Heads of lag screw should be in same direction or opposite doesnot make any difference
D. Surgeon should decide direction of heads of screw
5. Nerve not damaged in maxillary osteotomy?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
6. Zuckerkandl's process divides?
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A. Lateral pharyngeal space
B. Retropharyngeal space
C. Submandibular space
D. Pterygomandibular space
7. Surgical management of lingual nerve is indicated in?
A. Painful stimuli to a non-painful stimulus - painful neuropathy
B. Persistent anesthesia which is bearable
C. Mild sensory loss with no functional impairment
D. Transient paresthesia (temporary numbness or tingling) resolving on its own
8. True statement about IAN?
A. Acidic pH-non ionized ions are more
B. Effect of anesthesia is more in anterior region because of core-mental effect
C. Tachyphylaxis requires Increased drug dose administration
D. LANB has high chances of failure
9. ZMC fracture stable after reduction?
A. Reduction around vertical axis around FZ line
B. Reduction around vertical axis around ZT line
C. Reduction around Horizontal axis
D. Zygomaticomaxillary buttress to infraorbital rim
10. Fish mouth technique?
A. Vessel anastomosis
B. Salivary duet closure
C. Maxillary sinus closure
D. steomyelitis
11. Surgery first approach in orthognathic surgery popularized by?
A. Nagasaka

B. Gilbard
C. Obwegeser
D. Simon Hullihen
12. In mandibular distraction osteogenesis, the angle between the distractor and mandibular plane is called:
A. Gonial angle
B. Osteotomy angle
C. Pin-point angle
D. Ramal angle
13. McCarthy zone of distraction?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
14. Antimongoloid seen in?
A. ZMC
B. NOE
C. Frontal
D. Mandibular fracture
15. Mandible works on which lever?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. None of these
16. Universal donor blood?
A. O negative
B. O positive

C. Ab negative
D. Ab positive
17. What is the characteristic feature of Jaw Winking Syndrome?
A. Unilateral ptosis (drooping eyelid) that worsens with jaw movement
B. Bilateral ptosis (drooping eyelids) that improves with jaw movement
C. Unilateral miosis (constricted pupil) that worsens with jaw movement
D. Bilateral miosis (constricted pupils) that improves with jaw movement
18. Lower tarsal plate height?
A. 3-5 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 8 mm
19. Lateral limit of Subciliary incision is for?
A. Lymphatic drainage
B. Facial nerve damage
C. Orbital rim
D. Lateral palpaberal ligament
20. Prospero?
A. Registration for systematic review
B. Protocol for conducting meta-analyses
C. A medical device for prosthetic limbs
D. A statistical software for data analysis
21. What is the main purpose of PRISMA in systematic reviews and meta-analyses?
A. To conduct systematic searches and screen studies
B. To improve the transparency and quality of reporting
C. To analyse data and draw conclusions

D. To develop research questions and objectives
22. Plagiarism works on?
A. Similarity index
B. Citation index
C. Lexical analysis
D. Semantic analysis
23. All of the following are software for plagiarism check except?
A. Scribbr
B. Endnote
C. Zotero
D. Plagscan
24. Set guidelines for education?
A. Syllabus
B. Pedagogy
C. Curriculum
D. Assessment
25. If blood loss is >1500 ml, how to manage?
A. Fluid replacement
B. Oxygen therapy
C. Vital sign monitoring
D. Shift to operation theatre
26. What is the maximum amount of local anesthetic (LA) in millilitres (mL) that can be administered to a 65 kg
patient, considering a maximum dose of 0.35 mg/kg and a concentration of 1:1000?"
A. 20 mL
B. 22.5 mL
C. 25 mL

D. 30 mL
27. Gait disturbance is because of?
A. Rectus abdominus
B. Vastus medius
C. Tensor fascia lata
D. Adductor longus
28. What is the dual blood supply of the Pectoralis Major Muscle (PMMC)?
A. Thoracoacromial artery + Subclavian artery
B. Internal mammary artery + Axillary artery
C. Thoracoacromial artery + Internal mammary artery
D. Subclavian artery + Brachiocephalic artery
18. Lower tarsal plate height?
A. 3-5 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 8 mm
19. Lateral limit of Subciliary incision is for?
A. Lymphatic drainage
B. Facial nerve damage
C. Orbital rim
D. Lateral palpaberal ligament
20. Prospero?
A. Registration for systematic review
B. Protocol for conducting meta-analyses
C. A medical device for prosthetic limbs
D. A statistical software for data analysis

