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Measurement, Motion, whirled in
horizonal circle
Work, Energy and Power
Codes
ABCD ABCD
Q 1. Consider the following statements (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1
1. If a body is rotating in a circular path, then (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
after one rotation its distance will be zero. Answer- (c)
2. distance and displacement are equal in
straight line. Q 4. When work is done on the body
3. The speedometer of the car shows its (a) it gains energy
instantaneous speed. Which of the following (b) it loses energy
statements is/are correct? (c) its energy remains constant
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) None of the above
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Answer- (a)
Answer- (c)
Q 5. Statement I When the force retards the
Q 2. Match the following columns. motion of a body, the work done is zero.
Column I Column II Statement II Work done depends on angle
A. We hit a carpet 1. Law of motion II between force and displacement.
with a stick to Codes
remove the dust (a) Both the statements are correct and
B. China wires are 2. Law of motion I statement II is the correct explanation of
wrapped in straw statement I
or paper (b) Both the statements are correct, but
C. A jet plane 3. Law of motion III statement II is not the correct explanation of
moves statement I
D. Bogies of the 4. Impulse (c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
train are provided incorrect
with buffers (d) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
correct
Codes Answer- (b)
ABCD ABCD
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 Q 6. An object of mass 2 kg is lifted vertically
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 1 through a distance of 1.5 m. The work done
Answer- (b) in process is
(a) 29.4 J (b) 19.4 J
Q 3. Match the following columns. (c) 17.4 J (d) 20.4 J
Column I Column II Answer- (a)
(Situation) (Centripetal
force) Q 7. The work done on an object does not
A. Revolution of 1. Tension in the depends upon the
the earth around string (a) displacement (b) force applied
the sun (c) final velocity (d) initial velocity
B. Vehicle taking a 2. Friction force Answer- (d)
turn on level road exerted by the
road on the tyres Q 8. Consider the following statements
C. A vechicle on a 3. Weight of the 1. When a body falls freely under gravity the
speed braker body work done by gravity is positive.
2. If a force of 1 dyne produces a
D. A particle tied to 4. Gravitation force displacement of 1 cm in the direction of the
a string and exerted by the sun force, the work done is called 1 erg.
3. Work is scalar quantity. Q 14. If acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m
4. Work done is always positive. /s2 . A bag of wheat weighs, 200 kg. The
Which of the following statements is/are height to which it should be raised, so that its
correct? potential energy may be 9800 J, is
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 5 m (b) 4 m
(c) Only 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 m (d) 10 m
Answer- (d) Answer- (a)

Q 9. If the velocity of a particle is reduced to Q 15. Two bodies of equal mass move with
half of its initial value, then the kinetic energy the velocity of 2v and 3v, respectively. Then,
of the particle will the ratio of their kinetic energies is
(a) get doubled (a) 4 9: (b) 2 3:
(b) become four times (c) 1 2: (d) 8 11:
(c) reduce to half of its original value Answer- (a)
(d) reduce to one-fourth of its original value
Answer- (d) Q 16. Power of the moving body is stored in
the form of
Q 10. A horse and a dog are running with the (a) work and time
same speed. Then, the ratio of their kinetic (b) force and distance
energies, if the weight of the horse is ten (c) force and velocity
times that of dog, is (d) distance and acceleration
(a) 10 : 1 (b) 100 : 1 Answer- (c)
(c) 1 : 9 (d) 9.8 : 98
Answer- (a) Q 17. Statement I Pulling a lawn roller is
easier than pushing it. Statement II Pushing
Q 11. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 increases the apparent weight and hence the
, then the potential energy of a body of mass force of friction.
1 kg kept at a height of 5 m, is (a) Both the statements are correct and
(a) 50 J (b) 100 J statement II is the correct explanation of
(c) 500 J (d) 50 KJ statement I
Answer- (a) (b) Both the statements are correct, but
statement II is not the correct explanation of
Q 12. When a body falls freely statement I
(a) its PE is converted into KE (c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
(b) its KE is converted into PE incorrect
(c) its mechanical energy is converted into (d) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
heat energy correct
(d) None of the above Answer- (a)
Answer- (a)
Q 18. A bus travels at a speed of 50 km/h to
Q 13. Consider the following statements go from its origin of its destination at a
1. When a body falls its potential energy distance of 300 km and travels at a speed of
decrease but at the same time kinetic energy 60 km/h to return to the origin. What is the
increases by an equal amount. average speed of the bus?
2. The total amount of energy in the universe (a) 54.55 km/h (b) 55 km/h
remains constant. (c) 55.55 km/h (d) 54 km/h
Which of the following statements is/are Answer- (a)
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 Q 19. Magnetic, electrostatic and gravitational
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these forces came under the category of
Answer- (a) (a) non-contact forces
(b) contact forces
(c) frictional forces Q 24. An object is raised to a height of 3 m
(d) non-frictional forces from the ground. It is then allowed to fall on to
Answer- (a) a table 1 m high from ground level. In this
context, which one among the following
Q 20. You are asked to jog in a circular track statements is correct?
of radius 35 m. Right one complete round on (a) Its potential energy decreases by two-
the circular track, your displacement and thirds its original value of total energy
distance covered by you respectively (b) Its potential energy decreases by one-
(a) zero and 220 m (b) 220 m and zero third its original value of total energy
(c) zero and 110 m (d) 110 m and 220 m (c) Its kinetic energy increases by two-third,
Answer- (a) while potential energy increases by one-third
(d) Its kinetic energy increases by one-third,
Q 21. In cricket match, while catching a fast while potential energy decreases by one-third
moving ball, a fielder in the ground gradually Answer- (a)
pulls his hands backwards with the moving
ball to reduce the velocity to zero. The act Q 25. Statement I When a gun is fired it
represents recoils i.e. it pushes back, with much less
(a) Newton’s first law of motion velocity than the velocity of the bullet.
(b) Newton’s second law of motion Statement II Velocity of the recoiling gun is
(c) Newton’s third law of motion less because the gun is much heavier than
(d) Law of conservation of energy the bullet.
Answer- (b) (a) Both the statements are correct and
statement II is the correct explanation of
Q 22. The distance-time graph for an object is statement I
shown below. Which one of the following (b) Both the statements are correct, but
statements holds true for this object? statement II is not the correct explanation of
(a) The object is moving with uniform speed statement I
(b) The object is at rest (c) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(c) The object is having non-linear motion incorrect
(d) The object is moving with non-uniform (d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
speed correct
Answer- (b) Answer- (a)

Q 23. An electron and a proton are circulating Q 26. A body is falling freely under the action
with same speed in circular paths of equal of gravity alone in vacuum. Which one of the
radius. Which one among the following will following remains constant during the fall?
happen, if the mass of a proton is about (a) Potential energy
2,000 times that of an electron? (b) Kinetic energy
(a) The centripetal force required by the (c) Total linear momentum
electron is about 2,000 times more than that (d) Total mechanical energy
required by the proton Answer- (d)
(b) The centripetal force required by the
proton is about 2,000 times more than that Q 27. Newton’s laws of motion do not hold
required by the electron good for objects
(c) No centripetal force is required for any (a) at rest
charged particle (b) moving slowly
(d) Equal centripetal force acts on both the (c) moving with high velocity
particles as they rotate in the same circular (d) moving with velocity comparable to
path velocity of light
Answer- (b) Answer- (d)
Q 28. A brick is thrown vertically from an Q 35. If the displacement of an object is
aircraft flying 2 km above the Earth. The brick proportional to square of time, then the object
will fall with a moves with
(a) constant speed (a) uniform velocity
(b) constant velocity (b) uniform acceleration
(c) constant acceleration (c) increasing acceleration
(d) constant speed for sometime, then with (d) decreasing acceleration
constant acceleration as it nears the Earth Answer- (b)
Answer- (c)
Q 36. A passenger in a moving train tosses a
Q 29. The rate of change of momentum of a five rupee coin. If the coin falls behind him,
body is equal to the resultant the train must be moving with a uniform
(a) energy (b) power (a) acceleration
(c) force (d) impulse (b) deceleration
Answer- (c) (c) speed
(d) velocity
Q 30. The SI unit of mechanical energy is Answer- (a)
(a) Joule (b) Watt
(c) Newton-second (d) Joule-second Q 37. The velocity-time graph for an object is
Answer- (a) shown below. Which one of the following
statements helds true for this object?
Q 31. A train travels a distance with a speed (a) The object is moving with uniform speed
of 30 km/h and returns with a speed of 50 (b) The object is in non-uniform accelerated
km/h. The average speed of the train is (c) The object is at rest
(a) 36 km/h (b) 37.5 km/h (d) The object is in non-uniform decelerated.
(c) 38 km/h (d) 40 km/h Answer- (b)
Answer- (b)
Q 38. Which of the following figure represents
Q 32. Average velocity of an object is equal uniform motion of a moving object correctly?
to the mean of its initial and final velocities, if Answer- (a)
the acceleration is
(a) uniform (b) variable Q 39. A body falls from rest. The velocity
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these acquired by falling a distance 2h is
Answer- (a) (a) 2 gh (b) gh
(c) 2gh (d) None of these
Q 33. A water tank filled upto 2 3 of its height Answer- (a)
is moving with a uniform speed. On sudden
application of the brake, the water in the tank Q 40. The velocity-time graph for an object is
would shown. Which one of the following statements
(a) move backward (b) move forward holds true for this object?
(c) be unaffected (d) rise upwards (a) The object has uniform velocity
Answer- (b) (b) The object has uniform acceleration
(c) The object has non-uniform acceleration
Q 34. When the distance, an object travels is (d) None of the above
directly proportional to the length of time, it is Answer- (a)
said to travel with
(a) zero velocity Q 42. A boy throws four stones of same
(b) uniform velocity shape, size and weight with equal speed at
(c) constant velocity different initial angles with the horizontal line.
(d) constant acceleration If the angles are 15°, 30°, 45° and 60°, at
Answer- (b) which angle the stone will cover the
maximum distance horizontally?
(a) 15° (b) 30° (d) The floor heats up on impact
(c) 45° (d) 60° Answer- (a)
Answer- (c)
Q 48. If an object having mass of 1 kg is
Q 42. Which one of the following is a vector subjected to a force of 1 N, it moves with
quantity? (a) a speed of 1 m/s
(a) Force (b) Area (b) a speed of 1 km/s
(c) Volume (d) Density (c) an acceleration of 10 m/s 2
Answer- (a) (d) an acceleration of 1 m/s 2
Answer- (d)
Q 43. External forces acting on an object
(a) are always balanced Q 49. Momentum has the same unit as that of
(b) are always unbalanced (a) couple
(c) may or may not be balanced (b) torque
(d) None of the above (c) impulse
Answer- (c) (d) moment of momentum
Answer- (c)
Q 44. When horse starts running all of a
sudden, the rider on the horse falls back Q 50. Rocket works on the principle of
because conservation of
(a) he is afraid (a) mass (b) energy
(b) he is taken a back (c) momentum (d) None of these
(c) due to inertia of motion, the lower part of Answer- (c)
his body comes in motion
(d) due to inertia of rest, the upper part of his Q 51. Two balls of different masses have the
body remains at rest same kinetic energy. The ball having greater
Answer- (d) momentum will be
(a) lighter one
Q 45. A scooter driven over an oily road (b) heavier one
generally slips because on the oily road (c) both having equal masses
(a) inertia of the scooter tyres increases (d) cannot say
(b) inertia of the scooter tyres decreases Answer- (b)
(c) friction between tyres and road increases
(d) friction between tyres and road decreases Q 52. A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls
Answer- (d) his hands backwards after holding the ball
shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper
Q 46. Newton’s second law of motion to
connects (a) exert larger force on the ball
(a) momentum and acceleration (b) reduce the force exerted by the ball on
(b) change of momentum and velocity hands
(c) rate of change of momentum andexternal (c) increase the rate of change of momentum
force (d) decrease the rate of change of
(d) rate of change of force and momentum momentum
Answer- (c) Answer- (d)

