26 10 2024 SR - Super60 Nucleus&Sterling BT Jee Main RPTM 12&15 Q.paper

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.
 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS&STERLING_BT JEE-MAIN Date: 26-10-2024
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm RPTM-12/15 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more than 5
questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown belo w
.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________
Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 26-10-24_ Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT _Jee-Main_RPTM-12/15_Q.P
26-10-2024_Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT _ Jee-Main_RPTM-12/15_Test Syllabus
PHYSICS : COM & Collisions: Conservation of linear momentum and mechanical energy. Systems of
particles; Centre of mass and its motion; Impulse; Elastic and inelastic collisions.
COMPLETE RPTM-12 SYLLABUS (Except MAINS Deleted Topics) (20Q RPTM12+10Q CUMULATIVE)
CHEMISTRY : 1.f-block elements: Generalcharactiristics ; electronic configurations lanthanoids and actinoids ;
lanthanoid and actinoid contraction ; oxidation states ; properties ; applications
2.Metallurgy: ores and minerals of Fe,Cu,Sn,Pb,Mg,Al,Zn and Ag. General principles involved in
metallurgy concentration of ore, Extraction of crude metal. Reduction methods. Ellingham
diagrams. Selection of reducing agent,Refining of crude metal. Extraction of iron,Extraction of Cu,
Au, Ag, Zn, Electrolytic extraction of Al Extraction of Na, Mg, Sn, Pb (not to be tested).
3.Environmental Chemistry: Atmospheric pollution; water pollution; soil pollution; industrial
waste; strategies to control environmental pollution; green chemistry
NOTE : METALLURGY & ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY :DELETED FROM JEE MAINS SYLLABUS
MATHEMATICS : Ellipse and Hyperbola
Sec: Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT Page 2

PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. Using thomson's model of the atom, consider an atom consisting of two electrons, each of
change -e, embeded in a sphere of charge +2e which is distributed uniformly through out the
volume and radius R. In equilibrium each electron is at a distance d from the centre of the
atom. What is the equilbrium separation between electrons.
1) R 2) R/2 3) R / 3 4) R / 4
2. A long solenoid has 1000 turns per metre and carries a current of 1 A. It has a soft iron core
of r  1000. The core is heated beyond the Curie temperature TC .
1) The H field in the solenoid is (nearly) unchanged but the B field decreaes drastically.
2) The H and B field in the solenoid are nearly unchanged.
3) The mangetisation in the core reverses direction.
4) The magnetisation in the core increaes by a factor of about 108 .
3. A plane electromagnetic wave of angular frequency  propagates in a poorly conducting
medium of conductivity  and relative permittivity  . Find the ratio of peak value of
conduction current density and displacement current density in the medium
 0    
1) 2) 3) 4)
  0   0  0

4. The optical powers of the objective and the eyepiece of a microscope are equal to
100 D and 20 D respectively. The angular magnification is equal to 50 when the eye is
relaxed. What will the magnification of the microscope be when the distance between the
objective and the eyepiece is increased by 2.0cm but the eye is still relaxed?
1) 60 2) 40 3) 72 4) 20
5. If the angular momentum of a planet of mass m, moving around the sun in a circular orbit is
L, about the center of the sun, its areal velocity is
L L 2L 4L
1) 2) 3) 4)
2m m m m
6. Suppose that two ideal heat engines are connected in series, such that the heat exhaust of the
first engine is used as the heat input of the second engine as shown in figure. The
efficiencies of the engines are 1 and 2 , respectively. The net efficiency of the combination
is given by
1
1) net  2  1  1  2 2) net  
1  1  2
1  1
3) net  1  1  1  2 4) net 
1  2  2
7. A block of mass M is tied to one end of a massless rope. The other end of the rope is in the
hands of a man of mass 2M as shown in the figure. The block and the man are resting on a
rough plank of mass M as shown in the figure. The whole system is resting on a smooth
horizontal surface. The man pulls the rope. Pulley is massless and frictionless. What is the
displacement of the plank when the block meets the pulley? (Man does not leaves his
position on plank during the pull).
2
1) 0.5 m 2) 1 m 3) Zero m4)
3
8. Statement – I : Kinetic energy of a system is minimum in a frame fixed to centre of mass
Statement – II : Velocity of center of mass of a system must be equal to velocity of the
particle whose position coincides with centre of mass at an instant
1) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct
2) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are incorrect
3) Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
4) Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct
9. A vessel at rest explodes breaking it into three pieces. Two pieces having equal mass fly off
perpendicular to one another with the same speed of 30 m/s. The third piece has three times
the mass of each of the other two pieces. Which of the following statements are correct?
1) The magnitude of velocity of heavier piece immediately after explosion is 10 2 m/s
2) The velocity of heavier piece is not inclined at 1350 with direction of each lighter piece
3) The magnitude of velocity of heavier piece immediately after explosion is 15 2 m/s
4) The velocity of heavier piece is inclined at 300 with direction of each lighter piece
10. A block of mass ‘m’ is gently kept over a sufficiently long plank of mass (2m) with an initial
velocity v 0 as shown in the figure. There is no friction between the plank and ground but
friction exists between the block and plank. Find the work done by friction in the subsequent
motion.

