Checkride Study Guide PPL

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Checkride Study Guide

Private Pilot (US)

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Preflight Preparation: Certificates and Documents

1. What privileges and limitations apply to a private pilot? (14 CFR 61.113)
a. No person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as a pilot-in-command of an
aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; nor may that
person, for compensation or hire, act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft. A private pilot –
i. may act as PIC of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if it
is only incidental to that business or employment and does not carry passengers
or property for compensation or hire.
ii. may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight
with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport
expenditures, or rental fees.
iii. may act as PIC of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by
certain charitable organizations.
iv. may be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are directly related to
search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil,
airport expenditures, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under
the direction and control of local, state or federal agencies or organizations that
conduct search and location operations.
v. may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer if the private pilot is
an aircraft salesman and has at least 200 hours of logged flight time.
vi. may act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider provided they meet the requirements
of Part 61.69
2. As a newly certificated private pilot, you are ready to utilize your certificate. I am a friend and
need you to fly a package to a destination. I will pay for the airplane if you accept. Do the
regulations allow you to accept this offer? (14 CFR 61.113)
a. A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a
flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures,
or rental fees.
3. What are the requirements to remain current as a private pilot? (14 CFR 61.56, 61.57)
a. Within the preceding 24 months, accomplished a flight review
b. To carry passengers, within the preceding 90 days – 3 takeoffs and landings
c. To carry passengers at night, at least 3 takeoffs and 3 full stop landings at night within
the preceding 90 days
4. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, what medical certificate is required, and
how long is it valid?
a. Third-class medical certificate.
b. Valid for 60 months if the person is under the age of 40.
c. Valid for 24 months if the person is age 40 or older.
5. What type of flight time must be documented and recorded by all pilots? (14 CFR 61.51)
a. Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate,
rating, or flight review
b. The aeronautical experience required for meeting the recency of flight experience
requirements of Part 61
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6. What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight? (14 CFR 91.203, 91.9)
a. Airworthiness Certificate
b. Registration Certificate
c. Owner’s manual or operating limitations
d. Weight & balance data
7. How can a pilot determine if all of the required placards are present in the airplane? (14 CFR
43)
a. The required placards are listed in the aircrafts POH in the limitations section.
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Preflight Preparation: Airworthiness Requirements