Q 47. When a ball drops onto the floor it Q 53. A cricket player moves his hands along
bounces. Why does it bounce? the direction of the moving ball while catching
(a) Newton’s third law implies that for every it in order to
action (drop) there is a reaction (bounce) (a) kill the googly of the ball
(b) The floor exerts a force on the ball during (b) conserve energy
the impact (c) conserve mass
(c) The floor is perfectly rigid (d) reduce the force of impulse
Answer- (d) (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Answer- (d)
Q 54. Consider the following statements
1. The impulse given to a body is equal to the Q 59. The chance of a vehicle to overturn
change in the momentum of the body. while negotiating a circular path depends on
2. The unit of the impulse is the same as that (a) speed of the vehicle only
of the momentum. (b) radius of the circular path only
3. The product of the force and velocity is (c) speed and height of the vehicle and radius
called the impulse. of the circular path
4. Impulse is a vector quantity. (d) height of the vehicle only
Which of the following statements is/are Answer- (c)
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 4 Q 60. Fat can be separated from milk in a
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 cream separation because of
Answer- (a) (a) cohesive force
(b) gravitational force
Q 55. It is easier to roll a barrel along the (c) centrifugal force
road than to pull it because (d) centripetal force
(a) rolling involves only one point of contact Answer- (c)
between the barrel and the earth
(b) rolling friction is considerably less than the Rotational Motion
sliding friction
(c) the full weight of the barrel does not and Gravitation
become effective while rolling
(d) None of the above
Answer- (b) Q 61. Consider the following statements
1. Mass of a body is not constant it changes
Q 56. It is difficult to walk on ice than on road from place to place.
because 2. Mass is measured by an ordinary equal
(a) ice is harder than road arm balance.
(b) road is harder than ice 3. At the equator, the mass of a body is
(c) ice does not offer any reaction, when we maximum.
push it, with our foot Which of the following statements is/are
(d) ice has a lesser friction than road correct?
Answer- (d) (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Q 57. Frictional force Answer- (b)
1. is self-adjusting force.
2. is a non-conservative force. Q 62. A line drawn from the sun to a planet,
3. is a necessary evil. moving around it, sweeps over a fixed area in
Codes a given interval of time. This is according to
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) Kepler’s law (b) Ohm’s law
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these (c) Lenz’s law (d) Newton’s law
Answer- (d) Answer- (a)

Q 58. Consider the following statements Q 63. The earth revolves around the sun in
1. Friction force is conservative force. an elliptical orbit, its speed
2. Magnetic force and electrostatic force are (a) is greatest when it is farthest from the sun
non-conservative force. (b) is greatest when it is closest of the sun
Which of the following sentences is/are (c) remains the same at all points on the orbit
correct? (d) goes on decreasing continuously
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Answer- (c)
 Q 68. A missile is launched with a velocity
Q 64. The square of time period of revolution less than the escape velocity. The sum of its
of a planet round the un is kinetic and potential energy is
(a) directly proportional to its average (a) positive
distance from the sun (b) negative
(b) directly proportional to the square of its (c) zero
average distance from the sun (d) may be positive or negative depending
(c) directly proportional to the cube of its upon its initial velocity
average distance from the sun Answer- (a)
(d) inversely proportional to its average
distance from the sun Q 69. The escape velocity of a projectile from
Answer- (c) the surface of the earth is approximately
(a) 11.3 km/s (b) 11.2 km/s
Q 65. Consider the following statements (c) 11.5 km/s (d) 11.4 km/s
1. Time period of geo-stationary satellite is 24 Answer- (b)
h.
2. Geo- stationary satellite revolves in Q 70. The velocity with which a projectile
equatorial plane in the direction of the earth’s must be fired so that it escapes the earth’s
rotation i.e. from West to East gravitation does not depend on
3. Geo-stationary satellite revolves around (a) mass of the earth
the earth at 800 km. (b) mass of the projectile
4. INSAT 2B is a polar satellite. (c) radius of the projectile’s orbit
Which of the following statements is/are (d) gravitational constant
correct? Answer- (b)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Q 71. The escape velocity of a body on the
Answer- (a) surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. If the earth’s
mass increases to twice its present value and
Q 66. Two satellites are revolving in the same the radius of the earth become half the
circular orbit, their escape velocity would become
1. masses are same (a) 5.6 km/s
2. velocities are same (b) 11.2 km/s (remain unchanged)
Codes (c) 22.4 km/s
(a) 1 and 2 (d) 44.8 km/s
(b) Only 2 Answer- (b)
(c) Only 1
(d) None of the above Q 72. The escape velocity at the moon
Answer- (b) 1. is 2.38 km/s
2. is less than the average velocity of the gas
Q 67. A communication relay satellite is able molecules at the temperature of the moon
to telecast programmes continuously from Codes
one part of the world to another, because (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) its period of revolution is greater than the (c) 1 and 2
period of rotation of the earth on its axis (d) None of the above
(b) its period of revolution is equal to the Answer- (a)
period of rotation of the earth on its axis
(c) its period of revolution is less than the Q 73. Match the following columns.
period of rotation of the earth on its axis Column I Column II
(d) its mass is less than the mass of the earth (Quantity) (Definition)
Answer- (b) A. Mass 1. Attractive force
only
B. Gravitational 2. The attractive
force force exerted by Q 78. A brick is thrown vertically from an
the earth aircraft flying 2 km above the earth. The brick
C. Escape velocity 3. It is a quantity of will fall with a
matter (a) constant speed
D. Weight 4. Body must be (b) constant velocity
projected up (c) constant acceleration
Codes (d) constant speed for sometime, then with
ABCD ABCD constant acceleration as it nears the Earth
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 Answer- (c)
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
Answer- (b) Q 79. Which one of the following statements
is not correct?
Q 74. Satellite having the same orbital period (a) Weight of a body is different on different
as the period of rotation of the earth about its planets
own axis is known as (b) Mass of a body on the earth, on the moon
(a) polar satellite and in empty space is the same
(b) stationary satellite (c) Weightlessness of a body occurs when
(c) geostationary satellite the gravitational forces acting on it is counter-
(d) INSAT balanced
Answer- (c) (d) Weight and mass of a body are equal at
sea level on the surface of the earth
Q 75. A typical black hole is always specified Answer- (d)
by Q 80. The centre of mass of a system
(a) a (curvature) singularity (a) is always at its geometric centre
(b) a horizon (b) is always anywhere inside it
(c) either a (curvature) singularity or a horizon (c) is always outside it
(d) a charge (d) may be inside or outside it
Answer- (b) Answer- (d)