21. What is the main purpose of PRISMA in systematic reviews and meta-analyses?
A. To conduct systematic searches and screen studies
B. To improve the transparency and quality of reporting
C. To analyse data and draw conclusions
D. To develop research questions and objectives
22. Plagiarism works on?
A. Similarity index
B. Citation index
C. Lexical analysis
D. Semantic analysis
23. All of the following are software for plagiarism check except?
A. Scribbr
B. Endnote
C. Zotero
D. Plagscan
24. Set guidelines for education?
A. Syllabus
B. Pedagogy
C. Curriculum
D. Assessment
25. If blood loss is >1500 ml, how to manage?
A. Fluid replacement
B. Oxygen therapy
C. Vital sign monitoring
D. Shift to operation theatre

26. What is the maximum amount of local anesthetic (LA) in millilitres (mL) that can be administered to a 65 kg
patient, considering a maximum dose of 0.35 mg/kg and a concentration of 1:1000?"
A. 20 mL
B. 22.5 mL
C. 25 mL
D. 30 mL
27. Gait disturbance is because of?
A. Rectus abdominus
B. Vastus medius
C. Tensor fascia lata
D. Adductor longus
28. What is the dual blood supply of the Pectoralis Major Muscle (PMMC)?
A. Thoracoacromial artery + Subclavian artery
B. Internal mammary artery + Axillary artery
C. Thoracoacromial artery + Internal mammary artery
D. Subclavian artery + Brachiocephalic artery
29. Ideal for tongue reconstruction?
A. PMMC
B. Radial forearm
C. Deltopectoral flap
D. Anterolateral thigh flap
30. 4 cm lesion - Buccal erosion. Bilateral neck nodes. Staging?
A. T2N2CM0
B. T4aN2cMO
C. T1 N2 M0
D. T4 N1 M1

31. Treatment of Eosinophilic granuloma?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Marginal excision
D. Follow-up
32. Enucleation of a lesion associated with impacted third molar was done. Histopathology came out as unicystic
ameloblastoma. What should be the next step?
A. Re-enucleate
B. Chemical cauterization
C. Resection of mandible
D. Wait and watch
33. Which of the following statements is true regarding Cefazolin and Ceftriaxone?
A. Cefazolin has a longer half-life than Ceftriaxone
B. Ceftriaxone has a broader spectrum of activity against Gram-positive bacteria
C. Cefazolin is generally less expensive than Ceftriaxone
D. Ceftriaxone is less effective against Gram-negative bacteria
34. Difficulty index for third molar removal?
A. Parant
B. Peterson
C. Pell Gregory
D. Gloforborum
35. What is the primary purpose of the STROBE checklist in research?
A. To report randomized controlled trials (RCTs)
B. To assess the quality of systematic reviews
C. To provide guidelines for reporting observational studies
D. To conduct meta-analyses

36. Approval for including child for a scientific study?
A. Both parents
B. One parent
C. One parent and child
D. Only child
37. Most predictable lip movement is seen in?
A. Maxillary impaction
B. Maxillary advancement
C. Maxillary setback
D. Inferior positioning
38. What is the term for the widening of the mandible in the posterior region, particularly in relation to the condyle,
in orthognathic surgery?
A. Bigonial flaring
B. Bicondylar flaring
C. Bimaxillary flaring
D. Bizygomatic flaring
39. LMW heparin investigation?
A. PT + INR
B. BT
C. CT
D. PT + APTT
40. What is the appropriate next step in managing Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (MRONJ) with
exposed bone?
A. Mouthwash + antibiotics
B. Observation
C. Reconstruction
D. Sequestrectomy + mucosal closure

41. A patient presents with a complaint of jaw pain and clicking sound during mouth opening. Clinical examination
reveals a deviation of the mandible to the right-side during mouth opening, and a clicking sound is heard on the right
side. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Unilateral condylar hyperplasia
B. Internal derangement of the right TMJ
C. Ipsilateral lateral pterygoid muscle hyperactivity
D. Contralateral lateral pterygoid muscle hyperactivity
42. A patient is diagnosed with Obstructive Sleep Apnoea (OSA) and Increased Respiratory Drive-Associated Upper
Airway Resistance (aRDA). What is the first in management?
A. Genioplasty to advance the lower jaw
B. Velo pharyngoplasty to reduce the soft palate and uvula
C. Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) therapy and lifestyle changes
D. Upper airway stimulation with a pacemaker
43. What is the purpose of applying cricoid pressure during the Sellick manuever?
A. To reduce the risk of aspiration by compressing the oesophagus at the level of the cricoid cartilage
B. To increase gastric pressure and facilitate intubation.
C. To decompress the oesophagus and enhance aspiration
D. To secure the airway and prevent tracheal collapse
44. What is the appropriate treatment approach for a maxillary alveolus with a height of less than 3 mm, and what is
the primary goal of the recommended surgery?
A. Indirect sinus lift with secondary implant placement, to reduce sinus membrane thickness
B. In lirect sinus lift with primary implant placement, to improve aesthetic outcome
C. Direct sinus lift with primary implant placement, to increase bone volume for implant placement
D. Bone grafting with delayed implant placement, to enhance primary stability
45. Least invasive procedure for trigeminal neuralgia?
A. Decompression
B. Peripheral neurectomy
C. Gamma knife surgery

