27-02-2022 Code

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Twi Weekly Test – 02 Time : 3 Hrs.

(KAMD 01, 02, 03)

Topics Covered :
Physics : Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry (Concentration Terms), Structure of Atom
Botany : Cell Cycle and Cell Division ( Meiosis), Principle of Inheritance and Variation ( up to chromosomal theory
of inheritance)
Zoology : Structural Organization in Animals - Animal Tissues

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt 35 questions from
section-A and only 10 questions from Section B
(ii) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iv) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
as
SECTION-A 4.
2 2
If an expression is given as v  u  . We can
2
1. If the time period T of a drop of liquid of density d, definitely say about this expression that this
radius r, vibrating under surface tension s is given by expression is (v  velocity, u  initial velocity,, a
the formula T  d a r b s c and if a = 1, c = –1, then b  acceleration, s  displacement)

is (1) Dimensionally correct

(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) Dimensionally incorrect

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Mathematically correct

2. In a system of units, if force (F), acceleration (A) and (4) Both (2) and (3)
time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the 5. If A = (a ±  a), B = (b ±  b) and Z = A + B, then the
dimensional formula of energy is absolute error in Z(i.e.  z) is given as
(1) [FA2T] (2) [FAT2] (1)  z =  a –  b (2)  z =  a +  b
(3) [FAT3] (4) [FAT]
z a b z a b
3. Which of the following is having highest precision? (3)   (4)  
Z a b Z a b
(1) 66.42 m (2) 60.002 m
6. In an experiment refractive index of glass was observed
(3) 60.1 m (4) 60.00 m
to be 1.45, 1.56, 1.54, 1.44, 1.54 and 1.53. The mean

(1)
Advanced Regular Medical - 2022 Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A)
(3 + 6t) cm/s. The displacement of particle in the time acceleration a-2. If they travel equal distance in the 5th
interval from t = 0 s to t = 2 s, is second after the start of A. Then the ratio of a1 : a2 is
(1) 10 cm equal to

(2) 12 cm (1) 5 : 9

(3) 18 cm (2) 1 : 3

(4) 24 cm (3) 3 : 1

20. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described (4) 5 : 1

by the function x = (2t – 3)2 where x is in meters and t 25. The velocity(v)-time(t) graph below represents the
is in second. The acceleration at motion of a car. The displacement of car in 20 s will be
t = 2 s, is
(1) 5 m s–2 (2) 6 m s–2
(3) 7 m s–2 (4) 8 m s–2
21. A ball thrown vertically upwards with velocity
20 m s–1 from the top of the multistorey building. The height
of the point from where the ball is thrown is 25 m from
the ground. How long will it be in air before hitting the
ground?
(Take g = 10 m s–2) (1) 60 m (2) 20 m
(1) 1 s (3) 90 m (4) 10 m
(2) 3 s 26. The displacement of a body moving along x-axis
(3) 5 s depends on time as x  t  1 , then the velocity of
body
(4) 7 s
(1) Increases with time
22. On position-time graph, two straight lines make angle
60° and 30° with time axis. The ratio of the velocities (2) Decreases with time
represented by lines is (3) Independent of time
(4) Decreases exponentially with time
27. Figure shows the acceleration-time graph of a particle
moving in a straight line. Which of the following
represents the corresponding velocity time graph?
(Initial velocity is zero)

(1) 1: 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
23. From the position-time graph shown in the figure, the
ratio of speed in first two seconds to the speed in next
four second, is

(1) (2)

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 2 :1 (4) 3:1 (3) (4)
24. A body A starts from rest with acceleration a1. After
two second another body B starts from rest with