Q 76. The motion of the wheel of a cycle is Q 81. Assertion (A) To unscrew a rusted nut,
(a) rectilinear we need a wrench with longer arm. Reason
(b) translatory and rotatory (R) Wrench with longer arm reduces the
(c) rotatory torque of the arm.
(d) translatory (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
Answer- (b) correct explanation of the A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
Q 77. In respect of the difference of the correct explanation of the A
gravitational force from electric and magnetic (c) A is correct but R is incorrect
forces, which one of the following statements (d) A is incorrect but R is correct
is true? Answer- (c)
(a) Gravitational force is stronger than the
other two Q 82. Consider the following statements
(b) Gravitational force is attractive only, 1. Torque is equal to the product of moment
whereas the electric and the magnetic forces of inertia and angular acceleration.
are attractive as well as repulsive 2. Torque is a vector quantity.
(c) Gravitational force has a very short range 3. The rate of change of angular acceleration
(d) Gravitational force is a long range force, is equal to the torque.
while the other two are short range forces 4. The turning effect of a body is known as
Answer- (b) torque.
Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 Answer- (b)
Answer- (d)
Q 88. A sphere of mass 40 kg is attracted by
Q 83. Consider the following quantities. a second sphere of mass 60 kg
I. Angular momentum
II. Kinetic energy
Which of the quantities given above will
remain constant for a satellite in orbit? (a) 7 cm (b) 6 cm
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) 10 cm (d) 12 cm
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Answer- (b)
Answer- (a)
Q 89. If suddenly the gravitational force of
Q 84. A boy suddenly comes and sits on a attraction between the earth and a satellite
circular rotating table. What will remain revolving around it becomes zero, then the
conserved? satellite will
(a) Angular momentum (a) continue to move in this orbit with same
(b) Potential energy velocity
(c) Linear momentum (b) move tangentially to the original orbit in
(d) Kinetic energy the same velocity
Answer- (a) (c) became stationary in its orbit
(d) move towards the earth
Q 85. A man is sitting on a revolving stool Answer- (b)
with his arm outstretched. When he suddenly
pulls his arms inside, then Q 90. The force of gravitation between two
(a) his angular velocity decreases bodies does not depend on
(b) his moment of inertia decreases (a) their separation
(c) his angular velocity remains constant (b) the product of their masses
(d) his angular momentum increases (c) the sum of their masses
Answer- (b) (d) the gravitational constant
Answer- (c)
Q 86. The cat can survive fall from a height
much more than human or any other animal. Q 91. If the distance between two objects is
It is because the cat doubled, the force of attraction between them
(a) can immediately adjust itself to land on all will
four paws and bend the legs to absorb the (a) become 1 4 times (b) become 2
impact of falling times
(b) has elastic bones (c) become 1 8 times (d) remains
(c) has thick and elastic skin same
(d) also gets injury equally with other animals, Answer- (a)
but has tremendous endurance, resistance
and speedy recovery Q 92. Consider the following statements
Answer- (a) 1. Gravitational force is always attractive in
nature.
Q 87. An athlete diving off high springboard 2. Gravitational force is a central force.
can perform a variety of exercise in tube air 3. Tides are formed in oceans due to
before entering the water body, which one of gravitational attraction between moon and
the following parameters will remain constant ocean water.
during thefall? Which of the following statements is/are
(a) The athlete’s linear momentum correct?
(b) The athlete’s angular momentum (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) The athlete’s kinetic engine (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(d) The athlete’s moment of inertia Answer- (d)
 Q 98. A body has a mass of 6 kg on the
Q 93. The acceleration due to gravity earth, when measured on the moon, its mass
(a) has the same value everywhere in space would be
(b) has the same value everywhere on the (a) nearly 1 kg (b) less than 1 kg
earth (c) less than 6 kg (d) 6 kg
(c) varies with the latitude on the earth Answer- (d)
(d) is greater on the moon due to its smaller
diameter Q 99. Match the following columns.
Answer- (c) Column I Column II
A. g is maximum 1. At the moon
Q 94. Two objects of different masses falling B. g is minimum 2. At pole
freely near the surface of the moon would C. g is zero 3. At the equator
(a) have same velocities at any instant D. g is 1/6 of 4. At centre of the
(b) have different accelerations original value earth
(c) experience forces of same magnitude
(d) undergo a change in their media Codes
Answer- (a) ABCD ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
Q 95. An apple falls from a tree because of (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
gravitational attraction between the earth and Answer- (b)
apple. If F1 is the magnitude of force exerted
by the earth on the apple and F2 is the Properties of Matter
magnitude of force exerted by apple on the
earth, then
(a) F1 is very much greater than F2
Q 100. Which one of the following statements
(b) F2 is very much greater than F1
is true?
(c) F1 is only a little greater than F2
(a) Temperatures differing 25° on the
(d) F1 and F2 are equal
Fahrenheit (F) scale must differ by 45° on the
Answer- (d)
celsius (C) scale
(b) 0°F corresponds to − ° 32 C
Q 96. When an object is thrown up, the force
(c) Temperatures which differ by 10° on the
of gravity
celsius scale must differ by 18° on the
(a) is opposite to the direction of motion
Fahrenheit scale
(b) is in the same direction as the direction of
(d) Water at 90°C is warmer than water at
motion
202°F.
(c) decreases as it rises up
Answer- (c)
(d) increases as it rises up
Answer- (a)
Q 101. Consider the following statements
1. Mercury is used in clinical thermometer for
Q 97. Assertion (A) Moon’s gravity is
measuring body temperature.
equivalent to one-eighth of the earth’s gravity.
2. Mercury shines and is easily observable.
Reason (R) Due to less gravity, moon is
Which of the following statements is/are
unable to retain its atmosphere.
correct?
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
correct explanation of A
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the
Answer- (a)
correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect
Q 102. Specific heat of a substance depends
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct
upon
Answer- (d)
(a) mass of the substance
(b) volume of the substance
(c) shape of the body
(d) nature of the substance Q 107. Real expansion of a liquid is always
Answer- (d) (a) greater than apparent expansion
(b) less than apparent expansion
Q 103. Vapour pressure of liquid depends (c) equal to apparent expansion
upon the (d) None of the above
(a) quantity of heat Answer- (a)
(b) temperature of liquid
(c) specific heat of liquid Q 108. Match the following columns.
(d) density of liquid Column I Column II
Answer- (b) A. Bimetallic strip 1. Radiation from a
hot body
Q 104. Two bodies A and B are of same B. Steam engine 2. Energy
mass and same amount of heat is given to conversion
both of them. If the temperature of A C. Incondescent 3. Melting
decreases more than that of B because of Lamp
heat addition, then D. Electric fuse 4. Thermal
(a) the specific heat capacity of A is more expansion
than that of B of solids
(b) the specific heat capacity of A is less than Codes
that of B ABCD ABCD
(c) both A and B have the same specific heat (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 2 1 4
capacity but A has greater thermal (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
conductivity Answer- (a)
(d) both A and B have the same specific heat
capacity but B has greater thermal Q 109. Match the following columns.
conductivity Column I Column II
Answer- (b) A. Freezing point 1. 0°C
of
Q 105. Consider the following statements Mercury
1. Specific heat is amount of heat required to B. Freezing point 2. − 115°C
raise the temperature of a unit of the of ice
substance by 1°C. C. Freezing point 3. − 39°C
2. The specific heat of water is maximum of alcohol
3. Gases have no specific heat. Codes
Which of the following statements is/are ABC ABC
correct? (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 1 2 (d) 1 3 2
(c) 2 and 1 (d) 1 and 3 Answer- (c)
Answer- (a)
Q 110. Latent heat of fusion of any body
Q 106. Consider the following statements (a) is independent of pressure
1. Cooking utensils have low specific heat (b) is dependent of volume
and high conductivity. (c) is always same
2. Specific heat is the amount of heat (d) varies under different conditions
required to raise the temperature of unit mass Answer- (c)
of mass of the substance by 1°C
Which of the following statements is/are Q 111. Water is used in hot water bottles in
correct? preference to any other liquid because
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (a) water has greatest latent heat
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these (b) water is good conductor of heat
Answer- (a) (c) water has greatest specific heat
(d) water has high boiling point
Answer- (c) Q 116. A glowing electric bulb becomes hot
after some time because the heat from
Q 112. Consider the following statements filament is transmitted to the glass bulb by
1. Steam is more harmful for human body (a) conduction (b) convection
than the boiling water in case of burn. (c) radiation (d) another process
2. Boiling water contains more heat than Answer- (c)
steam.
Which of the following statements is/are Q 117. Diesel engine
correct? 1. works with a oil plug.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. is associated with the risk of explosion.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these 3. has larger efficiency (58%)
Answer- (a) Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Q 113. Factors affecting evaporation of a (a) Only 1
liquid are (b) 2 and 3
1. the nature of the liquid (c) Only 2
2. temperature of surrounding (d) All of the above
3. humidity of surrounding air Answer- (a)
4. temperature of liquid
Which of the following statements is/are Q 118. If there were no atmosphere, the
correct? average temperature on the
(a) Only 2 surface of the earth would be
(b) Only 3 (a) higher (b) lower
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) same as today (d) 0° C
(d) All of the above Answer- (b)
Answer- (d)
Q 119. Transfer of heat energy from the sun
Q 114. Consider the following statements to the moon takes place by
1. Water kept in an open vessel will quickly (a) radiation only
evaporate on the surface of the moon. (b) radiation and conduction
2. The temperature at the surface of the (c) radiation and convection
moon is much higher than the boiling point of (d) radiation, conduction and convection
the water. Answer- (a)
Which of the following statements is/are
correct? Q 120. Material used for making cooking
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 utensils should have
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these (a) low specific heat and high thermal
Answer- (a) conductivity
(b) high specific heat and high thermal
Q 115. Heat energy of an object is conductivity
(a) the average energy of the molecules of (c) low specific heat and low thermal
the object conductivity
(b) the total energy of the molecules of the (d) high specific heat and low thermal
object conductivity
(c) the average velocity of the molecules of Answer- (a)
the object
(d) the average potential energy of the Q 121. The wet clothes dry more quickly on a
molecules of the object warm day because
Answer- (b) (a) air carries less moisture
(b) air can absorb moisture rather quickly
(c) high temperature of the air helps fast
evaporation
(d) All of the above while the other half with a black one. In this
Answer- (d) context, which one among the following
statements is correct?
Q 122. A glass chimney stops an oil lamp (a) Ice melts more easily under black wrap
from smoking because (b) Ice melts more easily under white wrap
(a) it increases the supply of oxygen to the (c) No ice melts at all under the black wrap
flame by connection (d) No ice melts at all under the white wrap
(b) the heat produced ensures complete Answer- (a)
combustion of carbon particles
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Q 128. Mr. X was advised by an architect to
(d) None of the above make outer walls of his house with bricks.
Answer- (b) The correct reason is that such walls
(a) make the building stronger
Q 123. Consider the following statements (b) help keeping inside cooler in summer and
1. The water in a vessel placed on fire warmer in winter
becomes hot by convection. (c) prevent seepage of mositure from outside
2. Heat is also transmitted in the form of (d) protect the building from lightning
electromagnetic waves from a hot body. Answer- (b)
Which of the following statements is/are
correct? Q 129. The blackboard seems black because
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 it
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these (a) reflects every colour
Answer- (c) (b) does not reflect any colour
(c) absorbs black colour
Q 124. A perfect black body has the unique (d) reflects black colour
characteristic feature as Answer- (b)
(a) a good absorber only
(b) a good radiator only Q 130. Consider the following statements
(c) a good absorber and a good radiator 1. Rough surface is a better radiator than
(d) Neither a radiator nor an absorber smooth surface.
Answer- (c) 2. Highly polished surface is a very good
radiator.
Q 125. Nights are cooler in the deserts than 3. Black surface is a better absorber of
in the plains because radiation than a white one.
(a) sand radiates heat more quickly than the 4. Black surface is a better radiator than white
earth one.
(b) the sky remains clear most of the time Which of the following statements is/are
(c) sand absorbs heat more quickly than the correct?
earth (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer- (a) Answer- (d)