2 1 2 1
1) mv 02 2)  mv02 3)  mv 02 4)  mv 02
3 3 3 2
11. Five identical balls each of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’ are string like beads at random and at rest
along a smooth, rigid horizontal thin rod of length L, mounted between immovable supports.
Assume 10r < L and that the collision between balls or between balls and supports are
elastic. If one ball is struck horizontally so as to acquire a speed v, the average force felt by
the support is
5mv 2 mv2 5mv2 mv 2

1) 2) 3) 4)
L  5r L 10r L 10r L  5r
12. Statement – I : Two charged particle are released from rest in gravity free space. After
some time, one particle will exert a non-zero magnetic force on the other particle in addition
to electrostatic force.
Statement – II : A moving charge produces magnetic field. Also a magnetic force may act
on a charged particle moving in an external magnetic field.
13. Given figure shows the velocity of an object as a function of the time. The object has mass
10 kg and is being pushed along a straight line on a frictionless surface by an external force
(F). At t = 3s, the force stops pushing and the object moves freely for 1s interval. It then
collides head on and sticks to another object of mass 25kg. Find the speed of the second
particle just before the collision is__________ ms1
1) 0.5 2) 1.5 3) 2 4) 1
14. Match the following Column – I with Column – II :
Column – I Column – II
(Number) (Significant figure)
A) 1001 I) 3
B) 010.1 II) 4
C) 100.100 III) 5
D) 0.0010010 IV) 6
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I 2) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
3) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III 4) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
15. For a person with normal hearing the faintest sound that can be heard at a frequency of
400Hz has a pressure amplitude of about 6.0  105 atm. Calculate the corresponding intensity
in w/ m2 . Take speed of sound in air as 344 m/s and density of air 1.2 kg/ m3 .
1) 4.4 103 W m2 2) 4.4 102 W m2
3) 4.4 104 W m2 4) 4.4 101 W m2

16. A block of mass 2 kg moves with an acceleration 2 m / s 2 relative to the plank 4 kg having
an acceleration 4 m / s 2 as shown in the diagram. What is the work done (in J) by the inertial
force as observed by the man, on the block during time 4 s? Assume zero initial velocities of
the block, plank and man. (accelerations shown in the figure are constant)
1) – 4J 2) 4 J 3) 0 J 4) 2 J
17. An astronaut is inside a satellite. There is effectively no gravity inside the satellite. The
astronaut has a mass of 50 kg and is at rest inside the satellite. He throws an object of mass 5
kg towards a wall of the satellite. He finds that the object moves away at a velocity of 12
ms1 relative to him. The object collides with the front wall and rebounds. How long (in s)
after throwing the object the astronaut can catch the object? Assume that collision of the
object with the satellite wall is elastic and that the astronaut does not meet a collision till the
object is back to him. The object was thrown at a distance of 8m from the wall.
27 44 40 44
1) 2) 3) 4)
44 30 27 27
18. A particle of mass m1 is released from the top of a smooth wedge of mass m 2 which rest on
 
a smooth horizontal floor. Then g  10 m / s2 . Choose the incorrect statement?

16
1) The distance moved by the wedge till the mass m1 touch the floor is m.
9
2) The magnitude of displacement of the mass m1 till it touches the floor is nearly 16 m
3) The total kinetic energy of the system just before mass m1 touches the floor is 40 J.
4) The centre of mass of system of m1 and m 2 moves along Y-direction only.
19. Given below are two statements :
Statement – I: The reactance of an circuit is zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a
capacitor and an inductor.
Statement – II: In ac circuit, the average power delivered by the source never becomes zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
20. Assertion (A) : According to Archimede’s principle when body is floating the weight of
liquid displaced by body is equal to the weight of the body.
Reason (R) : A man is sitting in a boat which is floating on a pond. If the man drinks some
water from the pond, the level of the water in the pond decreases.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer
is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
21. If the figure shown are 2 LED's that can be used as a polarity detector. Apply a positive
source voltage and a green light results. Negative supplies result in a red light. Packages of
such combination are commercially available. Find the limiting value of the resistance of
resistor R(in  ) to ensure a current of 20 mA through the ON diode for the configuration.
Both diodes have reverse breakdown voltage of 3V and effective turn on voltage of 2V.
(Consider ideal behaviour of diodes)

