Tech Mahindra
Tech Mahindra
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st-anns-a-tech-mahindra-a-mock-paper-a-06-august
Ans - D
Ans - A
Ans - A
4. Which GIT Command begins tracking of a new file?
A. Add
B. Addfile
C. Begin
D. Track
Ans - A
Ans - B
Ans - B
Ans - A
A. Constant
B. Var
C. Const
D. let
Ans - C
A. Inline
B. External
C. Internal
D. None of the above
Ans - B
A. <Script>
B. <Style>
C. <Link>
D. None of the above
Ans - B
11. Which of the following approaches is utilized by Javascript to access HTML elements?
A. getElementbyId()
B. getElementByClassName()
C. None of the above
D. Both A and B
Ans - D
A. .
B. /
C. ^
D. #
Ans - D
13. Which of the following are appropriate values for the CSS position property?
A. Static
B. Relative
C. Fixed
D. All of the Above
Ans - D
Ans - C
Ans - C
A. git fetch
B. git log -n
C. git config
D. git status
Ans - B
A. 1 NF
B. 2 NF
C. 3 NF
D. BCNF
Ans - C
A. Tupple
B. Degree
C. Entity
D. None
Ans - A
A. Error list
B. object explorer
C. query editor
D. none of the above
Ans - A
A. dates
B. column alias
C. strings
D. all of the above
Ans - B
21. The typeof resulted by the unary operator when an operator's value is NULL in Java Script is:
A. Boolean
B. Undefined
C. Object
D. Integer
Ans - C
Ans - C
A. Text
B. Color
C. Display
D. None of the above
Ans - C
A. Spam
B. Spoof
C. sniffer script
D. copple crumbs
Ans - B
Ans - B
26. Which command creates an empty Git repository in the specified directory?
A. git reset
B. git log ..
C. git init
D. git init --bare
Ans - D
git diff
git merge
git blame -L
git push --tags
Ans - A
A. Alter
B. Delete
C. Add
D. All of the above
Ans - A
Ans - B
30. Select the SQL keyword which is used to retrieve the unique values ?
A. DISTINCTIVE
B. UNIQUE
C. DISTINCT
D. DIFFERENT
Ans - C
31. How can a Javascript interval timer be stopped?
A. clearTimer
B. ClearInterval
C. intervalOver
D. None of the above
Ans - B
A. //
B. /* */
C. &&
D. ** **
Ans - A
33. Which of the following CSS properties defines the element's visible area and creates a
clipping region?
A. Visibility
B. Clip-path
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans - A
34. The kind of list item marker is determined by which of the following CSS properties?
A. Ul
B. Ol
C. List-style-type
D. List
Ans - C
A. Google mail
B. Yahoo mail
C. Great mail
D. None of the above
Ans - A
A. Branch pointer
B. Commit object
C. Head pointer
D. Body element
Ans - D
38. If an entity set E does not has enough attributes to form a primary key, then this entity set will
be called as:
Ans - C
39. When a primary key is define in the table, DBMS automatically creates a ____ on a primary
key column.
A. Unique index
B. Sequence
C. Trigger
D. synonym
Ans - A
A. POINT
B. 7
C. JAVAT
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
Ans - B
41. Which of the following are closures in Javascript?
A. Functions
B. Variables
C. Objects
D. All of the above
Ans - D
A. Vue
B. JQuery
C. Node
D. React
Ans - B
A. Background-clip
B. Background-size
C. Background-image
D. None of the above
Ans - A
A. Rem
B. Em
C. Vmax
D. All of the above
Ans - D
45. When sender and receiver of an email are on same system, we need only 2?
A. IP
B. Domains
C. User Agents
D. Servers
Ans - C
46. Which of the following options allows us to access our e-mail from anywhere?
A. Forum
B. Weblog
C. Message board
D. Webmail interface
Ans - D
A. C
B. HTML
C. PHP
D. C++
Ans - C
48. Git is a Version Control tool.
A. Decentralized
B. Centralized
Ans - A
A. 4GB
B. 8GB
C. 4TB
D. None of the above
Ans - A
A. It is an artificial key
B. It is user generated key
C. It uniquely identify each record
D. All of the above
Ans - B
Ans - B
52. Which JavaScript function is employed to serialize an object into a JSON string?
A. Stringify()
B. convert()
C. Parse()
D. None of the above
Ans - A
53. What components of the CSS box model are listed below?
A. Margin
B. Padding
C. Border
D. All of the above
Ans - D
A. Text-alignment
B. Text-align
C. Text-Position
D. Text
Ans - B
Ans - C
A. git remote rm
B. git branch -m
C. git branch -D (CAPS)
D. git rebase
Ans - B
57. Which Git command can display the patch of each commit.
A. git branch
B. git remote -v
C. git log -p
D. git log
Ans - C
58. Which of the following CLE (command line environment) can be used for Git ?
A. Git Bash
B. GitHub
C. Git Boot
D. Git Lab
Ans - A
59. FAT stands for
Ans - B
A. LEFT
B. JOIN
C. AVG
D. LEN
Ans - C
Computer Programming
1. The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) allows clients to establish direct connections
with servers using
A. web based connection
B. telnet
C. domain
D. linear connection
Ans - B
A. Structure chart
B. flowchart
C. Both a and b
D. none of these
Ans - B
A. Better programming
B. Efficient coding
C. Easy Debugging
D. All of these
Ans - D
4. Which of the following pseudocode instructions are written with the steps to be taken in the
correct order?
A. Sequence Logic
B. Selection Logic
C. Iterating logic
D. Looping Logic
Ans - A
5. Which symbol is used to represent output in flowchart?
A. Square
B. Parallelogram
C. Circle
D. Diamond
Ans - B
A. colon
B. semi-colon
C. comma
D. slash
Ans - B
7. Which of the following statements enables us to make decision from the available options?
A. break
B. switch
C. for
D. goto
Ans - B
A. Logical error
B. Hardware connected improperly
C. Incorrect data
D. All of above
Ans - D
A. Identified bug
B. debugging
C. Correction
D. None of the above
Ans - B
A. A hardware problem
B. A run-time error
C. A problem in the operating system
D. A syntax error
Ans - B
A. A recursive function that prints the values just and doesn't produce any output
B. A function in which the final operation it performs is a recursive call
C. An infinite loop results from a function's use of recursive functions.
D. Two base cases for a recursive function
Ans - B
Ans - B
13. Which Data Structure is primarily employed in the recursive algorithm implementation?
A. Stack
B. Queue
C. Linked list
D. Tree
Ans - A
A. Tower of Hanoi
B. Tree Traversal
C. Problems without base case
D. Fibonacci series
Ans - C
15. What happens if the base condition in the recursion is not defined?
A. Stack underflow
B. Stack Overflow
C. Empty Stack
D. None
Ans - B
A. Linear search
B. Binary search
C. Both linear and binary search
D. None
Ans - B
A. True
B. False
C. May be false
D. None
Ans - A
Ans - B
19. The circumstance under which a recursive function will stop calling itself is
A. Base case
B. Best case
C. Worst case
D. No any condition
Ans - A
20. Which of the following claims regarding constructors and destructors is true?
Ans - B
21. What happens if the base condition in the recursion is not defined?
A. Stack underflow
B. Stack Overflow
C. Empty Stack
D. None
Ans - A
22. Which of the subsequent access specifies is by default used in a class definition?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Protected
D. Friend
Ans - B
23. What keyword is used to control access to a class member among the following?
A. protected
B. default
C. break
D. private
Ans - A
24. Which of the following claims about publicly inherited classes is true?
A. Protected members of the derived class replace public elements of the base class
B. Private members of the derived class replace the public elements of the base
class.
C. Protected members of a derived class replace private elements of the base class.
D. Public members of the base class transfer to the derived class as public members
Ans - D
A. an object is created
B. an object is used
C. a class is declared
D. an object goes out of scope
Ans - A
26. Which of the subsequent claims regarding virtual base classes is true?
Ans - B
Ans - B
28. Which of the following claims about privately inherited classes is true?
Protected members of the derived class replace public elements of the base class.
Private members of the derived class replace the public elements of the base class
Ans - B
A. Encapsulation
B. Exception
C. Abstraction
D. Inheritance
Ans - B
A. Inheritance
B. Polymorphism
C. Data hiding
D. Encapsulation
Ans - A
Ans - B
32. When employing function overloading or an abstract class, which member function is
presumed to be called first?
A. Global function
B. Local function
C. Function with lowest priority
D. Function with the highest priority
Ans - D
Ans - A
A. strategy for merging the functions of multiple members into a single entity.
B. mechanism that unifies many data members into a single unit.
C. a method for combining many data members and the member functions that are
used with those data members into a single object
D. strategy for creating a single unit that can modify any data by merging many data
members and member functions.
Ans - C
35. Which of the following features could become unusable if the user doesn't make use of the
code's classes?
A. Use of the thing must be violated
B. The encapsulation feature alone is broken
C. It is impossible to implement inheritance
D. In essence, OOPS features are violated.
Ans - D
36. What definition of the word "polymorphism" do you think most accurately captures its
meaning?
A. The ability to process a large volume of messages and data in a single manner.
B. It is the ability to at least partially process ambiguous messages or data.
C. The ability to process a message or piece of data in more than one way.
D. It is the ability to process the communication or information in a single form.
Ans - C
37. Which of the following features does not appear in the OOPS definition?
A. Efficient
B. Modularity
C. Code Reusability
D. Redundant Data
Ans - D
A. 4 bytes
B. 8 bytes
C. Depend on the system/compiler
D. Cannot determined
Ans - C
A. attributes
B. data type
C. links
D. Data objection
Ans - A
A. byte
B. enum
C. short
D. Int
Ans - B
41. Which of the following data types comes under floating data types ?
A. int
B. double
C. long
D. byte
Ans - B
Ans - B
A. Integer
B. Boolean
C. Character
D. Integer or Boolean
Ans - D
A. friend
B. true
C. volatile
D. export
Ans - C
A. Basic datatype of C
B. Qualifier
C. short is the qualifier and int is the basic datatype
D. All of the mentioned
Ans - C
Ans - C
Ans - D
A. int __v1;
B. int __1v;
C. int __V1;
D. None
Ans - D
Ans - B
50. Which of the following options is an exception to being a part of composite data types?
A. Union
B. array
C. stack
D. structure
Ans - C
51. Variable name resolving (number of significant characters for uniqueness of variable)
depends on
A. C language
B. Compiler and linker implementations
C. Assemblers and loaders implementations
D. None of the above
Ans - B
A. float PI = 3.14
B. double PI = 3.14
C. #define PI = 3.14
D. Int PI = 3.14
Ans - C
53. Which of these methods is called when the observed object has changed?
A. setchanged()
B. update()
C. notifyObserver()
D. All of the above
Ans - D
A. notify()
B. observeObject()
C. updateObserver()
D. notifyObserver()
Ans - D
A. absolute()
B. abs()
C. absolutevariable()
D. None of the above
Ans - B
56. Which of these packages contains the exception Stack Overflow in Java?
A. java.lang
B. java.util
C. java.io
D. Java.system
Ans - A
57. To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside their
critical section is
A. 2
B. 7
C. 5
D. 1
Ans - D
58. The process of transferring data intended for a peripheral device into a disk (or intermediate
store) so that it can be transferred to peripheral at a more convenient time or in bulk, is known
as?
A. spooling
B. multiprogramming
C. virtual programming
D. None of the above
Ans - A
A. Register
B. Auto
C. Extern
D. Static
Ans - C
Ans - A
Automata Fix
Problem Statement 1
Write a program to return the difference between the count of odd numbers and even
numbers.
Note : You are expected to write code in the countOddEvenDifference function only which
will receive the first parameter as the number of items in the array and second parameter as
the array itself. you are not required to take input from the console.
Input Format
First line input an integer denoting the size of array
Second line input the array elements
Output Format
Print the odd even count difference
Example
Finding the difference between the count of odd and even numbers from a list of 5 number
Input
8
10 20 30 40 55 66 77 83
Output
-2
Input
5
13 2 67 84 12
Output
-1
Input
5
13 2 67 84 12
Output
-1
Input
5
12 3 4 1 2
Output
-1
Input
3
123
Output
1
Explanation
The first paramter (8) is the szie of the array. Next is an array of integers. The calculation of
difference between count sum of odd and even numbers is as follows:
3 (count of odd numbers) – 5 (count of even numbers) = -2
Solution
def countOddEvenDifference(n,numbers):
total=0
for i in numbers:
if i%2 == 0:
total = total - 1
else:
total = total + 1
return total
n = int(input())
numbers = list(map(int,input().split()))
print(countOddEvenDifference(n,numbers))
Problem Statement 2
Write a program to calculate and return the sum of absolute difference between the
adjacent number in an array of positive integers from the position entered by the user.
Note : You are expected to write code in the findTotalSum function only which receive
three positional arguments:
1st : number of elements in the array
2nd : array
3rd : position from where the sum is to be calculated
Input Format
First line input an integer denoting the size of array
Second line input the array elements
Third line input the integer denoting the position
Output Format
Print the total sum
Example
Input
7
11 22 12 24 13 26 14
5
Output
25
Input
5
12 16 90 1 4
3
Output
92
Input
4
12 44 31 2
2
Output
42
Input
3
123
1
Output
2
Input
4
1234
2
Output
2
Explanation
The first parameter 7 is the size of the array. Next is an array of integers and input 5 is the
position from where you have to calculate the Total Sum. The output is 25 as per
calculation below.
| 26-13 | = 13
| 14-26 | = 12
Total Sum = 13 + 12 = 25
Solution
def findTotalSum(n,numbers,pos):
total = 0
for i in range(pos-1,n-1):
total+= abs(numbers[i]-numbers[i+1])
return total
n = int(input())
numbers = list(map(int, input().split()))
pos = int(input())
print(findTotalSum(n,numbers,pos))
Problem Statement 3
Write a program to find the difference between the elements at odd index and even index.
Note : You are expected to write code in the findDifference function only which receive the
first parameter as the numbers of items in the array and second parameter as the array
itself. You are not required to take the input from the console.
Example
Finding the maximum difference between adjacent items of a list of 5 numbers
Input
input 1 : 7
input 2 : 10 20 30 40 50 60 70
Output
40
Explanation
The first parameter 7 is the size of the array. Sum of element at even index of array is 10 +
30 + 50 + 70 = 160 and sum of elements at odd index of array is 20 + 40 + 60 = 120. The
difference between both is 40
def findDifference(n,values):
total = 0
for i in range(n):
if i%2 == 0:
total+=values[i]
else:
total-=values[i]
return total
n = int(input())
values = list(map(int, input().split()))
print(findDifference(n,values))
Problem Statement 4
A Cloth merchant has some pieces of cloth of different lengths. He has an order of curtains
of length of 12 feet. He has to find how many curtains can be made from these pieces.
Length of pieces of cloth is recorded in feet.
Note : You are expected to write code in the findTotalCurtains function only which receive
the first parameter as the number of items in the array and second parameter as the array
itself. You are not required to take the input from the console.
Example
Finding the total curtains from a list of 5 cloth pieces.
Input
input 1 : 5
input 2 : 3 42 60 6 14
Output
9
Explanation
The first parameter 5 is the size of the array. Next is an array of measurements in feet. The
total number of curtains is 5 which is calculated as under
3 -> 0
42 -> 3
60 -> 5
6 -> 0
14 -> 1
total = 9
Solution
def findTotalCurtains(n,numbers):
total = 0
for i in numbers:
total += i//12
return total
n = int(input())
numbers = list(map(int, input().split()))
print(findTotalCurtains(n,numbers))
Quantitative Ability
1. Instead of a metre scale, a cloth merchant uses a 120 cm scale while buying, but uses an 80
cm scale while selling the same cloth. If he offers a discount of 20% on cash payment, what is
his overall profit percentage?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 15%
Ans - A
2. I sold two watches for Rs. 300 each, one at loss of 20% and other at the profit of 20%.
What is the percentage of loss (-) or profit (+) that resulted from the transaction?
