MONTHLY TEST - 01

Class XI P.M Batch-01

Date: 05th – OCT – 2024
 THE SINDH ACADEMY HYDERABAD
ENGLISH
1. "The Character of Happy Life" is a ___________ poem.
(a) Gorgeous (b) Religious (c) Precious (d) Pompous
2. The poet of "The Character of Happy Life" is
(a) Leigh Hunt (b) Sir Henry Wotton (c) Oliver Goldsmith (d) Anonymous
3. "This man is freed from servile of hope to rise or fear to fall".
(a) Lands (b) Hands (c) Bands (d) Sands
4. A person happy in the real sense, is taught from his very birth
(a) to oblige others (b) Not to be a slave of other's will
(c) To be prepared for death (d) To keep others happy
5. The strongest defense of a person against worldly temptation is
(a) simple truth (b) public opinion * (c) his honest thoughts (d) None
6. A person happy in the real sense is not directed by the dictates of his
(a) will (b) passions (c) lover (d) employer
7. A person who is happy in the real sense always prepared for death because
(a) He is not attached to the world for the sake of worldly fame (b) He does not believe in world hereafter
(c) he is brave (d) he is happy
8. According to sir Henry Wotton A person refrains from flattery because he knows its
(a) Benefits (b) intensity of harm (c) loss (d) high status
9. This person prays God day and night for
(a) Worldly gains (b) spiritual blessings (c) riches (d) high status
10. According to sir Henry Wotton is the greatest skill of a person
(a) Simple truth (b) honest thoughts (c) Sincerity (d) Holy Book
11. To Henry Wotton, happy man's conscience is his strong
(a) Pride (b) retreat (c) desire (d) greed
12. According to sir Henry Wotton A happy man's passions are not his
(a) Servant (b) master (c) relative (d) None
13. Henry Wotton's man is always prepared for
(a) Happiness (b) death (c) enjoyment (d) any condition
14. Though he is not a lord of lands, he is a lord of
(a) Others (b) himself (c) humanity (d) Life
15. To happy man, the deepest wounds are given by
(a) Praise (b) truth (c) honesty (d) all
16. "The Abbot of Canterbury" is composed by
(a) William Wordsworth (b) John Keats (c) Anonymous (d) Alexander Pope
17. "The Abbot of Canterbury" deals with the ideas with the idea of
(a) Jealousy (b)Aristocracy (c) Democracy (d) none
18. "For thirty pence our was sold among the false Jews, as I have been told".
(a) Christ (b) Savior (c) Lord (d) Prophet
19. The Abbot of Canterbury is a
(a) Sonnet (b) Ballad (c) Elegy (d) Carol
20. King John ruled England from_________ to__________
(a) 1564 to 1616 (b) 1216 to 1534 (c) 1199 to 1216 (d)1534 to 11640