x3
22. A block of mass M is placed on a surface with a vertical cross section given by y  .
6
If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the block
can be placed without slipping is 1/k. (in meter) Find ‘k’?
23. In the figure as shown, a triangular portion is cut from a circular disc of radius R. The
distance of centre of mass of the remaining portion from the centre of disc is
R   
calculate  
  1  2 
24. On the prism of mass M = 2 kg and length l  12 m, another prism of mass m = 1 kg and
length l1  3m is put as shown in the figure. The system is released from rest. Find the
magnitude of horizontal displacement of centre of mass of the system (in meters) when ‘m’
reaches the bottom of M. (all surfaces are smooth)

25. A solid right circular cone has its base cut out in conical shape shown in figure such that the
hollow is a right circular cone on the same base. C.M. of the object coincide with the vertex
of the hollow cone. Ratio of Height of original cone to height of cone cut out will be
26. The ratio of linear momenta of two particles of masses 1 kg and 4 kg if their kinetic energies
x
are equal . Find x + y (where x and y are least integer)
y
27. Two particles one of mass ‘m’ and the other of mass 2m are projected horizontally towards
each other from the same level above the ground with velocities 10 m/s and
5 m/s respectively. They collide in mid air and stick to each other. The distance from A,
where the combined mass finally lands is (in m) (take g  10 m / s 2 )

28. Two blocks A and B are connected by a spring of stiffness 512 N/m and placed on a smooth
horizontal surface. Initially the spring has its equilibrium length. The indicated velocities are
imparted to A and B. The maximum extension of the spring is in cm
29. A small ball moves towards right with a speed ‘v’. It collides with the fixed walls and
bounces back and forth on the horizontal frictionless surface. If the average speed during the
 2
first round trip – i.e. travelling first from A to B and then from B to A - is   v , find the
 3 
coefficient of restitution of impact in multiples of 101
30. A boy of mass 10 kg is standing on a 4kg block as shown. The whole system is on smooth
level ground. The boy jumps to the right with a velocity of 7m/s relative to the state of 4 kg
block just after jumping. The velocity of centre of mass of 1 kg and 4 kg system is (in m/s)
in the subsequent motion.

CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
correct.
31. Potassium manganate  K 2 MnO4  is formed when
1) Chlorine is passed into aqueous KMnO4 solution
2) Manganese dioxide is fused with potassium hydroxide in air
3) Formaldehyde reacts with potassium permanganate in presence of strong alkali
4) Potassium permanganate reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid
32. The number of moles of KMnO 4 that will be needed to react completely with one mole of
ferrous oxalate in acidic solution is
3 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4) 1
5 5 5
33. Arrange Ce3 , La 3 , Pm3 and Yb 3 increasing order of their ionic radii
1) Yb3  Pm3  Ce3  La 3 2) Ce3  Yb3  Pm3  La 3
3) Yb3  Pm3  La 3  Ce3 4) Pm3  La 3  Ce3  Yb3
The radius of La3 (At. No of La = 57) is 1.06 A which one of the following given values
0
34.
will be closest to the radius of Lu 3 (At. No. of Lu = 71)?

o o o o
1) 1.40 A 2) 1.06 A 3) 0.85 A 4) 1.60 A
35. Lanthanide for which + 2 and +3 oxidation states are common is
1) La 2) Nd 2) Ce 4) Eu
36. The IUPAC name for the following compound is

1) 6-formyl-2-methyl-hex-3-enoic acid 2) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid
3) 2, 5-dimethyl-5-carboxy-hex-3-enal 4) 2, 5-dimethyl-5-carboxy-hex-3-enal
37. Increasing value of magnetic moment of following species is
4 3 3 2
I .  Fe  CN 6  II .  Fe  CN 6  III . Cr  NH3 6  IV .  Ni  H 2O 6 
1) I  II  III  IV 2) IV  III  II  I 3) II  III  I  IV 4) I  II  IV  III

38. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds?
l-Iodobutane, l–Bromobutane, l–Chlorobutane, Butane
1) Butane  l–Chlorobutane  l–Bromobutane  l-Iodobutane
2) l-Iodobutane  l-Bromobutane  l–Chlorobutane  Butane
3) Butane  l–Iodobutane  l–Bromobutane  l–Chlorobutane
4) Butane  l–Chlorobutane  l–Iodobutane  l–Bromobutane
39. Each of the following options contains a set of four molecules. Identify the options(s) where
all four molecules posses permanent dipole moment at room temperature
1) NO 2 , NH3 , POCl3 , CH 3Cl 2) BeCl2 , CO2 , BCl3 , CHCl3
3) NO 2 , NH 3 , CO 2 , BeCl2 4) BF3 , O3 , SF6 , XeF6
The donor sites of  EDTA  are
4
40.
1) O atoms only 2) N atoms only
3) Two N atoms and four O atoms 4) Three N atoms and three O atoms
41. Match the following Column – I with Column – II
Column – I Column – II
Oxide Nature
A) CO I) Basic
B) BaO II) Natural
C) Al 2 O 3 III) Acidic
D) Cl 2 O 7 IV) Amphoteric
1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV 2) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
3) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II 4) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
42. Which of the following statements is correct?
3
1) CoF6  and Co  NH3 6  both are paramagnetic complexes
3
3
2) CoF6  and Co  NH3 6  both are high spin complexes
3
3
3) CoF6  is octahedral while Co  NH3 6  has a pentagonal pyramid shape
3
3
4) CoF6  is outer orbital complex while Co  NH3 6  is inner orbital complex
3
43. Which of the following actinoids have one electron in 6d orbital?

I) U(Z = 92) II) Np(Z = 93) III) Pu(Z = 94) IV) Am(Z = 95)
1) I and III only 2) I and IV only 3) I and II only 4) only III
44. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than those by the
lanthanoids, the main reason being
1) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
2) More energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
3) More reactive nature of the actionoids than the lanthanoids
4) 4f orbitals more diffused that the 5f orbitals
45. Statement – I : In general, actinoids form relatively less stable complexes as compared to
lanthanoids
Statement – II : Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid
contraction
1) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are true, and Statement – II is the correct
explanation of the Statement – I
2) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are true, but Statement – II is not the correct
explanation of Statement – I
3) Statement – I is not true but Statement – II is true
4) Both I and II are false

46. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Pr, Nd, Tb and Dy exhibit +4 state in oxides  MO 2  only
2) Ce (IV acts as a good reducing agent
3) In lanthanoids, the decrease in atomic radii (derived from the structures of metals) is not
quite regular as it is regular in M 3 ions
4) Eu 2 , Yb 2 acts as reducing agents
47. Statement – 1: 5f orbitals resemble the 4f orbitals in their angular part of the wave-function.
Statement – 2 : 5f orbitals are not as buried as 4f orbitals and hence 5f electrons can
participate in bonding to a far greater extent.
1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
48. A solution of a metal ion when treated with KI gives a red precipitate which dissolves in
excess KI to give a colourless solution. Moreover, the solution of metal ion on treatment
with a solution of cobalt (II) thiocyanate gives rise to a deep blue crystalline precipitate. The
metal ion is
1) Pb2 2) Hg 2 3) Cu 2 4) Co2
49. Statement – 1: Lanthanum (Z = 57) exhibits +4 oxidation state.
Statement – 2: After the loss of 6s and 5d electrons, lanthanum achieves inert gas like
configuration.
1) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement – 1.
2) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement – 1
3) Statement – I is True, Statement – 2 is False.
4) Statement – I is False, Statement – 2 is True.

50. The actinoids showing +7 oxidation state are:
1) U, Np 2) Pu, Am 3) Np, Pu 4) Am, Cm
51. How many EDTA (ethylene diaminetetra acetic acid) molecules are required to make a
complex with a Ca 2 ion?
52. Actinoid ion Number of unpaired electrons
U 5  Z  92  A
Pu 6  Z  94  B
Then (A + B) is …….
53.  
Number of lanthanoid ions Ln 3 having half filled f 7 configuration = x
 