1. What are the required instruments and equipment for day VFR? (14 CFR 91.205b)
a. A - Airspeed Indicator
b. T - Tachometer
c. O - Oil Pressure Gauge
d. M - Manifold Pressure Gauge
e. A - Altimeter
f. T - Temperature Gauge (if liquid cooled)
g. O - Oil Temperature Gauge
h. F - Fuel Gauge
i. L - Landing Gear Position Indicator (if retractable gear)
j. A - Anti-Collision Lights (if manufactured after 3/11/96)
k. M - Magnetic Compass
l. E - ELT
m. S - Safety Belts
2. What are the required instruments and equipment for night VFR? (14 CFR 91.205c)
a. F - Fuses, Spare (if equipped)
b. L - Landing Light (if for compensation/hire)
c. A - Anti-Collision Lights
d. P - Position Lights
e. S - Source of Power
3. What are “Minimum Equipment Lists”? (14 CFR 91.213)
a. A Minimum Equipment List (MEL) can be published when compliance with minimum
equipment requirements is not necessary in the interest of safety under all conditions.
Deviation from the equipment requirements of the regulations is maintained by alternate
means. Experience has shown that with the various levels of redundancy designed into
aircraft, operation of every system or component installed may not be necessary when
the remaining operative equipment can provide an acceptable level of safety. The
FAA-approved MEL includes only those items of equipment the Administrator finds may
be inoperative and yet maintain an acceptable level of safety by appropriate conditions
and limitations. It takes into consideration the operator’s particular aircraft equipment
configuration and operational conditions.
4. If the EGT was found to be inoperative, how may the pilot determine if it is necessary for flight?
(14 CFR 91.213 & POH Section 6)
a. The pilot determines whether the inoperative equipment is required by type design, the
CFRs or ADs. If the inoperative item is not required, and the aircraft can be safely
operated without it, a deferral may be made. The inoperative item shall be deactivated or
removed and an INOPERATIVE placard placed near the appropriate switch, control, or
indicator.
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5. What are “Special Flight Permits,” and when are they necessary? (14 CFR 91.213, 21.197)
a. A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet
applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight. These permits are
typically issued for the following purposes:
i. Flying an aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations or maintenance are to be
performed, or to a point of storage.
ii. Delivering or exporting an aircraft.
iii. Production flight testing new-production aircraft.
iv. Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger.
v. Conducting customer demonstration flights in new-production aircraft that have
satisfactorily completed production flight tests.
6. How are “Special Flight Permits” obtained? (AC 61-23C)
a. If a special flight permit is needed, assistance and the necessary forms may be obtained
from the local FSDO or Designated Airworthiness Representative (DAR).
7. What are “Airworthiness Directives” (ADs)?
a. An AD is the medium the FAA uses to notify aircraft owners and other potentially
interested persons of unsafe conditions that may exist because of design defects,
maintenance, or other causes, and to specify the condition under which the product may
continue to be operated. ADs are regulatory in nature, and compliance is mandatory. It is
the aircraft owner’s or operator’s responsibility to ensure compliance with all pertinent
ADs.
8. How can a pilot determine if all applicable “Airworthiness Directives” have been complied with
for their airplane? (14 CFR 91.417)
a. 14 CFR 91.417 requires a record to be maintained that shows the current status of
applicable Ads. For ready reference, many aircraft owners have a chronological listing of
the pertinent Ads in the back of their aircraft, engine, and propeller maintenance records.
9. Using the aircraft and equipment logs, determine: (91.409 & A/C log)
a. When is the next annual inspection is due?
b. When must the transponder be tested?
c. When do the ELT batteries need to be replaced?
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Preflight Preparation: Airworthiness Requirements

1. What is the primary means of obtaining a weather briefing? (AC 00-45E)


a. The primary source is an individual briefing obtained from a briefer at the FSS. These
briefings, which are tailored to your specific flight, are available 24 hours a day through
the use of the toll-free number (1-800-WX BRIEF)
2. What weather reports and forecasts can be used to determine the conditions at the destination
airport for the flight that you planned today? (AC 00-45E)
a. METAR – an hourly surface observation of conditions observed at an airport.
b. TAF - a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions at an airport (within
5nm) during a specified period (usually 24 hours). They are scheduled four times daily
for 24-hour periods beginning at 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z.
c. FA – a forecast of general weather conditions over an area the size of several states. It
is used to determine forecast enroute weather and to interpolate conditions at airports
which do not have TAFs issued. FAs are issued three times a day for each of the
contiguous 48 states.
3. During a standard weather briefing you are advised that “VFR flight NOT RECOMMENDED.”
What does this indicate? (FAA-H-8083-25 p11-3)
a. If the weather for the route of flight is below VFR minimums, or it is doubtful the flight
could be made under VFR conditions due to the forecast weather, the briefer may state
that VFR is not recommended. It is the pilot’s decision whether or not to continue the
flight under VFR, but this advisory should be weighed carefully.
4. What information can be obtained from a Surface Analysis Chart? (AC 00-45E)
a. The surface analysis chart provides a ready means of locating pressure systems and
fronts. It also gives an overview of winds, temperatures and dew point temperatures at
chart time. The chart is transmitted every three hours.
5. What are PIREPs (UA)? (AIM 7-1-21)
a. “Pilot Reports” contain information concerning weather as observed by pilots en route.
Required elements for all PIREPs are message type, location, time, flight level, type of
aircraft, and at least one weather element encountered.
6. While in flight you encounter some weather that was not forecast and decide to make a PIREP.
How will you accomplish this? (AIM 7-1-21)
a. PIREPs should be given to the ground facility with which communications are
established; i.e., EFAS, FSS, ARTCC or terminal ATC. If pilots are not able to make
PIREPs by radio, report upon landing to the nearest FSS or Weather Forecast Office.
7. To whom and how would you report a wind shear encounter? (AIM 7-1-24)
a. Pilots are urged to promptly volunteer reports to controllers of wind shear conditions they
encounter. The recommended method for wind shear reporting is to state the loss or
gain of airspeed and the altitudes at which it was encountered.
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8. What is a Convective SIGMET? (AIM 7-1-6)


a. Implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear. Bulletins
are issued hourly. Special bulletins are issued at any time when required. The forecast is
valid for up to 2 hours.
i. Severe thunderstorm due to:
1. Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots.
2. Hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inches in diameter.
3. Tornadoes
4. Embedded thunderstorms A line of thunderstorms
5. Thunderstorms producing precipitation greater than or equal to heavy
precipitation affecting 40 percent or more of an area at least 3,000
square miles.
9. What is a SIGMET? (AIM 7-1-6)
a. Advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. The
maximum forecast period is four hours. Issued when the following phenomena occur or
are expected to occur:
i. Severe icing
ii. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence
iii. Duststorms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering surface or in-flight visibilities to
below 3 miles
iv. Volcanic eruption
10. What is an AIRMET? (AIM 7-1-6)
a. Advisories of significant weather phenomena but describe conditions at intensities lower
than a SIGMET. Bulletins are issued every 6 hours.
i. Moderate icing
ii. Moderate turbulence
iii. Sustained surface winds of 30 knots or more
iv. Ceilings less than 1,000 feet and/or visibilities less than 3 miles affecting over 50
percent of the area at one time o Extensive mountain obscurement
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Preflight Preparation: Cross-Country Flight Planning

1. How can a VFR flight plan be filed? (FAA-H-8083-25 14-16)


a. Flight plans can be filed in the air by radio, but it is best to file a flight plan either in
person at the FSS or by phone just before departing. After takeoff, contact the FSS by
radio and give them the takeoff time so the flight plan can be activated.
2. What are “NOTAMs”? (AIM 5-1-3)
a. Notices To Airman – time-critical aeronautical information of either a temporary nature,
or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in
other operational publications, receives immediate dissemination via the National
NOTAM System. This is aeronautical information that could affect a pilot’s decision to
make a flight. It includes such information as airport or primary runway closures,
changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS’s, radar service availability, and other
information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations.
3. Locate the following items on a sectional chart:

Abandoned Airports Part Time Lighting CTAF

Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) Parachute Jumping Area FSS Frequencies

Airport Elevation Approach Control Frequencies Glider Operations Area

Airports w/ Rotating Beacon ATIS Hard Surfaced Runway Airports

Airports w/ Lighting Facilities Pilot Controlled Lighting Isogonic Lines

Airports w/ Services Private Airport Maximum Elevation Figures

Alert Area Prohibited Area Military Airports

Non-Hard Surfaced Runways Restricted Area Military Training Routes

Non-Directional Beacons (NDB) Runway Length UNICOM Frequencies

Obstructions >1,000’ AGL Special VFR Not Authorized Visual Checkpoints

Obstructions <1,000’ AGL Victor Airways VORTAC

Warning Area Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA) TWEB

Class B Airspace Class C Airspace Class D Airspace

Class E Airspace (700’ Floor) Class E Airspace (1,200’ Floor) Class E Extensions
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Preflight Preparation: National Airspace System


1. Ask applicant to identify the airspace on a sectional chart and explain: (14 CFR 71)
a. Basic VFR weather minimums
b. Operating rules
c. Pilot certification
d. Airplane equipment

2. Where can information on special use airspace be found? (AIM 3-4-1)


a. Special use airspace (except CFAs) are charted on IFR or visual charts and include the
hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency.
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Private Pilot (US)