(3)
Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A) Advanced Regular Medical - 2022
28. A bee flies in a line from a point A to another point B in (1) [A0T] (2) [AT–1]
4 s with velocity of |t – 2| m s–1. The distance between (3) [A–1T] (4) [AT]
A and B in metre is
37. The velocity v of a particle depends upon the time t
(1) 2 (2) 4 according to the equation v = a + bt. The dimensions
(3) 6 (4) 8 of a and b are
29. Two trains move in opposite direction along parallel (1) a = [LT–1], b = [LT–2]
roads. Both of them are 100 m long, travelling with a (2) a = [LT], b = [LT–1]
speed of 12.5 m/s. How long will it take for the first
train to overtake the second train? (3) a = [LT–1], b = [L2T–2]
(1) 8 s (2) 4 s (4) a = [LT–2], b = [LT–2]
(3) 6 s (4) 2 s 38. Find the incorrect statement about dimensional
analysis for a mechanical quantity.
30. Which of the following option is not possible?
(1) By this method the value of dimensionless
(1) A physical quantity with units but have no constant cannot be calculated
dimensions
(2) By this method equation containing trigonometrical
(2) A physical quantity with dimensions but have no exponential and logarithmic terms cannot be analysed
unit
(3) If a physical quantity depends on more than three
(3) A physical quantity have constant value but fundamental quantities, then relation among them can
dimensionless be established without knowing extra informations
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) If a physical quantity depends on more than three
31. A bullet emerges from a barrel of length 1.2 m with a fundamental quantities, then relation among them
speed of 640 m s–1. Assuming constant acceleration, cannot be established without knowing extra
the approximate time that it spends in the barrel after informations
the gun is fired, is 39. If A = (10 ± 0.1) and B = (7 ± 0.1), then value of A – B
(1) 4 ms (2) 40 ms is
(3) 400 ms (4) 1 ms (1) (3 ± 0.2) (2) (17 ± 0. 2)
32. A body moves along x-axis with initial velocity 10 m s– (3) (3 ± 0.0) (4) (3 ± 0.1)
1. If it covers a distance of 20 m in 2 s, then acceleration
40. The resistance of a conductor is related as , where V
of body is = (50 ± 2) V and I = (9 ± 0.3) A. The percentage error
(1) Zero (2) 10 m s–2 in R is
(3) 5 m s–2 (4) 2 m s–2 (1) 0.7% (2) 4%
33. Forces which obey inverse square law are (3) 3.3% (4) 7.3%
(1) Gravitational force 41. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a
(2) Electromagnetic force market 3 km away with a speed 6 km h–1. Finding the
market closed, he instantly turns and walks back with
(3) Nuclear force a speed 9 km h–1. The magnitude of average velocity
(4) Both (1) and (2) and average speed are respectively
34. Choose the correct statement? (1) 2.25 km h–1, 7.2 km h–1
(1) Range of strong nuclear force is  10–12 m (2) 7.2 km h–1, 2.25 km h–1
(2) Range of weak nuclear force is  10–16 m (3) Zero, 2.25 km h–1
(3) Range of gravitational force is  10–6 m (4) Zero, 7.2 km h–1
(4) Range of electromagnetic force is  10–9 m 42. Between two stations, a train starting from rest, first
accelerates uniformly, then moves with constant
35. Refrigerator is based on
velocity and finally retards uniformly and come to rest.
(1) Newton’s law of motion If the ratio of the time taken be 1 : 8 : 1 and the
(2) Kepler’s law of planetary motion maximum speed attained be 60 km/h, then the average
speed over the whole journey is
(3) Law of thermodynamics
(1) 35 km/h (2) 54 km/h
(4) Wave nature of matter
(3) 40 km/h (4) 15 km/h
SECTION - B
43. A body travels 20 m distance in 8th second of motion.
36. Dimensional formula for electric charge is
Then its speed at t = 3 second will be