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21. King John asks _________questions from the Abbot of Canterbury.
(a)Two (b) three (c) four (d) Five
22. Gives the intelligent answers of King John's questions?
(a) Poor farmer (b) poor shepherd (c) Abbot's doctor (d) Abbot
23. The Abbot was supposed to answer the questions of King John within
(a) two week (b) three weeks (c) Four week (d) one week
24. King John announced as a reward.
(a) Four nobles a week (b) Four nobles a month (c) Three nobles a week (d) Three nobles a month
25. The Abbot of Canterbury is a typical old ballad of the
(a) South of England (b)North of England (c) West of England (d) South of
England
26. To Shepherd, the worth of King John
(a) 30 pence (b) 29 pence (c) 25 pence (d) 31 pence
27. The king could travel in___________ hours.
(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25
28. _______impersonates the abbot before the king?
(a) Abbot's servant (b) Abbot's shepherd (c) abbot's brother (d) None
29. This poem is old typical
(a) Song (b) ballad (c) ode (d) blank verse
30. The Savior was sold in
(a) 31 pence (b) 30 pence (c) 29 pence (d) 25 pence
31. Lucy Gray is composed by___________
(a) William Wordsworth (b) Shakespeare (c) William Blake William (d) Oliver
Goldsmith
32. The poem is a
(a) Northern Ballad (b) Southern Ballad (c) Sonnet (d) Speech
33. The poem "Lucy Gray" narrates a/an _______ story.
(a) Romantic (b) Tragic (c)Patriotic (d) Adventures
34. Lucy lived with her parents
(a) In a palace * (b) on a wide moor (c) in a beautiful valley (d) forest
35. Wordsworth portrays Lucy Gray as ________ever born on earth.
(a) the most beautiful creature (b)the ugliest being (c) a ghost (d) living child
36. The sweet face of Lucy Gray will never be seen again________
(a) as she has gone abroad (b) as she lives no longer (c) as her face is smashed (d) as she wears a veil.
37. Lucy's father ordered her to
(a) fetch milk from the town (b) to go and play with rabbit in the snow
(c) To show her mother back home. (d) to go and sleep in the house
38. William Wordsworth presents Lucy Gray as a symbol of
(a) beauty (b) love (c) obedience (d) honesty
39. Though William Wordsworth's Lucy lives no longer, he opines that _________
(a) She has become a part of nature (b) She has become a ghost
(c) She had disappeared (d) She has become a living dead.
40. Lucy left for the town in the
(a) Morning (b) afternoon (c) night (d) evening

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41. He said to me, “You are doing nothing.”
(a) He told me that you were doing nothing. (b) He told me that I was doing nothing.
(c) He said that I were doing nothing. (d) He told me that I did nothing.
42. He said to me, “I love chocolates.”
(a) He says to me that he loves chocolates. (b) He said to me that I loved chocolates.
(c) He said to me that he loved chocolates. (d) None of these
43. She says to me, “I take walk daily”
(a) She says to me that she took walk daily. (b) She says to me that she takes walk daily.
(c) She tells me that she take walk daily. (d) Both b & c
44. He said to me, “I have often told you not to play with fire.”
(a) He said to me that he had often told you not to play with fire.
(b) He said to me that he had often tell me not to play with fire.
(c) He said to me that the have often told me not to play with fire.
(d) He said to me that he had often told me not to play with fire.
45. They wrote, “it is time we thought about setting this matter.”
(a) They wrote that it was time they has thought about setting this matter.
(b) They wrote that they have thought about setting this matter.
(c) They wrote that it was time they have thought about setting that matter.
(d) They wrote that it was time they had thought about setting that matter.
46. “That is my house” said he to me, “you are not allowed to get in.”
(a) He said to me that it is his home & I am not allowed to get in.
(b) He said to me that that was his house, I was not allowed to get in.
(c) He said to me that I was not allowed to get in that was his house. (d) None of these
47. He said to me, “I will be planning to go to Europe.”
(a) He said to me that I will be planning to go to Europe.
(b) He said to me that I would be planning to go to Europe .
(c) He said to me that he would be planning to go to Europe . (d) None of these
48. Ali said to me. “I shall do everything for my country.”
(a) Ali told me that he would do everything for our country.
(b) Ali said that he should do everything for our country.
(c) Ali said to me that he should do everything for his country. (d) None of these
49. My students thought, “We need to work hard.”
(a) My students thought that they need to work hard.
(b) My students thought that they had needed to work hard.
(c) My students thought that they needed to work hard.
(d) My students thought that they needed worked hard.
50. “You were doing badly”, Teacher said to me.
(a) Teacher told me that I were doing badly. (b) Teacher said to me that I was doing badly.
(c) Teacher said to me that I had done badly. (d) teacher said to me that I had been doing badly.