D. Radiofrequency ablation
46. What is a characteristic MRI finding of an Arteriovenous Malformation (AVM)?
A. Bright - T2
B. Water bright T1
C. Nonpolar produces spark
D. Harmonies cannot be used
47. What is the second stage of split-thickness skin graft healing?
A. Plasmatic imbibition
B. Inoculation
C. Neovascularization
D. Capillary ingrowth
48. What is the anatomical boundary of Zone I in neck penetration trauma?
A. Sternal notch to cricoid cartilage
B. Cricoid cartilage to clavicles
C. Mandible to hyoid bone
D. Thoracic outlet to axillary folds
49. What structure divides Level II of the neck into subdivisions IIA and IIB?
A. Internal Jugular Vein
B. Common Carotid Artery
C. Omohyoid Muscle
D. Spinal Accessory Nerve
50. ECA ligation prevents bleeding of all except?
A. Ethmoid
B. Internal maxillary
C. Transverse facial
D. Occipital

51. Which size of submandibular stones is typically suitable for the basket method of removal?
A. <5 mm
B. 5-10 mm
C. >1 cm (or 1.5 cm)
D. >2 cm
52. What is the most reliable method for verifying the correct placement of a Ryles tube?
A. Auscultation (listening for stomach sounds while injecting air into tube)
B. Chest X-ray
C. Gastroesophageal junction visualization
D. Palpation of the abdomen
53. A 45-year-old patient presents with mandibular swelling, fixed submandibular lymph node, and fixed overlying
skin. No intraoral or extraoral pathology is visible. What is the next best diagnostic step?
A. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
B. Biopsy (Incisional or Excisional)
C. CECT (Contrast-Enhanced Computed Tomography)
D. Ultrasound (USG) of the neck
54. Which of the following statements about enophthalmos is NOT true?
A. 1 mm enophthalmos can be clinically visible
B. Naugle's orbitometer measures enophthalmos
C. Vertical diplopia requires CT scans for diagnosis
D. Hertel exophthalmometer measures proptosis
55. Which anesthesiologist first introduced hypotensive anesthesia?
A. Ngai Shing John Cushi
B. Choi
C. Eappen
D. Patel

56. Life span of TMJ prosthesis?
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 30 years
57. Most common complication of total joint replacement?
A. Dislocation
B. Nerve injury
C. Infection
D. Prosthesis fracture
58. What is the term for the soft tissue band connecting the cleft gap at the base of the nostril or alveolar margin?
A. Residual cleft
B. Cleft lip band
C. Simonart band
D. Alveolar ridge
59. What is the primary goal of Enhanced Recovery After Surgery (ERAS) protocols?
A. Reduce surgical stress and optimize recovery
B. Increase hospital stays and costs
C. Improve aesthetic outcomes
D. Enhance surgical complexity
60. In the modified retro-mandibular incision, dissection is done along which avascular plane?
A. Between masseter and medial pterygoid muscles muscle
B. Between deep cervical fascia and sternocleidomastoid
C. Between buccinator and zygomaticus major muscles
D. Between temporalis and frontal muscles

61. What is the initial step in managing a medially displaced subcondyle fracture?
A. Closed reduction with elastic traction
B. Convert the fracture into laterally displaced
C. Putting screw in condylar head subcondyle fracture
D. Observation with regular follow-up imaging
62. Pulseless activity is seen in all of the following except?
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Cardiac blunt trauma
63. Which of the following is not immediate complication of tracheostomy?
A. Bleeding
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pneumomediastinum
D. Tracheomalacia, tracheal stenosis
64. Most common complication of Le fort?
A. Haemorrhage
B. Malocclusion
C. Necrosis
D. Nerve injury
65. Lower eyelid fat compartments?
A. Medial, central
B. Medial, lateral
C. Medial, central, temporal
D. Medial, middle, lateral
66. TMJ total joint replacement (TJR) most common age group?

A. 20-30 years
B. 40-50 years
C. 50-60 years
D. 60-70 years
67. Go-Gn refers which plane
A. Mandibular plane
B. Maxillary plane
C. FH plane
D. Occlusal plane
68. Y-axis represents what?
A. Sella to Gnathion distance
B. Frankfort horizontal angle
C. Gonial angle
D. Angle formed by Sella-Gnathion to Nasion-Point A
69. Horizontal position of upper anterior teeth measured from
A. Point A
B. Point B
C. Point U1
D. Point S
70. Most commonly used analysis to measure horizontal relation of maxilla and mandible to cranial base on lateral
cephalogram?
A. McNamara analysis
B. Steiner analysis
C. Downs analysis
D. Ricketts analysis
71. Ion leaching in TMJ TJR?

