Full length Paper

Test :- 01

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A (1) A parabola (2) An ellipse
1. An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use (3) A straight line (4) A circle
of
4. In the circuit shown in the figure, if ammeter and
(1) NOT gate (2) OR gate voltmeter are ideal, then the power consumed by
(3) Ex-OR gate (4) NAND gate 6 Ω resistor will be

2. A transistor is used in common-emitter mode in

an amplifier circuit. When a signal of 20 mV is
added to the base-emitter voltage, the base
current changes by 20 µA and collector current
changes by 2 mA. The load resistance is 5 kΩ.
The transconductance of the amplifier and
voltage gain is respectively
(1) 8 W
(1) 0.1 mho, 500 (2) 0.1 mho, 50
(2) 4 W
(3) 0.2 mho, 500 (4) 0.2 mho, 50
8
 R  (3) W
The graph of n  3
3.  versus n(A) is (Here R is
 R0 
4
radius of a nucleus and A is its mass number) (4) W
3

(1)
5. A very long solenoid as shown in the figure is 9. A uniform chain of length l and mass m
having n turns per unit length. The magnetic field overhangs a smooth table with one third part
at point P is hanging and two third part lying on the table. The
kinetic energy of the chain as it completely slips
off the table will be
mgl 2
(1) (2) mgl
3 9
µ0 ni mgl 4
(1) µ0ni (2) (3) (4) mgl
2 2 18 9
µ0 ni µ0 ni  1  10. In perfectly elastic collision
(3)
2
(4)
2 1 −  (1) The kinetic energy remains always constant
 2
(2) The kinetic energy first increases and then
6. A particle is moving along x-axis. The position-
decreases
time graph is shown in the figure. Select the
correction statement. (3) The initial kinetic energy is equal to final
kinetic energy
(4) The initial kinetic energy is greater than final
kinetic energy
11. A uniform cylinder of mass 1 kg and radius 2 cm
is rotating about its main axis at the rate of 4 rpm.
The constant torque required to stop it after 2π
revolution is
(1) The particle is continuously going in positive (1) 4.44 × 10–7 N m (2) 1 × 10–7 N m
x direction
(3) 5 × 10–6 N m (4) 1.78 × 106 N m
(2) The particle is always at rest 12. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is
(3) Velocity of particle increases up to a time t0 minimum about an axis perpendicular to the disc
and then becomes constant and passing through

(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity

up to time t0, then stops for time duration t0
and then returns back
7. Three particles A, B and C are situated at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side length 3
m. Each of the particles moves with constant (1) A (2) B
speed 2 m/s. A always has its velocity along (3) C (4) D
AB, B along BC and C along CA. After what time 13. Which among the following statement is incorrect
will the particles meet each other? regarding a uniform spherical shell?
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s (1) Inside the shell the gravitational potential is
(3) 1.5 s (4) 0.5 s zero
(2) Inside the shell, the gravitational field is zero
8. A park has a radius of 40 m. If a car goes round it
at speed of 36 kmph, then the proper angle of (3) Inside the shell, the gravitational potential is
banking should be same everywhere
(4) Inside the shell, the gravitational field is same
(1) tan–1 (4)
everywhere
(2) tan–1 (1) 14. The breaking stress of a wire depends on
 1 (1) Length of the wire
(3) tan−1  
2 (2) Radius of the wire
 1 (3) Material of the wire
(4) tan−1  
4 (4) Shape of the cross-section