PHYSICS
51. The branch of science which deals with properties of matter, energy and their relationship is called:
a) Physics b) Chemistry c) Mechanics d) Magnetism
52. Physics is one of the branches of
a) Life sciences b) Physical sciences
c) Biological sciences d) Social sciences
53. Study of non-living matter is called
a) Biological science b) Physical science
c) both a & b d) None of these

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54. Study of living matter is called
a) Biological science b) Physical science
c) both a & b d) None of these
55. The units associated with the derived quantities
a) Fundamental units b) Derived units
c) Basic units d) both b and c
56. The derived quantities are obtained by either______ or ________ of fundamental quantities.
a) addition, subtraction b) addition , multiplication
c) division, subtraction d) multiplication , division
57. The fundamental Physics quantities form the basis for the CGS system are
a) Force, weight and time b) Mass, length and time
c) Mass, length and force d) Mass, energy and time
58. The fundamental Physics quantities which form the basis for the FPS system are
a) Force, Length and time b) Mass, length and time
c) Mass, length and force d) Mass, energy and time
59. The fundamental Physics quantities which form the basis for the MKS system are
a) Force, weight and time b) Mass, length and time
c) Mass, length and force d) Mass, energy and time
60. Fundamental units in CGS system are
a) Gram, dyne and second b) gram, centimeter and second
c) Kilogram, Newton and second d) Kilogram, meter and second
61. Fundamental units in FPS system are
a) Gram, dyne and second b) Pound, foot and second
c) Kilogram, Newton and second d) dyne, meter and second
62. Fundamental units in MKS system are
a) Gram, dyne and second b) Kilogram, centimeter and second
c) Kilogram, Newton and second d) Kilogram, meter and second
63. In the SI system, there are______________ basic units.
a) Three b) Five c) Seven d) Nine
64. S.I unit of electric current is
a) Ampere b) mole c) kelvin d) candela
65. Which one of the following is not a unit of length
a) Angstrom b) Micron c) Radian d) Light year
66. The SI unit of force is:
a) Newton b) Dyne c) Slug d) Foot-pound
67. The SI unit of energy is:
a) Joule b) Calorie c) Slug d) Electron volt
68. 10-9 second are equivalent to:
a) Deci second b) Nano second c) Milli second d) Micro second
2
69. The dimension of Vi t + at is _______.
a) M L T-1 b) Mo L2 T-2 c) Mo L T-2 d) Mo L To
70. [MoLoTo] are the dimensions of:
a) strain b) refractive index c) magnification d) All of these
71. The resultant of two forces will be least if the angle between them is
a) Zero b) 900 c) 450 d) 1800
72. The resultant of two vectors will be maximum if the angle between them is
a) 0O b) 30O c) 45O d) 90O
o
73. Two forces of equal magnitude are acting on a body at 60 . The magnitude of the resultant will be
a) F b) 2F c) √ F d) √ F
74. Two forces of equal magnitude are acting on a body at 0o. The magnitude of the resultant will be
a) F b) 2F c) √ F d) √ F

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75. Two forces of equal magnitude are acting on a body at 90o. The magnitude of the resultant will be
a) F b) 2F c) √ F d) √ F
76. Two forces of equal magnitude are acting on a body at 120o. The magnitude of the resultant will be
a) F b) 2F c) √ F d) √ F
77. Given | A |= 3 units and | B | = 4 units, if A and B are perpendicular to each other then
the magnitude of their sum is ________
a) 7 units b) 1 unit c) 5 units d) 25 units
78. The magnitude of A = 4 i + 4 j + 7 k is
a) 4 b) 9 c) 7 d) 15
79. If a vector A = iˆ + ĵ + kˆ , its magnitude will be
a) 3 b) 3 3 c) 3 d) 3 /3
80. The spliiting of a vector into rectangular components is called
a) resolution of vector b) composition of a vector
c) scalar product d) vector product
81. Ax =_________________
a) A cosθ b) A sinθ c) A tanθ d) None of these
82. Ay =_________________
a) A cosθ b) A sinθ c) A tanθ d) None of these
83. The phenomenon by which a vector is obtained from its rectangular components is known as
______.
a) resolution of vector b) composition of a vector c) scalar product d) vector product
84. | A | = ______________
a) √ b) √ c) A cosθ + A sinθ d) None of these
85. θ = __________________
a) cos-1(Ax/Ay) b) sin-1 (Ax/Ay) c) tan-1 (Ax/Ay) d) tan-1 (Ay/Ax)
86. A force is acting along y axis. Its component along x-axis is
a) 5 N b) Zero c) 10 N d) 2.5 N
87. The Cross product of two parallel vectors A and B (i.e. A  B ) is equal to
a) AB sinθ n b) AB cosθ c) AB d) 0
88. The cross product of vector A with itself ( A  A ) is equal to
a) A b) 1 c) 2A d) Zero
89. The rate of change of displacement is called
a) Acceleration b) Velocity c) Speed d) Force
90. If ⃗ ins = ⃗ av, then the body is moving with
a) Variable velocity b) Non-uniform velocity c) Uniform velocity d) Final velocity
91. If ⃗ ins ≠ ⃗ av, then the body is moving with
a) Variable velocity b) Non-uniform velocity c) Uniform velocity d) Final velocity
92. From the following distance- time graph we can conclude that the body is moving with