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Preflight Preparation: Performance and Limitations

1. What performance characteristics will be adversely affected when an aircraft has been
overloaded?
a. Higher takeoff speed
b. Longer takeoff run
c. Reduced rate and angle of climb
d. Lower maximum altitude
e. Shorter range
f. Reduced cruising speed
g. Reduced maneuverability
h. Higher stalling speed
i. Higher landing speed
j. Longer landing roll
k. Excessive weight on the nose-wheel
2. What effect does a forward center of gravity have on an aircraft’s flight characteristics?
a. Higher stall speed – stalling angle of attack is reached at a higher speed due to
increased wing loading.
b. Slower cruise speed – increased drag; greater angle of attack is required to maintain
altitude.
c. More stable – the center of gravity is farther forward from the center of pressure which
increases longitudinal stability.
d. Greater back elevator pressure required – longer takeoff roll; higher approach speeds
and problems with landing flare.
3. What effect does a rearward center of gravity have on an aircraft’s flight characteristics?
a. Lower stall speed – less wing loading.
b. Higher cruise speed – reduced drag; smaller angle of attack is required to maintain
altitude.
c. Less stable – stall and spin recovery more difficult; the center of gravity is closer to the
center of pressure, causing longitudinal instability.
4. What information can you obtain from the following charts?
a. Takeoff Performance Charts –
i. Normal takeoff ground run in feet
ii. Obstacle clearance ground run in feet (50 feet)
b. Climb Performance Charts –
i. Rate of climb under various conditions
ii. Best climb airspeed under various conditions
c. Cruise Performance Charts – at various altitudes the following:
i. Recommended power settings
ii. Percent brake horsepower
iii. Rate of fuel consumption (gal/hr)
iv. True airspeed
v. Hours of endurance with full tanks
vi. Range in miles
d. Stall Speed Charts –
i. Stall speeds with different flap settings and bank angles
e. Landing Performance Charts –
i. Normal landing distance
ii. Landing distance to clear a 50-foot obstacle
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5. Define the term “density altitude.”
a. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. It is the
measurement of air density in terms of an altitude in a standard atmosphere.
6. What factors affect air density?
a. Temperature
b. Altitude
c. Humidity
d. Barometric pressure
7. How does air density affect aircraft performance?
a. The density of the air has a direct effect on:
i. Lift produced by the wings;
ii. Power output of the engine;
iii. Propeller efficiency;
iv. Drag forces
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Preflight Preparation: Operation of Systems

1. What are the main control surfaces and what are their functions?
a. Elevators – The elevators control the movement of the airplane about its lateral axis.
This motion is called pitch.
b. Ailerons – The ailerons control the airplane’s movement about its longitudinal axis. This
motion is called roll.
c. Rudder – The rudder controls movement of the airplane about its vertical axis. This
motion is called yaw.
d. Trim Tabs – Trim tabs are small, adjustable hinged-surfaces on the aileron, rudder, or
elevator control surfaces. They are labor-saving devices that enable the pilot to release
manual pressure on the primary control.
2. What are flaps and what is their function?
a. The wing flaps are movable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wings. They are
hinged so that they may be extended downward into the flow of air beneath the wings to
increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper
angle of descent during a landing approach. In some cases, they may also be used to
shorten the takeoff distance​.
3. Describe the braking system on this aircraft.
a. Hydraulically actuated disc-type brakes are utilized on each main gear wheel. A
hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder located on each pilot’s rudder
pedals. By applying pressure to the top of either the pilot’s or copilot’s set of rudder
pedals, the brakes may be applied.
4. How is steering accomplished on the ground?
a. Light airplanes are generally provided with nose wheel steering capabilities through a
simple system of mechanical linkage connected to the rudder pedals. When a rudder
pedal is depressed, a spring-loaded bungee (push-pull rod) connected to the pivotal
portion of a nose wheel strut will turn the nose wheel.
5. What type of engine does your aircraft have?
6. How does the carburetor heat system work?
a. A carburetor heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allows unfiltered, heated air from a
shroud located around an exhaust riser or muffler to be directed to the induction air
manifold prior to the carburetor. Carburetor heat should be used anytime suspected or
known carburetor icing condition exists.
7. What does mixture control do?
a. It regulates the fuel-to-air ratio. The purpose of a mixture control is to prevent the
mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes, due to decreasing air density.
8. What type of fuel does your aircraft require?
9. Explain the fuel system of your aircraft.
10. Describe the electrical system on your aircraft.
11. How does the aircraft cabin heat work?
a. Fresh air, heated by an exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of
ducts.
12. What types of systems are utilized in the prevention and elimination of airframe ice?
a. Pitot Heat – Used to eliminate ice build-up on the pitot tube.
b. Windshield Defrost – Used to prevent ice build-up on the windshield.
c. Alternate Air Door – Used as an alternate means to provide induction air should the
air-filter become clogged or iced over.
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Preflight Preparation: Aeromedical Factors