A. (+)4
B. (-)1
C. (+)1
D. (-)4
Ans - D
3. A company named “Dyona Automobiles”has received an order for 5,000 widgets for a total
sale price of $5,000 and wants to determine the gross profit that will be generated by completing
the order.
The other details for producing 100,000 widgets are given as follows:
1.Raw Materials Costs-$10,000
2.Direct Labor Costs-$50,000
A. $5,000
B. $4,000
C. $3,000
D. $2,000
Ans - D
4 To earn extra profit,a shopkeeper mixes 30 kg of dal purchased at Rs.36/kg and 26 kg of dal
purchased at Rs.20/kg.What will be the profit that he will make if he sells the mixture at
Rs.30/kg?
A. Rs.60
B. Rs.80
C. Rs.50
D. Rs.100
Ans - B
5. Anirudh,Harish and Sahil invested a total of Rs.1,35,000 in the ratio 5:6:4 Anirudh invested has
capital for 8 months. Harish invested for 6 months and Sahil invested for 4 months. If they earn a
profit of Rs.75,900,then what is the share of Sahil in the profit?
A. Rs.12,400
B. Rs.14,700
C. Rs.15,800
D. Rs.13,200
Ans - D
6. The cash price of a television is Rs. 4022. A customer paid Rs. 1500 in cash and
promised to pay the remaining money in 3 monthly equal instalments at the rate of 5% per
annum compound interest. What is the value of each instalment?
A. Rs. 926.10
B. Rs. 903.33
C. Rs. 928.30
D. Rs. 940.50
Ans - A
7. Prabodh bought 30 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 8.50 per kg and 20 kg of rice at the rate
of Rs. 9.00 per kg. He mixed the two. At what price (App.) per kg should he sell the
mixture in order to get 20% profit?
A. Rs. 9.50
B. Rs. 8.50
C. Rs. 10.44
D. Rs. 12.00
Ans - C
8. An article was sold for Rs. 2770. Had it been sold for Rs. 3000 there would have been
an additional gain of 10%. Cost Price of the article is:
A. Rs. 2100
B. Rs. 2200
C. Rs. 2300
D. Rs. 2400
E. None of these
Ans - C
9. Rakesh buys a scooter worth Rs. 10,000. He sells it to Mohan at a profit of 10%. If after
sometime Mohan sells it back to Rakesh at a loss of 10%, then totally:
10. The list price of an electric iron is Rs. 300. If two successive discounts of 15% and
10% are allowed, its selling price will be:
A. Rs. 229.50
B. Rs.231.50
C. Rs.232.50
D. Rs. 234.50
E. None of These
Ans - A
Ages
1. If 13:11 is the ratio of the present age of Arijit Singh and Sonu Nigam respectively and
15:9 is the ratio between Arijit’s age 4 years hence and Sonu’s age 4 years ago. Then
what will be the ratio of Arijit’s age 4 years ago and Sonu’s age 4 years hence?
A. 13:9
B. 11:7
C. 11:13
D. 9:15
Ans - C
2. The ratio of the present age of Gautam Gambhir and K L Rahul is 11:20 respectively.
Seven years ago, Gautam Gambhir was 5a/11 of K L Rahul’s in age. Find the difference
between their present ages.
A. 17 years
B. 20 years
C. 18 years
D. 35 years
Ans - C
3. At present, the ratio between the ages of Nitish Kumar and Lalu Yadav is 4:3. After 6
years, Nitish’s age will be 26 years. What is the age of lalu at present?
A. 25 years
B. 20 years
C. 18 years
D. 15 years
Ans - D
4. Shikhar Dhawan is 24 years older than his son Jorawar. In two years, his age will be
twice the age of his son. The present age of Jorawar is?
A. 32 years
B. 19 years
C. 22 years
D. 20 years
Ans - C
5. The ratio between the ages of Rishabh Pant and Dinesh Karthik is 5:6 respectively.If the
ratio between the one-third age of Rishabh and half of Dinesh’s age is 5:9,then what is
Dinesh’s age?
A. 12 years
B. 15 years
C. Can’t be determined
D. None of these
Ans - C
6. 8 yeras ago,Akshay Kumar was three times as old as his son Aarav.Now,he is twice as
old as his son.The sum of present ages of the man and his son is
A. 73 years
B. 69 years
C. 108 years
D. 78 years
Ans - C
7. Saina Nehwal’s grandfather was 8 times older than her 16 years ago.He would be 3
times of her 8 years after from now.8 years ago,What was the ratio of Saina’s age to that
of her grandfather?
A. 11:53
B. 11:43
C. 7:9
D. 9:11
Ans - A
8. K L rahul is much younger than Yuvraj Singh as he is older than Munaf Patel.If the sum
of ages of Munaf and Yuvraj is 66 years,and yuvraj’s age is 48 years,then what difference
between Rahul's and Munaf's age?
A. 25 years
B. 20 years
C. 15 years
D. 18 years
Ans - C
9. Ten years hence,the respective ratio between Shahrukh Khan’ age and Salman’s age
will be 7:9.Two years ago the respective ratio of their ages was 1:3.If Amir is 4 years older
than Salman,What is Amir’s Present age?
A. 15 years
B. 12 years
C. 20 years
D. 22 years
Ans - B
10. The ages of Tapsee Pannu and Kangana ranaut are in the ratio of 7:3
respectively.After 6 years,the ratio their ages will be 5:3.What is the difference in their
ages?
A. 5 years
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 12 years
Ans - B
Averages
1. Albert Einstein scored an average marks of 80 in 10 papers. If the highest and the
lowest scores are not considered, the average is 81. If his highest score is 92, find the
lowest score.
A. 60
B. 55
C. 67
D. Cannot be determined
Ans - A
2. The average of 4 terms is 20 and the 1st term is 1/3 of the remaining terms. What will
be the first number?
A. 19
B. 20
C. 21
D. 22
Ans - B
3. The average age of X, Y and Z was 20 years and that of Y and Z was 20 years. X present age
is:
A. 20 years.
B. 40 years.
C. 23 years.
D. 18 years.
Ans - A
4. The average of 5 numbers is 13. If each number is increased by 4, what will the new average
be?
A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 18
Ans - C
5. In a T-20 cricket match played at the Eden Park stadium, the run rate scored by Sachin
Tendulkar was only 3.2 in the first 10 overs . What should be the run rate in the remaining 40
overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 5.75
B. 6.75
C. 6.25
D. 7.25
Ans - B
6. Two times is 4 ,four times is 6 , five times is 2 the total number of averages is :-
A. 2.5
B. 3.33
C. 3.81
D. 4.21
Ans - C
7. The average score of Sachin Tendulkar for ten matches is 28.5 runs. If the average for the
first Five matches is 37, then find the average for the last five matches.
A. 20
B. 25
C. 32.5
D. 30
Ans - A
8. Eight students from the St. Stephen's College, Delhi formed a team for a India Inter University
Shooting Competition.The best marksman named Karoly Takacs scored 85 points. If he had
scored 92 points, the average scores for. The team would have been 84. How many points
altogether did the team score?
A. 632
B. 656
C. 665
D. 625
Ans - C
9. The average of runs of a Virat kohli of 10 innings was 32. How many runes must be made in
his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4 ?
A. 57
B. 76
C. 53
D. 89
Ans - B
10. The average weight of 5 people's increases by 3 kg when a new person comes in place of
one of them weighing 30 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
A. 55 kgs
B. 45 kgs
C. 35 kgs
D. 75 kgs
Ans - B
1. Hari and Giri can do a piece of work in 90 days, and 80 days respectively. They begin
the work together but hari leaves after some days and Giri finishes the remaining work in
45 days . After how many days did Hari Leave ?
A. 18.52 days
B. 19.72 days
C. 28.12 days
D. 20 days
Ans - A
2. Gangadhar and Shaktiman can do a work in 20 days and 28 days respectively They
worked Together for 8 days and then Gangadhar left.The Remaining work was finished by
shaktimaan in ____ days ?
A. 84/10 Days.
B. 88/10 Days.
C. 58/10 Days.
D. 64/10 Days.
Ans - B
3. Ajay can Finish the work in 10 days ,Vijay Can Finish the work in 12 days, and Sujay
can finish the work in 15 days. They all Start work together. Ajay leaves the work after two
days and Vijay leaves 3 days before the work has completed .How long did it take for the
work to be completed ?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 7
D. 9
Ans - C
4.. Anushka and virat working alone can do a work in 9 days and 12 days Respectively if
they work for a day as alternatives . Anushka Beginning in How many days work will be
completed ?
A. 41/4
B. 32/4
C. 89/6
D. 13
Ans - A
5. Deepika does a work in 20 days while Ranveer does the same work in 15 days . They
Worked together and earned Rs. 35000 to complete the work , find the share of deepika?.
A. 18,000
B. 15,000
C. 5,000
D. 23,000
Ans - B
6. Jethalal alone can do work in 8 days and B alone can do the same work in 10 days.
How many days will it take to complete the work if both work together ?
A. 8 days
B. 9 days
C. 4.4 days
D. none of these
Ans - C
7. Parneet is twice as good as Gulabo and together they finish a piece of work in 18 days.
In how many days will Parneet alone complete the task ?
A. 15 days
B. 27 days
C. 25 days
D. 19 days
Ans - B
8. X and Y can do a piece of work in 5 days, while M and N can do the same work in 12
days. In how many days will X, Y, M and N do it together?
A. 60/17 days
B. 12/7 days
C. 43/13 days
D. 17/50 days
Ans - A
Ans - C
10. ACP pradyuman , daya and abhijeet can do a CID Investigation in 30 ,20 and 10 days
Respectively, If they work alone . ACP is assisted by Daya on one day and by Abhijeet on
the next day . Alternatively How long would it take to finish the CID Investigation ?
A. 9(⅝) days
B. 7(⅝) days
C. 9(3/4) days
D. 8(⅝) days
Ans - A
1. Dhruv and Naksh drive at the speeds of 36 Kmph and 54 kmph respectively. If Naksh takes 3
hours lesser than what Dhruv takes for the same distance. Then distance is :
A. 324 km
B. 524 km
C. 320 km
D. 420 km
Ans - A
2. The radius of wheel of axis's car is 50 cm. What is the distance that the car would cover in 14
revolutions?
A. 11 m
B. 22 m
C. 33 m
D. 44 m
Ans - D
3. Rohit and Rahul start from the same point and move away from each other at right
angle. After 4 hours they are 80 km apart. if the speed of Rohit is 4 kmph more than
Rahul. what is the speed of Rohit?
A. 16 kmph
B. 20 kmph
C. 12 kmph
D. none
Ans - A
4. A man sets out to cycle from Delhi to Rohtak and at the same time another man starts
from Rohtak to cycle to cycle to Delhi. After passing each other they completed their
journey in (10/3) hours and (16/3) hours respectively.At what rate does the second man
cycle if the first cycle at 8 kmph?
A. 6.12 kmph
B. 6.42 kmph
C. 6.22 kmph
D. 6.32 kmph
Ans - D
5. A car is 250 metres behind the bus. The car and bus are moving with speed 60 km/hr
and 35 km/hr respectively. The car will be ahead of bus by 250 metres in:
A. 37 seconds
B. 48 seconds
C. 72 seconds
D. 68 seconds
E. None of these
Ans - C
6. Mohan walks a certain distance and rides back in 6 hours and 15 minutes. If he walks
both ways he takes 7 hours and 45 minutes. If Mohan rides both ways the time which he
will take will be:
A. 4 hours
B. 4 hours 45 minutes.
C. 9/2 hours
D. 17/4 hours
Ans - B
A. 30
B. 31.25
C. 31
D. 33
Ans - B
8. A train leaves Delhi at 6.00 a.m. and reaches Agra at 10.00 a.m. Another train leaves
Agra at 8.00 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 11.30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross
each other if the distance between Delhi and Agra is 200 km?
A. 8:56 AM
B. 8:58 AM
C. 8:59 AM
D. 9:02 AM
Ans - A
9. Two trains are travelling in opposite directions at uniforms speeds of 60 kmph and 50
kmph.They take 5 seconds to cross each other.If the two trains travelled in the same
directions.then a passenger sitting in the faster moving train would have overtaken the
other than in 18 seconds.what are the lengths of the trains?
A. 112 m and 78 m
B. 102.77m and 50 m
C. 87.78 m and 55 m
D. 102.78 m and 55 m
E. None of these
Ans - B
10. Two trains for Palwal leave Kanpur at 10a.m and 10:30 am and travel at the speeds of
60 kmph and 75 kmph respectively. After how many kilometres from Kanpur will the two
trains be together?
A. 170
B. 190
C. 150
D. 130
Ans - C
Simple And Compound Interest
1. A lent Rs.600 to b for 2 years and Rs.150 to C for 4 years and receive all together
Rs.90 as both as interest.Find the rate of interest.
A. 4%p.a
B. 2%p.a
C. 5%p.a
D. 3%p.a
Ans - C
2. A certain sum of money becomes Rs.750 in 2 years and becomes Rs.873 in 3.5
years.Find the sum and rate of interest.
A. 14.99%
B. 13.99%
C. 15.99%
D. 16.99%
Ans - B
3. Elena deposited Rs. 13,900 split between two distinct investment program, A and B, at
annual simple interest rates of 14% and 11%, respectively. What was the amount invested
in Program B if the simple interest received over the course of two years was Rs. 3508?
A. 5400
B. 6600
C. 7600
D. 6400
Ans - D
4. A sum was put at simple interest at certain rate for 3 years. Had it been put at 1%
higher rate it would have fetched Rs. 63 more. The sum is:
A. Rs. 2,400
B. Rs. 2,100
C. Rs. 2,200
D. Rs. 2,480
Ans - B
5. A sum of Rs 468.75 was lent out at simple interest and at the end of 1 year and 8
months, the total amount of Rs 500 is recieved. find the rate of interest.
A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 1%
D. 3%
Ans - B
6. A sum of Rs. 900 amounts to Rs. 950 in 3 years at simple interest. If the interest rate is
increased by 4%, it would amount to how much?
A. Rs.1058
B. Rs.1056
C. Rs.1048
D. Rs.1066
Ans - A
7. Find the simple interest on Rs. 306.25 from March 3rd to July 27th( In the same year )
at 3.75 percent.
A. Rs. 4.57
B. Rs. 4.59
C. Rs. 4.53
D. Rs 4.58
Ans - B
8. Consider the following statements : If a sum of money is lent at simple interest, then the
1. Money gets doubled in 5 years if the rate of interest is 50/3 %. 2. Money gets doubled in
5 years if the rate of interest is 20%. 3. Money becomes four times in 10 years if it gets
doubled in 5 years of these statements
Ans - B
9. At the beginning of each year, Rs. 725 is lent at a specific interest rate. After 8 months,
another loan of Rs. 362.50 is made, but at a rate that is twice as high as the first. Interest
from both loans totals Rs. 33.50 at the end of the year. What was the initial interest rate?
A. 4.46
B. 3.46
C. 3.44
D. 2.46
E. None of these
Ans - B
10. A sum of money lent at compound interest for 2 years at 20% per annum would fetch
Rs. 482 more, if the interest was payable half-yearly than if it was payable annually. The
sum is:
A. Rs. 10,000
B. Rs. 20,000
C. Rs. 40,000
D. Rs. 50,000
Ans - B
1. What will be obtained if 8 is subtracted from the HCF of 168, 189, and 231?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 21
D. None of these
Ans - D
2. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their HCF is 4.Their LCM is:
A. 12
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
Ans - D
3. M and N are two distinct natural numbers. HCF and LCM of M and N are K and L respectively.
A is also a natural number, which of the following relations is not possible?