(2)
15. Two liquids of same volume but of different 20. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with
densities, ρ1 and ρ2 are mixed together, then the reservoir temperature at 100°C and –7°C will be
density of the mixture is 100 + 7 100 + 7
(1) (2)
2ρ1ρ2 ρ1 + ρ2 100 373
(1) (2)
ρ1 + ρ2 2 100 − 7 100 − 7
(3) (4)
(3) ρ1 + ρ2 (4) 2 ( ρ1 + ρ2 ) 100 373
21. The equation y = Asin2(ωt – kx) represents a
16. A ball is thrown downward with some velocity into
a viscous liquid. Which of the following curves wave motion
may represents the possible variation for velocity ω
versus time? (1) With amplitude A and frequency
2π
ω
(2) With amplitude 2A and frequency
(1) (2) 2π
A ω
(3) With amplitude and frequency
2 π
A ω
(3) (4) All of these (4) With amplitude and frequency
2 2π
22. When a sound wave is refracted from air to water
17. A metallic wire with two masses, each of mass then which of the following will remain
unchanged?
m, fixed at the two ends is passing over a slab of
ice. This wire passes through the ice slab without (1) Frequency (2) Wavelength
splitting it. This demonstration is used in process (3) Wave number (4) Wave velocity
(1) Vaporisation 23. A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling
(2) Sublimation of a car accelerating uniformly on a horizontal
g
(3) Condensation road with acceleration . If length of pendulum
2
(4) Regelation is l, then time period of small oscillations about
18. A piece of metal is heated in a flame. It first mean position is
becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow
 2
and finally turns white hot. The correct (1) 2π (2) 2π
g 5g
explanation for the above observation is possible
by using 2 2
(3) 2π (4) 2π
(1) Wien’s displacement law 5g 3g
(2) Newton’s law of cooling 24. An acoustic engineer places a sound detector on
(3) Stefan’s law a railway station. A train, approaching the
platform at a speed of 10 m/s sounds a whistle.
(4) Kirchhoff’s law
The detector detects 10 kHz as the most
19. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of dominant frequency in the whistle. If the train
7 stops at platform and sounds the whistle, then
an ideal gas is R . The ratio of specific heat at
2 most dominant frequency detected will be nearly
constant pressure to that at constant volume is (vsound = 340 m/s)
(1) 9.7 kHz
7 9
(1) (2) (2) 11.3 kHz
8 7
(3) 10.3 kHZ
7 5
(3) (4) (4) 8.5 kHz
5 3
(3)
25. In the arrangement, shown in the figures all the 500
bulbs have same resistance. If bulb D gets fused, (1) V (2) 100 V
3
then brightness of bulb B will (Battery is ideal)
200
(3) V (4) 150 V
3
29. A potentiometer having a wire 10 m long
stretched on it is connected to a battery having a
steady voltage. A cell gives a null deflection point
at 700 cm. If the length of potentiometer wire is
increased by 2 m, then the new position of null
point will be
(1) 740 cm (2) 800 cm
(1) Increase
(3) 950 cm (4) 840 cm
(2) Decrease
30. In a coaxial cylindrical straight cable, the inner
(3) Remains unchanged
solid conductor and the outer conductor carry
(4) Depend on resistance of D equal currents in opposite directions. The
26. A small sphere of mass m and having charge q is magnetic field is zero
suspended by an insulating thread of length l in a
(1) Inside the inner conductor except axis
uniform horizontal electric field. If it stands in
equilibrium at a distance d from the vertical line (2) Inside the outer conductor
from point of suspension, then magnitude of (3) In between the two conductor
electric field is
(4) Outside the cable
31. The maximum value of the permeability of
Mu-metal is 0.126 T m A–1. The maximum value
of relative permeability will be nearly
(1) 105 (2) 8 × 104
(3) 4 × 105 (4) 7 × 103
32. Which among the following pairs of coils has zero
mgd mgl coupling constant?
(1) (2)
q l2 − d2 q l2 − d2
mg mg  d 
(3) (4)
q q  l 
(1) (2)
27. Electric charge Q is uniformly distributed around
a thin ring of radius a. The electric potential is
maximum on the axis of ring at
(1) Centre of the ring
a
(2) ± on the axis of ring
2 (3) (4)
a
(3) ± on the axis of ring
2 33. A coil of resistance 100 Ω is placed in a magnetic
(4) Infinity field. If the magnetic flux φ (in Wb) linked with the
28. A 2 µF capacitor is charged to a potential of coil varies with time t(in s) as φ= 40t2 + 8. The
200 V and a 1 µF capacitor is charged to 100 V. current in the coil at time t = 1 s is
The capacitors are then connected in parallel
(1) 0.8 A (2) 1.6 A
with plates of opposite polarity joined together.
The common potential will be (3) 2.4 A (4) 1.0 A

(4)
34. The primary winding of an ideal transformer has 41. A certain radioactive material can undergo three
1000 turns whereas its secondary has different types of decay simultaneously each with
5000 turns. The primary is connected to an ac different decay constant λ, 2λ and 2λ. Then the
supply of 220 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have effective decay constant λeff is
an output of (1) 4λ (2) 2λ
(1) 550 V (2) 1100 V (3) 5λ (4) 6λ
(3) 440 V (4) 44 V 42. The electrical conductivity of pure silicon can be
35. Which among the following is the cause of increased by
“Greenhouse effect”? (1) Increasing the temperature
(1) Infrared rays (2) X-rays (2) Doping the impurities
(3) Radio waves (4) Gamma rays (3) Irradiating UV light on it
SECTION-B (4) All of these
36. A light ray is incident on a glass sphere of 43. The dimensions of the ratio of electric dipole
refractive index µ = 3 at an angle of incidence moment to the magnetic dipole moment will be
60° as shown in the figure. The total deviation (1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L–1T]
after two refractions will be (3) [M0LT] (4) [M0LT–1]
44. Consider the following statements.
(a) The addition of 10.0 + 0.048 have three
significant figures.
(b) For a given quantity, the numerical value (n)
(1) 30° (2) 45° is directly proportional to the unit (u).

(3) 60° (4) 120° Choose the incorrect statement(s).