(4)
Advanced Regular Medical - 2022 Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A)
(Consider initially particle is at rest and moving with height raised by the body is (g = 10 m/s2)
uniform acceleration) (1) Zero (2) 10 m
(1) 4 m/s (2) 8 m/s (3) 15 m (4) 20 m
7 11 48. An object moving with speed of 6.25 m/s is decelerated
(3) m/s (4) m/s
4 3 dv
as rate given by  2.5 v , , where v is
44. A wheel of radius 1 m rolls forward, half a revolution on dt
horizontal ground. The magnitude of the displacement instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object to
of the point of the wheel which was initially in contact come to rest would be
with ground is (1) 2 s (2) 4 s
(1) 2  (2) 2 (3) 8 s (4) 1 s
49. A train accelerated uniformly from rest attains a
(3) 2  4 (4)  maximum speed 40 m s–1 in 20 s. It travels at this
45. A car is moving along a straight highway with speed of speed for 20 s and is brought to rest with uniform
108 km/h is brought to rest within a distance of 100 retardation in 40 s. The distance covered during this
m. Then the retardation of car is period is
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3.5 m/s2 (1) 1000 m (2) 800 m
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 4.5 m/s2 (3) 2000 m (4) 1600 m
46. A ball is dropped from height of 176.4 m from bridge 50. A body projected upward passes through a point twice
over a river. After 2 s a second ball is thrown straight on it journey, at height h, first at time t1 and second at
downwards. What should be the initial velocity of t2. The maximum height attained by body is
second ball so that both hit water simultaneously? (g
g
= 9.8 m/s2) (1) 2g(t1 + t2) (2) t1t 2
4
(1) 20 m s–1 (2) 49 m s–1
2
(3) 14.5 m s–1 (4) 24.5 m s–1 t  t 
(3) gt1t 2 (4) 2g  1 2 
47. A body is fired vertically upward. At half of the maximum  4 
height the velocity of body is 10 m s–1. The maximum

CHEMISTRY
be
SECTION-A
1 1
51. Molarity of 500 g pure water is (1) Acidic, M (2) Basic, M
115 115
(1) 1 M (2) 27.77 M
(3) 55.5 M (4) 4 M 1 1
(3) Neutral, M (4) Acidic, M
52. 0.63 g of a dibasic acid is dissolved in 100 ml solution. 120 120

M 55. Molarity of H2SO4 is 18 M. Its density is 1.8 g/ml.

20 ml of this solution required 20 ml of NaOH Hence, molality of the solution is
10
solution for complete neutralization, the molar mass (1) 36 m (2) 200 m
of the acid is (3) 500 m (4) 18 m
(1) 63 g (2) 126 g 56. The equivalents of NH3 gas at STP required to pass
(3) 31.5 g (4) 94.5 g through 30 ml of 1 N H2SO4 solution to bring down the
acid normality to 0.2 N is
53. 20 ml of 0.1 M, 30 ml of 0.2 M and 30 ml of 0.3 M
solutions of oxalic acid are mixed and the volume is (1) 0.024 (2) 24
made 100 ml. The molarity of the resulting solution is (3) 2.4 (4) 0.24
(1) 0.21 M (2) 8.51 M 57. Energy of a photon of radiation having wavelength 300
(3) 5.67 M (4) 0.17 M nm is
(1) 6.63 × 10–29 J (2) 6.63 × 10–19 J
M M
54. 30 ml HCl and 200 ml NaOH are mixed (3) 6.63 × 10–28 J (4) 6.63 × 10–18 J
10 40
together. Molarity and nature of resulting solution will 58. The number of spectral lines that are possible when