Q 126. We are asked to wear white clothes in Q 131. A polished plate with a rough black
summer because spot is heated to a high temperature and
(a) they look more graceful taken in a dark room, then,
(b) it is a convention (a) spot will appear brighter than the plate
(c) they are visible from long distance (b) spot will appear darker than the plate
(d) None of the above (c) both will appear equally bright
Answer- (d) (d) Neither the spot, nor the plate will be
visible
Q 127. Half portion of a rectangular piece of Answer- (a)
ice is wrapped with a white piece of cloth
Q 132. The temperature of the stars can be Q 138. A ray of white light strikes the surface
estimated by of an object. If all the colours are reflected the
(a) Wien’s displacement law surface would appear
(b) Rayleigh-Jeans law (a) black (b) white
(c) Faraday’s law (c) grey (d) opaque
(d) Maxwell-Boltzmann law Answer- (b)
Answer- (a)
Q 139. Two layers of a cloth of equal
Q 133. A solid copper sphere of radius R and thickness provide warmer covering than a
hollow sphere of the same material and outer single layer of cloth with double the thickness.
radius R are heated to the same temperature Why?
and allowed to cool in the same environment, (a) Because of the air encapsulated between
the two layers
(a) hollow sphere cools faster (b) Since effective thickness of two layers is
(b) solid sphere cools faster more
(c) both spheres cool at the same rate (c) Fabric of the cloth plays the role
(d) in the beginning solid sphere cools faster, (d) Weaving of the cloth plays the role
at the end hollow sphere cools faster Answer- (a)
Answer- (a)
Q 140. Which one of the following physical
Q 134. If the door of a running refrigerator in quantities is the same for molecules of all
a closed room is kept open, what will be the gases at a given temperature?
net effect on the room? (a) Speed (b) Mass
(a) It will cool the room (c) Kinetic energy (d) Momentum
(b) It will heat the room Answer- (c)
(c) It will make no difference on the average
(d) It will make thte temperature go up and Q 141. Two systems are said to be in thermal
down equilibrium, if and only if
Answer- (b) (a) there can be a heat flow between them
even if they are at different temperatures
Q 135. The gas used in a refrigerator is (b) there cannot be a heat flow between them
(a) cooled down on flowing even if they are at different temperatures
(b) heated up on flowing (c) there is no heat flow between them
(c) cooled down, when compressed (d) their temperatures are slightly different
(d) cooled down, when expanded Answer- (c)
Answer- (d)
Q 142. What is the value of stress in a wire of
Q 136. The celsius temperature is a/an steel having radius of 2 mm if 10 KN of force
(a) relative temperature is applied on it?
(b) absolute temperature
(c) specific temperature
(d) approximate temperature
Answer- (c)
Answer- (a)
Q 137. The gas used in a refrigerator is
(a) cooled down on flowing Q 143. Why the spring is made up of steel in
(b) heated up on flowing comparison of copper?
(c) cooled down when compressed (a) Copper is more costly than steel
(d) cooled down when expanded (b) Copper is more elastic than steel
Answer- (d) (c) Steel is more elastic than copper
(d) None of the above
Answer- (c)
 3. Atmospheric pressure decrease with
Q 144. Match the following columns. altitude.
Column I Column II 4. Atmospheric pressure is 700 torr.
(Property) (Example) Which of the following statements is/are
A. Elastic 1. Iron correct?
B. Plastic 2. Steel (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
C. Ductile 3. Quartz (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 4
D. Perfectly elastic 4. Paraffin wax Answer- (c)
Codes
ABCD ABCD Q 149.
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
Answer- (a)

Q 145. Consider the following statements

1. The internal restoring force acting per unit
area of cross-section of the deformed body is Answer- (a)
called stress.
2. The ratio of stress to strain is a constant for Q 150. The apparent weight of a steel sphere
a material and is called modulus of elasticity immersed in various liquids is measured
3. Air is more elastic than water. using a spring balance. The greatest reading
Which of the following statements is/are is obtained for the liquid
correct? (a) having the smaller density
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (b) having the largest density
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 3 (c) in which the sphere was submerged
Answer- (c) deepest
(d) having the greatest volume
Q 146. A 50 kg girl wearing high heal shoes Answer- (c)
balances on a single heal. The heal is circular
with a diameter 1.0 cm. The pressure exerted Q 151. Hydraulic brakes in automatic vehicles
by the heal on the horizontal floor is (g= 9.8 are based on
N) kg (a) Archimedes’ principle
(b) Toricellis equation
(c) Pascal’s law
(d) Bernoulli’s equation
Answer- (c)
Answer- (a)
Q 152. If a ship moves from fresh water into
Q 147. The pressure exerted on the ground sea water, it will
by a man is greatest (a) sink completely
(a) when he lies down on the ground (b) sink a little bit
(b) when he stands on the toes of one foot (c) rise a little higher
(c) when he stands with both foot flat on the (d) remain unaffected
ground Answer- (c)
(d) All of the above yield the same pressure
Answer- (b) Q 153. Archimedes’ principle is used
1. determining the relative density of a
Q 148. Consider the following statements substance.
1. Pressure is measured by barometer. 2. in designing ships and submarines
2. Atmospheric pressure is measured by 3. measuring a terminal velocity in air.
manometer. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 2. Floatation of needle on water.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 2 Which of the following statements is/are
Answer- (c) correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
Q 154. A needle made of steel floats in water, (c) Only 2 (d) Both are wrong
if it is placed horizontally because of Answer- (a)
(a) capillary action
(b) interference Q 161. Cohesive force is experienced
(c) viscosity between
(d) surface tension (a) magnetic substance
Answer- (d) (b) molecules of different substances
(c) molecules of same substances
Q 155. If the temperature of a liquid is raised, (d) None of the above
then its surface tension is Answer- (c)
(a) decreased (b) increased
(c) irregular (d) equal to viscosity Q 162. Which one of the following statements
Answer- (a) is correct?
(a) The angle of contact of water with glass is
Q 156. More liquid rises in a thin tube acute while that of mercury with glass is
because of obtuse
(a) larger value of radius (b) The angle of contact of water with glass is
(b) larger value of surface tension obtuse while that of mercury with glass is
(c) small value of surface tension acute
(d) small value of radius (c) Both the angle of contact of water with
Answer- (d) glass and that of mercury with glass are
acute
Q 157. Coatings used on raincoat are (d) None of the above
waterproof because Answer- (a)
(a) water is absorbed by the coating
(b) cohesive force becomes greater Q 163. In an oil lamp, the oil rises up in the
(c) water is not scattered away by the coating wick because
(d) angle of contact decrease (a) oil is volatile
Answer- (b) (b) oil is very light
(c) of the capillary action
Q 158. Small droplets of a liquid are spherical (d) of the surface tension
in shape because of Answer- (c)
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension
(c) density (d) conductivity Q 164. The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube
Answer- (b) is due to
(a) diffusion (b) osmosis
Q 159. A U shaped wire is dipped in a soap (c) surface tension (d) viscosity
solution and removed. The thin soap film Answer- (c)
formed between the wire and a light slider
supports a weight of 1.5 ×10−2 N. The length Q 165. The action of a nib spilt at the top is
of the slider is 30 m. What is the surface explained by
tension of the film? (a) gravity flow (b) diffusion of fluid
(a) 0.025 N/m (b) 0.052 N/m (c) capillary action (d) osmosis of liquid
(c) 25 N/m (d) None of these Answer- (c)
Answer- (a)
Q 166. Choose the wrong statement among
Q 160. Due to surface tension the followings.
1. Dancing of camphor on water.
(a) Surface tension is a molecular Q 170. Consider the following statements.
phenomenon 1. The property of the liquid by virtue of which
(b) Tiny drops of a liquid are spherical due to it opposes the relative motion between its
spherical tension adjacent layers is known as viscosity.
(c) Oil rises in the wick due to capillarity 2. Viscosity of liquid increases with increase
(d) Cold drink rises in the straw due to in pressure.
capillarity 3. Viscosity of a fluid is measurement by its
Answer- (d) coefficient of viscosity.
4. Viscosity is not property of gases.
Q 167. Due to capillary action Which of the following statements is/are
1. the oil in the wick of the lamp rises. correct?
2. refill pen writes (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
Which of the following statements is/are (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4
correct? Answer- (a)
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 Q 171. Hair of a shaving brush cling together
(c) 1 and 2 when the brush is removed from water due to
(d) None of the above (a) viscosity (b) surface tension
Answer- (a) (c) friction (d) elasticity
Answer- (b)
Q 168. Machine parts get jammed in winter,
because Q 172. Match the following columns.
(a) the viscosity of the lubricant used in Column I Column II
machine parts increases with the decrease in A. Hook’s law 1. Lactometers
temperature B. Pascal Law 2. Elasticity
(b) the viscosity of lubricant used in machine C. Archimedes’ 3. Hydraulic press
parts decreases with the decrease in Principle
temperature D. Stokes’ law 4. Terminal
(c) the inertia of machine parts increases with velocity
the decrease in temperature Codes
(d) the inertia of machine parts increases with ABCD ABCD
the decrease in temperature (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
Answer- (a) (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
Answer- (a)
Q 169. After rising a short distance the
smooth column of smoke from a cigarette Q 173. A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical
breaks up into an irregular and random vessel upto a certain height. If this vessel is
pattern. In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid replaced by another cylindrical vessel having
flowing past an obstacle breaks up into half the area of cross-section of the bottom,
eddies and vortices which give the flow the pressure on the bottom will
irregular velocity components transverse to (a) remain unaffected
the flow direction. Other examples include the (b) be reduced to half the earlier pressure
wakes left in water by moving ships the (c) be increased to twice the earlier pressure
sound produced by whistling and by wind (d) be reduced to one-fourth the earlier
instruments. These examples are the results pressure
of Answer- (c)
(a) laminar flow of air
(b) streamline flow of air Q 174. It is difficult to cut things with a blunt
(c) turbulent flow of air knife because
(d) viscous flow at low speed (a) the pressure exerted by knife for a given
Answer- (c) force increases with increase in bluntness
(b) a sharp edge decreases the pressure (c) increases the viscosity of water and oil
exerted by knife for a given force (d) decreases the viscosity of detergent
(c) a blunt knife decreases the pressure for a mixed water Heat
given force Answer- (a)
(d) a blunt knife decreases the area of
intersection Q 179. The value of − 30°C on Fahrenheit
Answer- (c) scale is
(a) − ° 54 F (b) 32° F
Q 175. When deep sea fishes are brought to (c) 22° F (d) − ° 22 F
the surface of the sea, their bodies burst. This Answer- (d)
is because the blood in their bodies flows at
very Q 180. Consider the following statements
(a) high speed 1. Fahrenheit is the smallest unit measuring
(b) high pressure temperature.
(c) low speed 2. Fahrenheit was the first temperature scale
(d) low pressure used for measuring temperature.
Answer- (a) Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Q 176. Which type/types of pen uses/use (a) Only 1
capillary action in addition to gravity for flow (b) Only 2
of ink? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Fountain pen (d) None of the above
(b) Ballpoint pen Answer- (a)
(c) Gel pen
(d) Both ballpoint and gel pens Q 181. The temperature for which the reading
Answer- (a) on Celsius and Fahrenheit scales are
identical, is
Q 177. After rising a short distance the (a) − ° 40 C (b) 40° C
smooth column of smoke from a cigarette (c) − ° 30 C (d) 30º C
breaks up into an irregular and random Answer- (a)
pattern. In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid
flowing fast an obstacle breaks up into eddies Q 182. Temperature of the body measures
and vortices which give the flow irregular (a) hotness of the body
velocity components transverse to the flow (b) amount of heat contained in the body
direction. Other examples include the wakes (c) degree of hotness of the body
left in water by moving ships the sound (d) the average energy of molecules of the
produced by whistling and by wind object
instruments. These examples are the results Answer- (c)
of
(a) laminar flow of air Q 183. The instrument used to mark the
(b) streamline flow of air highest fixed point of a thermometer is
(c) turbulent flow of air (a) pyrometer (b) hydrometer
(d) viscous flow at low speed (c) spherometer (d) calorimeter
Answer- (c) Answer- (a)