(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
37. A near-sighted man can clearly see objects up to
a distance of 2 m. The power of the lens of the (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
spectacles necessary for the remedy of this  
45. The resultant of two vectors P and Q makes an
defect is  
angle α with P and β with Q , then
(1) – 1 D (2) 2 D
(1) α < β (2) α < β if P < Q
(3) 0.25 D (4) – 0.5 D
(3) α < β if P > Q (4) α < β if P = Q
38. Fringe width in YDSE
46. An object may have
(1) Is proportional to wavelength of light used
(1) Varying speed without having varying velocity
(2) Is inversely proportional to separation
between slits (2) Varying velocity without having varying speed
(3) Is directly proportional to separation between (3) Non zero acceleration without having varying
slits speed

(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Both (2) and (3)

39. The resolving power of an electron microscope 47. Consider two block system in equilibrium as
shown in the figure. All the surfaces are rough.
operated at 24 kV is x. The resolving power of
The direction of friction on B due to A
the electron microscope when operated at 6 kV is
x
(1) (2) x
2
(3) 2x (4) 4x
40. An electron in hydrogen like atom is in an excited
state. It has a total energy of – 3.4 eV. The de (1) Is upward
Broglie wavelength of the electron is nearly (2) Is downward
(1) 9.33 Å (2) 6.66 Å (3) Is zero
(3) 3.33 Å (4) 12.67 Å (4) Depends on masses of A and B

(5)
48. The velocity of centre of mass of the system 50. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force
remains constant. The net external force acting 
F =( −3i + 4 j ) N . If its initial velocity at t = 0 is
on the system is

(1) Minimum (2) Maximum =
u ( 6i − 12 j ) m/s . The time at which it will just
(3) Unity (4) Zero have a velocity along y axis is
49. The equation of a projectile are given by x = 36t (1) 10 s
and y = 48t – 4.9t2. Here x, y and t are in SI units.
(2) 2 s
The angle of projection is
(3) 15 s
(1) 37° (2) 45°
(3) 53° (4) 60° (4) 5 s

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 57. Maximum bond length among the following is of
51. Number of electrons present in 49 g of H2SO4 is (1) N2
(NA = Avogadro’s number)
(2) O2–
(1) 0.5 NA (2) 5 NA
(3) O2+
(3) 2.5 NA (4) 25 NA
52. Which of the following sets of quantum number is (4) O2
not possible? 58. Dipole-dipole interaction energy between
1 stationary polar molecules (as in solid state) is
(1) n = 4, l = 0, m = 1, s = –
2 proportional to

1 1 1
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = –1, s = + (1) (2)
2 r6 r3

1 1 1
(3) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = − (3) (4)
2 r2 r
1 59. A real gas approaches ideal behaviour at
(4) n = 4, l = 3, m = –2, s = +
2 (1) High temperature and low pressure
53. Ratio of energies of electrons in 4 orbit of He
th +
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
and 2nd orbit of H atom is
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(4) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
60. 1 mol of ideal gas expands reversibly and
54. Oxidation state and covalence of Al in isothermally from 1 L to 100 L at 300 K. The heat
[AlCl(H2O)5]2+ are respectively
exchange during the process is nearly
(1) 3 and 3 (2) 6 and 3
(1) 0 (2) 600R
(3) 3 and 6 (4) 6 and 6
(3) 900R (4) 1380R
55. Which of the following order is incorrect
61. If standard enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is
regarding ionisation enthalpy?
–x kJ mol–1 then how much energy in kJ will be
(1) B > Li (2) B > Be required to break 34 g NH3(g) into N2(g) and
(3) N > O (4) F > N H2(g)?
56. Shape of ClF3 molecule is x
(1) (2) x
(1) Pyramidal (2) Trigonal planar 2
(3) Bent-T-shape (4) Tetrahedral (3) 2x (4) 4x