(5)
Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A) Advanced Regular Medical - 2022
electron undergoes transition from n = 7 to n = 2 (3) 25 (4) 50
(1) 12 (2) 15 68. Ionization energy of He+ atom is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–
1. The energy of first stationary state (n = 1) of Li2+ is
(3) 30 (4) 10
59. Energy of second orbit of hydrogen is equal to the (1) –2.2 × 10–15 J/atom
energy of (2) 8.82 × 10–17 J/atom
(1) Second orbit of Li2+ (2) Fourth orbit of Li2+ (3) 4.41 × 10–16 J/atom
(3) Second orbit of He+ (4) Fourth orbit of He+ (4) –4.41 × 10–17 J/atom
60. What is the energy in eV required to excite electron 69. Number of waves made by Bohr electron in an orbit of
from n = 1 to n = 2 state in hydrogen atom? magnetic quantum number 3 is
(1) 13.6 (2) 3.4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 17 (4) 10.2 (3) 2 (4) 1
61. If KE of an electron is increased 4 times, the wavelength 70. If radius of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is ‘x’, then
of de-Broglie wave associated with it would become de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is nearly
(1) 4 times (2) 2 times (1) 2px (2) 6px
(3) 9x (4)
1 1
(3) times (4) times
2 4 71. If total energy of an electron of H-atom in the ground
state is x, then total energy of the electron of He+ ion
62. Orbital angular momentum of an electron in d-orbital in third energy state is
is
(1) x (2)
6h 2h (3) (4)
(1) (2)
2 2 72. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is not
possible?
h 2h
(3) (4) (1) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0 (2) n = 2, l = 0, m = 1
2 2
(3) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 (4) n = 3, l = 1, m = –1
63. Which of the following sets is correct for an electron in
4f-orbital? 73. The total number of radial and angular nodes in 3d
orbital are respectively
1 (1) 0, 2 (2) 2, 0
(1) n = 4, l = 3, m = 4, s  
2
(3) 2, 1 (4) 1, 2
(2) n = 4, l = 4, m = –4,
74. The total number of unpaired electrons in chromium
(3) n = 4, l = 3, m = 1, atom is
(4) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, (1) 3 (2) 6
64. If n0 and n are threshold frequency and frequency of (3) 5 (4) 4
incident light, then the velocity of photoelectrons ejected
75. The correct order of increasing energy of orbitals for
will be
multi electron species is
(1) (2)
(1) 4d > 5s > 4p > 3d
(3) (4)
(2) 3d > 4p = 4d > 5s
65. A 600 W mercury lamp emits monochromatic radiation
(3) 5s > 4d > 4p > 3d
of wavelength 331.3 nm. How many photons are
emitted from the lamp per second? (4) 5s > 4d = 4p > 3d
(1) 1020 (2) 1021 76. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom
is determined by which of the following?
(3) 1022 (4) 1023
(1) (2l + 1) (2) 2(2l + 1)
66. If radius of first orbit of H-atom is r, then radius of first
orbit of Li2+ will be (3) 2l – 1 (4) 4l 2
(1) (2) 77. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by
(3) 3r (4) 9r (1) Azimuthal quantum number
67. The total number of orbitals in 5th shell is (2) Magnetic quantum number
(1) 9 (2) 16 (3) Spin quantum number
(4) Principal quantum number
(6)
Advanced Regular Medical - 2022 Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A)
78. Orbital angular momentum of ‘p’ orbital electron is
1
equal to (2) 3 1 –1 
2
(1) Zero (2) 3 2 
1
(3) 4 1 0 
(3) 2 3  (4) 2 2
79. The correct order of energy of orbitals for He+ ion is 1
(4) 3 2 +1 
(1) 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s 2
(2) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s 88. The maximum number of Balmer lines obtained when
(3) 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d electrons in a sample of H-atom jumps from n2 = 5 to
n1 = 1 is
(4) 3s = 4s < 3d < 4d
(1) 10 (2) 3
80. Radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion is
(3) 4 (4) 6
(1) 1.77 Å (2) 0.59 Å
89. Match list-I with list-II.
(3) 5.31 Å (4) 1.18 Å
81. Among the following which concentration term depends
on temperature?
(1) Molality (2) Normality

w
(3) Mole fraction (4)   %
w
82. 10 g of H2(g) and 64 g of O2(g) on complete reaction
gives how much mass of water?
(1) 36 g (2) 54 g
(3) 90 g (4) 72 g
83. The number of radial nodes in 4p orbital is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 2
Which of the following options has all correct pair?
84. The volume of water required to prepare 0.1 M H2SO4
solution from 0.2 M, 500 ml H2SO4 solution is (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(1) 500 ml (2) 1000 ml (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3) 250 ml (4) 1500 ml (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