Number of actinoid ions An 3 having half filled f 7 configuration = y
Then (x + y) is ………….
54. How many of the following statements are correct?
I) Lanthanoids are silvery white metals and tarnish in air
II) Actinoids are silvery in appearance
III) The chemistry of the actinoids is much more complicated than the lanthanoids
IV) Both La 3 and Lu 3 are yellow coloured in aqueous solutions
V) Among actinoids, the elements in the first half of the series frequently exhibit higher
oxidation states.
VI) The magnetic properties of the actinoids are more complex than those of the
lanthanoids
55. How many of the following will form paramagnetic tri positive ions?
Dy, Ho, Tm, Er, Ac, La, Bk, Fm, No
Given that : Atomic numbers: No = 102, Fm = 100, Bk = 97, La = 57, Ac = 89,
Er = 68, Dy = 66
56. XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral having 'x' number of p  d bonds. The value of ' x ' is.
57. How many N-atoms are present in the final product of following sequence:
HC  CH 
Red hot
Fe tube
 A 
Conc. HNO3
Conc.H 2SO 4
B 
Sn / HCl
 C 
NaNO2 / HCl
05 C
D 
C
 Final
25 C
product
58.
How many sp2 carbon atoms are present in the product?

59. Find out number of substrates those cannot undergo cannizzaro’s reaction
60.
The molecular weight of (B) is …………..

(Atomic masses F = 19, H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, B = 11
MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
correct.
61. If a hyperbola has length of its conjugate axis equal to 5 and the distance between its foci is
13, then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is :
3 3 3
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
12 6 8
62. The equation of a tangent to the hyperbola 4x 2  5y 2  20 parallel to the line x – y = 2 is :
1) x – y + 1 = 0 2) x – y + 7 = 0 3) x – y + 9 = 0 4) x – y – 3 = 0
63. A hyperbola has its centre at the origin, passes through the point (4, 2) and has transverse
axis of length 4 along the x-axis. Then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is :
3 2
1) 2) 3 3) 2 4)
2 3
 x2 y2
64. Let 0    . If the eccentricity of the hyperbola   1 is greater than 2, then
2 cos 2  sin 2 
the length of its latus rectum lies in the interval :
1)  3,   2) [3/2, 2] 3) (2, 3] 4) (1, 3/2]
x 2 y2
65. If the line y  mx  7 3 is normal to the hyperbola   1, then a value of ‘m’ is :
24 18
5 15 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 5 5
x 2 y2
66. Let P(3, 3) be a point on the hyperbola, 2  2  1. If the normal to it at ‘P’ intersects the
a b
x-axis at (9, 0) and ‘e’ is its eccentricity, then the ordered pair a 2 , e2 is equal to :  
9  3  9 
1)  , 3  2)  , 2  3)  , 2  4)  9, 3
2  2  2 
x 2 y2
67. A line parallel to the straight line 2x – y = 0 is tangent to the hyperbola   1 at the
4 2
point  x1 , y1  . Then x12  5y12 is equal to :
1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 5
68. The locus of the mid points of the chord of the circle, x 2  y 2  25 which is tangent to the
x 2 y2
hyperbola,   1 is :
9 16
   
2 2
1) x 2  y2  16x 2  9y2  0 2) x 2  y 2  9x 2  144y 2  0
   
2 2
3) x 2  y2  9x 2  16y 2  0 4) x 2  y2  9x 2  16y2  0
69. Let ‘S’ and S' be the foci of an ellipse and B any one of the extremities of its minor axis. If
S'BS is a right angled triangle with right angle at B and area  S'BS = 8 sq. units, then
the length of a latus rectum of the ellipse is :
1) 4 2) 2 2 3) 4 2 4) 2
70. Let the length of the latus rectum of an ellipse with its major axis along x-axis and centre at
the origin, be 8. If the distance between the foci of this ellipse is equal to the length of its
minor axis, then which one of the following points lies on it?

1) 4 2, 2 2  
2) 4 3, 2 2  
3) 4 3, 2 3  
4) 4 2, 2 3 
71. If tangents are drawn to the ellipse x 2  2y 2  2 at all points on the ellipse other than its four
vertices then the mid points of the tangents intercepted between the coordinate axes lie on
the curve :
1 1 x 2 y2 1 1 x 2 y2
1)   1 2)  1 3)   1 4)  1
4x 2 2y 2 4 2 2x 2 4y 2 2 4