(6)
62. If Kc = x for CO(g) + 3H2(g)  CH4(g) + H2O(g) 71. Consider the following statements
then Kc for the reaction, I. Thin layer chromatography is adsorption
chromatography
1 1 1 3
CH4(g) + H2O(g)  CO(g) + H2(g) II. Paper chromatography is a type of partition
2 2 2 2
chromatography
will be
III. Chromatography is classified into adsorption
1
(1) x (2) and partition chromatography
x
(1) I, II and III (2) I and II only
1 1
(3) (4) (3) II and III only (4) I and III only
x 2x
72. 0.5 g of an organic compound gave 0.188 g
63. How much volume (in mL) of 0.2 M CH3COOH AgBr. The percentage of Br in the organic
should be added in 500 mL of 0.1 M NaOH compound is (At mass : Ag = 108 u, Br = 80 u)
solution to make a buffer solution of pH = 4.7?
(1) 48% (2) 16%
[pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.7]
(3) 8% (4) 24%
(1) 100 mL (2) 250 mL
O2
(3) 500 mL (4) 200 mL 73. CH3 CH3 → A
( CH3 COO )2 Mn, ∆
64. Maximum solubility of AgCl is in Product A in above reaction is
(1) 0.1 M aqueous NaCl (1) CH3CHO (2) CH3OCH3
(2) 0.1 M aqueous CaCl2 (3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3COOH
(3) 0.2 M aqueous HCl
74.
(4) 0.2 M aqueous NH3
65. Oxidation state of P in PH3, P2H4 and P4
respectively are Product A in the given reaction is
(1) –3, –2, 0 (2) –1, –4, 0
(3) –3, 0, 0 (4) –3, –2, –1 (1) (2)
2– 2–
66. Ratio of Cr2 O 7 and SO 3 in balanced redox
reaction for acidic medium is (3) (4)
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 75. Most acidic compound among the following is
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3 (1) HC ≡ CH (2) H2C = CH2
67. Soda ash is (3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH3
(1) Na2CO3 ⋅ 10H2O (2) Na2CO3 ⋅ 9H2O 76.
(3) Na2CO3 ⋅ H2O (4) Na2CO3
Cu Powder H2 O
Product C in the above reaction is
68. 2CH3 Cl + Si 
570 K
→ A  →B
(1) (2)
Product B is
(1) CH3SiCl3 (2) (CH3)2SiCl2
(3) (CH3)2Si(OH)2 (4) (CH3)3SiOH (3) (4)
69. Which of the following on heating give(s) brown
colour gas?
77. Second nearest neighbour distance of Na+ in
(1) Be(NO3)2 (2) Mg(NO3)2
terms of edge length a for NaCl lattice is
(3) Ca(NO3)2 (4) All of these
a
70. IUPAC group prefix for – NH2 group is (1) a (2)
2
(1) amino (2) amine a a
(3) (4)
(3) amide (4) ammine 2 3
(7)
78. Mole fraction of component A in vapour phase of SECTION-B
ideal solution of 5 mol of A and 10 mol of B is 86. Least negative electron gain enthalpy among the
o o
( PA = 200 torr, PB = 100 torr) following is of
(1) O (2) S
1 1
(1) (2) (3) Se (4) Te
2 3
87. Which of the following acid contains peroxide
1 1
(3) (4) linkage?
4 5
(1) H2S2O4 (2) H2S2O5
79. Maximum prescribed concentration of zinc in
(3) H2SO5 (4) H2S2O7
drinking water is
CuCl2
88. 4HCl + O2  → 2Cl2 + 2H2O
(1) 50 ppm (2) 10 ppm
Given process is known as
(3) 100 ppm (4) 5 ppm
(1) Contact’s process
80. On dilution
(2) Deacon’s process
(1) ∧m increases while κ decreases
(3) Ostwald process
(2) ∧m and κ both increases (4) Lead chamber process
(3) ∧m decreases while κ increases 89. Consider the following statements
A. XeOF4 is a coloured volatile liquid
(4) ∧m and κ both decreases
B. XeOF4 has a square pyramidal molecular
81. Maximum emf among the following is of structure
(1) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.1 M) || Cu2+ (0.2 M) | Cu(s) C. Partial hydrolysis of XeF6 gives XeOF4
(2) Mg(s) | Mg 2+
(0.2 M) || Cu 2+
(0.1 M) | Cu(s) D. Hybridisation of Xe in XeOF4 is sp3d2
(3) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.2 M) || Cu2+ (0.3 M) | Cu(s) The correct statements are
(4) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.3 M) || Cu2+ (0.2 M) | Cu(s) (1) A, B, C and D (2) B, C and D only
82. Ratio of t99.9% to t90% for first order reaction is (3) A, B and C only (4) B and D only
(1) 10 : 1 (2) 9 : 1 90. Enthalpy of atomisation is lowest for
(3) 6 : 1 (4) 3 : 1 (1) Cu (2) Zn
83. For which of the following order unit of rate of (3) Co (4) Ni
reaction and rate constant are same? 91. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of
(1) 3 order
rd
(2) 2 nd
order (1) Ce3+ (2) Pr3+
(3) 1st order (4) 0th order (3) Nd3+ (4) Pm3+
84. Select the incorrect statement regarding lyophilic 92. Select the correct-regarding [NiCl4]2– ion
colloids? (1) Paramagnetic in nature
(1) Directly formed by mixing (2) sp3d hybridised
(2) Cannot be easily coagulated (3) Square planar shape
(3) Irreversible sols (4) Magnetic moment is 18 BM
(4) Gum and gelatin are the examples 93. Fastest SN1 reaction rate is observed in
85. Leaching of gold and silver is carried out by
(1) (2)
(1) NaCN
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) H2SO4
(3) (4)
(4) NaOH

(8)
94. Weakest acid among the following is 97. Molecule which does not undergo Friedel –
(1) o-Nitrophenol (2) o-Cresol Crafts reaction is

(3) p-Cresol (4) Ethanol

(1) (2)

95.

P is (3) (4)

98. Vulcanisation of rubber requires use of

(1) 5% phosphorous (2) 5% sulphur
(1) (2) (3) 5% carbon (4) 5% silicon
99. Dettol, used as an antiseptic is a mixture of
(1) Boric acid and iodine
(2) Phenol and cresol
(3) (4)
(3) Chloroxylenol and terpineol

96 Select the most reactive compound towards (4) Iodoform and bithionol
nucleophilic addition reaction. 100. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are
(1) Ethanal (2) Propanal (1) Anomers (2) Epimers
(3) Propanone (4) Methanal (3) Tautomers (4) Enantiomers

BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. The site for active rRNA synthesis is
101. In certain bacteria, small circular DNA found (1) Nucleus (2) Nucleolus
outside the genomic DNA is called (3) Ribosome (4) Cytoplasm
(1) Nucleoid (2) Plasmid 105. Find the odd one for G1 phase.
(3) Polysome (4) Nucleolus
(1) Most of the cell organelles duplicate here
102. Select the incorrect statement for
(2) Involves protein synthesis
endomembrane system.
(3) Centriole duplicates in cytoplasm
(1) Consists of double as well as single
membrane bound organelles (4) RNA formation occurs
(2) Includes ER, Golgi body, lysosomes and 106. Bivalents
vacuoles (1) Are formed in pachytene stage
(3) Involved in processing and packaging of (2) Are made up of two non-homologous
materials chromosomes
(4) Functions of its cell organelles are (3) Are stabilised by synaptonemal complex
coordinated
(4) Consists of two chromatids only
103. Which one is not true for mitochondria?
107. Chiasmata terminalize during
(1) Inner membrane forms infoldings called
cristae (1) Diplotene
(2) It produces cellular energy (2) Pachytene
(3) It contains RNA as well as DNA (3) Diakinesis
(4) It contains 80S ribosomes (4) Zygotene

(9)
108. Which one is not a defining feature of human A B C
beings? (1) F T F
(1) Internal growth (2) Reproduction (2) T F T
(3) Metabolism (4) Cellular organisation
(3) F T T
109. Mark the incorrect one for eubacteria.
(4) T F F
(1) Some of them have chlorophyll a and b
116. Chlorophyceae members
(2) They can oxidise various inorganic
(1) Have chlorophyll a and c as major pigments
substances
(2) Produce laterally inserted biflagellated
(3) Includes some wall-less monerans
zoospores
(4) They can be unicellular, colonial or
(3) Store food in the form of starch
filamentous
(4) Have cellulosic inner cell wall and outer cell
110. The autotrophic protists that have stiff cellulosic
wall of algin
plates on surface of their walls are
117. The leafy member of liverworts is
(1) Diatom (2) Dinoflagellates
(1) Porella (2) Riccia
(3) Euglenoids (4) Desmids
111. Puccinia belongs to the group which includes (3) Marchantia (4) Funaria
organisms with 118. Root pressure
(1) Endogenously produced meiospores (1) Develops due to active absorption of water
(2) Dikaryotic hyphae (2) Is negative hydrostatic pressure
(3) Coenocytic branched hyphae (3) Is effective in day time
(4) Well developed sex organs (4) Develops and effective in tall plants
112. Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in 119. Facilitated diffusion does not
(1) Mustard (2) Guava (1) Require proteins
(3) Alstonia (4) China rose (2) Depend on ATP
113. Select the wrong statement. (3) Occur from high to low concentration
(1) Mature bean seed lacks endosperm (4) Show saturation
(2) Aleurone layer are triploid in nature 120. The element which is major component of middle
(3) Maize and pea have perispermic seeds lamella is
(4) Coleoptile and coleorhiza are protective (1) Calcium (2) Sodium
sheath like structure in monocot seed (3) Manganese (4) Sulphur
114. The only living component of xylem tissue is 121. The pigment that appears yellow-green in
(1) Tracheid chromatogram is
(2) Vessel (1) Chlorophyll a (2) Xanthophyll
(3) Xylem sclerenchyma (3) Carotenoid (4) Chlorophyll b
(4) Ray parenchyma 122. The most crucial step of Calvin cycle
115. State true (T) or false (F) to the following (a) Is catalysed by RuBisCO
statements and select the correct option.
(b) Utilises NADPH
A. Protonema is juvenile stage of Riccia.
(c) Is called carboxylation
B. Mosses have elaborated mechanism of spore
Select the correct one (s).
dispersal.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) only
C. Bryophytes can serve as food source for
birds. (3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) only

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123. The steps of Krebs cycle where decarboxylation 129. Which of the given features promotes
occurs are xenogamy?
(a) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA (1) Dioecy (2) Cleistogamy
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid → α-KGA (3) Homogamy (4) Bud pollination
(c) Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid 130. ________ are slightly different forms of a gene.
(d) α-KGA → Succinyl CoA Fill the above blank by choosing correct option.