85. Minimum wavelength among the following is of (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(1) X-rays (2) Microwaves 90. The expression of Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
shows that the product of uncertainty in position and
(3) UV-rays (4) g-rays uncertainty in the momentum of a particle is equal to
SECTION - B or greater than
86. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in h h
24 2
ion, respectively are (1) (2)
12 Mg 2 
(1) 12, 12 and 10
h 2h
(2) 12, 10 and 12 (3) (4)
4 
(3) 10, 10 and 12 91. Energy of one mole of photons of radiation having
(4) 12, 10 and 10 frequency 3 × 1014 Hz is nearly (Given: NA = 6 × 1023
87. The correct set of four quantum number for the and h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js).
outermost electron of K(Z = 19) is (1) 1.2 × 107 J (2) 1.2 × 106 J
n l ml s (3) 1.2 × 105 J (4) 1.2 × 104 J
92. In H-atom, if the kinetic energy of electron in 2nd excited
1
(1) 4 0 0  state is x eV then the potential energy of electron in
2 3rd shell will be

(7)
Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A) Advanced Regular Medical - 2022
(1) – 2x eV (2) – x eV (2) There is no time lag between the striking of light
of suitable wavelength and ejection of photoelectrons
x 3x
(3)  eV (4)  eV (3) Below the threshold frequency of light, no
2 2 photoelectron is ejected
93. Molarity of 0.1 N H3PO3 solution is (4) The kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.25 M donot depend upon the frequency of the light used
(3) 0.05 M (4) 0.33 M 97. Energy of photons that need to be absorbed by He+
ion to excite electrons from ground state to third energy
94. Statement I: Two electrons occupying the same orbital
level is
are distinguished by magnetic quantum number.
(1) 12.09 eV (2) 24.18 eV
Statement II: An orbital in an atom is designated by
four quantum numbers. (3) 48.35 eV (4) 36.27 eV
In the light of above statements, choose the correct 98. How many spectral lines will be visible in emission
answers from the options given below. spectrum of H atom if electrons transitions are from
5th excited state to ground state?
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(1) 11 (2) 6
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) 8 (4) 4
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
99. Uncertainty in position of an electron if uncertainty in
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false
momentum is 1 kg m sec–1 will be
95. In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of an
electron in the first Bohr orbit is (Given: Bohr radius is h h
a0) (1) (2)
4 2
(1) a0 (2) 2a0
h h
(3) (4)
(3) 3a0 (4) 4 a 0 4 2
96. Regarding photoelectric effect, incorrect statement 100. Which of the following subshell will acquire maximum
among the following is energy in case of multielectron species?
(1) The number of photoelectrons ejected is (1) 1 s (2) 4 p
proportional to the brightness of light striking the metal (3) 7 s (4) 6 d

BOTANY
SECTION-A (1) Maintains chromosome number

101. Which of the following is absent in chloroplast? (2) Responsible for growth of individual

(1) DNA (2) Carotene (3) Introduces variations

(3) 80S ribosome (4) Xanthophyll (4) Play important role in healing and repair

102. Select the correct statement. 105. The bivalent formed during meiosis is composed of

(1) In all organisms gametes are produced only by (1) 4 pairs of homologous chromosomes with 4
meiosis chromatids

(2) In plants meiosis takes place in spore mother cell (2) 2 pairs of homologous chromosomes with 2
chromatids
(3) Mitosis cannot be a method for gamete formation
(3) A pair of homologous chromosomes with 4
(4) Meiosis can occur in haploid cells chromatids
103. Identify the characteristic occurring during leptotene (4) 2 pairs of non-homologous chromosomes
(1) Chromatin material begins to condense 106. If a meiospore has 10 Pg DNA, then what was the
(2) Synthesis of centrioles DNA content in its meiocytes at G2 and G1 phase
(3) Chromatids moves towards opposite poles respectively during meiosis?