Q 178. Dirty cloths containing grease and oil Q 184. P and Q are two objects. The
stains are cleaned by adding detergents to temperature of P is greater than that of Q.
water. Stains are removed because detergent This means that
(a) reduces drastically the surface tension (a) the heat content of P will always be
between water and oil greater than that of Q
(b) increases the surface tension between
water and oil
(b) the average potential energy of P is 1. The frequency of sound waves is 20 Hz to
greater than the average potential energy of 20000 Hz.
Q 2. Sound waves are transverse mechanical
(c) the total energy of P is greater than the waves.
total energy of the molecules of Q 3. Sound waves travel in vacuum.
(d) the molecules of P are moving faster on 4. Sound waves have low frequency and high
the average than the molecules of Q wavelength.
Answer- (d) Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Oscillations and Waves (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) Only 4
Answer- (c)
Q 185. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
Q 190. Ultrasonic waves are used
(Waves) (Sources)
1. to investigate the action of heart.
A. Ultrasonic 1. Ocean waves
2. for sending signals.
waves
3. measuring the depth of sea
B. Sound waves 2. Energetic
Which of the following statements is/are
disturbance
correct?
C. Infrasonic 3. Generated by
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
waves vibrating bodies
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
D. Shock waves 4. Wave produce
Answer- (d)
by bat
Codes
Q 191. Consider the following statements
ABCD ABCD
1. Speed of sound basically depends upon
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 2 1 4
elasticity and density of medium 2. Speed of
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
sound is changed by the increase or
Answer- (a)
decrease of pressure
3. The speed of sound is more in humid air
Q 186. Which of the following statement is
than in dry air.
incorrect?
Which of the following statements is/are
(a) Sound travels in straight line
correct?
(b) Sound is a form of energy
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Sound travels in the form of waves
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these
(d) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air
Answer- (a)
Answer- (d)
Q 192. A woman’s voice is shriller than a
Q 187. Sound travels in rocks in the form of
man’s due to
(a) longitudinal elastic waves only
(a) higher frequency
(b) transverse elastic waves only
(b) higher amplitude
(c) both longitudinal and transverse elastic
(c) lower frequency
waves
(d) weak vocal chords
(d) non-elastic waves
Answer- (a)
Answer- (c)
Q 193. The phenomenon of beats can take
Q 188. Ultrasonic waves are those waves
place
(a) to which man can hear
(a) for longitudinal waves only
(b) man cannot hear
(b) for transverse waves only
(c) are of high velocity
(c) for both longitudinal and transverse waves
(d) of high amplitude
(d) for sound waves only
Answer- (b)
Answer- (c)
Q 189. Consider the following statements
Q 194. Doppler’s effect is used Q 200. Which one of the following statements
1. to determine the velocities of which stars is correct?
and galaxies are moving toward or away from The velocity of sound
the earth (a) does not depend upon the nature of
2. to increase the pressure. media
Which of the following statements is/are (b) is maximum in gases and minimum in
correct? liquids
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) is maximum in solids and minimum in
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these liquids
Answer- (a) (d) is maximum in solids and minimum in
gases
Q 195. The time period of a simple pendulum Answer- (d)
having a spherical wooden bob is 2 s. If the
bob is replaced by a metallic one twice as Q 201. Which one of the following statements
heavy, the time period will be is not correct? e 2016 I
(a) more than 2s (b) 2s (a) Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in
(c) 1s (d) less than 1s nature
Answer- (b) (b) Sound waves having frequency below 20
Hz are known as ultrasonic waves
Q 196. Two identical piano wires have same (c) Sound waves having higher amplitudes
fundamental frequency when kept under the are louder
same tension. What will happen if tension of (d) Sound waves with high audible
one of the wire is slightly increased and both frequencies are sharp
the wires are made to vibrate Answer- (b)
simultaneously?
(a) Noise b) Beats Q 202. A person rings a metallic bell near a
(c) Resonance (d) Non-linear effects strong concrete wall. He hears the echo after
Answer- (a) 0.3 s. If the sound moves with a speed of 240
m/s, how far is the wall from him?
Q 197. In SONAR, we use (a) 102 m (b) 11 m
(a) ultrasonic waves (c) 51 m (d) 30 m
(b) infrasonic waves Answer- (c)
(c) radio waves
(d) audible sound waves Q 203. The force acting on a particle
Answer- (a) executing simple harmonic motion is
(a) directly proportional to the displacement
Q 198. Motion of an oscillating liquid column and is directed away from the mean position
in a U-tube is (b) inversely proportional to the displacement
(a) periodic but not simple harmonic and is directed towards the mean position
(b) non-periodic (c) directly proportional to the displacement
(c) simple harmonic and time period is and is directed towards the mean position
independent of the density of the liquid (d) inversely proportional to the displacement
(d) simple harmonic and time period depends and is directed away from the mean position
on the density of the liquid Answer- (c)
Answer- (c)
Q 204. Three pendulum clocks A B, and C
Q 199. An oscilloscope is an instrument are synchronised on the surface of the earth
which allows us to see waves produced by at the sea-level. The clock A is taken to the
(a) visible light (b) X-rays top of a mountain and the clock B is taken
(c) sound (d) γ-rays under a deep mine. The temperature at the
Answer- (a) three locations are assumed to be the same.
On the basis of the above, which one of the Answer- (b)
following is correct?
(a) Both A and B run faster than C Q 211. Consider the following statements
(b) Both A and B run slower than C 1. Waves on springs or sound waves in air
(c) A runs slower than B but runs faster than are longitudinal waves.
C 2. Waves on surface of water is mechanical
(d) B runs slower than C but A runs faster waves.
than C 3. Mechanical waves are used in
Answer- (b) communication, telephony
4. Mechanical waves can propagate in solid,
Q 205. The length of a simple pendulum liquid and gas.
becomes four times the original length. If the Which of the following statements is/are
initial time period of pendulum is T, then the correct.
new time period is (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(a) T (b) 2T (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3
(c) 3T (d) 4T Answer- (a)
Answer- (b)
Q 212. The most familiar form of radiant
Q 206. If the amplitude of a simple pendulum energy in sunlight that causes tanning and
is made one-fourth, its time period will sunburning of human skin, is called
become (a) ultraviolet radiation
(a) twice (b) half (b) visible radiation
(c) one-fourth (d) will not change (c) infrared radiation
Answer- (d) (d) microwaves radiation
Answer- (a)
Q 207. Water waves are
(a) transverse (b) longitudinal Q 213. Microwaves are
(c) partly transverse, partly longitudinal 1. used in photography.
(d) sometimes longitudinal, sometimes 2. absorbed by water molecules and living
transverse tissue internal heating will damage or kill
Answer- (a) cells.
Which of the following statements is/are
Q 208. Energy is not transferred by correct?
(a) transverse progressive waves (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(b) longitudinal progressive waves (c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) stationary waves Answer- (c)
(d) electromagnetic waves
Answer- (c) Q 214. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
Q 209. Waves inside a gas are A. Infrared rays 1. Medical tracers
(a) longitudinal B. γ-rays 2.TV control
(b) transverse C. Radio waves 3. Making ions
(c) partly longitudinal and party transverse D. Ultraviolet rays 4. Communication
(d) Neither longitudinal nor transverse Codes
Answer- (a) ABCD ABCD
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
Q 210. What type of vibrations are produced (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 4 2 1
in a sitar wire? Answer- (b)
(a) Longitudinal vibration
(b) Transverse vibration Q 215. Sound waves travel with a speed of
(c) Both (a) and (b) about 330 m/s. The wavelength of sound
(d) None of the above whose frequency is 550 Hz is
(a) 0.8 m (b) 8.4 m Answer- (d)
(c) 0.6 m (d) 0.2 m
Answer- (c)