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (1) Alleles (2) True line
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) Dominant factors (4) Cistron
(3) (b) and (d) only 131. A normal woman whose mother was colourblind
marries a haemophilic man. What are the
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
chances of colourblindness and haemophilia in
124. During ETS, FADH2 transfers reducing their children?
equivalents to
(1) 50% daughter colourblind as well as
(1) FMN (2) UQ
haemophilic
(3) Cyt a and a3 (4) Cyt c
(2) 50% son colourblind and 50% son normal
125. Which of the given functions is not under
(3) 50% daughter haemophilic and 50% son
influence of gibberellins?
normal
(1) Bolting in rosette plants
(4) All children are normal
(2) Enhancement of sugarcane yield
132. An example of monosomy is
(3) Breaking of dormancy of seed
(1) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Induction of root hair development on stem
cutting (2) Down’s syndrome
126. Choose the plants that do not show any (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome
correlation between exposure to light duration (4) Edward’s syndrome
and induction of flowering response.
133. During replication, unwinding of DNA helix is
(1) Tomato (2) Soyabean performed by
(3) Wheat (4) Radish
(1) Helicase (2) Gyrase
127. All are pre-fertilization events, except
(3) Topoisomerase (4) Ligase
(1) Syngamy (2) Pollination
134. Select the wrong match.
(3) Gametogenesis (4) Gamete transfer
(1) RNA polymerase – Unwinds DNA during
128. Match the columns and select the correct option. transcription
Column-I Column-II (2) RNA polymerase III – Transcribes transfer
RNA
a. Apocarpous (i) 3 celled, 3 nucleate
gynoecium (3) RNA polymerase II – Transcribes 5S rRNA
(4) RNA polymerase I – Transcribes peptidyl
b. Egg apparatus (ii) Lotus
transferase
c. Syncarpous (iii) Haploid 135. Which one is a high yielding variety of rice?
gynoecium
(1) Sonalika (2) Himgiri
d. Embryo sac (iv) Papaver (3) Jaya (4) Atlas 66
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) SECTION-B
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 136. Citric acid is produced by
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (1) Acetobacter aceti (2) Aspergillus niger
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (3) Lactobacillus (4) Penicillium

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137. Which one is incorrectly matched? 143. Read the given statements and choose the
correct option.
(1) CAM pathway – Opuntia
Statement A: Steller’s sea cow became extinct
(2) Kangaroo rat – Fat oxidation
due to over exploitation.
(3) Seals – Fat blubber
Statement B: Carrot grass is a weed that
(4) Altitude sickness – Body decreases RBC exterminate many herbs and shrubs of the area
production to adapt where it grows.
138. Which one is not a biofertiliser? (1) Only statement A is correct

(1) Anabaena (2) Only statement B is correct

(2) Nostoc (3) Both statements A and B are correct

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Oscillatoria
144. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
(4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
a. Electrostatic precipitator – Have costly metals
139. All of the following are important roles of
like platinum
predators in ecosystem, except
b. Scrubber – Removes SO2 produced from
(1) Transfer energy across trophic levels industries
(2) Keep pray population under control c. Catalytic converters – Converts unburnt
(3) Result in extinction of prey by overexploiting hydrocarbons into CO2 and H2O
them (1) a only (2) a and b
(4) Maintain species diversity (3) b and c (4) All a, b and c
140. Find the wrong one w.r.t. productivity. 145. Eutrophication

(1) GPP is the available biomass for (1) Can be man made only
consumption to heterotroph (2) Refers to aging of water bodies by nutrient
enrichment of its water
(2) Annual NPP of whole biosphere is
approximately 170 billion tons of organic (3) Occurs due to discharge of pesticides in
matter water
(4) Leads to decrease in temperature of water
(3) Deserts and deep sea are some of the least
body
productive ecosystems
146. Tropospheric ozone
(4) GPP is rate of production of organic matter
(1) Is also called good ozone
by producers per unit area and time
(2) Is a secondary air pollutant
141. In an ecological pyramid
(3) Is a part of photochemical smog
(1) Food chain and food webs are accommodated
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Detritivores occupy top most position
147. If 1000 J energy falls on plants then how much
(3) Insectivorous plants does not occupies any energy will be provided by frog to snake?
place
Plant → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
(4) Saprophytes are placed at all trophic levels
(1) 1 J (2) 0.1 J
142. In IUCN red data book, which of the given animal (3) 0.01 J (4) 10 J
is placed under extinct category?
148. Plants that have archegonia inside ovule
(1) Dodo
(1) Lack vascular system
(2) Lion
(2) Are called archegoniate spermatophyte
(3) Tiger (3) Produce flowers
(4) Panda (4) Show double fertilization

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149. Cells that enter G0 phase 150. Choose the example which is odd one w.r.t. haplo-
(1) Become metabolically inactive diplontic life cycle.

(2) Can never proliferate (1) Fucus

(2) Funaria
(3) Start duplicating its cell organelles
(3) Pteris
(4) Exit the G1 phase to enter into an inactive
phase (4) Ectocarpus

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Select the odd one w.r.t. reproductive system of
151. Study the scientific names and common names male cockroach.
of certain animals given below. (1) A pair of testes lying one each lateral side in
Scientific Name Common Name 4th-6th abdominal segment

(a) Physalia – Sea fur (2) A characteristic mushroom shaped gland is

present in 6th-7th abdominal segments which
(b) Asterias – Brittle star function as an accessory reproductive gland
(c) Gorgonia – Sea pen (3) Male gonopore is situated dorsal to anus
(d) Loligo – Squid (4) Sperms are stored in seminal vesicles
Which of the above option are correct? 157. Study the list of biomolecules given below and
(1) (a) and (b) are correct choose the option that shows molecules with
(2) (b) and (c) are correct glycosidic linkages.