1. What is hypoxia?
a. Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the
brain and other organs.
2. Where does hypoxia usually occur and what symptoms should one expect?
a. Although a deterioration in night vision occurs at a cabin pressure altitude as low as
5,000 feet, other significant effects of altitude hypoxia usually do not occur in the normal
healthy pilot below 12,000 feet. From 12,000 to 15,000 feet of altitude, judgment,
memory, alertness, coordination, and ability to make calculations are impaired, and
headache, drowsiness, dizziness and either a sense of well-being or belligerence occur.
Effects are worse above 15,000 feet.
3. What is hyperventilation?
a. Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the
lungs, can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. This
results in a significant decrease in the carbon dioxide of the blood. Carbon dioxide is
needed to automatically regulate the breathing process.
4. How can a hyperventilating condition be reversed?
a. The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth
of breathing are consciously brought back to normal. The buildup of carbon dioxide in
the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over
the nose and mouth.
5. What is “ear block”?
a. As the aircraft cabin pressure decreases during ascent, the expanding air in the middle
ear pushes open the Eustachian tube and escapes down to the nasal passages,
thereby equalizing in pressure with cabin pressure. But this isn’t automatic during
descent, and the pilot must periodically open the Eustachian tube to equalize pressure.
An upper respiratory infection or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough
congestion around the Eustachian tube to make equalization difficult. Consequently, the
difference in pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin can build to a level that
holds the Eustachian tube closed, making equalization difficult if not impossible. An ear
block produces severe pain and loss of hearing that can last from several hours to
several days​.
6. How is ear block normally prevented from occurring?
a. Normally this can be accomplished by swallowing, yawning, tensing muscles in the
throat or, if these do not work, by the combination of closing the mouth, pinching the
nose closed and attempting to blow through the nostrils (Valsalva maneuver). It is also
prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition.
7. What causes spatial disorientation?
a. Various complex motions, forces, and complex visual scenes encountered in flight under
adverse weather conditions or at night can create illusions of motion and position.
8. How can you avoid spatial disorientation?
a. Spatial disorientation can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable, fixed points
on the ground or to flight instruments​.
9. What is the cause of motion sickness, and what are its symptoms?
a. Motion sickness is caused by continued stimulation of the inner ear which controls the
sense of balance. The symptoms are progressive. Pilots may experience loss of
appetite, saliva collecting in the mouth, perspiration, nausea, and possible disorientation.
The head aches and there may be a tendency to vomit. If allowed to become severe
enough, the pilot may become incapacitated.
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10. What action should be taken if a pilot or his passenger suffers from motion sickness?
a. If suffering from airsickness while piloting an aircraft, open up the air vents, loosen the
clothing, use supplemental oxygen, and keep the eyes on a point outside the airplane.
Avoid unnecessary head movements. Terminate the flight and land as soon as possible.
11. What is carbon monoxide poisoning?
a. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes.
When inhaled, even in minute quantities over a period of time, it can significantly reduce
the ability of the blood to carry oxygen. Consequently, effects of hypoxia occur.
12. What action should be taken if a pilot suspects carbon monoxide poisoning?
a. A pilot who suspects this condition to exist should immediately shut off the heater and
open all air vents. If symptoms are severe, or continue after landing, medical treatment
should be sought.
13. What regulations apply and what common sense should prevail concerning the use of alcohol?
(14 CFR 91.17)
a. The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties within 8 hours after
drinking any alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of alcohol, or having .04
percent weight or more alcohol in the blood. Due to the slow destruction of alcohol in the
bloodstream, a pilot may still be under influence, or over the .04 percent mark, 8 hours
after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol. Therefore, an excellent rule is to allow at
least 12 to 24 hours from “bottle to throttle,” depending on the amount of alcohol
consumed.
14. What regulations apply and what common sense should prevail concerning the use of drugs
and medication?
a. Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by both prescribed and over-the-counter
medications, as well as by the medical conditions for which they are taken. The
regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any
medication that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safety. The safest rule is not
to fly as a crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the
FAA.
15. Discuss the effects of nitrogen excesses during scuba diving upon a pilot or passenger in flight
a. A pilot or passenger who intends to fly after scuba diving should allow the body sufficient
time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving. If not, decompression
sickness due to evolved gas can occur during exposure to low altitude and create a
serious in-flight emergency. The recommended waiting times before flight are as follows:
i. Flight altitudes up to 8,000 feet:
1. Wait at least 12 hours after diving which has not required a controlled
ascent.
2. Wait at least 24 hours after diving which has required controlled ascent.
ii. Flight altitudes above 8,000 feet:
1. Wait at least 24 hours after any scuba dive.
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Airport Operations: Radio Communications and ATC Light Signals