A. K x L=A
B. K x A=L
C. L x A=K
D. None of these
Ans - C
4. If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F. and L.C.M of these numbers are 5 and 120
respectively, then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to:
A. 55/601
B. 601/55
C. 11/120
D. 120/11
Ans - C
5. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 seconds
respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together ?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 15
D. 16
Ans - D
6. Four different electronic devices make a beep after every 30 minutes, 1 hour, 3/2 hour and 1
hour 45 minutes respectively. All the devices beeped together at 12 noon. They will again beep
together at:
A. 12 midnight
B. 3 a.m.
C. 6 a.m.
D. 9 a.m.
Ans - D
7. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 4800 and their G.C.M. is 160. If one of the numbers is 480, then
the other number is:
A. 1600
B. 1800
C. 2200
D. 2600
E. None of these
Ans - A
8. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 140. If their ratio is 2:5, then the numbers are:
A. 28,70
B. 28,7
C. 8,70
D. 8,40
Ans - A
9. If a number is exactly divisible by 85, then what will be the remainder when the same number
is divided by 17?
A. 'Zero'
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
Ans - A
10. Four bells begin to toll together and then each one at intervals of 6 s, 7 s, 8 s and 9 s
respectively. The number of times they will toll together in the next 2 hr is:
A. 14 times
B. 15 times
C. 13 times
D. 11 times
Ans - A
Prime Products
1. Which of the following numbers are prime? 1, 6.3, 11, 14, 13, 21, 23, ⅘, 100, 123.
A. 11,13,23
B. 22,21,14
C. 16,17,18
D. 31,56,96
Ans - A
2. Which of the following numbers are composite? 1, 8.4, 15, 13, 9/2, 24, 33.
A. 15, 24, 33
B. 13, 1 , 8
C. 4, 1 15
D. 6, 24 ,33
Ans - A
Ans - D
Ans - D
A. yes
B. no
C. may be
D. data inadequate
Ans - B
A. yes
B. no
C. may be
D. data inadequate
Ans - B
A. 43
B. 57
C. none
D. both
Ans - A
A. 32
B. 35
C. 39
D. 40
Ans - D
9, Ratio between two numbers is 3: 4 and their sum is 420. Find the smaller number?
A. 240
B. 180
C. 160
D. 140
Ans - B
10. Difference between two numbers is 5, six times of the smaller lacks by 6 from the four times
of the greater. Find the numbers?
A. 12, 9
B. 10, 5
C. 12, 7
D. 11, 6
Ans - C
Divisibility
A. -57
B. 57
C. 37
D. -37
Ans - A
A. zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Ans - B
A. zero
B. 1
C. 12
D. 2195
Ans - B
4. On dividing a number by 999,the quotient is 366 and the remainder is 103.The number
is:
A. 364724
B. 365387
C. 365737
D. 366757
Ans - C
5. The difference between two numbers is 1365.When the larger number is divided by the
smaller one ,the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15.The smaller number is:
A. 240
B. 270
C. 295
D. 360
Ans - B
6. What least value must be assigned to * so that the number 63576*2 is divisible by 8?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans - C
A. 35718
B. 63810
C. 537804
D. 3125736
Ans - D
A. 14342
B. 15211
C. 14944
D. 15411
E. None of these
Ans - D
9. The smallest number, which is a perfect square and contains 7936 as a factor is:
A. 251664
B. 231564
C. 246016
D. 346016
E. None of these
Ans - C
10. In a division problem, the divisor is twenty times the quotient and five times the
remainder. If remainder is 16, the number will be:
A. 3360
B. 336
C. 1616
D. 20516
E. None of these
Ans - B
Equations
1. For what value of “k” will the equation (2kx2 + 5kx +2)=0 have equal roots?
A. 2/7
B. 9/4
C. 16/25
D. 7/18
Ans - C
A. 36
B. 35
C. 54
D. 56
Ans - D
A. 0
B. 3
C. 1/3
D. None of these
Ans - D
4. Rajiv has a number x in his mind. He finds out that the square of x is less than x. What is the
range of x?
A. x is more than 1
B. x is equal to 0
C. x is less than 1 (x not equal to 0)
D. x is equal to infinite
Ans - C
A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. None of these
Ans - D
Ans - C
A. 2
B. No value will agree
C. -1
D. 7
Ans - D
8. In a family, the father took 1/5 of the cake and he had 4 times as much as others had, then the
family members are:
A. 10
B. 15
C. 17
D. 20
Ans - C
A. 64
B. 1000
C. 69
D. 52
Ans - B
Ans - D
Permutation Combinations
A. 44!/22!22!
B. (44!)/{(2!)22 (22!)
C. 44!/22!
D. 44!/22!22!2!
Ans - B
2. In how many ways can the 7 letters A,B,C,D,E,F and G be arranged so that C and E never
together.
A. 5040
B. 6480
C. 3600
D. 1440
Ans - C
3. How many numbers are there in all from 4000 to 4999 (both 4000 and 4999 included) having
at least one of their digits repeated?
A. 356
B. 216
C. 496
D. 504
Ans - C
4. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'OPTICAL' be arranged so that the
vowels always come together ?
A. 120
B. 720
C. 4320
D. 2160
E. None of these
Ans - B
5, In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'CORPORATION' be arranged
so that the vowels always come together ?
A. 810
B. 1440
C. 2880
D. 50400
E. 5760
Ans - D
6. How many 3 digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, which are
divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated ?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Ans - D
A. 3,724
B. 3,630
C. 4,914
D. 5,670
Ans - C
8. From a pack of 52 playing cards, 4 cards are removed at random. In how many ways can the
1st place and 3rd place cards be drawn out such that both are black ?
A. 64,974
B. 62,252
C. 69,447
D. 1,592,500
Ans - D
9. In how many ways can the digits 2,3,5,7 and 9 be placed to form a three-digit number so that
the higher order digit is always greater than the lower order digits? (Assume digits are all
different).
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 15
Ans - C
10. In how many ways can 4 ladies and 4 men form two mixed doubles teams for a tennis
match?
A. 72
B. 108
C. 36
D. 21
Ans - A
1. A person can swim in still water at 4 km/h. If the speed of water 2 km/h, how many hours will
the man take to swim back against the current for 6km?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 4
Ans - A
2. If a man rows 6 km downstream in 3 hours and 2 km upstream in 2 hours then how long will
he take to cover 9 kms in stationary (still) water?
A. 2 hour
B. 3 hour
C. 4 hour
D. 6 hour
Ans - D
3. A boat takes 6 hours to cover 36 km downstream and 8 hours to cover 32 km upstream. Then
the speed of the boat in still water is?
A. 3 Km/h
B. 4 Km/h
C. 5 Km/h
D. 6 Km/h
Ans - C
4. A boat covers a certain distance in one hour downstream with the speed of 10 kmph in still
water and the speed of current is 4 kmph. Then find out the distance travelled.
A. 10 km
B. 12 km
C. 13 km
D. 14 km
Ans - D
5. Find the speed of the stream when a boat takes 5 hours to travel 60 kms downstream at a rate
of 10 kms per hour in still water.
A. 3 km/h
B. 4 km/h
C. 2 km/h
D. 1 km/h
Ans - C
6. If the speed of the stream is 2 km per hour, and the speed of the boat in still waters is 10 km
per hour then find the time taken to cover 60 kms downstream.
A. 2h
B. 3h
C. 4h
D. 5h
Ans - D
7. Find the time taken by the boatman to row 4 kilometres downstream and return to his starting
point, if the speed or rate of stream is 2 kilometres per hour and the speed of the boat is 6
kilometres per hour.
A. 2 hour
B. 3 hour
C. 1.5 hour
D. 5 hour
Ans - C
8. A boat runs at 20 kmph along the stream and 10 kmph against the stream. Find the ratio of
speed of the boat in still water to that of the speed of the stream.
A. 3:1
B. 2:1
C. 4:1
D. 4:2
Ans - A
9. A man takes 3 hours 45 minutes to row a boat 15 km downstream of a river and 2 hours 30
minutes to cover a distance of 5 km upstream. Find the speed of the current.
A. 1 km/h
B. 2 km/h
C. 3 km/h
D. 4 km/h
Ans - A
10. A boat can travel with a speed of 16 km/hr in still water. If the rate of stream is 5 km/hr, then
find the time taken by the boat to cover distance of 84 km downstream.
A. 4h
B. 5h
C. 6h
D. 7h
Ans - A
1, A man buys spirit at Rs 60 per litre, adds water to it and then sells at Rs 75 per litre. What is
the ratio of spirit to water if his profit in the deal is 37.5%?
A. 9 : 1
B. 10 : 1
C. 11 : 1
D. None of these
Ans - B
2. A cask contains a mixture of 49 litres of wine and water in the proportion 5:2. How much water
must be added to it so that the ratio of wine to water may be 7:4 ?
A. 3.5
B. 6
C. 7
D. None of these
Ans - B
3. The cost of diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. Once, this diamond broke into
four pieces with weights in the ration 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. When the pieces were sold, the merchant got
Rs 70,000 less. Find the original price of the diamond?
A. Rs 1.4 lakh
B. Rs. 2 lakh
C. Rs 1 lakh
D. Rs 2.1 lakh
Ans - C
4. A dealer buys dry fruits at Rs 100, Rs 80 and Rs 60 per kilogram. He mixes them in the ratio
3 : 4 : 5 by weight and sells at a profit of 50%. At what price per kilogram does he sell the dry fruit
?
A. Rs 80
B. Rs 100
C. Rs 95
D. None of these
Ans - D
5. Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and 1 : 3 in container 2. In what ratio
should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a mixture of A and B in the
ratio of 1 : 1 ?
A. 2 : 3
B. 4 : 3
C. 3 : 2
D. 3 : 4
Ans - D
6. A milkman mixes 20L of water with 80L of milk. After selling one-fourth of this mixture, he adds
a water to replenish the quantity that he has sold. What is the current proportion of water to
milk ?
A. 2 : 3
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 3
D. 3 : 4
Ans - A
7. Using only 2, 5, 10, 25 and 50 paise coins, what will be the minimum number of coins required
to pay exactly 78 paise, 69 paise and Rs 1.01 to three different persons?
A. 19
B. 20
C. 17
D. 18
Ans - A
8. Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short cut along
the diagonal and saved a distance equal to half the longer side. Then, the ratio of the shorter
side to the longer side is ?
A. 1:2
B. 2:3
C. 1:4
D. 3:4
Ans - D
9. Fresh grapes contain 90% water by weight while dried grapes contain 20% water by
weight. What is the weight of dry grapes available from 20 kg of fresh grapes ?
A. 2 Kg
B. 2.4 Kg
C. 2.5 Kg
D. None of these
Ans - C
10. I have one rupees coins, fifty paise coins and twenty five paise coins. The number of
coins are in the ratio 2.5 : 3 : 4. If total amount with me is Rs 210, find the number of one
rupee coins ?
A. 90
B. 85
C. 100
D. 105
Ans - D
Data Interpretation
1. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 3: Refer to the information given below and answer
the questions that follow: Given the
1. Probability of occurrence of event A is 0.5 and that of event B is 0.2. The probability of
occurrence of both A and B is 0.1. What is the probability that none of A and B occur?
A. 0.3
B. 0.4
C. 0.7
D. None of these
Ans - B
2. An unbiased coin is tossed 5 times. If tail appears on first four tosses, then probability of tail
appearing on the fifth toss is:
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 4/5
D. 1/3
Ans - A
3. X and Y are two independent events. The probability that X and Y occur is 1/12, and the
probability that neither occur is 1/2, the probability of occurrence of X can be:
A. 1/3
B. 1/5
C. 1/2
D. 1/10
Ans - A
4. An unbiased coin is tossed n times. If the probability of getting 4 tails equals the probability of
getting 7 tails, then the probability of getting two tails is:
A. 55/2048
B. 3/4096
C. 1/1024
D. None of these
Ans - A
5. Three numbers are chosen from 1 to 30 randomly. The probability that they are not
consecutive is:
A. 1/145
B. 144/145
C. 139/140
D. 1/140
Ans - A
6. A bag is full of 20 bananas and no other fruit. Rajeev draws a fruit from the bag. What is the
probability that he will draw a banana?
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. None of these
D. Zero
Ans - A
7. The probability of drawing an apple from a bag of fruits is 6/25. How many apples should Ravi
draw, so that there is a chance he will draw 12 apples on average?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 12
D. None of these
Ans - B
8. Rani has a bag with three blue and three yellow coins. She takes out a coin, sees its colour
and puts it back in the bag. She does this thrice. What is the probability that she saw all blue
coins.
A. 1/8
B. 1/2
C. 1/3
Ans - A
9. Shikhar has a bag with 2 balls, each of which can be black or white with equal probability.
Now, he draws out a ball and it turns out to be black. After this event, what is the probability that
both balls are black?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1
D. None of these
Ans - A
10. The probability of occurrence of event A is 0.3 and that of event B is 0.4. The events are
independent. What is the probability of occurrence of both A and B?
A. 0.7
B. 0.1
C. 0.12
D. Cannot be determined
Ans - C
Logical
Number Series
Ans - A
Ans - B
3. Find the next number. 45, 32.25, 19.75, 7.25, -5.25, -17.75
A. -30.75
B. -30.05
C. -30.5
D. -30.25
Ans - D
Ans - B
Ans - A
Ans - B
Ans - A
Ans - A
9. Find the odd one out. 17, 20, 25, 30, 41, 52
A. 52
B. 41
C. 30
D. 25
Ans - C
10. Find the incorrect number. 7, 18, 28, 57, 95, 141
A. 28
B. 57
C. 141
D. 95
Ans - C
Blood Relations
1. If P+Q means P is the mother of Q, P-Q means P is the brother of Q, A%B means P is the
father of Q, and PXQ means P is the sister of Q Which among the following indicate that P is the
maternal uncle of Q?
A. Q+N-M+P
B. P-M+N*Q
C. Q+N%S-L
D. M+L-O+S
Ans - B
2. If A is the only daughter of F. If A is married to B and also if P is the daughter of A, then how is
B related to P?
A. Father
B. Son
C. Grandfather
D. Mother
Ans - A
3. Introducing a lady, a man says, she is the daughter of the man who is the father of the wife of
my father. How is the lady related to the man?
A. Sister
B. Cousin
C. Mother
D. Wife
Ans - C
A. A
B. C
C. B
D. D
Ans - B
5. Angela is talking to Alicia’s husband’s son’s mother’s sister’s father, and if Angela and
Alicia are real sisters, who is Angela talking to?
A. Father
B. Brother
C. Cousin
D. Uncle
Ans - A
6. Ross went to his father’s sister’s daughter’s maternal grandmother’s only son-in-law’s
son’s house? Whose house did he go?
A. Brother
B. Father
C. Cousin
D. Grandfather
Ans - C
7. Direction (Q7-Q10) A family with members A, S, O, D, G, T have three men and three
women, with two married couples. We also know O is the son of S, T is the son of S, G, is
the grandson of A, D is the mother of a boy; A is not the father of O. All the relationships
mentioned above are between these six persons only.
Ans - A
8. Direction (Q7-Q10) A family with members A, S, O, D, G, T have three men and three
women, with two married couples. We also know O is the son of S, T is the son of S, G, is
the grandson of A, D is the mother of a boy; A is not the father of O. All the relationships
mentioned above are between these six persons only.
A‘s husband?
A. O
B. F
C. A
D. S
Ans - D
9. Direction (Q7-Q10) A family with members A, S, O, D, G, T have three men and three
women, with two married couples. We also know O is the son of S, T is the son of S, G, is
the grandson of A, D is the mother of a boy; A is not the father of O. All the relationships
mentioned above are between these six persons only.
T‘s mother is ?