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect a. Glycogen b. Haemoglobin

(4) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect c. Adenosine d. Lactose

152. How many among Chiton, Limulus, Chaetopleura e. Lecithin

and Nereis, exhibit true segmentation and close (1) Only a and b (2) Only b and c
circulatory system? (3) a, c, and d only (4) All a, b, c, d and e
(1) One (2) Two 158. All of the followings act as stimulus for excitation
(3) Three (4) Four of chemoreceptors for regulation of respiration,
except
153. Homeothermy is a feature shared by
(1) Fall in pO2 in arterial blood
(1) Neophron and Macaca
(2) Increase in pCO2
(2) Calotes and Felis
(3) Fall in pH
(3) Chelone and Crocodilia
(4) Increase in H+ ion concentration
(4) Bungarus and Betta
159. Choose the option which give the correct
154. Animals belonging to how many classes of
combination.
division Gnathostomata exhibit internal
fertilisation? (1) Chloride shift Occurs only at lungs alveoli
(1) One (2) Two level
(3) Three (4) Four (2) Haemoglobin Binds approximate 65% of
155. Striated muscles are present in all except oxygen in a healthy person
(1) Biceps (3) Vital capacity After deep inspiration
(2) Abdominal wall maximum expiration by lungs
(3) Myocardium (4) Respiratory Present in pons
(4) Urinary bladder wall rhythm centre

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160. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 164. The first heart sound is A which is
correct option.
associated with B and the second heart
Column-I Column-II sound is C which is associated with D .
a. Sphincter of Oddi (i) Inhibits gastric secretion
Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A,
and motility
B, C and D.
b. GIP (ii) Contains both smooth
A B C D
and striated muscles
(1) Lub Opening of Dub Closure of semilunar
c. Oesophagus (iii) Hepatopancreatic duct
AV valves valves
d. Hepatic lobules (iv) Structural and functional
unit of liver (2) Lub Opening of Dub Opening of
AV valves semilunar valves
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Lub Closure of Dub Closure of semilunar
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
AV valves valves
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Lub Closure of Dub Opening of
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
AV valves semilunar valves
161. Select the correct statement w.r.t. dentition of
human. 165. Select the incorrect explanation w.r.t.
(1) All teeth in humans are diphyodont and phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard
thecodont electrocardiogram.

(2) Upper jaw contains 3 premolar and 2 molar (1) QRS complex indicates ventricular
teeth in adults depolarisation
(3) 8 premolar and 4 molar teeth come only once (2) The end of T-wave marks the end of
time in a life ventricular systole
(4) Incisor teeth are present in between canine (3) By counting the number of QRS complexes
and molar teeth in humans that occur in a given time, one can determine
162. Every 1000 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers the heart rate of an individual
approximately ______ ml of CO2 to the alveoli. (4) P wave indicates beginning of ventricular
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. contraction
(1) 15 (2) 40 166. Which of the following substance in the
(3) 30 (4) 4 glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed passively?
163. A histogram representing volume of blood (1) Some nitrogenous wastes
existing in veins (V), arteries (A) and (2) Glucose
capillaries (C) in the human body at a particular
time. Identify the correct option. (3) Amino acids
(4) Na+
167. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Muscular tissue is mesodermal in origin
(1) (2)
(2) Macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit
amoeboid movement
(3) Passage of ova through the female
reproductive tract is facilitated by ciliary
movement
(3) (4)
(4) In humans about 20-30 percent of body
weight is contributed by muscles

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168. The osmolarity of the glomerular filtrate in 175. Which of the following event increases when
a is less than 300 mOsmol/L. there is depolarisation of a nerve fibre?
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank a. (1) Influx of sodium ions into the neuron
(1) PCT (2) Influx of potassium ions into the neuron
(2) DCT (3) Diffusion of Cl– ions into the neurons
(3) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop (4) Diffusion of Ca+2 ions into the neurons
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle 176. Choose the wrong statement.
169. Identify the disorder of skeletal system which is (1) The dorsal root ganglion contains pseudo-
associated with disturbance in purine unipolar neuron
metabolism. (2) In eye, lateral to the blind spot is a yellowish
(1) Tetany (2) Gout pigmented spot called fovea with a central pit
called macula lutea having greatest visual
(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Osteoporosis
acuity
170. Number of true ribs are equal to number of
(3) The otolith organ of vestibular apparatus of
(1) False ribs (2) Facial bones inner ear consists of the utricle and saccule
(3) Carpals (4) Floating ribs (4) The association areas in cerebral cortex are
171. If the rise in blood volume/body fluid volume is regions that are neither clearly sensory nor
more than normal then motor in function
(1) Secretion of ADH increases 177. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
(2) Secretion of aldosterone increases
(A) The sizes of crow and parrot are not very
(3) Secretion of ANF decreases
distinct yet their life spans show a wide
(4) Secretion of mineralocorticoids decreases difference.
172. Select the correct secondary messenger for (B) Sexual reproduction is a biological process in
FSH. which an organism give rise to genetically
(1) cGMP (2) cAMP different young ones from itself.
(3) IP3 (4) DAG (1) Both statements are correct
173. Parasympathetic nervous system is not (2) Both statements are incorrect
responsible for (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Increase in peristalsis movement (4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Contraction of urinary bladder 178. In humans, first cleavage division in zygote is
(3) Increase in force of contraction and stroke completed in which of the following region of
volume female genital tract?