a) Uniform velocity b) Non uniform velocity

c) Variable velocity d) Body is at rest

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93. From the following distance- time graph we can conclude that the body is moving with
a) Uniform velocity b) Zero acceleration
c) Variable velocity d) Body is at rest

94. Slope of distance-time graph is.

a) acceleration b) distance
c) Velocity d) momentum

95. Rate of change of velocity is called

a) Speed b) Acceleration c) Force d) displacement
96. Direction of acceleration is
a) Along Δ ⃗ b) Perpendicular to Δ ⃗
c) Towards origin d) None of them
97. Following graph shows that
(a) acceleration is constant (b) acceleration is variable
(c) acceleration is zero (d) velocity is zero

98. Which of the following graph shows that the body is moving with uniform acceleration?

99. A handball is tossed vertically upward with a velocity of 19.6 m/s. Approximately how
high will it rise?
a) 15.8 m b) 19.6 m c) 25. 6 m d) 30 m
100. An apple is dropped from the top of a building. If it takes 5 s to hit the ground. Find
with what velocity will it strike the ground. (g=9.8 m/s2)
a) 29 m/s b) 39 m/s c) 49 m/s d) 59 m/s

CHEMISTRY
101. The volume occupied by l.4g of N2 at STP is:
(a) 2.24dm3 (b) 22.4dm3 (c) 1.12dm3 (d) 112dm3
102. One mole of diamond chain and one mole of gold ring have same number of:
(a) neutrons (b) protons (c)electrons (d) atoms

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103. Limiting reactant is that:
(a) Which remains unreacted (b) Which gives maximum amount of product
(c) Which gives minimum amount of product (d) Which has low price
104. The number of molecules in 22g of CO2 is:
(a) 6.023x1023 (b) 3.011 x1023 (c) 6.023x1021 (d) 6.023x1022
105. Efficiency of chemical reaction can be checked by calculating
(a) Actual yield (b) Theoretical Yield (c) Percentage Yield (d) Amount of the reactant unused
106. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) 12g of carbon gas contains one mole of atoms
(b) 28g of nitrogen gas contains one mole of molecules of N2
(c) 1 dm3 of a 1.0 mole dm-3 solution of NaCl contains one mole of Chloride ions
(d) None of above
107. For Avogadro's number, this statement is incorrect:
(a) It is the no. of particles in one mole of any substances (b) its numerical value is 6.02 x 1023
(c) Its value changes if temperature increases (d) Its value changes if number of moles increases
108. The minimum number of moles are present in:
(a) 1 dm3 of methane gas at STP (b) 5 dm3 helium of gas at STP
(c) 10 dm3 of hydrogen gas at STP (d) 22.4 dm3 of chlorine gas at STP
109. Maximum number of molecules present in the following sample of gas:
(a) 100g O2 (b) 100g CH4 (c) 100g CO2 (d) 100g Cl2
110. Which of the following formula is used to determine number of sub-shells in a shell?
(a) 2n2 (b) l = n – 1 (c) m = 2l + 1 (d) 2(2l +1)
111. The maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell with l = 3 is:
(a) 6 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 18
112. When 6d orbital is complete, entering electron goes into:
(a) 7f (b) 7p (c) 7s (d) 7d
113. Total number of d-electrons in an atom of atomic number 26 is:
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7
114. The branch of Chemistry which describes the relationship between the amounts of reactants and
products in a balanced chemical equation is called:
(a) Physical chemistry (b) Biochemistry (c) Stoichiometry (d) Organic chemistry
115. Nitrogen has the electronic configuration 1s² 2s²2p1x 2p1y 2p1z and not 1s² 2s²2p2x 2p1y 2p0z
This is determined by,
(a) Aufbau principle (b) Pauli's rule (c) Hund's rule (d) n + l rule