A. D
B. T
C. S
D. A
Ans - D
10. Direction (Q7-Q10) A family with members A, S, O, D, G, T have three men and three
women, with two married couples. We also know O is the son of S, T is the son of S, G, is
the grandson of A, D is the mother of a boy; A is not the father of O. All the relationships
mentioned above are between these six persons only.
O‘s mother is?
A. F
B. D's Daughter-in-Law
C. S
D. A
Ans - D
Analogies
A. L3J
B. H4E
C. J8G
D. None of these
Ans - B
2. CQRT: HVWY::BNPU:
A. GSUZ
B. AMNK
C. QRTR
D. TSHE
Ans - A
A. S6J
B. J4K
C. KQV
D. J4Y
Ans - C
A. MNO
B. M5P
C. MSP
D. JLK
Ans - B
AC : DF: GI: ?
A. SD
B. HB
C. JL
D. AX
Ans - C
Ans - B
A. QST
B. QTS
C. QRS
D. MQT
Ans - A
8. 29:60:: 105:
A. 212
B. 210
C. 315
D. 205
Ans - A
9. B18T:E12Q:: C15R:
A. F9O
B. F12R
C. D5I
D. E10J
Ans - A
Ans - D
Give answer
Statement
SRK is a famous film star. SRK earns handsome amounts every year through advertisements of
products he endorses.
Conclusions
1.
All famous film stars earn handsome amounts through advertisements.
2.
SRK, being famous, endorses only famous brands.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - D
2. Statement
Conclusions
1.
There are only two important factors for a reputed management institute: quality and
advertising.
2.
Small management institutes focus on only one quality and advertising.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - D
3. Statement
The South Africa Cricket team scored 300 runs out of which AB de Villiers scored 151
runs.
Conclusions
1.
AB de Villiers was the highest run-scorer of the match.
2.
De Villiers scored 66 runs in singles only.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - D
4. Statement
On account of the start of the rainstorm, there is a sharp move at the expense of Alphonso
mangoes.
Conclusions
1.
Alphonso mangoes are in demand at any price.
2.
The onset of monsoons affects the market for Alphonso mangoes
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - B
5. Statement
What is an RDX explosive? From the outside, it looks like a simple harmless object, but it's
real contents are so deadly that they are sufficient to blast off an entire Hotel or even a
plane.
Conclusions
1.
The RDX explosive can cause massive destruction by killing a number of persons with a
single explosion.
2.
The RDX explosive is only used to blast planes/hotels as it is difficult to recognize in such
settings.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - A
6. Statement
Try not to stop here. On the off chance that you disregard this no-stopping sign, a
punishment of Rs 5000 will be charged.
Conclusions
1.
The same penalty is charged for every wrong parking offense.
2.
This warning is written outside all non-parking zones.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - D
7. Statement
Whenever there is a match between Barcelona and Manchester, Mr. Peter takes leave
from his office. Mr. Peter is in the office today.
Conclusions
1.
Today there is no match between Barcelona and Manchester.
2.
Mr. Peter always goes to his office except in Barcelona-Manchester match days.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - A
8. Statement
Conclusions
1.
Mrs. Meena is an employee of my Company. She is either an engineer or an MBA.
2.
Mr. Prakash is an employee of my Company. He is either an engineer or an MBA.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - B
9. Statement
Conclusions
1.
He is an Actor.
2.
He is not interested in Bollywood.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - D
10. Statement
On the off chance that the temperature stays steady the breeze rates will be underneath
100 kmph. Wind speeds were over 100 kmph.
Conclusions
1.
The temperature was not constant.
2.
The temperature was fluctuating.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - C
1. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers. 48, 63, 80, 99, 120, 150
A. 63
B. 80
C. 120
D. 150
Ans - D
A. 0A1
B. 1R8
C. 2Y4
D. 1P6
Ans - C
3. Find the odd man out. 19, 23, 29, 47, 53, 61, 79, 81, 83
A. 23
B. 47
C. 81
D. 83
Ams - C
Ans - D
5. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers. 432, 605, 456, 589, 480,
555, 504,557
A. 432
B. 456
C. 555
D. 557
Ans - C
A. LMNO
B. ABDC
C. PQSR
D. WXZY
Ans - A
Select one
A. MNP
B. WUV
C. EFH
D. OPR
Ans - B
A. ACFJ
B. CEHL
C. PRUY
D. NPRV
Ans - D
Select one
A. NOQP
B. KLON
C. RSUT
D. UVXW
Ans - B
Select one
A. ZALY
B. UJMP
C. OKJE
D. KLMN
Ans - D
Data Sufficiency
1. Materials that are heavy to weigh can easily take the place of material lighter to them in a bag.
Which of the following is the heaviest? Statements: I.P can replace neither Q nor R. II.R can
replace P.
Ans - D
2. Who is the son of A? Statements: I.B is A’s brother. II.C is the daughter of B
Ans - D
3. Anil ranks 10th in the class. The class has how many students? Statements: I. His sister got
46th rank which is the last position in the class. II. His rank from the last is 36th.
Ans - A
4. Among the four woman, who is the tallest? Statements I. B is taller than C, but smaller than A.
II. C is taller than D.
A. Statement I alone is sufficient.
B. Statement II alone is sufficient.
C. Both the statement when put together are sufficient.
D. Both the statements put together are not sufficient.
E. Either of the statements is sufficient.
Ans - C
5. When is Anjali graduating? Statements: I.The date is before 4th and after 1st Jan. II.The date
is after 2nd and before 5th Jan.
Ans - C
6. How is Fred related to Arthur? Statements: I.George is the brother of Fred. II.Arthur is the
father of Fred.
Ans - B
7. The price of the drink depends on the day on which it was manufactured. The ones that were
manufactured earlier, will have the lest price. The one packed after that will have medium, and
the fresh drinks will have the highest price. Lot A was manufactured recently, lot B was
manufactured before lot A, and lot C was the first one to manufacture. Which the most expensive
lot of drinks? Statements: I.Lot A is the most expensive. II.The price of lot B lies between A and
C.
A. Statement I alone is sufficient.
B. Statement II alone is sufficient.
C. Both the statement when put together are sufficient.
D. Both the statements put together are not sufficient.
E. Either of the statements is sufficient.
Ans - A
8. A piece of rope is 10 metres long. It is cut into three smaller pieces. What is the length of the
longest piece of rope? Statements: I.Two pieces are of same length. II.One piece is 3 metres
long.
Ans - C
9. Among the four men in an office- Raj, Vaibhav, Sunil, and Anshul, who is the tallest?
Statements: I.Raj is shorter than Vaibhav but taller than Sunil. II.Anshul is taller than Vaibhav.
Ans - C
10. How many brothers does Sumit have? Statements: I. Sumit do not have any sister. II. Sumit’s
mother has four sons.
Ans - C
Seating Arrangement
Eight colleagues H, I, J, K, L, M, N, and O are sitting surrounding an octagon table facing each
other at different corners of the table. H is the second left to K. I is the neighbor of M and N. O is
second left of N. L is between J and H. J is immediate to M.
Ans - B
A. N
B. I
C. O
D. H
Ans - A
A. L
B. K
C. J
D. M
Ans - B
A. J
B. M
C. H
D. K
Ans - D
5. Six trees are planted in a row each of mango, apple, orange, guava, banana, and
pomegranate.
Mango is planted between banana and pomegranate, banana is one of the two trees
planted in the middle.
Guava is the only tree planted left to apple and the orange tree is not immediate to the
pomegranate tree.
Which tree is planted next to the banana tree?
A. Guava
B. Apple
C. Orange
D. Pomegranate
Ans - C
6. Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Asha, Bina, Chitra, Deena, Ena, Fita, Gita, and Hema are sitting around a circular table,
facing the center. Gita is sitting third to the right of Fita. Hema is not an immediate
neighbor of Fita and Gita. Asha is sitting second to the right of Hema. Bina is sitting third to
the right of Chitra and Chitra is not an immediate neighbor of Gita. Deena is not an
immediate neighbor of Hema or Chitra.
Ans - C
7. Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Asha, Bina, Chitra, Deena, Ena, Fita, Gita, and Hema are sitting around a circular table,
facing the center. Gita is sitting third to the right of Fita. Hema is not an immediate
neighbor of Fita and Gita. Asha is sitting second to the right of Hema. Bina is sitting third to
the right of Chitra and Chitra is not an immediate neighbor of Gita. Deena is not an
immediate neighbor of Hema or Chitra.
Four options out of five are the same in a certain way based on their seating positions in
the above arrangement. Which one is different from the group?
A. Fina - Gita
B. Hema - Gita
C. Fina - Chitra
D. Ena- Asha
Ans - D
8. Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Asha, Bina, Chitra, Deena, Ena, Fita, Gita, and Hema are sitting around a circular table,
facing the center. Gita is sitting third to the right of Fita. Hema is not an immediate
neighbor of Fita and Gita. Asha is sitting second to the right of Hema. Bina is sitting third to
the right of Chitra and Chitra is not an immediate neighbor of Gita. Deena is not an
immediate neighbor of Hema or Chitra.
Ans - C
9. Asha, Bina, Chitra, Deena, Ena, Fita, Gita, and Hema are sitting around a circular table,
facing the center. Gita is sitting third to the right of Fita. Hema is not an immediate
neighbour of Fita and Gita. Asha is sitting second to the right of Hema. Bina is sitting third
to the right of Chitra and Chitra is not an immediate neighbour of Gita. Deena is not an
immediate neighbour of Hema or Chitra.
Ans - A
10. Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Asha, Bina, Chitra, Deena, Ena, Fita, Gita, and Hema are sitting around a circular table,
facing the center. Gita is sitting third to the right of Fita. Hema is not an immediate
neighbour of Fita and Gita. Asha is sitting second to the right of Hema. Bina is sitting third
to the right of Chitra and Chitra is not an immediate neighbour of Gita. Deena is not an
immediate neighbour of Hema or Chitra.
Total how many persons are sitting between Bina and Ena starting from Bina in an
counter-clockwise direction?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Ans - B
Coding - Decoding
A. ECCCPSE
B. VACAPES
C. VACCINE
D. VACCATE
Ans - C
2. Given signs signify something and on that basis, assume the given statement to be true.
Answer the question basis the information provided “*” denotes larger than “%” denotes equal to
“/“denotes not equal to “-” denotes smaller than “+” denotes not smaller than “X” denotes not
larger than If A - B and B - C, then Select one
A. A%C
B. A+C
C. A*C
D. A/C
Ans - D
A. 429041
B. 570884
C. 570484
D. 570448
Ans - B
A. UFLM
B. IMOT
C. CMOY
D. JUHY
Ans - A
5. The code word STOP be 5827, similarly, the code work for DROP be 2968. The code word for
TED be 546. What will be the code word for PORT?
A. 8295
B. 8265
C. 8945
D. None of these
Ans - A
A. 49F
B. 49G
C. 36G
D. 25F
Ans - B
Ans - B
8. If SMALL is coded as 75, CLAY is coded as 14, then CRIME is coded as:
A. 84
B. 48
C. 56
D. 42
Ans - A
A. 144
B. 9
C. 87
D. 89
Ans - B
10. Study the following and find appropriate code for “Health is Happiness” Money gives
happiness is coded as min huw tim
Ans - B
Mathematical Orders
1. Solve 60 ÷ 10 X 4 + 2
A. 22
B. 26
C. 23
D. None of the above
Ans - B
2. Solve 10 + (8 – 4)^2 x 6 ÷ 12 – 2
A. 23.5
B. 16
C. 26.7
D. None of the above
Ans - B
A. 34
B. -22
C. 68
D. None of the above
Ans - C
A. 1256
B. 1546
C. 1236
D. None of the above
Ans - A
A. 163
B. 60
C. 78
D. None of the above
Ans - A
6. Solve 8 + 8 ÷ 4 + 8 × 2 - 4 =?
A. 56
B. 22
C. 42
D. None of the above
Ans - B
A. 4422
B. 4400
C. 4004
D. None of the above
Ans - C
A. 24
B. -26
C. 42
D. None of the above
Ans - B
A. -99
B. -98
C. -96
D. None of the above
Ans - B
A. 40, 536
B. 40,392
C. 40899
D. None of the above
Ans - B
Verbal English
Ans - B
3. The court has yet to serve him _________ summons for the suit med against him.
A. With
B. On
C. to
D. Into
Ans- A
4. The ruling party will have to put its own house ......... order.
A. to
B. on
C. in
D. Into
Ans. C
Ans- C
6. In school many of us never realized the importance that grammar would .... in later life.
A. figure
B. portrary
C. play
D. Exercise
Ans- C
7. 'Please' and ' Thank you' are the little courtesies by which we keep the ..... of life oiled
and running smoothly.
A. path
B. machine
C. river
D. Garden
Ans- B
8. He ...... in wearing the old fashioned coat inspite of his wife's disapproval.
A. insists
B. persists
C. desists
D. Resists
Ans- B
A. idealistic
B. generous
C. optimistic
D. Lazy
Ans- D
A. of
B. from
C. off
D. Under
Ans- C
Parajumbles
Ans- C
Ans. B
3. S1: When my car broke down, I took it to the only mechanic available in our town.
S6 : They pushed the car down one street and up another and soon we had gone through
most of the streets in the town but the car wouldn't start.
P: But it just refused to start.
Q: I went there at the appointed time to collect it.
R: So I sat at the wheel and the mechanic and his helper started to push it.
S: He said it required some minor repairs and asked me to collect it in the evening.
A. SQPR
B. RPQS
C. QSRP
D. PQRS
Ans- B
4. S1: There is no reason for the terror which the sight of a snake causes in most people.
S6: Being aggressive by nature, they can attack human beings for no reason at all, taking
a fisherman or swimmer by surprise in the water, where the man is somewhat helpless.
P: Of the poisonous snakes, only those found in the sea are always dangerous.
Q: They are only too anxious to avoid human beings.
R: Many more people are killed, much more frequently by motor-cycles and cigarettes
than by snakes.
S: The majority of snakes are harmless.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
A. SQRP
B. RSQP
C. RPQS
D. PQRS
Ans-B
Ans- C
6. S1: A force of exists between everybody in the universe.
P : Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force
is considerable.
Q : It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.
R : Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.
S : This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.
S6: The greater the mass, the greater is the earth's force of attraction on it. We can call
this force of attraction gravity.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PRQS
B. PRSQ
C. QSRP
D. QSPR
Ans- D
7. S1: The Hound of Baskervilles was feared by the people of the area.
P : Some people spoke of seeing a huge, shadowy form a Hound at midnight on the moor.
Q : But they spoke of it in tones of horror.
R : Nobody had actually seen the hound.
S : This shadowy form did not reveal any details about the animal.
S6: The Hound of Baskervilles remains an unsolved mystery.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. SPQR
B. SPRQ
C. PSRQ
D. PQRS
Ans- C
8. S1: A gentleman who lived alone always had two plates placed on the table at dinner
time.
P : One day just as he sat down to dine, the cat rushed in to the room.
Q : One plate was for himself and other was for his cat.
R : she drooped a mouse into her own plate and another into her master plate.
S : He used to give the cat a piece of meat from his own plate.
S6: In this way the cat showed her gratitude to her master.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. QSPR
B. PSRQ
C. QRSP
D. RPQS
Ans- A
Ans- A
Ans- C
1. Reema ________ to jump off the wall when she _________ and fell.
A. will trying, glided
B. tried, glided
C. tried, was glid
D. was trying, had glided
Ans- B
2. _________ nature never differentiates between the rich and the poor, it just spreads the
same amount of love to each individual.
A. A
B. An
C. The
D. No article
Ans- C
Ans- B
4. Allahabad is ___________ tourist place and it is also _________ as one of the busiest
cities of India.
A. A, considered
B. An, consider
C. The, considered
D. The, considering
Ans- A
5. _____ One should never regret if he is born into _________ underprivileged family.