Q 216. Which one of the following statements Optics

is correct?
(a) Sound waves in air are longitudinal while Q 221. Which one of the following sets of
light waves are transverse colour combinations is added in colour vision
(b) Sound waves in air are transverse while in TV?
light waves are longitudinal (a) Yellow, green and blue
(c) Both sound and light waves in air are (b) White, black, red and green
transverse (c) Red, green and blue
(d) Both sound and light waves in air are (d) Orange, pink and blue
longitudinal Answer- (c)
Answer- (a)
Q 222. If the light moving in a straight line
Q 217. Microphone is a device in which bends by a small but fixed angle, it may be a
(a) amplification is not required at all case of
(b) sound waves are directly transmitted (a) diffraction
(c) sound waves are converted into electrical (b) dispersion
energy and then reconverted into sound after (c) reflection
transmission (d) refraction and dispersion
(d) electrical energy is converted into sound Answer- (d)
waves
Answer- (c) Q 223. If a glass rod is immersed in a liquid of
the same refractive index, then it will
Q 218. Sound travels faster when the (a) look longer (b) disappear
medium is of (c) look bent (d) None of these
(a) low density (b) medium density Answer- (d)
(c) high density (d) vacuum
Answer- (c) Q 224. Why is it difficult to see through fog?
(a) Rays of light suffer total internal reflection
Q 219. A source of sound has a noise level of from the fog droplets
20 dB. If the intensity of sound produced by (b) Rays of light are scattered by the fog
the source increases by 100 times, the noise droplets
level becomes (c) Fog droplets absorb light
(a) 30 dB (b) 40 dB (d) The refractive index of fog is extremely
(c) 400 dB (d) 20000 dB high
Answer- (b) Answer- (b)

Q 220. Which among the following statement Q 225. The colour of the sky is blue because
is correct regarding the audible sound of
waves? (a) combination of various lights producing
1. Its frequency is greater than 20000 Hz. blue colour
2. It is used in measuring the depth of sea. (b) scattering of light by dust particles
3. The liquid from which the audible sound (c) diffraction of light
waves pass gets hot. (d) reflection of light by water droplets
The correct statement(s) is/are Answer- (b)
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 Q 226. Rainbow is formed due to a
(c) Only 1 combination of
(d) None of the above (a) refraction and scattering
(b) refraction and absorption
(c) dispersion and focusing Q 231. The principle of working of periscope
(d) total internal reflection and dispersion is based on
Answer- (d) (a) reflection only
(b) refraction only
Q 227. As the sunlight passes through (c) reflection and interference
the atmosphere, the rays are scattered by (d) reflection and refraction
tiny particles of dust, pollen, soot and other Answer- (d)
minute particulate matters present there.
However, when we look up, the sky appears Q 232. For a telescope, the focal lengths
blue during mid-day because of two lenses are 30 cm and 10 cm. One acts
(a) blue light is scattered most as objective and other as eyepiece. The
(b) blue light is absorbed most length of the telescope is
(c) blue light is reflected most (a) 40 cm (b) 3 cm
(d) ultraviolet and yellow component of (c) 200 cm (d) 30 cm
sunlight combine Answer- (a)
Answer- (a)
Q 233. Consider the following statements
Q 228. Consider the following statements 1. Periscope consists of two plane mirror
1. Clear sky appears blue due to poor inclined at an angle of 45°.
scattering of blue wavelength of visible light. 2. The principle of working of periscope is
2. Red part of light shows more scattering based upon reflection and refraction.
than blue light in the atmosphere. Which of the following statements is/are
3. In the absence of atmosphere, there would correct?
be no scattering of light and sky will look (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
black. (c) Only 3 (d) None of these
Which of the statements given above is/are Answer- (b)
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 Q 234. Dispersion process forms spectrum
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these due to white light falling on a prism. The light
Answer- (c) wave with shortest wavelength
(a) refracts the most
Q 229. We cannot see the details of a distant (b) does not change the path
object because (c) refracts the least
(a) there is a defect in our eyes (d) is reflected by the side of the prism
(b) the light rays are absorbed and scattered Answer- (c)
in this way
(c) there is a limit of resolution for our eyes Q 235. A ray of white light strikes the surface
(d) the objects are too far away of an object. If all the colours are reflected the
Answer- (b) surface would appear
(a) black (b) white
Q 230. Match the following columns. (c) grey (d) opaque
Column I Column II Answer- (b)
A. Myopia 1. Cylindrical
B. Hypermetropia 2. Bifocal Q 236. Which one among the following
C. Presbyopia 3. Convex colours has the highest wavelength?
D. Astigmatism 4. Concave (a) Violet (b) Green
Codes (c) Yellow (d) Red
ABCD ABCD Answer- (d)
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
Answer- (a)
Q 237. No matter how far you stand from a (c) concave mirrors with very small focal
mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror lengths
is likely to be (d) convex mirrors
(a) either plane or convex Answer- (d)
(b) plane only
(c) concave Q 243. The focal length of the lens of a
(d) convex only normal human eye is about
Answer- (a) (a) 25 cm (b) 1 m
(c) 2.5 mm (d) 2.5 cm
Q 238. The position, relative size and nature Answer- (c)
of the image formed by a concave lens for an
object placed at infinity are respectively Q 244. A myopic person has a power of − 1
(a) at focus, diminished and virtual 25. D. What is the focal length and nature of
(b) at focus, diminished and real his lens?
(c) between focus and optical centre, (a) 50 cm and convex lens
diminished and virtual (b) 80 cm and convex lens
(d) between focus and optical centre, (c) 50 cm and concave lens
magnified and real (d) −80 cm and concave lens
Answer- (a) Answer- (d)

Q 239. In the phenomenon of dispersion of Q 245. The mirror used in vehicles as rear
light, the light wave of shortest wavelength is view mirror is
(a) accelerated and refracted the most (a) convex mirror
(b) slowed down and refracted the most (b) concave mirror
(c) accelerated and refracted the least (c) plane mirror
(d) slowed down and refracted the least (d) plano-concave mirror
Answer- (c) Answer- (a)

Q 240. The upper and lower portions in Q 246. Viewfinders, used in automobiles to
common type of bi-focal lenses are locate the position of the vehicles behind, are
respectively made of
(a) concave and convex (a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror
(b) convex and concave (c) convex mirror (d) parabolic mirror
(c) both concave of different focal lengths Answer- (c)
(d) both convex of different focal lengths
Answer- (a) Q 247. Concave mirrors are used
1. as reflectors in automobiles and hand
Q 241. A person standing 1m in front of a torches.
plane mirror approaches the mirror by 40 cm. 2. in the field of solar energy to focus sun’s
The new distance between the person and ray for heating solar furnaces.
his image in the plane mirror is 3. as rear-view mirror in automobiles.
(a) 60 cm (b) 1.2 m Which of the following statements is/are
(c) 1.4 m (d) 2.0 m correct?
Answer- (b) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 1 (d) Only 1
Q 242. The outside rear view mirror of Answer- (a)
modern automobiles is marked with warning
‘objects in mirror are closer than they appear’. Q 248. A coin immersed in water pond
Such mirrors are appears to be raised, when viewed from the
(a) plane mirrors top. What is this due to?
(b) concave mirrors with very large focal (a) Total internal reflection of light
lengths (b) Scattering of light
(c) Reflection of light 1. Twinkling of stars
(d) Refraction of light 2. Oval shape of sun in the morning and
Answer- (d) evening
3. Sparking of diamond
Q 249. Sun appears reddish during the rising 4. Mirage and looming
and setting time, because Which of the following statements is/are
(a) the atmosphere absorbs short correct?
wavelengths more than long wavelengths (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(b) red light is emitted in huge amount by it (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
(c) the atmosphere absorbs long wavelength Answer- (b)
more than short wavelengths
(d) light of shorter wavelengths are scattered Q 254. Efficient working of optical fibre is
to a greater extent than the longer dependent on which one of the following?
wavelengths by the atmosphere (a) Reflection
Answer- (d) (b) Interference
(c) Diffraction
Q 250. The phenomenon of mirage is due to (d) Total internal reflection
(a) change in refractive index of air with Answer- (b)
change in temperature
(b) total internal reflection Q 255. Condition of total internal reflection
(c) absorption of light by air at high 1. Light must be propagating from denser to
temperature rarer medium.
(d) polarisation of light on reflection 2. The critical angle must exceeds the angle
Answer- (b) of incidence.
Which of the following statements is/are
Q 251. Which one of the following correct?
phenomenon cannot be attributed to the (a) Only 1
refraction of light? (b) Only 2
(a) Twinkling of stars (c) 1 and 2
(b) Mirage (d) None of the above
(c) Rainbow Answer- (a)
(d) Red shift
Answer- (c) Q 256. Where should an object be placed, so
that a real and inverted image of the same
Q 252. Match the following columns. size is obtained using a convex lens?
Column I Column II (a) Between the lens and its axis
A. Intensity of light 1. Properties of the (b) At the focus
medium (c) At twice the focal length
B. Colour of light 2. Refractive index (d) At infinity
of medium Answer- (b)
C. Velocity of light 3. Amplitude of
light Q 257. A thin lens has a focal length of
D. Propagation of 4. Frequency of −25 cm. Then, the nature of lens is
light light (a) concave lens of power 4 D
Codes (b) convex lens of power 4 D
ABCD ABCD (c) convex lens of power 25 D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
Answer- (c) Answer- (a)