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116. Quantum number values for 3s orbital are
(a) n = 0, l = 1 (b) n = 1, l = 0 (c) n = 3, l = 1 (d) n = 3, l = 0
117. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is
(a) 529 °A (b) 52.9 °A (c) 5.29 °A (d) 0.529 °A
118. Which of the following violates Hund’s rule
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
119. 1 a.m.u = _______________g
(a) 1.66x10–24 (b) 1.66x10–27 (c) 6.02x10–23 (d) N.O.T
120. The number of moles of CO2 which contain 8.0 g of oxygen.
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 1.0 (d) 1.50
121. Line spectrum is used as a tool for the identification of
(a) Colors (b) Electrons (c) Elements (d) Molecules
122. In 1935 A.D. James Chadwick was awarded Nobel Prize because
(a) He discovered proton (b) He discovered neutron
(c) He determined the radius of hydrogen atom (d) He gave the rules for electronic configuration
123. When 4d orbital is filled, the next electron enter into
(a) 5s (b) 5p (c) 5d (d) 6s
124. The particle that shows minimum response in the applied electric field
(a) Electron (b) Neutron (c) Proton (d) positron
125. The orbital which is farthest to the nucleus is:
(a) f (b) d (c) p (d) s
126. If the value of principal quantum number is 3, the maximum number of value of magnetic quantum
number:
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 9
127. The set of quantum numbers which represents the highest energy of an electron?
(a) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2 (b) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2
(c) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 (d) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
128. Which of the following has the same number of electrons as an alpha particle?
(a) H (b) (c) (d)
129. The range of wave length of x-rays lies between:
(a) 1–– 10 Ao (b) 0.1–– 1 Ao (c) 0.1–– 10 Ao (d) 1–– 100 Ao
130. Which of the following contain largest number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Si (Z=14) (b) P (Z=15) (c) Mn (Z=25) (d) Cu (Z=29)

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131. To produce maximum amount of product,
(a) Frequently a large amount of inexpensive reactant is supplied.
(b) The mass of expensive reactant is completely converted to the desired product.
(c) At the end only one of the reactant maybe consumed. (d) All
132. Which of the following is not an iso electronic pair?
(a) Na+ and Ne (b) Na+ and F– (c) Na and Ca (d) Na+ and Mg+2
133. Actual yield is always is less than theoretical yield because:
(a) Reactants are not completely converted into products (b) Side reactions may occur
(c) Many reactions are reversible (d) All
134. Which of the following is attributed to mathematical formulation of Quantum Numbers
(a) Plank’s Quantum Theory (b) Bohr’s Atomic Structure
(c) Schrondinger’s Wave Model of Electrons (d) Atomic Spectrum
135. Which of the following is correct with respect to the application of principle?
(a) Hund’s rule = electron in subshells (b) Auf-bau principle = electrons in orbital
(c) Pauli’s exclusion principle = spin of electrons in one orbital (d) n + l = electrons in orbitals
136. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The mass of 1 mole Cl2 gas is 35.5g (b) One mole of H2 gas contains 6.02 x 1023 molecules of H2
(c) Number of atoms in 23g Na and 24g Mg are equal
(d) One mole of O2, at S.T.P occupies 22.4 dm3 volume
137. The maximum number of electrons in a p-orbital is:
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 14
138. What is wrong about anode rays?
(a) their e/m ratio is constant (b) they are deflected by electric and magnetic field
(c) they are produced by ionization of molecules of the residual gas
(d) their e/m ratio depends on nature of residual gas
139. The electronic configuration of is:
(a) 1s0 (b) 1s2 (c) 1s1 (d) 1s2 2s1
140. The ________ quantum number explains the shapes of orbitals:
(a) principal (b) magnetic (c) azimuthal (d) spin
141. Cathode rays and canal rays when pass through electric field they will _________
(a) deflect towards negatively charged plate only
(b) deflect towards positively and negatively charged plate respectively
(c) deflect towards positively charged plate only
(d) not deflect towards negatively charged plate and positively charge plate