A. Related to contact surface area
B. Load bearing area
C. Material degradation
D. Articulation wear
72. Management of myositis ossificans?
A. Surgical excision
B. 2% iontophoresis
C. Physical therapy
D. Anti-inflammatory medication
73. In Stock Total joint prosthesis, mandibular component is made up of?
A. Co-Cr alloy
B. PMA
C. Ti alloy
D. Stainless Steel
74. Wetting solution in liposuction helps in?
A. Decrease blood loss
B. Decrease need for intra and post operative fluid
C. Prevent dehydration and necrosis of fat
D. All the above
75. Nerve supply of circumvallate papilla?
A. V nerve
B. IX nerve
C. X nerve
D. VII nerve
76. Which statement is MOST accurate regarding local anaesthetics?
A. Potency correlates directly with molecular weight

B. Onset is solely determined by pKa
C. Duration is influenced by protein binding and lipid solubility
D. All of the above
77. Which of the following is NOT typically a sign of maxillary impacted canine?
A. Retained deciduous canine
B. Labial bulge
C. Palatal bulge
D. Mesially tipped lateral incisor
78. All of following statements are true except?
A. 90% orbit growth completed by 1 year
B. 72% zygoma growth completed by 1 year
C. 95% growth of cranium completed by 5years
D. 100% mandible growth completed by 5 years
79. Oropharynx extends from:
A. PNS to C2
B. Soft palate to Epiglottis
C. Hard palate to Hyoid bone
D. Posterior nasal spine (PNS) to Epiglottis
80. Chyle leak management all can be used except?
A. Drain placement
B. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
C. Negative pressure wound therapy
D. Octreotide
81. Nasal dorsum reconstruction best graft used?
A. Costal cartilage

B. Calvarial graft
C. Septal cartilage
D. Iliac crest
82. What forms the nasal floor?
A. Palatine process of maxilla and vertical part of palatine bone
B. Palatine process of maxilla and horizontal part of palatine bone
C. Nasal bone and vomer
D. Septal cartilage and turbinate bones
83. Which space connects submandibular and lateral pharyngeal space?
A. Buccopharyngeal space
B. Retropharyngeal space
C. Parotid space
D. Pterygomandibular space
84. Best reference point for horizontal positioning in Lefort 1 osteotomy?
A. Anterior nasal spine
B. Nasion
C. Orbitale
D. Porion
85. Which of these muscles is not involved in the Twist technique in pterygopalatine disjunction?
A. Anterior, medial, and inferior with curved chisel, with mallet
B. Posterior, lateral, and superior with straight chisel, with mallet
C. Anterior, medial, and superior with curved chisel, without mallet
D. Posterior, lateral, and inferior with osteotome, without mallet
86. Site of prolotherapy injection in masseter muscle
A. Deep
B. Upper

C. Lower
D. Anterior
87. Lowest blood pressure is present in
A. Venule
B. Artery
C. Arteriole
D. Capillary
88. Hematoma includes all except
A. Infection
B. Pressure/ischemic necrosis
C. Delayed healing
D. Immediate healing
89. In radiation biology latency period is time between radiation exposure and ...........?
A. Alteration in chromosome
B. Cancer appearance
C. Clinical symptoms
D. Repair of tissue
90. Muscles not attached to the oblique line of thyroid cartilage?
A. Thyrohyoid
B. Inferior constrictor
C. Sternothyroid
D. Cricopharyngeus
91. A patient presents with head injury, no external bleeding, and BP 160/100 mmHg. What is the primary
management?
A. Immediate surgery
B. CT scan/MRI

C. Maintain euvolemia blood pressure management with antihypertensive medications
D. Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) check and stabilization
92. A 30-year-old patient presents with severe head injury, BP 60/40 mmHg, and respiratory rate 40 breaths/min.
What is the primary emergency response?
A. Abdominal decompression
B. Oxygen therapy and airway stabilization
C. Shock management with fluid resuscitation and vasopressor therapy
D. Immediate surgical intervention
93. Which of the following is a common complication of severe head injury?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Hypokalemia
94. What is the primary distinguishing feature between cardiac tamponade and tension pneumothorax?
A. Jugular Venous Distension (JVD)
B. Absence of breath sounds on one side
C. Hypotension
D. Tracheal deviation
95. After mandible resection jaw deviate?
A. Contralateral superior
B. Ipsilateral inferior
C. Ipsilateral superior
D. Contralateral inferior
96. SEDENTEXCT guidelines for?
A. CT
B. CBCT