Q 253. Which of the following illustrations is Q 258. Parallel light rays entering a convex
of refraction? lens always converge at
(a) centre of curvature Answer- (d)
(b) the focal plane
(c) the principal focus Q 265. Two beams of light, one red and the
(d) a point on the principal axis other green, fall on the same spot on a white
Answer- (c) screen. The colour on the screen will appear
to be
Q 259. We always get real image in a convex (a) magenta (b) blue
lens, if object is situated beyond (c) yellow (d) cyan
(a) optical centre Answer- (c)
(b) focus
(c) centre of curvature Q 266. Consider the following statements
(d) None of the above 1. The colour of the green flower seen
Answer- (b) through red glass appears to be dark.
2. Red glass transmits only red light.
Q 260. The power of a lens of focal length 80 Which of the following statements is/are
cm is correct?
(a) 80 D (b) 40 D (a) Only 1
(c) 12.5 D (d) 1.25 D (b) Only 2
Answer- (d) (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Q 261. A diffraction pattern is obtained using Answer- (c)
a beam of red light. Which one among the
following will be the outcome, if the red light is Q 267. The focal length of convex lens is
replaced by blue light? (a) the same for all colours
(a) Bands disappear (b) shorter for blue light than for red
(b) Diffraction pattern becomes broader and (c) shorter for red light than for blue
further apart (d) maximum for yellow light
(c) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower and Answer- (b)
crowded together
(d) No change Q 268. Consider the following statements
Answer- (a) 1. The colour of an object is determined by
the colour of the light reflected by it.
Q 262. Dispersion produced by a prism 2. If all the colours of white light are absorbed
depends on by the object then it appears white.
(a) its refracting angle 3. Dangers signals are of red colour because
(b) size of the prism red colour of light scatter least and therefore
(c) height of the prism signals can be seen from far.
(d) one of the angle at the base of the prism Which of the following statements is/are
Answer- (a) correct?
(a) 1 and 3
Q 263. When dispersion of white light takes (b) Only 3
place through a prism, the maximum (c) Only 1
deviation is suffered by which one of the (d) 2 and 3
following colour? Answer- (a)
(a) Red (b) Yellow
(c) Green (d) Violet Q 269. Rainbow is formed due to
Answer- (d) 1. dispersion of light
2. suffering refraction
Q 264. In the visible spectrum, the colour 3. total internal reflection
having the shortest wavelength is 4. All of the above
(a) blue (b) yellow Which of the following statements is/are
(c) red (d) violet correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) DC generator will generate a higher
(b) 3 and 1 voltage
(c) Only 4 (c) AC generator will generate a higher
(d) Only 1 voltage
Answer- (c) (d) AC generator has slip rings while DC
generator has a commutator
Answer- (d)
Electric Current Q 275. The core of a transformer is laminated
so that
(a) ratio of the voltages across the secondary
Q 270. The circuit element where the
and primary is doubled
impressed voltage is always in
(b) the weight of the transformer can be kept
phase with the resulting current, is
low
(a) an ideal resistor
(c) the rusting of the core is prevented
(b) an ideal coil
(d) energy loss due to eddy currents is
(c) an ideal capacitor
minimised
(d) an ideal transformer
Answer- (d)
Answer- (a)
Q 276. Which one of the following common
Q 271. The tape of a tape recorder is coated
devices works on the basis of the principle of
with
mutual induction?
(a) zinc oxide
(a) Tubelight (b) Transformer
(b) mica
(c) Photodiode (d) LED
(c) copper sulphate
Answer- (b)
(d) ferromagnetic powder
Answer- (d)
Q 277. Consider the following statements
1. Core of a transformer is made up of soft
Q 272. Consider the following statements
iron.
1. Permanent magnets areusually made of
2. Step-up transformer converts a low voltage
alloys such as carbon steel, chromium steel,
of high current into a high voltage of low
tungsten steel and alnico.
current.
2. Alnico is alloy of gold, silver and zinc.
3. Transformer is used for charging voltage
3. Permanent magnets are used in
only.
microphone etc.
Which of the following statements is/are
Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) None of these
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
Answer- (a)
Answer- (d)
Q 278. Transformer is a kind of appliance that
Q 273. An electric generator converts
can
(a) electric energy into sound energy
1. increase power
(b) electric energy into light energy
2. increase voltage
(c) electric energy into mechanical energy
3. decrease voltage
(d) mechanical energy into electric energy
4. measure current and voltage
Answer- (d)
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
Q 274. The essential difference between an
(a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 4
AC generator and a DC generator has
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
permanent magnet.
Answer- (c)
(a) AC generator has an electromagnet while
a DC generator has permanent magnet
Q 279. In step-down transformer, the AC (d) a step-up transformer
output gives the Answer- (c)
(a) current more than the input current
(b) current less than the input current Q 285. Inactive nitrogen and argon gases are
(c) current equal to the input current usually used in electric bulbs in order to
(d) voltage more than the input voltage (a) increase the intensity of light emitted
Answer- (a) (b) increase the life of the filament
(c) make the emitted light coloured
Q 280. A rectifier is an electronic device used (d) make the production of bulb economical
to convert Answer- (b)
(a) AC voltage into DC voltage
(b) DC voltage into AC voltage Q 286. Tungsten is used for the construction
(c) sinusoidal pulse into square pulse of filament in electric bulb because of its
(d) None of the above (a) high specific resistance
Answer- (a) (b) low specific resistance
(c) high light emitting power
Q 281. A device which is used in our TV set, (d) high melting point
computer, radio set for storing the electric Answer- (d)
charge, is
(a) resistor (b) inductor Q 287. Electricity is produced through dry cell
(c) capacitor (d) conductor from
Answer- (c) (a) chemical energy
(b) thermal energy
Q 282. If two conducting spheres are (c) mechanical energy
separately charged and then brought in (d) nuclear energy
contact Answer- (a)
(a) the total energy of the two spheres is
conserved Q 288. A wire-bound standard resistor uses
(b) the total charge on the two spheres is manganin or constantan. It is because
conserved (a) these alloys are cheap and easily
(c) both the total energy and the total charge available
are conserved (b) they have high resistivity
(d) the final potential is always the mean of (c) they have low resistivity
the original potential of the two spheres (d) they have resistivity which almost remains
Answer- (b) unchanged with temperature
Answer- (d)
Q 283. When an incandescent electric bulb
glows Q 289. Two pieces of conductor of same
(a) the electric energy is completely material and of equal length are connected in
converted into light series with a cell. One of the two pieces has
(b) the electric energy is partly converted into cross-sectional area double that of the other.
light energy and partly into heat energy Which one of the following statements is
(c) the light energy is converted into electric correct in this regard?
energy (a) The thicker one will allow stronger current
(d) The electric energy is converted into to pass through it
magnetic energy (b) The thinner one would allow stronger
Answer- (b) current to pass through it
(c) Same amount of electric current would
Q 284. A mobile phone charger is pass through both the pieces producing more
(a) an inverter heat in the thicker one
(b) an UPS
(c) a step-down transformer
(d) Same amount of electric current would Answer- (a)
pass through both the pieces producing more
heat in the thinner one Q 295. Match the following columns.
Answer- (a) Column I Column II
A. Electrical force 1. Volt
Q 290. Which one of the following statements between two
about bar magnet is correct? charged particles
(a) The pole strength of the North pole of a B. Electric charge 2. Newton
bar magnet is larger than that of the South C. Electric 3. Farad
pole. potential
(b) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected D. Electrical 4. Coulomb
perpendicular to its axis, the North and South capacity
poles get separated. Codes
(c) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected ABCD
perpendicular to its axis, two new bar (a) 2 4 1 3
magnets are formed. (b) 2 4 3 1
(d) The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in (c) 1 2 3 4
magnitude and opposite in nature. (d) 2 1 3 4
Answer- (c) Answer- (a)
Q 291. Which of the following is a good
conductor of heat but a bad conductor of Q 296. In electric supply lines in India, which
electricity? parameter is kept constant?
(a) Mica (b) Aluminium (a) Voltage (b) Current
(c) Mercury (d) Platinum (c) Frequency (d) Power
Answer- (c) Answer- (c)