A. No article, an
B. An, a
C. The, an
D. An, no article
Ans- A
6. he charter plane of ______ Sushant Sing Rajput landed on ________ ground near his
bungalow.
A. The, A
B. No article, An
C. No article, The
D. The, the
Ans- C
7. Reeta was enrolled into _______ European University and she wanted to pursue ____
MBA degree
A. An, a,
B. A, an
C. The, the
D. An, the
Ans- B
A. A, an
B. An, the
C. The, an
D. An, A
Ans- A
A. A, the
B. An, a
C. An, the
D. The, the
Ans- C
10. One of the student ___________, “________ chemistry teacher was late yesterday.”
A. has said, a
B. said, the
C. said, no article
D. will say, the
Ans- B
Ans- B
A. for
B. with
C. by
D. At
Ans- A
3. You are supposed to take this medicine and you will get rid ________ the bad cold.
A. at
B. for
C. over
D. Of
Ans- D
A. from
B. over
C. at
D. In
Ans- D
5. A study states that ____ 2.5 quintillion bytes of data are being generated every single
day which is unstructured or semi-structured.
A. Under
B. Above
C. Over
D. Beside
Ans-C
A. to
B. on
C. for
D. With
Ans- D
A. from
B. in
C. on
D. For
Ans-A
A. for
B. to
C. in
D. On
Ans- B
A. for
B. from
C. towards
D. On
Ans- B
10. The reward was commensurate _________ the work done by us.
A. off
B. from
C. with
D. Of
Ans- C
Synonyms
1.Select the word or phrase which best expresses the meaning of the word typed in bold.
Ans- D
2. Some women pose for Playboy in order to give their careers a little salacious boost.
A. Bliss
B. Depression
C. Indecent
D. Recession
Ans- C
A. Animated
B. Bewildered
C. Enraptured
D. Illful
Ans-C
A. Punish
B. Curse
C. Dismiss
D. Reprimand
Ans- D
A. Progressive
B. Brilliant
C. Inventive
D. Hard-working
Ans-D
A. Pure
B. Pretentious
C. Clean
D. Devout
Ans- D
7. In fact, he had repeatedly encouraged her to browse his financial records.
A. Heal
B. Deceive
C. Examine
D. Strike
Ans- C
A. Never
B. Usual
C. Rare
D. Sometimes
Ans- C
A. Never
B. Usual
C. Rare
D. Sometimes
Ans-C
10. The people seemed to regard the American flag as the harbinger of a new era.
A. Messenger
B. Steward
C. Forerunner
D. Pilot
Ans- C
Antonyms
1.Choose a word that is OPPOSITE to the meaning of the word given below:
BRITTLE
A. Meek
B. Enduring
C. Fragile
D. Faze
Ans-B
2. FRUGALITY
A. Normalcy
B. Extravagance
C. Providence
D. Vaccilate
Ans- B
3. PRECARIOUS
A. Amiable
B. Foray
C. Assured
D. Agitate
Ans- C
4. SERVILE
A. Incessant
B. Deceit
C. Docile
D. Aggressive
Ans- D
A. Bright
B. Obscure
C. Transparent
D. Vague
Ans.C
6. Sacred
A. Divine
B. Cherish
C. Course
D. Profane
Ans. D
7. Substantial
A. Fragile
B. Considerable
C. Solid
D. Partial
Ans. A
8. PHILANTHROPY
A. Constrained
B. Frugal
C. Benevolent
D. Enthusiastic
Ans. B
9. Select a word which is OPPOSITE in the meaning of the given word: JETTISON
A. Abdicate
B. Enormity
C. Retain
D. Jaunty
Ans. C
10. Select a word which is OPPOSITE in the meaning of the given word: DEMAGOGUE
A. Agitator
B. Politician
C. Disciple
D. Demonous
Ans. C
Sentence Correction
1.The suicide case of Sushant Singh Rajput could not be solved by the police that led
eventually to an official investigation into the case by the CBI.
A. that had led eventually
B. that eventually led
C. who eventually led
D. No correction needed
Ans. B
2. Vivian was one of the best students in the class but he always tried ways to lord it on
other students and bring their morale down
A. to lord it for
B. to lord it over
C. to lord it over on
D. No correction needed
Ans B
3. The younger sister really dug the qualities and characteristics of the elder sister.
A. thought about
B. admired
C. gazed at
D. No correction needed
Ans B
4.Why should the children be afraid of appearing for examinations is not clear.
Ans A
5.The speaker asked the audience if what he was saying was appropriate and the
audience shouted that it did.
A. that he did
B. that it was
C. that he is
D. no correction required
Ans B
6. Parenting a child and looking after his/her needs cannot be left entirely to the care
and responsibility of a mother.
Ans E
7.A lazy person analyzes the problem from a variety of angles and find the easiest
solution that require minimum work.
Ans - B
8. The thesis looks into the consequences damage arises out of deforestation and
pollution causing a rise in global warming on the planet.
Ans - C
9. Elizabeth has been claiming that dogs made the best pets in the world.
Ans - C
10. Optimism shared values reduce the feeling of being demotivated and depressed.
A. values reduce in the feeling of
B. value reduces the feeling of
C. values reduces the feeling of
D. values reduces the feeling in
E. No correction required
Ans - C
1. She likes to jump and play around when her mother inspects
A. To jump and play around is liked by her when her mother inspects
B. Dancing and play around was liked by her when her mother inspects
C. When her mother inspects, to jump and play was liked by her
D. jump and play around is liked by her when her mother inspects
Ans - A
Ans - A
A. A new agreement was being drafted with our firm by the R&D ministry.
B. A new agreement is drafted with our firm by the R&D ministry.
C. A new agreement was being drafted with our firm.
D. A new agreement is being drafted with our firm by the R&D ministry.
Ans - D
4. The rescue team was assisting the people to get out of the danger zone.
A. The people had been assisted by the rescue team to get out of the danger zone.
B. The people were being assisted by the rescue team to get out of the danger zone.
C. The people were assisted by the rescue team to get out of the danger zone.
D. The people were being assisted to get out of the danger zone.
Ans - B
Ans - B
Ans - C
7. The police is worrying about the rising cases of covid in the country.
A. The rising cases of covid in the police is being worried about by the country.
B. The rising cases of covid in the country is being worried about by the police.
C. The rising cases of covid in the country has been worried about by the police.
D. The rising cases of covid in the country is worrying about the police
Ans - B
8. The news of the syllabus change has not been brought to our attention by Kumar sir.
A. Our attention has not been brought under the news of the syllabus change.
B. Kumar sir has brought the news of the syllabus change to our attention.
C. Kumar sir has not brought the news of the syllabus change to our attention.
D. Kumar sir brought the news of the syllabus change to our attention.
Ans - C
Ans - D
Ans - C
Error Identification
1. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
The recent discovery of the ancient remedies for the diseases and the experiences of the
renowned inventor allow the beginers to appreciate his genius even more.
A. of the renowned inventor
B. even more
A. and
B. Allow
Ans - D
2. A. Sonam Kapoor has been away in London B. for more than a year now and there are
few chances that C. she will return back to India.
A. A
B. C
C. No error
D. B
Ans - B
3. While my father appreciated my efforts to work hard and try to top the exams, it is
interfering with my ability to keep up with the cricket practice matches.
A. it is
B. they
C. interfering with
D. to work hard
Ans - A
4. The loud music beats emitting from the speakers makes my little sister jump off the bed
every time that she hears them.
A. every time
B. makes
C. them
D. emitting from
Ans - B
5. Sushmita had always found the extraordinary airport looks of the actors being
unnecessary and foolish
A. and
B. being
C. looks of
D. had always found
Ans - B
6, (A) Shusi and Adam have been saying it since a long time (b) but now they think (c) it
would have been better for they never spoke to each other.
A. C
B. B
C. A
D. No error
Ans - A
7. (A) The competition consists in four rounds in (B) which students must showcase their
co-ordination (C) and compatibility with their fellow mate.
A. C
B. A
C. B
D. No error
Ans - B
8. Members of the volleyball team have decided to practice at the sea beach, and it will not
be able to reach the stadium on time
A. it
B. will not be able to
C. on time
D. to practice at the sea
Ans - A
9. The new syllabus was not drafted entirely by the university board, but they certainly had
an impact on the final submission.
A. had
B. was not drafted
C. by
D. They
Ans - D
10. Laurezy sulked all during school because he felt "left out," but the conversation was
between Jenny and I, and I had every right to keep it that way.
Ans - C
11. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
11. Mitansh's term paper was definitely the most thorough researched work he had done
all year, but he was still worried that the project manager wouldn't like it.
A. he'd done
B. it
C. was
D. most thorough
Ans - D
12. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Ans - B
13. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Riya feels that, when it come to helping one another, it turns out that some people are
better at it than previously thought.
A. Riya feels that, when it come to helping
B. one another, it turns out
C. that some people are better
D. at it than previously thought.
Ans - A
14. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
15. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Since the rapid growth of travel agencies and tourism companies, traveling became very
pleasant, and hassle-free.
A. of travel agencies and tourism companies wrong
B. and hassle-free
C. traveling became very pleasant
D. No error
Ans - C
One out of all the teachers are required to be present at the meeting every week.
A. One out of all the teachers are
B. are required to be present
C. at the meeting every week
D. No error.
Ans - A
17. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Despite of telling / her a hundred times, / she did what she wanted / to with the new dress.
A. her a hundred times
B. to with the new dress.
C. Despite of telling
D. she did what she wanted
Ans - C
18. Little juice that was left / in the jar was not enough / to quench the thirst of the / four
members of the family.
Ans - E
19. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
There are no conducted visits for students to explore all the important places
A. There are
B. for students to explore all the
C. important places.
D. no conducted visits
Ans - D
20. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Rama wrote an essay / so well that her father was /exceedingly pleased with her.
A. so well that her father was
B. exceedingly pleased with her.
C. Rama wrote an essay
D. No error
Ans - C
21. Identify the error in the given sentence. if there is no error mark the answer as 'No
Error'.
Because of its complex tribal equations and rough mountainous terrain, Kashmir has
traditionally being a challenging place for outside invaders.
A. Because of its complex tribal equations and
B. rough mountainous terrain, Kashmir has traditionally
C. being a challenging place for outside invaders.
D. No error
Ans - C
22. Can you borrow me your notebook as reference for the classwork?
Ans - A
23. It soon becomes apparent that the forest animals are living out their lives for fear
Ans - B
24. Vinesh stopped to see if he could picked up the 100 rupees note.
Ans - C
25. A) The police office told to her/ (B) that he had arrested the man (B) who was accused
of (C) stealing her money/ (D) No error
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - A
26. The (A) roses in my garden are (B) as beautiful or perhaps (C) more beautiful than
those (D) in Sweta's garden
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - B
27. The rehabilitation center (A) had a stronger (B) affect on her brother (C) than she
expected.
A. A
B. C
C. B
D. No error
Ans - C
28. He told the (A) members of his staff (B) that every one of them should (C) carry out his
task (D) oneself.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - D
29. Amrita (A) laid for half (B) an hour (C) in deep sleep (D) until her caretaker woke her
up.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans - A
30. In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked 1, 2,
3 and 4. One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar, idiom or syntax. Identify that
part and mark it as the answer.
Ans - B
Ans - A
32.
Reading Comprehensions
Q. According to the passage, Hitler's confidence in his military strategy stemmed from its:
His question has been answered?
Ans - D
2. On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler summoned his top military generals to Obersalzberg,
where he delivered a speech explaining his plans for war, first with Poland, then with the
rest of Europe. Despite resistance from those both inside and outside Germany, Hitler felt
exceedingly confident that he could defy the will of the international community and
conquer vast amounts of land. In his speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out numerous
factors he believed would contribute to the success of his war plans. Chief among Hitler's
sources of confidence in Germany's brazen war plans was German military quickness.
Hitler said, "Our strength lies in our quickness." On the advice of Colonel-General von
Brauchitsch, Hitler believed Poland could be captured in a few weeks, an astonishingly
short amount of time given the recent history of trench warfare and the long history of
protracted European military engagements that resulted in minimal land gains and high
casualty counts. Hitler's confidence in the ability of the German military to inflict
considerable brutality further strengthened his determination to pursue an exceedingly
ambitious plan of territorial aggrandizement. He said, "I shall shoot everyone who utters
one word of criticism" and noted that "the goal to be obtained in the war is not that of
reaching certain lines but of physically demolishing the opponent." In this vein, Hitler
ordered his military to "be hard, be without mercy, [and] act more quickly and brutally than
others…for it scares the others off." Hitler believed that enemies, not used to this type of
brutality, would surrender quickly. In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler believed that, in
the end, history would overlook his inhumane conduct. To support this view, which turned
out to be anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a Pollyannaish view of Asian leader
Genghis Kahn. In Hitler's eyes, Kahn "sent millions of women and children into death
knowingly and with a light heart," yet "history sees in him only the great founder of States."
Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial yet widely-expected
success in Poland and then in Denmark, he overlooked important considerations. In many
ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler
believed he could advance further and conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not
adequately foresee the insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's island status. Despite the
damage inflicted at the hands of the German Luftwaffe during the Battle of Britain (1940),
British forces eventually won this important battle. Nevertheless, Hitler pressed on and, in
an even more fateful decision that carried echoes of a Napoleonic tactical misstep,
invaded the USSR where his forces suffered the decisive defeat of World War II at
Stalingrad in 1943. In the end, Hitler's reputation in history proved to be as brutal and
decisive as the battle plans and philosophy he announced at Obersalzberg.
A. Surprise invasions
B. Emphasis on unconventional warfare
C. Swift brutality
D. Reliance on air supremacy
E. None of the above
Ans - C
3. On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler summoned his top military generals to Obersalzberg,
where he delivered a speech explaining his plans for war, first with Poland, then with the
rest of Europe. Despite resistance from those both inside and outside Germany, Hitler felt
exceedingly confident that he could defy the will of the international community and
conquer vast amounts of land. In his speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out numerous
factors he believed would contribute to the success of his war plans. Chief among Hitler's
sources of confidence in Germany's brazen war plans was German military quickness.
Hitler said, "Our strength lies in our quickness." On the advice of Colonel-General von
Brauchitsch, Hitler believed Poland could be captured in a few weeks, an astonishingly
short amount of time given the recent history of trench warfare and the long history of
protracted European military engagements that resulted in minimal land gains and high
casualty counts. Hitler's confidence in the ability of the German military to inflict
considerable brutality further strengthened his determination to pursue an exceedingly
ambitious plan of territorial aggrandizement. He said, "I shall shoot everyone who utters
one word of criticism" and noted that "the goal to be obtained in the war is not that of
reaching certain lines but of physically demolishing the opponent." In this vein, Hitler
ordered his military to "be hard, be without mercy, [and] act more quickly and brutally than
others…for it scares the others off." Hitler believed that enemies, not used to this type of
brutality, would surrender quickly. In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler believed that, in
the end, history would overlook his inhumane conduct. To support this view, which turned
out to be anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a Pollyannaish view of Asian leader
Genghis Kahn. In Hitler's eyes, Kahn "sent millions of women and children into death
knowingly and with a light heart," yet "history sees in him only the great founder of States."
Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial yet widely-expected
success in Poland and then in Denmark, he overlooked important considerations. In many
ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler
believed he could advance further and conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not
adequately foresee the insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's island status. Despite the
damage inflicted at the hands of the German Luftwaffe during the Battle of Britain (1940),
British forces eventually won this important battle. Nevertheless, Hitler pressed on and, in
an even more fateful decision that carried echoes of a Napoleonic tactical misstep,
invaded the USSR where his forces suffered the decisive defeat of World War II at
Stalingrad in 1943. In the end, Hitler's reputation in history proved to be as brutal and
decisive as the battle plans and philosophy he announced at Obersalzberg.