C. X-ray
D. MRI
97. Vascularity of lip is maintained by which flap?
A. Abbe-Estlander flap
B. Karapandzic flap
C. Gillie's flap
D. Nasolabial flap
98. CONSORT guidelines are for reporting:
A. Observational studies
B. Case series
C. Systematic reviews
D. Randomized Controlled Trials (RCT)
99. Which of the following not used in treatment of the septic arthritis?
A. Irrigation
B. Antibiotic
C. Conservative treatment
D. Osteophyte removal
100. Which of the following not a long-term complication?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Tracheal stenosis
C. Tracheal fistula
D. Tracheomalacia
101. IVRO distal segment moves posterior beyond width of medial pterygoid attachment
A. Moves posterior
B. Inferior dental numbness
C. Non union

D. Condyle dislocation
102. Least in evidence?
A. Review of experts
B. Case report
C. Case series
D. Meta-analysis
103. Perineural invasion is a hallmark of:
A. Acinic cell carcinoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. Warthin's tumour
104. Management of hemodynamically stable penetrating neck injury is to be done by?
A. Immediate Surgical Exploration
B. Only Computed tomography angiography (CTA)
C. Selective surgical intervention based on clinical examination and CTA
D. Observation
105. Which of the following methods is used for treatment of chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis?
A. Decompression
B. Saucerization
C. Decortication
D. Resection
106. A 25-year adult presented with Right mandibular angle and left body fracture. What will be the F component of
FLOSA classification for the patient?
A. F2
B. FO
C. F1

D. F3
107. Fracture of Luhr Class II mandible can be best managed by:
A. Observation
B. ORIF with load sharing plates
C. ORIF with Reconstruction plates
D. Closed reduction
108. Which of the following tumors are not pleomorphic in nature?
A. Basal cell Adenoma
B. Oncocytoma
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. None of the above
109. Access incision in penetrating neck injury
A. Collar
B. Submandibular
C. Risdon
D. SCM incision
110. Which of the following tumours does not typically show metastasis?
A. Basal cell Carcinoma
B. Verrucous Carcinoma
C. None of the above
D. Both A and B
111. Chances of predictive lip movement in maxillary orthognathic surgery are best seen in?
A. 7% with impaction
B. 50% with setback
C. 100% advancement
D. 70% advancement

112. Fracture of mandible in pediatric patient occurs most commonly in which direction?
A. Downward and forwards
B. Downward and backwards
C. Zigzag due to tooth buds
D. Straight superior-inferior
113. Which of the following salivary gland tumours are commonly associated with the presence of mucoid material?
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D. All of the above
114. Which of the following best describes Papillary cystadenoma in salivary glands?
A. It's a variant of Warthin's tumour
B. Perineural invasion
C. Majority cases occur in parotid gland
D. Chiefly originates in the minor salivary glands
115. Reduction at which point ensures proper alignment in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures?
A. Infraorbital rim
B. ZM buttress
C. Bilateral arch symmetry
D. ZS suture
116. What is the most common cause of Horizontal diplopia?
A. VI nerve palsy
B. Orbital floor fracture
C. II nerve palsy
D. III nerve palsy

117. Essig's wiring is indicated for:
A. Mandibular Ramus fracture
B. Dentoalveolar fracture
C. Parasymphysis fracture
D. Angle fracture
118. Which of the following is the least stable surgical orthognathic procedure?
A. Maxillary setback
B. Maxillary impaction
C. Transverse maxillary expansion
D. Maxillary advancement
119. The midface is typically measured from which anatomical landmarks?
A. Glabella to Nasion
B. Glabella to the subnasale
C. Glabella to Nasal bridge
D. Glabella to Point A
120. Heparin acts an anticoagulant by acting on:
A. Preventing prothrombin conversion to thrombin
B. Preventing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
C. Activating factor X
D. Inhibiting the action of platelets directly
121. The distinctive feature of tongue lichen planus is:
A. It is associated with recurrent ulcers
B. The ventral surface is spared
C. The dorsal surface is spared
D. All surfaces and borders of the tongue are equally involved
122. All are true for skeletal derivatives of pharyngeal arches:

A. II arch- Stapes
B. II arch- Styloid process
C. I arch- Malleus
D. I arch- Hyoid
123. Which of the following subtypes are true for Pruzunsky Kaban classification for Hemifacial Microsomia?
A. Type I
B. Type II A and B
C. Type III
D. Type IV
124. Superior Orbital fissure does not include which of the following:
A. Nasociliary nerve
B. Ophthalmic vein
C. Ophthalmic artery
D. Frontal nerve
125. What is the recurrence rate within a year for patients with head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC)
who decline the recommended adjuvant therapy after undergoing resection?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
126. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between idiopathic condylar resorption (ICR)
and a high Frankfort Mandibular Plane Angle (FMA)?
A. Patients with a high FMA are more predisposed to idiopathic condylar resorption due to increased vertical growth
tendencies and altered mandibular biomechanics
B. ICR occurs more frequently in patients with a low FMA, as it indicates a stronger and more stable condylar
structure
C. High FMA leads to greater mandibular advancement, reducing the risk of ICR in patients with orthognathic surgery
D. There is no significant correlation between FMA and the risk of idiopathic condylar resorption in patients
undergoing orthognathic treatment

127. A 16-year-old girl presented with progressive swelling of the right side of face for 7 weeks. OPG showed
multilocular lesion of left ramus. Surgical exploration revealed tissue resembling a blood-soaked sponge. The most
likely diagnosis is?
A. Traumatic bone cyst
B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
C. Cavernous hemangioma
D. AVM
128. Which of the following mandibular anatomical characteristics increases the likelihood of a bad split during
sagittal split osteotomy?
A. Short mandibular length
B. Longer mandibular ramus and buccolingually thin mandible
C. Shorter mandibular ramus and buccolingually thin mandible
D. Thick cortical bone on the Lingual side than Buccal side
129. When relapse is most likely to occur after bilateral sagittal split osteotomy with mandibular advancement in
patients with different mandibular plane angles (MPA)?
A. In both low-MPA and high-MPA patients, relapse occurs only during the first postoperative year
B. Clinically significant relapse occurs during the first postoperative year in low-MPA patients and from 2 to 5 years
postoperatively in high-MPA patients
C. Relapse is not affected by the patient's mandibular
D. Relapse occurs only after 5 years postoperatively for plane angle all patients
130. Which of the following considerations is important when administrating cisplatin IV infusion?
A. Rapid infusion
B. Prehydrating the patient to minimize nephrotoxicity
C. Using same IV line for multiple chemotherapeutic agents
D. Infusing it at room temperature to enhance efficacy
131. Which of the following is the most common reason for hearing loss in patients with cleft lip and cleft palate
(CLCP)?
A. Non-syndromic 8th nerve involvement

B. Syndromic 8th nerve involvement
C. Chronic otitis media
D. Underdevelopment of the middle ear
132. A 48-year-old patient had diffuse traumatic brain injury with CT revealing Brain herniation and postoperatively
developed fever along with transient paroxysms of tachycardia, hypertension, hyperventilation, dystonic posturing,
and excessive sweating. What is the likely cause?
A. Meningitis
B. Paroxysmal sympathetic hyperactivity
C. Encephalitis
D. Malignant hyperthermia
133. Which of the following is true for White eye syndrome?
A. Usually occur under 18 years of age
B. Oculo-cardiac reflex can occur
C. Restricted gaze
D. All of the above
134. In Type III Markowitz and Manson classification, what is true about the medial canthopexy:
A. May not be required
B. Wire grasping the medial canthal tendon is passed trans nasally through holes placed posteriorly and above the
posterior lacrimal rim and tightened on the contralateral side
C. Wire grasping the medial canthal tendon is passed trans nasally through holes placed anteriorly and above the
posterior lacrimal rim and tightened on the Contralateral side
D. Wire grasping the medial canthal tendon is passed trans nasally through holes placed posteriorly and below the
posterior lacrimal rim and tightened on the contralateral side
135. In the management of pan facial trauma, what is the recommended sequence for mandibular fracture reduction
and fixation?
A. Condyle first
B. Condyle last
C. Conservatively managed
D. Any of the above

136. Patient with Class II mandible requires Bijaw surgery and Bilateral Total joint replacement, the ideal sequence
should be?
A. Maxilla-Mandible- TJR
B. Mandible- maxilla- TJR
C. TJR-mandible- maxilla
D. TJR-maxilla- mandible
137. Which of the following is a common symptom of NoE fracture?
A. Headache
B. Anosmia
C. Hypertelorism
D. CSF leak
138. Which of the following is true for using hypertonic Dextrose at different sites in TMJ prolotherapy?
A. Retro discal site: most effective for reducing clicking
B. Inferior joint space: pain relief
C. Extracapsular site: hypermobility
D. All of the above
139. Which of the following is the primary goal of presurgical orthodontic treatment in patients undergoing
orthognathic surgery?
A. Achieving optimal occlusal function by post-surgical adjustments skeletal discrepancies
B. Decompensating dental compensations caused by Tooth positions
C. Accelerating post-surgical healing by modifying
D. Correcting soft tissue alignment before surgical intervention
140. In the chemical composition of bone, organic content Is mainly formed by the collagen content which forms how
much percentage?
A. 90%
B. 75%
C. 65%