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142. The set of orbitals having n + l = 5 are:
(a) 2p,3d,3s (b) 3p,3d,5s (c) 3s,4p,4d (d) 5s,4p,3d
143. The orbital which is spherically symmetrical is:
(a) p (b) f (c) d (d) s
144. Number of atoms in 60g carbon is:
(a) 3.01 x 1023 (b) 3.01 x 1024 (c) 6.02 x 1023 (d) 6.02 x 1024

145. The number of electrons that can be accommodated in orbital is

(a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2
146. Bohr's theory is not applicable to which of the following species.
(a) H (b) H+ (c) He+1 (d) Li+2
147. Balmer series appears in the hydrogen spectrum if electron jumps from any other higher energy
orbit to
(a) Second orbit (b) Third orbit (c) Fourth orbit (d) Fifth orbit
148. The shape of orbital for which l = 0 is
(a) Spherical (b) Dumbbell (c) Double dumbbell (d) Complicated
149. A necklace has 6g of diamond in it. What are the numbers of atoms in it?
(a) 6.02x1023 (b) 12.04x1023 (c) 1.003x1023 (d) 3.01x1023
150. Methane reacts with steam to form H2 and CO as shown below,
CH4(g)+ H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g)
What volume of H2 can be obtained from 100 cm3 of methane at the standard temperature and
pressure?
(a) 300 cm3 (b) 200 cm3 (c)150 cm3 (d) 100 cm3

BIOLOGY
151. Which technique doesn’t used in biology field
I Microdissection II Spirometery III Electrophoresis
Iv Chromatography V Micrometery Vi Baro & Chemometery
A. I , II B. II , VI C. IV , V D. III , IV E. I , IV
152. Cell formation includes two steps?
I Microscopy II Homogenization III Different staining Micro
Iv Sedimentation V dissection
A. I , II B. II , III C. III , IV D. II , IV E. I , V
153. Isolation of Cellular Component to determine their ________ is called cell fractionation?
A. Structure of function of cell organells B. Structure & Chemical composition & development
C. Structure and shapes of cell part D. Growth E. Molecules Charges