1. What procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower when the
radios are inoperative?
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals.
d. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing
light or navigation lights.

Color & Pattern On Ground In Air

Steady Green Cleared for Takeoff Cleared to Land

Flashing Green Cleared for Taxi Return to Land

Steady Red STOP Give Way & Circle

Flashing Red Taxi Clear of Runway DO NOT LAND

Flashing White Return to Starting Point N/A

Alternating Red/Green Use Extreme Caution Use Extreme Caution

2. When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction?


a. An amended clearance has been obtained
b. An emergency exists
c. In response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

Slow Flight and Stalls: Spin Awareness


1. What are flight situations where unintentional spins may occur?
a. Engine failure on takeoff during climbout
b. Crossed-control turn from base to final
c. Engine failure on approach to landing
d. Go-around with full nose-up trim
e. Go-around with improper flap retraction
2. What procedure should be used to recover from an inadvertent spin?
a. Close the throttle.
b. Neutralize the ailerons.
c. Apply full opposite rudder.
d. Briskly move the elevator control forward to approximately the neutral position.
e. Once the stall is broken the spinning will stop.
f. Neutralize the rudder when the spinning stops.
g. When the rudder is neutralized, gradually apply enough aft elevator pressure to return to
level flight.
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Emergency Operations: Emergency Equipment and Survival Gear


3. What emergency equipment and survival gear is carried aboard the aircraft?
a. ELT
b. Fire Extinguisher
4. What is the emergency frequency and transponder code?
a. 121.5 MHz
b. 7700

Night Operations: Night Preparation


1. What can the pilot do to improve the effectiveness of vision at night?
c. Allow 30 minutes for eyes to adjust
d. Avoid bright lights
e. Use off-center viewing
f. Be aware that depth perception is inhibited
2. What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night?
a. Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.
3. Position lights are required to be on during what period of time?
a. Sunset to sunrise
4. How does a pilot activate a radio-controlled runway light system while airborne?
a. The pilot activates radio-controlled lights by keying the microphone on a specified frequency.

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