D. 80%
141. Which of the following best describes a favourable mandibular fracture in relation to muscle pull?
A. The fracture line is transverse, allowing the masseter and temporalis muscles to displace the fragments, leading to
significant malalignment
B. The fracture is oriented obliquely, so the medial pterygoid muscle's action pulls the fracture fragments apart,
causing displacement
C. The fracture line runs in such a way that the masseter and pterygoid muscles pull the fragments toward each
other, promoting stability and preventing
D. The fracture is vertical, causing the digastric and
displacement geniohyoid muscles to exert a downward pull on the anterior fragment, increasing the risk of
malalignment
142. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a piezo surgery unit in surgical procedures?
A. Increases the bone cutting speed
B. Reduces risk of infection
C. Prevents nerve damage during surgery
D. Enhances healing
143. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between standard bupivacaine and liposomal
bupivacaine?
A. Liposomal bupivacaine has a faster onset, but shorter duration of action compared to standard bupivacaine
B. Liposomal bupivacaine is associated with a higher incidence of systemic toxicity
C. Liposomal bupivacaine provides extended analgesia with a controlled release formulation
D. Standard bupivacaine provides longer postoperative pain control than liposomal bupivacaine
144. Which nerve is responsible for ipsilateral loss of lateral gaze?
A. CN III
B. CN IV
C. CN VI
D. CN II
145. What is the average intraoperative elongation observed after Furlow palatoplasty?

A. 60.00%
B. 69.05%
C. 75.00%
D. 55.00%
146. During a condylectomy, which anatomical consideration is crucial to minimize the risk of injury to the nearby
structures, particularly when accessing condylar neck?
A. The proximity of the masseteric artery to the lateral pterygoid muscle
B. The positioning of the masseteric artery in relation to the sigmoid notch
C. The origin of the masseteric artery from the maxillary artery
D. The anatomical variation of the masseteric artery's pathway in different populations
147. Apart from the maxillary artery, which other artery is of bleeding during TMJ discopexy?
A. Facial artery
B. Middle meningeal artery
C. Masseteric artery
D. Labial artery
148. Under which circumstance is coronoidectomy indicated on the contralateral side during treatment?
A. If there is limited incisal opening on the affected side
B. If coronoidectomy on the affected side does not improve maximal incisal opening to greater than 35 mm
C. If the patient experiences pain in the contralateral temporomandibular joint
D. If there is a risk of recurrent dislocation of the affected TMJ
149. For increasing posterior facial height and reconstructing TMJ via distraction, which of the following osteotomy is
preferred?
A. Occlusal
B. Body
C. Ramal
D. Midline

150. Which of the following statements regarding the paraesthesia after Bilateral Sagittal Split Osteotomy (BSSO) is
most accurate?
A. Chances of transient paraesthesia range from 0-80%
B. Bad split happens in most of the cases
C. IAN should be distal segment
D. Nerve should not be directly visualised to prevent injury
151. Which of the following is true for Lincoln's highway?
A. Another name for Carotid Space
B. This is also known as Visceral Vascular Space
C. Named by Mosher
D. All of the above
152. Which of the following statements regarding oncocytoma is correct?
A. Oncocytoma commonly occurs in the parotid gland and is typically malignant
B. Oncocytoma is a benign tumor characterized by an abundance of mitochondria in the cytoplasm of oncocytes
C. Oncocytoma is more commonly found in the submandibular gland and is associated with lymph node metastasis
D. Oncocytoma primarily affects younger individuals and presents with aggressive growth
153. What is true about FMPA angle?
A. Average 25±5 degrees
B. High FMA characterized by open bite skeletal pattern
C. Low FMA characterized by deep bite skeletal pattern
D. All of the above
154. Safe surgical margins for Ameloblastoma are at a distance of:
A. At least 1 cm
B. 1-1.5 cm
C. 1.5-2 cm
D. 2-2.5 cm

155. Which of the following best describes the advantage of Inverted L osteotomy?
A. Larger movements are possible
B. Better healing
C. Condyle preserved
D. Better Bone contact
156. What is the best method to fix a Trans palatal fracture?
A. Zygomatic maxillary buttress
B. Pterygomaxillary Buttress
C. Fixation at Lefort 1
D. Transpalatal wiring
157. Which of the following tumors show Least metastasis?
A. BCC
B. Mucoepidermoid CA
C. Acinic cell CA
D. Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma
158. Which of the following defines the location of Lingual gland?
A. At the base of the tongue
B. Below the muscles of floor of mouth
C. Within the buccal mucosa
D. Below the ventral surface of the tongue
159. The function of Pentoxyphylline is explained as:
A. Decrease fibrosis
B. Vasoactive agent
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. All of the above