(4) Paired homologous chromosomes connected (1) 40 Pg, 20 Pg (2) 20 Pg, 20 Pg

along their length by synaptonemal complex (3) 80 Pg, 40 Pg (4) 40 Pg, 40 Pg
104. Select wrong statement with respect to significance 107. Homologous chromosomes get separated during
of mitosis (1) Anaphase II (2) Anaphase I

(8)
Advanced Regular Medical - 2022 Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A)
(3) Prophase II (4) Pachytene (4) Protein synthesis
108. Match the following columns and select the correct 114. Identify the incorrect one for diplotene stage
option. (1) May lasts for months or years in some vertebrates
(2) Chiasmata terminalises
(3) Occurs in diploid cells
(4) Part of prophase I
115. Both anaphase I and anaphase II
(1) Involve splitting of centromere
(2) Occurs in haploid cells
(3) Involve movement of chromosomes towards poles
(4) Includes separation of chromatids
116. A cell has 10 bivalents. What will be the number of
chromosomes in its meiotic product?
(1) 20 (2) 5
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (3) 10 (4) 40
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
117. Synaptonemal complex forms in A phase while
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) it dissolves in B phase. Choose the correct
109. Which statement is not correct about intermediate option to fill in the blanks.
stage that occur between telophase I and prophase A B
II? (1) Zygotene Diplotene
(1) A small preparatory gap for meiosis II (2) Pachytene Diakinesis
(2) Does not involve DNA replication (3) Zygotene Diakinesis
(3) Involves centriole duplication in animals (4) Pachytene Diplotene
(4) RNA and proteins are not synthesized 118. Which among the given is not a dominant trait of pea?
110. A bivalent consists of (1) Green pod
(1) Two non-homologous chromosomes (2) Violet flower
(2) Four non-homologous chromosomes (3) Round seed
(3) Two homologous chromosomes (4) Constricted pod
(4) Four homologous chromosomes 119. Genotype of a true breeding tall pea plant can be written
111. Recombinase activity occurs in/during as
(1) Zygotene stage (a) TT (b) Tt
(2) Crossing over (c) tt
(3) Chiasmata formation (1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(4) Diplotene stage (3) (c) only (4) Both (a) & (b)
112. Chromosome pairs are arranged on double metaphasic 120. Which among the given genotypes will produce
plates during maximum number of different types of gametes?
(1) Mitosis (1) AaBbCC (2) AABbCC
(2) Meiosis I (3) AaBBCc (4) AaBbCc
(3) Meiosis II 121. What will be the proportion of pink flowered plants in
(4) Both (1) and (2) progeny if a pink flowered snapdragon plant is selfed?

113. Interkinesis lacks 1 1

(1) (2)
(1) RNA synthesis 4 2
(2) DNA replication
1 3
(3) Centriole duplication (3) (4)
8 4

(9)
Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A) Advanced Regular Medical - 2022
122. In humans the gene which codes for enzyme (3) Can be easily grown in lab on simple synthetic
phenylalanine hydroxylase, if mutated affects multiple media
phenotypic expressions. The above gene is a (4) Produces only one offspring from single mating
(1) Polygene 131. First genetic map for Drosophila was prepared by
(2) Pleiotropic gene (1) T.H. Morgan
(3) Multiallelic gene (2) A.H. Sturtevant
(4) Incompletely dominant gene (3) Sutton and Boveri
123. Which of the following couples may not have child (4) G.J. Mendel
with O blood group?
132. If an axial flower producing pea plant (Aa) is crossed
(1) B × O (2) A × B with plant with terminal flower, what proportion of
(3) B × B (4) AB × A offsprings will be with axial flower?
124. The human beings with AB blood group have genotype (1) 25%
IAIB. It means (2) 50%
(1) Alleles A and B are incompletely dominant (3) 75%
(2) Alleles A and B are codominant (4) 100%
(3) The person has no antigen in his/her blood 133. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was experimentally
(4) A and B are recessive alleles verified by
125. Identify the test-cross from the following (1) Sutton
(1) Rr × Rr (2) Rr × RR (2) Boveri
(3) Rr × rr (4) rr × rr (3) T.H. Morgan
126. A wrinkled, pure yellow seeded pea plant is crossed (4) A. Sturtevant
with pure round, green seeded pea plant. Calculate 134. During transcription, unwinding of DNA helix is
the percentage of progeny with wrinkled green seeds? performed by
(1) 25% (2) 50% (1) Helicase
(3) 0% (4) 75% (2) Gyrase
127. The recessive allele (3) Topoisomerase
(1) May produce non-functional enzyme (4) RNA polymerase
(2) Is unmodified allele 135. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. ABO blood groups in
(3) Produces normal enzyme humans
(4) Can expresses itself in heterozygous condition (1) Shows both multiple allelism and co-dominance
128. Human skin colour is an example of (2) Total six genotypes and four phenotypes are
(1) Pleiotropic gene possible