Which of the following best characterizes the author's view of the relationship between
Hitler and Napoleon?
A. The logistics of Hitler's war strategy and the mechanics of its failure
B. The philosophy of Hitler's war strategy and the world's reaction
C. Hitler's plans and their failure with an eye to pre-1900 history
D. Why Hitler believed his war plans would succeed and why they eventually failed
E. None of the above
Ans - D
4. On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler summoned his top military generals to Obersalzberg,
where he delivered a speech explaining his plans for war, first with Poland, then with the
rest of Europe. Despite resistance from those both inside and outside Germany, Hitler felt
exceedingly confident that he could defy the will of the international community and
conquer vast amounts of land. In his speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out numerous
factors he believed would contribute to the success of his war plans. Chief among Hitler's
sources of confidence in Germany's brazen war plans was German military quickness.
Hitler said, "Our strength lies in our quickness." On the advice of Colonel-General von
Brauchitsch, Hitler believed Poland could be captured in a few weeks, an astonishingly
short amount of time given the recent history of trench warfare and the long history of
protracted European military engagements that resulted in minimal land gains and high
casualty counts. Hitler's confidence in the ability of the German military to inflict
considerable brutality further strengthened his determination to pursue an exceedingly
ambitious plan of territorial aggrandizement. He said, "I shall shoot everyone who utters
one word of criticism" and noted that "the goal to be obtained in the war is not that of
reaching certain lines but of physically demolishing the opponent." In this vein, Hitler
ordered his military to "be hard, be without mercy, [and] act more quickly and brutally than
others…for it scares the others off." Hitler believed that enemies, not used to this type of
brutality, would surrender quickly. In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler believed that, in
the end, history would overlook his inhumane conduct. To support this view, which turned
out to be anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a Pollyannaish view of Asian leader
Genghis Kahn. In Hitler's eyes, Kahn "sent millions of women and children into death
knowingly and with a light heart," yet "history sees in him only the great founder of States."
Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial yet widely-expected
success in Poland and then in Denmark, he overlooked important considerations. In many
ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler
believed he could advance further and conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not
adequately foresee the insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's island status. Despite the
damage inflicted at the hands of the German Luftwaffe during the Battle of Britain (1940),
British forces eventually won this important battle. Nevertheless, Hitler pressed on and, in
an even more fateful decision that carried echoes of a Napoleonic tactical misstep,
invaded the USSR where his forces suffered the decisive defeat of World War II at
Stalingrad in 1943. In the end, Hitler's reputation in history proved to be as brutal and
decisive as the battle plans and philosophy he announced at Obersalzberg.
According to the passage, what best describes the author's understanding of why Hitler's
military campaign eventually failed?
Ans - B
5. On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler summoned his top military generals to Obersalzberg,
where he delivered a speech explaining his plans for war, first with Poland, then with the
rest of Europe. Despite resistance from those both inside and outside Germany, Hitler felt
exceedingly confident that he could defy the will of the international community and
conquer vast amounts of land. In his speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out numerous
factors he believed would contribute to the success of his war plans. Chief among Hitler's
sources of confidence in Germany's brazen war plans was German military quickness.
Hitler said, "Our strength lies in our quickness." On the advice of Colonel-General von
Brauchitsch, Hitler believed Poland could be captured in a few weeks, an astonishingly
short amount of time given the recent history of trench warfare and the long history of
protracted European military engagements that resulted in minimal land gains and high
casualty counts. Hitler's confidence in the ability of the German military to inflict
considerable brutality further strengthened his determination to pursue an exceedingly
ambitious plan of territorial aggrandizement. He said, "I shall shoot everyone who utters
one word of criticism" and noted that "the goal to be obtained in the war is not that of
reaching certain lines but of physically demolishing the opponent." In this vein, Hitler
ordered his military to "be hard, be without mercy, [and] act more quickly and brutally than
others…for it scares the others off." Hitler believed that enemies, not used to this type of
brutality, would surrender quickly. In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler believed that, in
the end, history would overlook his inhumane conduct. To support this view, which turned
out to be anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a Pollyannaish view of Asian leader
Genghis Kahn. In Hitler's eyes, Kahn "sent millions of women and children into death
knowingly and with a light heart," yet "history sees in him only the great founder of States."
Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial yet widely-expected
success in Poland and then in Denmark, he overlooked important considerations. In many
ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler
believed he could advance further and conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not
adequately foresee the insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's island status. Despite the
damage inflicted at the hands of the German Luftwaffe during the Battle of Britain (1940),
British forces eventually won this important battle. Nevertheless, Hitler pressed on and, in
an even more fateful decision that carried echoes of a Napoleonic tactical misstep,
invaded the USSR where his forces suffered the decisive defeat of World War II at
Stalingrad in 1943. In the end, Hitler's reputation in history proved to be as brutal and
decisive as the battle plans and philosophy he announced at Obersalzberg.
According to the passage, Hitler's confidence in the war plans announced at Obersalzberg
stemmed from all of the following EXCEPT:
Ans - D
6. On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler summoned his top military generals to Obersalzberg,
where he delivered a speech explaining his plans for war, first with Poland, then with the
rest of Europe. Despite resistance from those both inside and outside Germany, Hitler felt
exceedingly confident that he could defy the will of the international community and
conquer vast amounts of land. In his speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out numerous
factors he believed would contribute to the success of his war plans. Chief among Hitler's
sources of confidence in Germany's brazen war plans was German military quickness.
Hitler said, "Our strength lies in our quickness." On the advice of Colonel-General von
Brauchitsch, Hitler believed Poland could be captured in a few weeks, an astonishingly
short amount of time given the recent history of trench warfare and the long history of
protracted European military engagements that resulted in minimal land gains and high
casualty counts. Hitler's confidence in the ability of the German military to inflict
considerable brutality further strengthened his determination to pursue an exceedingly
ambitious plan of territorial aggrandizement. He said, "I shall shoot everyone who utters
one word of criticism" and noted that "the goal to be obtained in the war is not that of
reaching certain lines but of physically demolishing the opponent." In this vein, Hitler
ordered his military to "be hard, be without mercy, [and] act more quickly and brutally than
others…for it scares the others off." Hitler believed that enemies, not used to this type of
brutality, would surrender quickly. In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler believed that, in
the end, history would overlook his inhumane conduct. To support this view, which turned
out to be anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a Pollyannaish view of Asian leader
Genghis Kahn. In Hitler's eyes, Kahn "sent millions of women and children into death
knowingly and with a light heart," yet "history sees in him only the great founder of States."
Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial yet widely-expected
success in Poland and then in Denmark, he overlooked important considerations. In many
ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler
believed he could advance further and conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not
adequately foresee the insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's island status. Despite the
damage inflicted at the hands of the German Luftwaffe during the Battle of Britain (1940),
British forces eventually won this important battle. Nevertheless, Hitler pressed on and, in
an even more fateful decision that carried echoes of a Napoleonic tactical misstep,
invaded the USSR where his forces suffered the decisive defeat of World War II at
Stalingrad in 1943. In the end, Hitler's reputation in history proved to be as brutal and
decisive as the battle plans and philosophy he announced at Obersalzberg.
According to the passage, why did Hitler believe he could conquer Poland in a few weeks?
Ans - D
7. On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler summoned his top military generals to Obersalzberg,
where he delivered a speech explaining his plans for war, first with Poland, then with the
rest of Europe. Despite resistance from those both inside and outside Germany, Hitler felt
exceedingly confident that he could defy the will of the international community and
conquer vast amounts of land. In his speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out numerous
factors he believed would contribute to the success of his war plans. Chief among Hitler's
sources of confidence in Germany's brazen war plans was German military quickness.
Hitler said, "Our strength lies in our quickness." On the advice of Colonel-General von
Brauchitsch, Hitler believed Poland could be captured in a few weeks, an astonishingly
short amount of time given the recent history of trench warfare and the long history of
protracted European military engagements that resulted in minimal land gains and high
casualty counts. Hitler's confidence in the ability of the German military to inflict
considerable brutality further strengthened his determination to pursue an exceedingly
ambitious plan of territorial aggrandizement. He said, "I shall shoot everyone who utters
one word of criticism" and noted that "the goal to be obtained in the war is not that of
reaching certain lines but of physically demolishing the opponent." In this vein, Hitler
ordered his military to "be hard, be without mercy, [and] act more quickly and brutally than
others…for it scares the others off." Hitler believed that enemies, not used to this type of
brutality, would surrender quickly. In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler believed that, in
the end, history would overlook his inhumane conduct. To support this view, which turned
out to be anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a Pollyannaish view of Asian leader
Genghis Kahn. In Hitler's eyes, Kahn "sent millions of women and children into death
knowingly and with a light heart," yet "history sees in him only the great founder of States."
Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial yet widely-expected
success in Poland and then in Denmark, he overlooked important considerations. In many
ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler
believed he could advance further and conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not
adequately foresee the insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's island status. Despite the
damage inflicted at the hands of the German Luftwaffe during the Battle of Britain (1940),
British forces eventually won this important battle. Nevertheless, Hitler pressed on and, in
an even more fateful decision that carried echoes of a Napoleonic tactical misstep,
invaded the USSR where his forces suffered the decisive defeat of World War II at
Stalingrad in 1943. In the end, Hitler's reputation in history proved to be as brutal and
decisive as the battle plans and philosophy he announced at Obersalzberg.
According to the passage, which of the following represents the chronological unfolding of
events?
Ans - A
8. The international community has made progress toward preparing for and mitigating the
impacts of pandemics. The 2003 severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) pandemic
and growing concerns about the threat posed by avian influenza led many countries to
devise pandemic plans (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services 2005). Delayed
reporting of early SARS cases also led the World Health Assembly to update the
International Health Regulations (IHR) to compel all World Health Organization member
states to meet specific standards for detecting, reporting on, and responding to outbreaks
(WHO 2005). The framework put into place by the updated IHR contributed to a more
coordinated global response during the 2009 influenza pandemic (Katz 2009).
International donors also have begun to invest in improving preparedness through refined
standards and funding for building health capacity (Wolicki and others 2016).
Despite these improvements, significant gaps and challenges exist in global pandemic
preparedness. Progress toward meeting the IHR has been uneven, and many countries
have been unable to meet basic requirements for compliance (Fischer and Katz 2013;
WHO 2014). Multiple outbreaks, notably the 2014 West Africa Ebola epidemic, have
exposed gaps related to the timely detection of disease, availability of basic care, tracing
of contacts, quarantine and isolation procedures, and preparedness outside the health
sector, including global coordination and response mobilization (Moon and others 2015;
Pathmanathan and others 2014). These gaps are especially evident in resource-limited
settings and have posed challenges during relatively localized epidemics, with dire
implications for what may happen during a full-fledged global pandemic.
What was the sequence of work that the World Health Assembly compelled all WHO
members to follow?
A. detecting, reporting, treating and responding to outbreaks,
B. responding to outbreaks, detecting, reporting.
C. reporting on, detecting, responding to outbreaks
D. Detecting, reporting on, responding to outbreaks
Ans - D
9. The international community has made progress toward preparing for and mitigating the
impacts of pandemics. The 2003 severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) pandemic
and growing concerns about the threat posed by avian influenza led many countries to
devise pandemic plans (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services 2005). Delayed
reporting of early SARS cases also led the World Health Assembly to update the
International Health Regulations (IHR) to compel all World Health Organization member
states to meet specific standards for detecting, reporting on, and responding to outbreaks
(WHO 2005). The framework put into place by the updated IHR contributed to a more
coordinated global response during the 2009 influenza pandemic (Katz 2009).
International donors also have begun to invest in improving preparedness through refined
standards and funding for building health capacity (Wolicki and others 2016).
Despite these improvements, significant gaps and challenges exist in global pandemic
preparedness. Progress toward meeting the IHR has been uneven, and many countries
have been unable to meet basic requirements for compliance (Fischer and Katz 2013;
WHO 2014). Multiple outbreaks, notably the 2014 West Africa Ebola epidemic, have
exposed gaps related to the timely detection of disease, availability of basic care, tracing
of contacts, quarantine and isolation procedures, and preparedness outside the health
sector, including global coordination and response mobilization (Moon and others 2015;
Pathmanathan and others 2014). These gaps are especially evident in resource-limited
settings and have posed challenges during relatively localized epidemics, with dire
implications for what may happen during a full-fledged global pandemic.
Ans - A
10. The international community has made progress toward preparing for and mitigating
the impacts of pandemics. The 2003 severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) pandemic
and growing concerns about the threat posed by avian influenza led many countries to
devise pandemic plans (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services 2005). Delayed
reporting of early SARS cases also led the World Health Assembly to update the
International Health Regulations (IHR) to compel all World Health Organization member
states to meet specific standards for detecting, reporting on, and responding to outbreaks
(WHO 2005). The framework put into place by the updated IHR contributed to a more
coordinated global response during the 2009 influenza pandemic (Katz 2009).
International donors also have begun to invest in improving preparedness through refined
standards and funding for building health capacity (Wolicki and others 2016).
Despite these improvements, significant gaps and challenges exist in global pandemic
preparedness. Progress toward meeting the IHR has been uneven, and many countries
have been unable to meet basic requirements for compliance (Fischer and Katz 2013;
WHO 2014). Multiple outbreaks, notably the 2014 West Africa Ebola epidemic, have
exposed gaps related to the timely detection of disease, availability of basic care, tracing
of contacts, quarantine and isolation procedures, and preparedness outside the health
sector, including global coordination and response mobilization (Moon and others 2015;
Pathmanathan and others 2014). These gaps are especially evident in resource-limited
settings and have posed challenges during relatively localized epidemics, with dire
implications for what may happen during a full-fledged global pandemic.
Which of the following can be a stated evidences of gaps in the societal? climate?
A. quarantine and isolation procedures
B. preparedness inside the health sector
C. unavailability of basic care
D. All of these
Ans - A
11. Directions for Q1 to Q8: Read the following passage and answer the questions given
below.
Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being, sex
selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it ‘Sanitised
Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading towards a million
foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is an
offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private clinics with ultrasound machines are
doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know the sex of the unborn child,
and paying more to abort the female child. The technology has reached even remote
places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi obstetrician and specialist in foetal
medicine, says these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters. People are getting
the sex determination even for the first child, he says.The 1991 census showed that two
districts had a child sex ratio (number girls per thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it
was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme
form of violence against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to
be a safe space. Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child,"
he says. He believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have aggressively
promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of
Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy
to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has been going on for
some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are fulfilling it. They argue that
social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand. Technology will
have to be regulated. Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.On the
‘Demand’ side, experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in
workforce, having disposable incomes and making a contribution to the larger society will
make a difference to how women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania
Mirza are making an impact, he says. Others feel there needs to be widespread visible
contempt and anger in society against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari
killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today nobody can say that female foeticide is not their problem.”
Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
Ans - C
12. Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being,
sex selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it ‘Sanitised
Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading towards a million
foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is an
offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private clinics with ultrasound machines are
doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know the sex of the unborn child,
and paying more to abort the female child. The technology has reached even remote
places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi obstetrician and specialist in foetal
medicine, says these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters. People are getting
the sex determination even for the first child, he says.The 1991 census showed that two
districts had a child sex ratio (number girls per thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it
was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme
form of violence against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to
be a safe space. Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child,"
he says. He believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have aggressively
promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of
Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy
to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has been going on for
some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are fulfilling it. They argue that
social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand. Technology will
have to be regulated. Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.On the
‘Demand’ side, experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in
workforce, having disposable incomes and making a contribution to the larger society will
make a difference to how women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania
Mirza are making an impact, he says. Others feel there needs to be widespread visible
contempt and anger in society against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari
killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today nobody can say that female foeticide is not their problem.”
Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
Ans - D
13. Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being,
sex selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it ‘Sanitised
Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading towards a million
foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is an
offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private clinics with ultrasound machines are
doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know the sex of the unborn child,
and paying more to abort the female child. The technology has reached even remote
places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi obstetrician and specialist in foetal
medicine, says these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters. People are getting
the sex determination even for the first child, he says.The 1991 census showed that two
districts had a child sex ratio (number girls per thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it
was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme
form of violence against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to
be a safe space. Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child,"
he says. He believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have aggressively
promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of
Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy
to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has been going on for
some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are fulfilling it. They argue that
social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand. Technology will
have to be regulated. Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.On the
‘Demand’ side, experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in
workforce, having disposable incomes and making a contribution to the larger society will
make a difference to how women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania
Mirza are making an impact, he says. Others feel there needs to be widespread visible
contempt and anger in society against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari
killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today nobody can say that female foeticide is not their problem.”
Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
Ans - A
14. Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being,
sex selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it ‘Sanitised
Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading towards a million
foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is an
offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private clinics with ultrasound machines are
doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know the sex of the unborn child,
and paying more to abort the female child. The technology has reached even remote
places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi obstetrician and specialist in foetal
medicine, says these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters. People are getting
the sex determination even for the first child, he says.The 1991 census showed that two
districts had a child sex ratio (number girls per thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it
was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme
form of violence against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to
be a safe space. Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child,"
he says. He believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have aggressively
promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of
Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy
to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has been going on for
some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are fulfilling it. They argue that
social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand. Technology will
have to be regulated. Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.On the
‘Demand’ side, experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in
workforce, having disposable incomes and making a contribution to the larger society will
make a difference to how women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania
Mirza are making an impact, he says. Others feel there needs to be widespread visible
contempt and anger in society against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari
killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today nobody can say that female foeticide is not their problem.”
Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
What is the solution to the problem of female foeticide as envisioned by Dr. Bedi?
A. Effective use of law
B. Mass public outrage
C. Comparison with Nithari killing
D. Contempt towards doctors
Ans - B
15. Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being,
sex selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it ‘Sanitised
Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading towards a million
foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is an
offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private clinics with ultrasound machines are
doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know the sex of the unborn child,
and paying more to abort the female child. The technology has reached even remote
places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi obstetrician and specialist in foetal
medicine, says these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters. People are getting
the sex determination even for the first child, he says.The 1991 census showed that two
districts had a child sex ratio (number girls per thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it
was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme
form of violence against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to
be a safe space. Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child,"
he says. He believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have aggressively
promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of
Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy
to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has been going on for
some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are fulfilling it. They argue that
social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand. Technology will
have to be regulated. Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.On the
‘Demand’ side, experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in
workforce, having disposable incomes and making a contribution to the larger society will
make a difference to how women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania
Mirza are making an impact, he says. Others feel there needs to be widespread visible
contempt and anger in society against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari
killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today nobody can say that female foeticide is not their problem.”
Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
What does the word ‘sanitised’ imply in the first paragraph of the passage?
A. Unforgivable
B. Legitimate
C. Free from dirt
D. None of these
Ans - C
16. Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being,
sex selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it ‘Sanitised
Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading towards a million
foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is an
offence in India, the practice is rampant.
Private clinics with ultrasound machines are doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are
paying to know the sex of the unborn child, and paying more to abort the female child. The
technology has reached even remote places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi
obstetrician and specialist in foetal medicine, says these days he hardly sees a family with
two daughters. People are getting the sex determination even for the first child, he
says.The 1991 census showed that two districts had a child sex ratio (number girls per
thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it was 51 districts.
Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme form of violence
against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated before birth than
die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to be a safe space.
Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child," he says. He
believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have aggressively promoted the
misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of
Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy
to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has been going on for
some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are fulfilling it. They argue that
social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand. Technology will
have to be regulated.
Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be neutral. There is a law to
prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.On the ‘Demand’ side, experts
such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in workforce, having disposable
incomes and making a contribution to the larger society will make a difference to how
women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania Mirza are making an impact,
he says. Others feel there needs to be widespread visible contempt and anger in society
against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today
nobody can say that female foeticide is not their problem.” Time we all did our bit to help
save the girl child. Time’s running out.
Ans - D
17. Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being,
sex selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it ‘Sanitised
Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading towards a million
foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is an
offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private clinics with ultrasound machines are
doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know the sex of the unborn child,
and paying more to abort the female child. The technology has reached even remote
places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi obstetrician and specialist in foetal
medicine, says these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters. People are getting
the sex determination even for the first child, he says.The 1991 census showed that two
districts had a child sex ratio (number girls per thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it
was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme
form of violence against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to
be a safe space. Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child,"
he says. He believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have aggressively
promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of
Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy
to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has been going on for
some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are fulfilling it. They argue that
social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand. Technology will
have to be regulated. Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.On the
‘Demand’ side, experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in
workforce, having disposable incomes and making a contribution to the larger society will
make a difference to how women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania
Mirza are making an impact, he says. Others feel there needs to be widespread visible
contempt and anger in society against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari
killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today nobody can say that female foeticide is not their problem.”
Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
18. Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into being,
sex selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it ‘Sanitised
Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading towards a million
foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination and sex selection is an
offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private clinics with ultrasound machines are
doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to know the sex of the unborn child,
and paying more to abort the female child. The technology has reached even remote
places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi obstetrician and specialist in foetal
medicine, says these days he hardly sees a family with two daughters. People are getting
the sex determination even for the first child, he says.The 1991 census showed that two
districts had a child sex ratio (number girls per thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it
was 51 districts. Child rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme
form of violence against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated
before birth than die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to
be a safe space. Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female child,"
he says. He believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have aggressively
promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention of
Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal literacy
to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has been going on for
some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are fulfilling it. They argue that
social attitudes must change. However, in this case supply fuels demand. Technology will
have to be regulated. Technology in the hands of greedy, vested interests cannot be
neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and we must be able to use it,” she says.On the
‘Demand’ side, experts such as Dr. Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in
workforce, having disposable incomes and making a contribution to the larger society will
make a difference to how women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania
Mirza are making an impact, he says. Others feel there needs to be widespread visible
contempt and anger in society against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari
killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today nobody can say that female foeticide is not their problem.”
Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
Which of the two people mentioned in the passage suggest similar solution to the problem?
A. Dr.Agnihotri and Dr.George
B. Dr.Bedi and Dr.George
C. Dr.George and Dr.Bedi
D. Dr.George and Ms.Sivadas
Ans - D
19. Now it's Marco's turn for a symbolic act of male dominance. At the end of Act I he
challenges Eddie to lift a chair by one of its legs with only one of his arms. Eddie can't do
it. Marco easily hoists it over his head. Eddie basically gets a symbolic beat down. He's
emasculated. We haven't seen this kind of behavior from Marco before now. What
could've inspired it? Our best guess is that it's Marco's way of responding to the growing
tension in the Eddie/Catherine/Rodolpho love triangle. Eddie has just punched Marco's
little brother, by beating him in a supposedly friendly boxing match. The bout ends with
Eddie punching Rodolpho a lot harder than the "friendly" bout would seem to require.
Eddie's gesture isn't lost on Catherine who immediately invites Rodolpho to dance to
"Paper Doll." Talk about tension. Marco seems to understand the increasingly intense
social situation pretty well. He senses Eddie is about to explode and thus we have the
emasculating chair lifting contest. In the stage directions tell us that Marco raises the chair
"like a weapon over Eddie's head". Is the lifting of the chair Marco's symbolic warning to
Eddie? Is it a promise of violence, which Marco later fulfills?
Ans - D
20. Potato wafers and French fries are globally popular in-between snacks. It is also an
accompaniment to dishes like Fish, chips, steak, sandwiches and burgers etc. Recent
research studies have revealed that potatoes deep fried in hot oil releases a chemical
called acrylamide. Acrylamide is said to cause cancer.
Which of the following statements is a false assumption?
A. It is impossible to think of fish and chips without the chips.
B. Potato wafers and French fries are popular even in India and China.
C. Everyone who eats French fries will get cancer.
D. Potato wafers and French fries are fast foods.
Ans - C
21. Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system are
based on the detection of photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is
another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name
implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles
so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing substantial
aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus
escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are
blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and
circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could
provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history
of the universe. But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts so infrequently with
other matter? Twenty-five years passed between Pauli’s hypothesis that the neutrino
existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all research with neutrinos has been
with neutrinos created artificially in large particle accelerators and studied under neutrino
microscopes. But a neutrino telescope, capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to
construct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is extremely massive, because
great mass is synonymous with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons) , and
the more massive the detector, the greater the probability of one of its nucleon’s reacting
with a neutrino. In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded from the interfering
effects of other particles. Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed a means of
detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for
Deep Underwater Muno and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for placing an array of
light sensors at a depth of five kilometers under the ocean surface. The detecting medium
is the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a particle in an atom of seawater. The
result is a cascade of electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can be detected
by the sensors. The five kilometers of seawater above the sensors will shield them from
the interfering effects of other high-energy particles raining down through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project is that it will exploit an important source
of information about the universe. The extension of astronomy from visible light to radio
waves to x-rays and gamma rays never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects
such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of these discoveries came as a
surprise. Neutrino astronomy will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.
Ans - A
22. Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system are
based on the detection of photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is
another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name
implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles
so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing substantial
aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus
escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are
blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and
circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could
provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history
of the universe. But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts so infrequently with
other matter? Twenty-five years passed between Pauli’s hypothesis that the neutrino
existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all research with neutrinos has been
with neutrinos created artificially in large particle accelerators and studied under neutrino
microscopes. But a neutrino telescope, capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to
construct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is extremely massive, because
great mass is synonymous with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons) , and
the more massive the detector, the greater the probability of one of its nucleon’s reacting
with a neutrino. In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded from the interfering
effects of other particles. Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed a means of
detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for
Deep Underwater Muno and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for placing an array of
light sensors at a depth of five kilometers under the ocean surface. The detecting medium
is the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a particle in an atom of seawater. The
result is a cascade of electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can be detected
by the sensors. The five kilometers of seawater above the sensors will shield them from
the interfering effects of other high-energy particles raining down through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project is that it will exploit an important source
of information about the universe. The extension of astronomy from visible light to radio
waves to x-rays and gamma rays never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects
such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of these discoveries came as a
surprise. Neutrino astronomy will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.
With which of the following statements regarding neutrino astronomy would the author be
most likely to agree?
A. Neutrino astronomy will supersede all present forms of astronomy
B. Neutrino astronomy will be abandoned if the DUMAND project fails
C. Neutrino astronomy can be expected to lead to major breakthroughs in astronomy
D. Neutrino astronomy will disclose phenomena that will be more surprising than past
discoveries
Ans - C
23. Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system are
based on the detection of photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is
another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name
implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles
so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing substantial
aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus
escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are
blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and
circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could
provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history
of the universe. But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts so infrequently with
other matter? Twenty-five years passed between Pauli’s hypothesis that the neutrino
existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all research with neutrinos has been
with neutrinos created artificially in large particle accelerators and studied under neutrino
microscopes. But a neutrino telescope, capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to
construct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is extremely massive, because
great mass is synonymous with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons) , and
the more massive the detector, the greater the probability of one of its nucleon’s reacting
with a neutrino. In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded from the interfering
effects of other particles. Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed a means of
detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for
Deep Underwater Muno and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for placing an array of
light sensors at a depth of five kilometers under the ocean surface. The detecting medium
is the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a particle in an atom of seawater. The
result is a cascade of electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can be detected
by the sensors. The five kilometers of seawater above the sensors will shield them from
the interfering effects of other high-energy particles raining down through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project is that it will exploit an important source
of information about the universe. The extension of astronomy from visible light to radio
waves to x-rays and gamma rays never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects
such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of these discoveries came as a
surprise. Neutrino astronomy will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.
In the last paragraph, the author describes the development of astronomy in order to :
A. suggest that the potential findings of neutrino astronomy can be seen as part of a
series of astronomical successes
B. illustrate the role of surprise in scientific discovery
C. demonstrate the effectiveness of the DUMAND apparatus in detecting neutrinos
D. name some cosmic phenomena that neutrino astronomy will illuminate
Ans - A
24. Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system are
based on the detection of photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is
another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name
implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles
so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing substantial
aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus
escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are
blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and
circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could
provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history
of the universe. But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts so infrequently with
other matter? Twenty-five years passed between Pauli’s hypothesis that the neutrino
existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all research with neutrinos has been
with neutrinos created artificially in large particle accelerators and studied under neutrino
microscopes. But a neutrino telescope, capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to
construct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is extremely massive, because
great mass is synonymous with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons) , and
the more massive the detector, the greater the probability of one of its nucleon’s reacting
with a neutrino. In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded from the interfering
effects of other particles. Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed a means of
detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for
Deep Underwater Muno and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for placing an array of
light sensors at a depth of five kilometers under the ocean surface. The detecting medium
is the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a particle in an atom of seawater. The
result is a cascade of electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can be detected
by the sensors. The five kilometers of seawater above the sensors will shield them from
the interfering effects of other high-energy particles raining down through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project is that it will exploit an important source
of information about the universe. The extension of astronomy from visible light to radio
waves to x-rays and gamma rays never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects
such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of these discoveries came as a
surprise. Neutrino astronomy will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.
According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos have for studies in astronomy is
that they....
A. have been detected for the last twenty-five years
B. possess a variable electric charge.
C. are usually extremely massive
D. carry information about their history with them
Ans - D
25.. Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system are
based on the detection of photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is
another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name
implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles
so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing substantial
aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus
escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are
blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and
circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could
provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history
of the universe. But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts so infrequently with
other matter? Twenty-five years passed between Pauli’s hypothesis that the neutrino
existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all research with neutrinos has been
with neutrinos created artificially in large particle accelerators and studied under neutrino
microscopes. But a neutrino telescope, capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to
construct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is extremely massive, because
great mass is synonymous with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons) , and
the more massive the detector, the greater the probability of one of its nucleon’s reacting
with a neutrino. In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded from the interfering
effects of other particles. Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed a means of
detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for
Deep Underwater Muno and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for placing an array of
light sensors at a depth of five kilometers under the ocean surface. The detecting medium
is the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a particle in an atom of seawater. The
result is a cascade of electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can be detected
by the sensors. The five kilometers of seawater above the sensors will shield them from
the interfering effects of other high-energy particles raining down through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project is that it will exploit an important source
of information about the universe. The extension of astronomy from visible light to radio
waves to x-rays and gamma rays never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects
such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of these discoveries came as a
surprise. Neutrino astronomy will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.
According to the passage, the primary use of the apparatus mentioned in paragraph 2
would be to......
A. increase the mass of a neutrino
B. interpret the information neutrinos
C. study the internal structure of a neutrino
D. Detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos
Ans - D
26. Directions for Q6-Q10:Read the following passage. Then answer the questions and
check your answers.