160. In emergency, 38-year-old male got his airway obstruction and intubation is not possible. Which of the following
is earliest and fastest performed procedure to establish a secure airway?
A. Tracheostomy
B. LMA insertion
C. Nasotracheal intubation
D. Cricothyrotomy
161. Which of the following incisions is preferred in case of emergency tracheostomy?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Along Langer's lines
D. Curvilinear
162. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the wound healing process?
A. Inflammation → Hemostasis → Proliferation → Maturation
B. Hemostasis → Proliferation → Inflammation → Maturation
C. Hemostasis → Inflammation → Proliferation → Maturation
D. Proliferation → Hemostasis → Maturation → Inflammation
163. Which of the following nerves primarily provides Sensory supply to TMJ?
A. Auriculotemporal
B. Facial
C. Hypoglossal
D. Trigeminal
164. Which of the following is not the part of classic triad of Pierre Robin Sequence?
A. Cleft palate
B. Ankyloglossia
C. Micrognathia
D. Glossoptosis

165. The best line of management of an infected mandible fracture causing defect is.
A. IV antibiotics only
B. Debridement, sequestrectomy and load bearing fixation
C. Debridement, sequestrectomy and load sharing fixation
D. Closed reduction
166. Postoperatively, for how long MMF must be kept after BSSO to ensure skeletal stability?
A. No IMF is required if occlusion is achieved
B. Short term MMF is beneficial intraoperatively
C. Long term MMF is beneficial
D. Patient must be extubated with MMF only
167. Which of the following structures is typically preserved in a modified radical neck dissection (MRND -II)?
A. Internal jugular vein, spinal accessory nerve, and sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Spinal accessory nerve, sternocleidomastoid muscle, and submandibular gland
C. Internal jugular vein, submandibular gland, and sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. Spinal accessory nerve, internal jugular vein, and external carotid artery







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AIIMS - SRship : ORAL SURGERY : Recent

1. The 4:2:1 Rule applies to:

A. Blood transfusion ratios

B. Crystalloid fluid administration in trauma patients

2. Condylar hyperplasia in 26-year-old male with positive SPET-Right condyle. Treatment?

A. Condylectomy if growth is completed

B. Active Orthognathic surgery

C. Active Condylectomy + t'u after 1 year

D. Active Condylectomy + Du after 1 year

A. Thickening of Zygomatic ligament

B. Thickening of styloid process

C Thickening of sphenomandibular ligament

D. Thickening of collateral ligament

4. Sequence of double lag screw placement?

A Two lagscrews should have heads in same direction

B. Two lagscrews should have heads in opposite direction

D. Surgeon should decide direction of heads of screw

5. Nerve not damaged in maxillary osteotomy?

6. Zuckerkandl's process divides?

WhatsApp Your Mentors : Anyday-Anytime

7. Surgical management of lingual nerve is indicated in?

A. Painful stimuli to a non-painful stimulus - painful neuropathy

B. Persistent anesthesia which is bearable

C. Mild sensory loss with no functional impairment

D. Transient paresthesia (temporary numbness or tingling) resolving on its own

8. True statement about IAN?

A. Acidic pH-non ionized ions are more

B. Effect of anesthesia is more in anterior region because of core-mental effect

C. Tachyphylaxis requires Increased drug dose administration

D. LANB has high chances of failure

9. ZMC fracture stable after reduction?

A. Reduction around vertical axis around FZ line

B. Reduction around vertical axis around ZT line

C. Reduction around Horizontal axis

D. Zygomaticomaxillary buttress to infraorbital rim

10. Fish mouth technique?

B. Salivary duet closure

C. Maxillary sinus closure

11. Surgery first approach in orthognathic surgery popularized by?

WhatsApp Your Mentors : Anyday-Anytime

13. McCarthy zone of distraction?

14. Antimongoloid seen in?

15. Mandible works on which lever?

16. Universal donor blood?

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17. What is the characteristic feature of Jaw Winking Syndrome?

A. Unilateral ptosis (drooping eyelid) that worsens with jaw movement

B. Bilateral ptosis (drooping eyelids) that improves with jaw movement

C. Unilateral miosis (constricted pupil) that worsens with jaw movement

D. Bilateral miosis (constricted pupils) that improves with jaw movement

18. Lower tarsal plate height?

19. Lateral limit of Subciliary incision is for?

B. Facial nerve damage

D. Lateral palpaberal ligament

A. Registration for systematic review

B. Protocol for conducting meta-analyses

C. A medical device for prosthetic limbs

D. A statistical software for data analysis

A. To conduct systematic searches and screen studies

B. To improve the transparency and quality of reporting