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154. When plant cells proceeds for for Homogenization process which enzyme must have to add in
Medium
A. Pectinase B. Cellulose C. Amylase D. Hydrolytic Enzyme E. Protenase
155. During homogenization Mitochondria appear at base of test tube in following state?
A. 20,000g in 15 min B. 800g in 10 min C. 100,000g in 60 min D. 150,000g in 3 hours
E. 10,000g in 90 min
156. During sedimentation require centrifuge instrument
A. Rotation upto 90,000 cycle/min B. Rotation upto 60,000 cycle/min
C. Rotation upto 100,000 cycle/min D. 100,000 cycle/min E. 500,00cycle/min
157. Sedimentation process closely related to which Method
A. Differential staining B. Chromatography C. Spectrophotometry D. Centrifugation E.
Micrometery
158. Centrifugation process when scientist wants to seprate ribosomes from rest of other cell organells
which speed of rotation most likely required?
A. Slow B. Medium C. fast D. No need rotation E. All are false
159. Supernatant solution ?
A. Where all heavy and bigger size of cell found organells
B. Where ribosomes and Microsomes are found C. Pellets rich in nuclei and cellular debris
D. After first step of centrifugation fluid present top of test tube
E. After Homogenization fluid present in bottow of test tube
160. When completion of centrifugation one in low speed which cell organells usually present in
sedimented solution?
A. Mitochondria B. E.R. C Ribosomes D. Nuclei
161. Different staining used dye at same time to differentiate adjacent structure based on
A. Size B. density C. Shape D. Metabolic E. Chemical
Composition
162. Best technique applied for W.B.C.S to scientific study is____
A. Differential staining B. Micrometery C. Microdissection
D. Tissue cellular E. Spectrophotometry
163. Which technique doesn’t need Microscope?
A. Cell fractionation B. Differential staining C. Tissue culture
D. Electrophoresis E. All need Microscope
164. Which is best recent technique to find out the different option for treatment of disease?
A. Tissue culture B. Micrometery C. Microdissection D. Chromatography E. Microcopy

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165. Which of three attribute required in technique of Microscopy?
I Magnification II Resolution III Tissue Culture Iv Contrast V Gas Chromatography
A. I,II,III B. I,II,IV C. III,IV,V D. I,IV,V E. II,III,IV
166. When we magnify object beyond limitis its image become?
A. More clear B. More darker C. Blurred D. translucent E. transparent
167. The clarity of image generally known as _____?
A. Resolution B. Contrast C. Stain D. Dimension E. Lense system
168. Most recent advance electro Microscope is capable resolving objects ____ better than human Eye
A. 1000 B. 10,000 C. 1,00,00 D. 100 E. one lac times
169. It refers to darkness of background relative to specimen (colorless transparent)
A. Staining B. Micrometery C. Chromatography D. Contrast E. Spectrophotometer
170. Which is best technique used in cell biology for study role of embryonic cell in development, and
treatment of different embryonic disease?
(a) Tissue culture (b) Chromatography (c) Sedimentations (d) Electrophosis (e) Microdissection
171. About technique of cell fractionation, identify false statement?
a) Ultra centrifuge can rotate 60,000 cycle per minute
b) In beginning lower speed is used to separate lighter and smaller cell organelles
c) Homogenization of plant cell require pectinase enzymes
d) According to sedimentation technique, gravitational force and density required for separation
172. In 1958, F.C Staward grew complete carrot plant from phloem on medium containing?
(a) Fats (b) Protein (c) Vitamins (d) Nucleic acid (e) All of them
173. Chromatography technique base on _____ ?
I. Qualitative analysis II. Speed of moleculealen movement III. Size of molecule
IV. Density of molecule V. Quantitative analysis
(a) I, II, III only (b) I, II, III, IV only (c) I, III, IV only
(d) II, III, IV, V only (e) II, IV, V only
174. Callus (undifferentiated group of cells) are most important indicator when use in ____ technique?
(a) Spectrometry (b) Microdissection (c) Tissue culture (d) micrometry
175. Chromatography technique comprises of four types?
I. Paper chromatography II. Think layer chromatography III.Gas chromatography
IV. High dependency stain chromatography V. High performance liquid chrmotography
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, II, III, V (c) I, II, IV, V (d) II, III, IV, V
176. Which is best technique used for separate molecule on their size and electrical charge in Gel?
(a) Tissue culture (b) Chromatography (c) Sedimentations (d) Electrophosis (e) Microdissection