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term
memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only
allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the
working memory. There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term
memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist
who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A
chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than
just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the
short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being
passed on to long term storage. When making a conscious effort to memorize something,
such as information for an exam, many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating
something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this
type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a
person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen
and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating
it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the
opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly.* Therefore, rote
rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term
memory.* A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". *This involves assigning
semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-
existing long term memories.* Encoding information semantically also makes it more
retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily
recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a
memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more
cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This
is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
Glossary:
semantic: relating to the meaning of something According to the passage, how do
memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
Ans - B
27. Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term
memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only
allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the
working memory. There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term
memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist
who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A
chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than
just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the
short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being
passed on to long term storage. When making a conscious effort to memorize something,
such as information for an exam, many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating
something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this
type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a
person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen
and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating
it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the
opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly.* Therefore, rote
rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term
memory.* A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". *This involves assigning
semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-
existing long term memories.* Encoding information semantically also makes it more
retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily
recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a
memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more
cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This
is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
Ans - A
28. Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term
memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only
allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the
working memory. There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term
memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist
who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A
chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than
just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the
short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being
passed on to long term storage. When making a conscious effort to memorize something,
such as information for an exam, many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating
something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this
type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a
person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen
and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating
it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the
opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly.* Therefore, rote
rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term
memory.* A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". *This involves assigning
semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-
existing long term memories.* Encoding information semantically also makes it more
retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily
recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a
memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more
cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This
is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the:
A. STM
B. long term memory
C. sensory storage area
D. maintenance area
Ans - D
29. Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term
memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only
allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the
working memory. There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term
memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist
who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A
chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than
just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the
short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being
passed on to long term storage. When making a conscious effort to memorize something,
such as information for an exam, many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating
something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this
type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a
person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen
and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating
it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the
opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly.* Therefore, rote
rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term
memory.* A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". *This involves assigning
semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-
existing long term memories.* Encoding information semantically also makes it more
retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily
recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a
memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more
cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This
is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
Ans - B
30. Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short
amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the
information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term
memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only
allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the
working memory. There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term
memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist
who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A
chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than
just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the
short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being
passed on to long term storage. When making a conscious effort to memorize something,
such as information for an exam, many people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating
something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this
type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a
person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen
and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating
it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the
opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly.* Therefore, rote
rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term
memory.* A better way is to practice "elaborate rehearsal". *This involves assigning
semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-
existing long term memories.* Encoding information semantically also makes it more
retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily
recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a
memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more
cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This
is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it
B. By repeating it
C. By giving it a name
D. By drawing it
Ans - A
31. Alan Turing, the British mathematician whose concepts in the early 1950s
foreshadowed the modern-day digital computer, proposed a simple test to check for
artificial intelligence. If a human judge, he said, engaged in a natural language text
conversation with two other parties, one a human and the other a machine, and if the
judge could not reliably tell which was which, then the machine would for all purposes
have passed the test. As of 2006 no machine has managed to do that. But now a robot
messenger or chatbot has hit the Internet. It is so lifelike in its responses that many people
have been fooled into thinking they're talking to a human being.
Invented by British scientists and nicknamed George, it's programmed to show emotions,
tell jokes, answer questions and engage in intimate conversation on subjects as varied as
love, life and the universe.
It can also speak 40 languages as its vocabulary continues to improve which, incidentally,
is bound to happen considering George has already chatted with some two million people
since its inception.
George is also capable of carrying on a conversation with hundreds of different people at
the same time from all over the globe. To some people, though, the scary part is that
George continues to evolve.
From expressing itself only as a disembodied text interface, a fully-animated 3D image of
an androgynous-looking humanoid capable of an extensive range of gestures and
expressions has recently been introduced to online audiences.
This new George, unlike many other conversational programs, does not merely try to be
logical but attempts to form relationships and frequently behave illogically in order to seem
more alive. This is exactly what had been predicted by people ever since the industrial
revolution introduced the possibility of creating mechanical human beings, and Mary
Shelley wrote Frankenstein based on a laboratory-made semi-human creature. The
paranoia generated by such things has only gathered momentum since then, so that today
with the advent of powerful computers it has led to an overwhelming feeling of fear of a
complete takeover by machines in the future.
The reason is that robotic creatures can now also be imbued with artificial intelligence
which rivals that of human beings. When robots supersede human beings there would no
longer be any need for the Turing Test.
Unless, of course, machines start testing us for intelligence instead.
As understood from the passage, what makes ‘George’ seem more life-like?
A. Extensive range of gestures and expressions.
B. attempts to form relationships
C. Ability to talk on varied subjects
D. illogical behaviour
Ans - D
32. Alan Turing, the British mathematician whose concepts in the early 1950s
foreshadowed the modern-day digital computer, proposed a simple test to check for
artificial intelligence. If a human judge, he said, engaged in a natural language text
conversation with two other parties, one a human and the other a machine, and if the
judge could not reliably tell which was which, then the machine would for all purposes
have passed the test. As of 2006 no machine has managed to do that. But now a robot
messenger or chatbot has hit the Internet. It is so lifelike in its responses that many people
have been fooled into thinking they're talking to a human being.
Invented by British scientists and nicknamed George, it's programmed to show emotions,
tell jokes, answer questions and engage in intimate conversation on subjects as varied as
love, life and the universe.
It can also speak 40 languages as its vocabulary continues to improve which, incidentally,
is bound to happen considering George has already chatted with some two million people
since its inception.
George is also capable of carrying on a conversation with hundreds of different people at
the same time from all over the globe. To some people, though, the scary part is that
George continues to evolve.
From expressing itself only as a disembodied text interface, a fully-animated 3D image of
an androgynous-looking humanoid capable of an extensive range of gestures and
expressions has recently been introduced to online audiences.
This new George, unlike many other conversational programs, does not merely try to be
logical but attempts to form relationships and frequently behave illogically in order to seem
more alive. This is exactly what had been predicted by people ever since the industrial
revolution introduced the possibility of creating mechanical human beings, and Mary
Shelley wrote Frankenstein based on a laboratory-made semi-human creature. The
paranoia generated by such things has only gathered momentum since then, so that today
with the advent of powerful computers it has led to an overwhelming feeling of fear of a
complete takeover by machines in the future.
The reason is that robotic creatures can now also be imbued with artificial intelligence
which rivals that of human beings. When robots supersede human beings there would no
longer be any need for the Turing Test.
Unless, of course, machines start testing us for intelligence instead.
Ans - C
33. Alan Turing, the British mathematician whose concepts in the early 1950s
foreshadowed the modern-day digital computer, proposed a simple test to check for
artificial intelligence. If a human judge, he said, engaged in a natural language text
conversation with two other parties, one a human and the other a machine, and if the
judge could not reliably tell which was which, then the machine would for all purposes
have passed the test. As of 2006 no machine has managed to do that. But now a robot
messenger or chatbot has hit the Internet. It is so lifelike in its responses that many people
have been fooled into thinking they're talking to a human being.
Invented by British scientists and nicknamed George, it's programmed to show emotions,
tell jokes, answer questions and engage in intimate conversation on subjects as varied as
love, life and the universe.
It can also speak 40 languages as its vocabulary continues to improve which, incidentally,
is bound to happen considering George has already chatted with some two million people
since its inception.
George is also capable of carrying on a conversation with hundreds of different people at
the same time from all over the globe. To some people, though, the scary part is that
George continues to evolve.
From expressing itself only as a disembodied text interface, a fully-animated 3D image of
an androgynous-looking humanoid capable of an extensive range of gestures and
expressions has recently been introduced to online audiences.
This new George, unlike many other conversational programs, does not merely try to be
logical but attempts to form relationships and frequently behave illogically in order to seem
more alive. This is exactly what had been predicted by people ever since the industrial
revolution introduced the possibility of creating mechanical human beings, and Mary
Shelley wrote Frankenstein based on a laboratory-made semi-human creature.
The paranoia generated by such things has only gathered momentum since then, so that
today with the advent of powerful computers it has led to an overwhelming feeling of fear
of a complete takeover by machines in the future.
The reason is that robotic creatures can now also be imbued with artificial intelligence
which rivals that of human beings. When robots supersede human beings there would no
longer be any need for the Turing Test.
Unless, of course, machines start testing us for intelligence instead.
According to the passage, what was it that no machine had managed to do?
A. Pass the Turing test
B. Learn many languages
C. Participate in conversation
D. Show emotions and make gestures
Ans - A
34. Alan Turing, the British mathematician whose concepts in the early 1950s
foreshadowed the modern-day digital computer, proposed a simple test to check for
artificial intelligence. If a human judge, he said, engaged in a natural language text
conversation with two other parties, one a human and the other a machine, and if the
judge could not reliably tell which was which, then the machine would for all purposes
have passed the test.
As of 2006 no machine has managed to do that. But now a robot messenger or chatbot
has hit the Internet. It is so lifelike in its responses that many people have been fooled into
thinking they're talking to a human being.
Invented by British scientists and nicknamed George, it's programmed to show emotions,
tell jokes, answer questions and engage in intimate conversation on subjects as varied as
love, life and the universe.
It can also speak 40 languages as its vocabulary continues to improve which, incidentally,
is bound to happen considering George has already chatted with some two million people
since its inception.
George is also capable of carrying on a conversation with hundreds of different people at
the same time from all over the globe. To some people, though, the scary part is that
George continues to evolve.
From expressing itself only as a disembodied text interface, a fully-animated 3D image of
an androgynous-looking humanoid capable of an extensive range of gestures and
expressions has recently been introduced to online audiences.
This new George, unlike many other conversational programs, does not merely try to be
logical but attempts to form relationships and frequently behave illogically in order to seem
more alive. This is exactly what had been predicted by people ever since the industrial
revolution introduced the possibility of creating mechanical human beings, and Mary
Shelley wrote Frankenstein based on a laboratory-made semi-human creature. The
paranoia generated by such things has only gathered momentum since then, so that today
with the advent of powerful computers it has led to an overwhelming feeling of fear of a
complete takeover by machines in the future.
The reason is that robotic creatures can now also be imbued with artificial intelligence
which rivals that of human beings. When robots supersede human beings there would no
longer be any need for the Turing Test.
Unless, of course, machines start testing us for intelligence instead.
Ans - D
35. Alan Turing, the British mathematician whose concepts in the early 1950s
foreshadowed the modern-day digital computer, proposed a simple test to check for
artificial intelligence. If a human judge, he said, engaged in a natural language text
conversation with two other parties, one a human and the other a machine, and if the
judge could not reliably tell which was which, then the machine would for all purposes
have passed the test.
As of 2006 no machine has managed to do that. But now a robot messenger or chatbot
has hit the Internet. It is so lifelike in its responses that many people have been fooled into
thinking they're talking to a human being.
Invented by British scientists and nicknamed George, it's programmed to show emotions,
tell jokes, answer questions and engage in intimate conversation on subjects as varied as
love, life and the universe.
It can also speak 40 languages as its vocabulary continues to improve which, incidentally,
is bound to happen considering George has already chatted with some two million people
since its inception.
George is also capable of carrying on a conversation with hundreds of different people at
the same time from all over the globe. To some people, though, the scary part is that
George continues to evolve.
From expressing itself only as a disembodied text interface, a fully-animated 3D image of
an androgynous-looking humanoid capable of an extensive range of gestures and
expressions has recently been introduced to online audiences.
This new George, unlike many other conversational programs, does not merely try to be
logical but attempts to form relationships and frequently behave illogically in order to seem
more alive. This is exactly what had been predicted by people ever since the industrial
revolution introduced the possibility of creating mechanical human beings, and Mary
Shelley wrote Frankenstein based on a laboratory-made semi-human creature. The
paranoia generated by such things has only gathered momentum since then, so that today
with the advent of powerful computers it has led to an overwhelming feeling of fear of a
complete takeover by machines in the future.
The reason is that robotic creatures can now also be imbued with artificial intelligence
which rivals that of human beings. When robots supersede human beings there would no
longer be any need for the Turing Test.
Unless, of course, machines start testing us for intelligence instead.
Ans - B
36. Reviewing historical data, medical researchers in California found that countries with
the largest number of television sets per capita have had the lowest incidence of a serious
brain disease, mosquito-borne encephalitis. The researchers have concluded that people
in these counties stay indoors more and thus avoid exposure to the disease.
The researchers conclusion would be most strengthened if which of the following were
true?
A. Programs designed to control the size of disease bearing mosquito populations
have not affected the incidence of mosquito- borne encephalitis.
B. The occupations of county residents affect their risk of exposure to mosquito-borne
encephalitis more than does television-watching.
C. The incidence of mosquito-borne encephalitis in counties with the largest number
of television sets per capita is likely to decrease even further.
D. The more television sets there are per capita in a country, the more time the
average country resident spends watching television.
Ans - D
37. Sales taxes tend to be regressive, affecting poor people more severely than wealthy
people. When all purchases of consumer goods are taxed at a fixed percentage of the
purchase price, poor people pay a larger proportion of their income in sales taxes than
wealthy people do.
It can be correctly inferred on the basis of the statements above that which of the following
is true?
A. Poor people constitute a larger proportion of the taxpaying population than wealthy
people do.
B. Poor people spend a larger proportion of their income on purchases of consumer
goods than wealthy people do.
C. Wealthy people pay, on average, a larger amount of sales taxes than poor people
do.
D. The total amount spent by all poor people on purchases of consumer goods
exceeds the total amount spent by all wealthy people on consumer goods
Ans - B
38. Throughout the 1950's, there were increases in the numbers of dead birds found in
agricultural areas after pesticide sprayings. Pesticide manufacturers claimed that the
publicity given to bird deaths stimulated volunteers to look for dead birds, and that the
increase in numbers reported was attributable to the increase in the number of people
looking.
Which of the following statements, if true, would help to refute the claim of the pesticide
manufacturers?
A. The publicity given to bird deaths was largely regional and never reached national
proportions.
B. Pesticide sprayings were timed to coincide with various phases of the life cycles of
the insects they destroyed.
C. No provision was made to ensure that a dead bird would not be reported by more
than one observer.
D. Initial increases in bird deaths had been noticed by agricultural workers long
before any publicity had been given to the matter.
Ans - D
39. The unique Iron Age Experimental Centre at Lejre, about 40 km west of Copenhagen,
serves as a museum, a classroom and a place to get away from it all. How did people live
during the Iron Age? How did they support themselves? What did they eat and how did
they cultivate the land? These and a myriad of other questions prodded the pioneers of the
Lejre experiment.Living in the open and working 10 hours a day, volunteers from all over
Scandinavia led by 30 experts, built the first village in the ancient encampment in a matter
of months. The house walls were of clay, the roofs of hay - all based on original designs.
Then came the second stage - getting back to the basics of living. Families were invited to
stay in the 'prehistoric village' for a week or two at a time and rough it Iron Age-
style.Initially, this experiment proved none too easy for modern Danes accustomed to
central heating, but it convinced the centre that there was something to the Lejre project.
Little by little, the modern Iron Agers learnt that their huts were, after all, habitable. The
problems were numerous - smoke belching out from the rough-and-ready fireplaces into
the rooms and so on. These problems, however, have led to some discoveries: domed
smoke ovens made of clay, for example, give out more heat and consume less fuel than
an open fire, and when correctly stoked, they are practically smokeless.By contacting
other museums, the Lejre team has been able to reconstruct ancient weaving looms and
pottery kilns. Iron Age dyeing techniques, using local natural vegetation, have also been
revived, as have ancient baking and cooking methods.
Ans - D
40. To outsiders, the magnitude of Indians' love for cricket is as incomprehensible as its
feverish intensity. In February 2014, India awarded the Bharat Ratna, its highest civilian
honour, to Sachin Tendulkar, a recently retired batsman. Millions in India, a country of 1.3
billion people and only one nationally popular game, celebrated wildly. When India's
national side plays a big game, an estimated 400 million watch on television.
Contrary to what many believe, India’s success at cricket does not explain it; if it did,
hockey would be far more popular. Between 1928 and 1956, India's hockey team won six
consecutive Olympic gold medals, a domination Indian cricketers have never threatened to
rival.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above passage?
A. The Bharat Ratna can be conferred only to cricketers.
B. Cricket being India’s national sport is loved by most of the countrymen.
C. Hockey ought to be India’s national sport since India’s success at hockey is far
greater.
D. When an India plays an international game, around 400 million follow the game.
Ans - D