(4) Increase gastric juice from gastric glands (1) Uterus

174. An example/s of antagonistic hormones (2) Infundibulum of oviduct

controlling homeostasis is/are (3) Isthmus region of fallopian tube
(a) Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine (4) Cervix
(b) TCT and PTH hormone 179. Complete the analogy
(c) Oxytocin and prolactin Leydig cells : Androgens :: Sertoli cells : ____
(d) Insulin and glucagon (1) Testosterone
Choose the correct option. (2) Inhibin
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Prolactin
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d) (4) Progesterone

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180. All of the following are steps taken by SECTION-B
government to check the increasing population 186. In below given diagram of cloning vector pBR322
growth, except choose the option which includes only
(1) Motivating smaller families to adopt incorrectly labelled components w.r.t. site of
contraceptive method restriction endonuclease enzymes.

(2) National programme and slogans to check on

population growth
(3) Promotion of abortion if second pregnancy
occurs
(4) Promotion of tubectomy and vasectomy
181. Accessory reproductive gland in human male
which contributes 60% of semen’s total volume
is/are
(1) Prostate gland (2) Cowper’s gland
(3) Seminal vesicles (4) Bulbourethral gland
182. Among the following contraceptive methods, (1) Bam HI and Pst I
select one which has maximum average failure (2) Pst I and Pvu I
rate
(3) Pvu I and Pvu II
(1) Rhythm method (2) LNG-20 (4) EcoRI and Sal I
(3) Norplant (4) Mala-D 187. Anti-tetanus serum is included in
183. Finger like projections called chorionic villi are (1) Physical barrier of innate immunity
formed by
(2) Natural passive immunity
(1) Trophoblast
(3) Artificial passive immunity
(2) Uterine myometrium
(4) Natural active immunity
(3) Uterine endometrium
188. Read the following statements and choose the
(4) Inner cell mass correct answer.
184. Select the correct matching w.r.t. PCR. (A) Excessive dose of cocaine causes
hallucination.
(1) Denaturation Occurs at 40°C
(B) Flavr Savr tomato remains fresh for longer
(2) Annealing Requires activity of Taq duration.
polymerase
(1) Both statements are correct
(3) Extension Requires deoxy-nucleotides (2) Both statements are incorrect

(4) Primers (3) Only statement (A) is correct

Attach on 5′ end of single
DNA strand (4) Only statement (B) is correct
189. Which of the following characteristics is correct
185. 5′ − GGATCC − 3′ is the recognition site for the
for Neanderthal man?
action of restriction endonuclease enzyme
(1) Discovered fire
(1) Hind II
(2) Tool maker man
(2) Bam HI
(3) Prehistoric cave art
(3) EcoRI
(4) Used hides as clothing and had burial
(4) Sma I customs

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190. Which among the following is an example of 196. Read the following statements and choose the
adaptive convergence? correct answer.
(1) Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorn of A. The collagen fibres provide strength,
Bougainvillea elasticity and flexibility in all kinds of
connective tissue.
(2) Koala and marsupial wolf
B. In areolar connective tissue, the fibroblasts
(3) Darwin’s finches secrete modified polysaccharides, which
(4) Flying phalanger and flying squirrel accumulate between cells and fibres and act
as ground substance.
191. Fluid filled cavity called antrum is associated with
(1) Both statements are correct
(1) Primordial follicle
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Primary follicle
(3) Only statements A is correct
(3) Secondary follicle (4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Tertiary follicle 197. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Exocoetus.
192. The hyperproduction of GH before puberty result (1) It is a viviparous animal
in a condition known as
(2) It contains 6-15 pairs of gill slits for
(1) Acromegaly respiration
(2) Gigantism (3) It possesses bony cranium and vertebral
column
(3) Cretinism
(4) It belongs to super class tetrapoda
(4) Dwarfism
198. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. digestive glands.
193. In MOET, the fertilised eggs at celled stage
are recovered non-surgically and transferred to (1) Liver – Largest gland of the body
surrogate mother.
(2) Gall bladder – Cystic duct
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
(3) Salivary – Situated inside the
(1) 5-8 glands buccal cavity
(2) 8-32
(4) Instestinal – Secrete succus entericus
(3) 32-64 gland
(4) 1-2
199. Every 1000 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
194. Evolution of DDT resistant mosquito is best approximately
explained by which category of natural selection? (1) 5 ml of O2 to the alveoli
(1) Stabilising selection (2) Directional selection (2) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(3) Disruptive selection (4) Balancing selection (3) 40 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
195. Which of the following disease is associated with (4) 50 ml of O2 to the alveoli
cattles? 200. In human heart, the pericardium is present
(1) Anthrax (1) Outside the myocardium
(2) Ranikhet (2) Inside the endocardium
(3) Pebrine (3) Between myocardium and endocardium
(4) New castle disease (4) Inside the myocardium

  

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