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177. Which is best technique used for separate structure according to chemical composition?
(a) Microdissection (b) Microscopy (c) Spectrometry
(d) Biochemical analysis (e) Differential staining
178. Electrophoresis technique used to separate following.
(a) Nucleic acid protein (b) Nucleic acid or lipid water (c) Lipid or protein molecule
(d) Carbohydrate or protein (e) Nucleic acid and carbohydrate molecule
179. _______ is used to determine growth of bacteria, rate of photosynthesis and quantity of DNA
molecule.
(a) Chromatography (b) Microscopy (c) Spirometry (d) Spectsophotometry
180. Electrophosis medium/Gel, mainly made up of?
(a) Acetyl Amide (b) Methyl Amide (c) Acryl Amide (d) Tri Iodide Amide
181. It is capacity of instrument to separate adjacent form or object.
(a) Micrometery (b) Resolution (c) Homogenization (d) Sedimentation
182. Phase constant microscope used for _____ ?
(a) Colorless or transparent specimen (b) Serolosy and Heamotology
(c) Bacterial cell wall (d) Clean cision of DNA and RNA
183. It is science related to measurement of dimension and size of object observing under microscope
(a) Spizometery (b) Micrometery (c) Spectrometery (d) Microscopy
184. About ocular micrometer
(a) Without calibrating device (b) No absolute value
(c) Consist of glass slide (d) 1000 equal division
185. ____ defined as minimum quantity of energy that is required to activate atoms or molecule to
condition in which they can undergo chemical transformation
(a) Factors affecting rate of enzymes (b) Induce fit model
(c) Feed back inhibition (d) Activation energy
186. The active site of enzymes has two regions ___?
(a) Binding site & catalytic site (b) Binding site & reaction site
(c) Binding site & activation site (d) Binding site & inhibition site
187. Flavin in FAD (as co-enzymes) derived from?
(a) Minerals (b) Protein (c) Vitamins (d) Acetyl-coA
188. About amylase enzymes?
(a) Secreted from liver cells (b) Range 8.5 PH
(c) Act on amylose to convert into sucrose (d) All are true statement (e) All are false statement

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189. Regarding allosteric activators ____?
(a) Bind covalent with enzymes (b) Influence by thermal factor and concentration of substtate
(c) Interaction with enzymes are irreversible (d) Attach with active site of enzymes
190. There are three inhibitors of enzymes?
(a) Noncompetitive, uncompetitive and comparative inhibitor
(b) Noncompetitive, competitive and uncompetitive inhibitor
(c) Noncompetitive, comparative and un compliance inhibitor
(d) Noncompetitive, uncompetitive and quantitative inhibitor
191. Enzymes catalyze the breakdown of covalent bonds and removal of group without hydrolysis?
(a) Hydrolase (b) Lyases (c) Ligases (d) Synthetase (e) Isomerses
192. Enzymes catalyze the condensation reaction like DNA and RNA polymerase ar _____?
(a) Transferase (b) Catalase (c) Synthetase (d) Lyases
193. Which enzymes present in tow region / area of human digestive system?
(a) Lipase (b) Amylase (c) Pepsin (d) Trypsin (e) Cellulose
194. _____ is used as strategy for drug discovery?
(a) Allosteric site activator (b) Substrate concentration (c) Energy of activation (d) Lock & key model
195. The type of biological control where enzymes activity is inhibited by its own product called ____?
(a) pH medium (b) Feedback inhibition (c) Effects of temperature
(d) Energy of activation (e) Competitive activators
196. Glucose 6 – phosphate converted in to fructose 6 – phosphate by?
(a) Oxidoreductase (b) Isomerase (c) Transferase (d) Ligases
197. These are digestive enzymes responsible to break bond by H2O and convert oligomers into
monomers?
(a) Hydrolase (b) Synthetase (c) Ligases (d) Lyases (e) Transferase
198. Most of enzymes are
(a) Fibrous protein nature (b) Low molecular weight protein
(c) Chemically change during chemical reaction (d) Proteinaceous & non proteinaceous nature
199. Thomas Cech and Sidney Altmann discovered about enzyme
(a) Substrate relation (b) pH medium (c) Chemical nature (d) Temperature
200. Protease, glycosidase, nucleases & lipase are type of enzymes on basis of ____?
(a) Inhibition activity (b) Substrate (c) Chemical composition (d) Types of reaction

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