Q 292. Consider the following statements Q 297. Which one of the following is not
1. The direction of positive charges is same correctly matched?
as direction of conventional current. (a) Voltmeter — Potential difference
2. The rate of flow of electric current charges (b) Potentiometer — EMF
through any cross-section of conductor is (c) Ammeter — Electric current
called as electric current. (d) Meter bridge — Electrical resistance
Which of the following statements is/are Answer- (a)
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Q 298. A DC voltmeter is capable of
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these measuring a maximum of 300 V. If it is used
Answer- (c) to measure the voltage across a device
operating at 220 V AC supply, the reading of
Q 293. The work done in moving a unit the voltmeter will be
positive charge across two points in an (a) 0 V (b) 110 V
electric circuit is a measure of (c) 220 V (d) 300 V
(a) potential difference Answer- (a)
(b) electrostatic force
(c) current Q 299. Galvanometer
(d) power 1. is a device used to detect and measure
Answer- (a) electric current in a circuit.
2. can be converted into a voltmeter by
Q 294. Potential difference between two connecting a very high resistance in its
points of a wire carrying 2A current is 0.1 V. parallel.
The resistance of the wire is Which of the following statements is/are
(a) 0.05 Ω (b) 0 5. Ω correct?
(c) 5 Ω (d) 0.25 Ω (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 (d) None of these Q 304. Consider the following statements
Answer- (a) 1. Electric appliances with metallic body e.g.
heater, presses, etc., have three pin
Q 300. When you pull out the plug connected connections whereas, an electric bulb has a
to an electrical appliance, you often observe two pin connection.
a spark. To which property of the appliance is 2. Three pin connections reduce heating of
this related? connecting cables.
(a) Resistance (b) Inductance Which of the following statements is/are
(c) Capacitance (d) Wattage correct?
Answer- (c) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Q 301. Match the columns. Answer- (a)

Q 305. An electric bulb is marked as 240 V,

60 W. The resistance of its filament is
(a) 940 Ω (b) 245 Ω
(c) 950 Ω (d) 960 Ω
Answer- (d)

Q 306. A tube light works on the principle of

(a) chemical effect of current
(b) magnetic effect of current
Codes (c) heating effect of current
ABCD ABCD (d) discharge of electrons through gases
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 Answer- (d)
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
Answer- (b) Q 307. The wire used in the filaments of
household bulbs has
Q 302. Two resistances when connected (a) high resistance, high melting point
in parallel give the resultant value of 2 Ω, (b) high resistance, low melting point
when connected in series the value becomes (c) low resistance, high melting point
9 ohm. The value of each resistance is (d) low resistance, low melting point
(a) 1 Ω and 8 Ω (b) 2 Ω and 7 Ω Answer- (a)
(c) 3 Ω and 3 Ω (d) 3 Ω and 6 Ω
Answer- (d) Q 308. Safety fuses are integral part of
electric installations and instruments. This is
Q 303. Consider the following statements so because safety fuses
1. The property of a substance by virtue of (a) block the passage of current due to
which it opposes the flow of current through increase in their resistance and saves it
it, is known as the resistance. (b) switch off the service of electric supply
2. Resistance of a conductor is directly through relay action
proportional to it’s length. (c) provide alternative path to excess current
3. Resistance of a conductor is directly as does a shunt
proportional to area of cross-section. (d) switch off the supply, if current beyond a
4. Resistance of a substance is always equal certain limit flows through the circuit
to resistivity. Answer- (d)
Which of the following statements is/are
correct? Q 309. In a filament type high bulb, most of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 the electric power consumed appear as
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) visible light
Answer- (a) (b) infrared rays
(c) ultraviolet rays
(d) fluorescent light
Answer- (b) Q 315. The majority charge carriers in p-type
semiconductors are
Q 310. Why are inner lining of hot water (a) electrons (b) protons
geysers made up of copper? (c) holes (d) neutrons
(a) Copper has low heat capacity Answer- (c)
(b) Copper has high electrical conductivity
(c) Copper does not react with steam Q 316. If the temperature of a semiconductor
(d) Copper is good conductor of both heat is raised, its resistivity will
and electricity (a) increase (b) decrease
Answer- (d) (c) remains same (d) reduce to zero
Answer- (b)
Q 311. Consider the following statements
1. Fuse wire is made up of tin lead alloy. Q 317. Consider the following statements
2. Fuse wire have low resistivity. 1. Solar cells are used as solar cooker.
3. Fuse wire have low melting point. 2. Solar cells are used in wrist watches,
4. Fuse wire is used in parallel as a safety calculators and light meters.
device in an electric circuit. 3. Solar cells are used for charging storage
Which of the following statements is/are batteries.
correct? 4. Solar cells are used in artificial satellite
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 Which of the following statements is/are
(c) Only 4 (d) 1 and 2 correct?
Answer- (a) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Q 312. A bird sitting on a high power line Answer- (d)
(a) gets a fatal shock
(b) gets a mild shock Q 318. Laser is a device to produce
(c) gets killed instantly (a) a beam of white light
(d) is not affected practically (b) coherent light
Answer- (d) (c) microwaves
(d) X-rays
Q 313. The total resistance of 3 resistors, Answer- (b)
each of 3 Ω, connected in parallel, is
(a) 3 Ω (b) 2 Ω Q 319. Which of the following is the correct
(c) 1 Ω (d) 9 Ω combination of the inventors and the
Answer- (c) inventions?
(a) Elisha G Otis — Windmill
(b) Galileo Galilei — Transistor
Modern Physics (c) Sir Frank Whittle — Laser
(d) J L Baird — Television
Answer- (d)
Q 314. Photoelectric cells are used
Q 320. Match the following Columns.
1. to control the temperature in
Column I Column II
Q furnace and in chemical process
A. Ground wave 1. Radio waves
2. in automatic switches for street light
propagation received from
3. in transformer
troposphere
4. in photoelectron sorters
B. Space wave 2. Radio waves
Which of the following statements is/are
propagation ravel through
correct?
atmosphere
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 1
C. Sky wave 3. Microwaves
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
propagation cross the
Answer- (a)
 ionosphere (d) extent of brain haemorrhage
D. Satellite 4. Radio waves Answer- (b)
communication received from
ionosphere Q 326. X-rays are
(a) deflected by an electric field, but not by a
Codes magnetic field
ABCD (b) deflected by a magnetic field, but not by
(a) 2 1 4 3 an electric field
(b) 1 3 4 2 (c) deflected by both a magnetic field and an
(c) 3 2 1 4 electric field
(d) 2 1 3 4 (d) not deflected by an electric field and a
Answer- (a) magnetic field
Answer- (d)
Q 321. The television set receives
(a) magnetic waves Q 327. Which is not true with respect to the
(b) radio waves cathode rays?
(c) microwaves (a) A stream of electrons
(d) None of the above (b) Charged particles
Answer- (c) (c) Move with speed same as that of light
(d) Can be deflected by magnetic fields
Q 322. Optical fibres are mainly used for Answer- (c)
which of the following?
(a) Communication Q 328. Consider the following statements X-
(b) Eye surgery rays
(c) Weaving 1. can pass through aluminium.
(d) Food industry 2. can be deflected by magnetic field.
Answer- (a) 3. move with a velocity less than the velocity
of ultraviolet ray in vacuum.
Q 323. Before X-ray examination (coloured X- Which of the statements given above is/are
ray) of the stomach, patients are given correct?
suitable salt of barium because (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 1
(a) barium salts are white in colour and this (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
helps stomach to appear clearly Answer- (b)
(b) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and
helps stomach to appear clearly Q 329. Consider the following statements
(c) barium salts are easily available 1. Soft and hard X-rays differ in frequency as
(d) barium allows X-rays to pass through the well as velocity.
stomach 2. The penetrating power of hard
Answer- (b) X-rays is more than the penetrating power of
soft X-rays.
Q 324. Light Emitting Diode (LED) converts Which of the following statements is/are
(a) light energy into electrical energy correct?
(b) electrical energy into light energy (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(c) thermal energy into light energy (c) Only 2 (d) None of these
(d) mechanical energy into electrical energy Answer- (c)
Answer- (b)
Q 330. X-ray will travel minimum distance in
Q 325. Dual energy X-ray Absorptiometry (a) air (b) iron
(DEXA) is used to measure (c) wood (d) water
(a) Spread of solid tumour Answer- (b)
(b) bone density
(c) ulcerous growth in stomach Q 331. X-ray beam can be deflected by
(a) magnetic field Answer- (c)
(b) electric field
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Q 337. An ordinary tubelight used for lighting
(d) None of the above purpose contains
Answer- (d) (a) fluorescent material and an inert gas
(b) one filament, reflective material and
Q 332. X-rays were discovered by mercury vapour
(a) Johnson (b) Milikan (c) fluorescent material and mercury vapour
(c) Roentgen (d) Thomson (d) two filaments, fluorescent material and
Answer- (c) mercury vapour
Answer- (d)
Q 333. Positive rays were discovered by
(a) Thomson (b) Goldstein Q 338. Fire fly gives us cold light by virtue of
(c) W Crookes (d) Rutherford the phenomenon of
Answer- (b) (a) fluorescence
(b) phosphorescence
Q 334. Consider the following statements (c) chemiluminescence
1. Positive rays are capable of producing (d) effervescence
physical and chemical changes. Answer- (c)
2. Positive rays can produce fluorescence
and phosphorescence. Q 339. Photoelectric cell is a device of
3. Positive rays are not deflected by electric (a) collecting the photons
field and magnetic field. (b) measuring the intensity of light
Which of the following statements is/are (c) changing the photon energy to mechanical
correct? energy
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (d) substituting the accumulators by storing
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 2 the electrical energy
Answer- (a) Answer- (b)

Q 335. Match the following columns. Q 340. What is the difference between a CFL
Column I Column II and an LED lamp
A. Cathode rays 1. Electromagnetic 1. To produced light, a CFL uses mercury
waves vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp
B. X-rays 2. Beam of uses semiconductor materials.
electron 2. The average life span of a CFL is much
C. Positive-rays 3. Positively longer than that of an LED lamp.
charged particles 3. A CFL is less energy efficient as compared
Codes to an LED lamp.
Which of the following statements is/are
ABC ABC correct?
(a) 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 2 3 (d) 1 3 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (b) Answer- (c)

Q 336. Consider the following statements

1. Diode laser are used as optical sources in
optical communication.
2. Diode laser consume less energy.
Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these