72. If the normal to the ellipse 3x  4y 2  12 at a point ‘P’ on it is parallel to the line,
2
2x + y = 4 and the tangent to the ellipse at P passes thorough Q (4, 4) then PQ is equal to :
5 5 61 221 157
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
73. The tangent and normal to the ellipse 3x 2  5y 2  32 at the point P(2, 2) meet the x-axis at Q
and R, respectively. Then the area (in sq. units) of the triangle PQR is :
34 14 16 68
1) 2) 3) 4)
15 3 3 15
x 2 y2  9 
74. If the line x – 2y = 12 is tangent to the ellipse 2  2  1 at the point  3,  , then the
a b  2 
length of the latus rectum of the ellipse is :
1) 9 2) 12 2 3) 5 4) 8 3
75. In an ellipse, with centre at the origin, if the difference of the lengths of major axis and
 
minor axis is 10 and one of the foci is at 0, 5 3 , then the length of its latus rectum is :
1) 10 2) 5 3) 8 4) 6
76. If the tangents on the ellipse 4x 2  y 2  8 at the points (1, 2) and (a, b) are perpendicular to
each other, then a 2 is equal to :

128 64 4 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
17 17 17 17
77. If the curve y  ax 2  bx  c, x  R, passes through the point (1, 2) and the tangent line to
this curve at origin is y = x, then the possible values of a, b, c are :
1) a = 1, b = 1, c = 0 2) a = -1, b = 1, c = 1
1 1
3) a = 1, b = 0, c = 1 4) a  , b  , c  1
2 2

|x| | y| x 2 y2
78. Area (in sq. units) of the region outside   1 and inside the ellipse   1 is:
2 3 4 9
1) 6   2  2) 3   2  3) 3  4    4) 6  4   
79. The minimum distance between any two points P1 and P2 while considering point P1 on one
circle and point P2 on the other circle for the given circle’s equations
x 2  y 2  10x  10y  41  0
x 2  y 2  24x  10y  160  0 is........

1) 1 2) 8 3) 10 4) 5
 1
 4  tan x, | x | 1
80. The function f  x    is:
1
 | x | 1 , | x | 1
 2
1) Continuous on R – {1} and differentiable on R – {–1, 1}
2) Both continuous and differentiable on R – {1}
3) Continuous on R – {–1} and differentiable on R – {–1, 1}
4) Both continuous and differentiable on R – {–1}
x 2 y2 x 2 y2
81. If e1 and e 2 are the eccentricities of the ellipse,   1 and the hyperbola,  1
18 4 9 4
respectively and  e1 , e2  is a point on the ellipse, 15x 2  3y 2  k , then ‘k’ is equal to :
x 2 y2
82. If 3x  4y  12 2 is ‘a’ tangent to the ellipse 2   1 for some a  R , then the square
a 9
of distance between the foci of the ellipse is :
83. If the point ‘P’ on the curve 4x 2  5y 2  20 is farthest from the point Q(0, -4), then PQ 2 is
equal to :

84. If the co-ordinates of two point A and B are    

7, 0 and  7, 0 respectively and P is any
point on the conic, 9x 2  16y 2  144, then PA + PB is equal to :

85. Let ‘L’ be a tangent line to the parabola y 2  4x  20 at (6, 2). If ‘L’ is also a tangent to the
x 2 y2
ellipse   1, then the value of ‘b’ is equal to :
2 b
x 2 y2
86. If the point of intersections of the ellipse  2  1 and the circle x 2  y 2  4b, b  4 lie
16 b
on the curve y  3x , then ‘b’ is equal to :
2 2
dy
87. Let the curve y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation,  2  x  1 . If the
dx
4 8
numerical value of area bounded by the curve y = y(x) and x-axis is , then the value of
3
y(1) is equal to ……..

88. The value of the integral 
0
sin 2x dx is
 
If f(1) = 1, f ' 1  3 , then the derivative of f f  f  x     f  x   at x = 1 is :
2
89.
90. The number of roots of the equation,
 81   81
sin 2 x cos2 x
 30
In the interval  0,   is equal to :


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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI

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5mv 2 mv2 5mv2 mv 2

1) 4.4 103 W m2 2) 4.4 102 W m2

3) 4.4 104 W m2 4) 4.4 101 W m2

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coefficient of restitution of impact in multiples of 101

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will be closest to the radius of Lu 3 (At. No. of Lu = 71)?

Sec: Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT Page 13

1) I  II  III  IV 2) IV  III  II  I 3) II  III  I  IV 4) I  II  IV  III

43. Which of the following actinoids have one electron in 6d orbital?

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How many sp2 carbon atoms are present in the product?

The molecular weight of (B) is …………..

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each other, then a 2 is equal to :

Sec: Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT Page 21

x 2  y 2  24x  10y  160  0 is........

Sec: Sr.Super60_ NUCLEUS & STERLING_BT Page 22

84. If the co-ordinates of two point A and B are    

point on the conic, 9x 2  16y 2  144, then PA + PB is equal to :

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