(2) Completely dominant gene (3) Individual with IBIo genotype will show O blood group

(3) Polygenic inheritance (4) IA, IB and Io are three types of alleles

(4) Codominance SECTION - B

129. A wheat plant with intermediate red coloured kernels 136. Exception to Mendelian principles is/are
is crossed with another wheat plant having white A. Incomplete dominance
coloured kernels. What percentage of progenies will B. Multiple allelism
be of light red colour kernels?
C. Co-dominance
(1) 0%
(1) Only B (2) Only A and C
(2) 75%
(3) All A, B and C (4) Only A
(3) 25%
137. In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, a cross between F1
(4) 50% hybrid and a dominant parent gives a genotypic ratio
130. Drosophila melanogaster is used as material for of
experimental genetics as it (1) 1 : 1
(1) Has large number of chromosomes (2) 1 : 2
(2) Has no hereditary variations at all
(10)
Advanced Regular Medical - 2022 Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A)
(3) 3 : 1 (2) A gamete contains only one set of chromosomes
(4) 1 : 4 (3) The paired condition of both chromosomes as well
138. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. Mendelian cross. as Mendelian factors is restored during fertilization

(1) Monohybrid phenotypic ratio- 3 : 1 (4) Both chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs
in gamete cells
(2) Dihybrid genotypic ratio -1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2
:1 145. Read the following statements and select the correct
option.
(3) Monohybrid genotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 1
A : Presence of only two alleles of a gene is called
(4) Monohybrid genotypic ratio in F2 in Incomplete multiple allelism.
dominance –1 : 1 : 1
B : AB blood group in human is a good example of co-
139. How many types of gametes will be produced by dominance.
individuals of AaBBCc genotype?
(1) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Four
(2) Only A is correct
(2) Two
(3) Only B is correct
(3) Six
(4) Both A and B are correct
(4) Eight
146. Find the mismatch w.r.t. character and contrasting
140. Who was the first amongst these to demonstrate the traits of pea plant selected by Mendel.
scientific basis of inheritance and variation by
conducting hybridisation experiments? Characters Contrasting traits

(1) Hugo de vries (1) Pod colour Green / yellow

(2) Gregor Johann Mendel (2) Seed colour Yellow / white

(3) Morgan (3) Seed shape Round / wrinkled

(4) Punnet (4) Pod shape Inflated / constricted

141. Mendel selected pea plant due to many reasons. One 147. Mendel conducted his hybridization experiments on
of those reasons is that garden pea for

(1) It completes its life cycle in one season (1) 4 years

(2) It produces few number of seeds (2) 6 years

(3) No plants are true breeding (3) 2 years

(4) Pea has little number of alternative traits (4) 7 years

142. How many gametes are possible from genotype 148. Choose the incorrect one for flower colour inheritance
AaBBCcDd? in Antirrhinum.

(1) 3 (1) Plants with RR genotype produces red flowers

(2) 16 (2) It shows incomplete dominance

(3) 8 (3) When F1 plants (Rr) are self pollinated, the

genotype and phenotype ratio are same in F 2
(4) 4 generation
143. According to ‘Law of Segregation’ (4) The genotype rr produces pink coloured flowers
(1) Two factors of a character get mixed up in F2 149. Which of the following set of genotypes will not produce
generation children with blood group O?
(2) During gamete formation, factors of a character (1) IA IA × IA IB
get mixed up
(2) IA IO × IB IO
(3) Factors of a character separate from each other
during gamete formation (3) IB IO × IB IO

(4) Out of two factors for each character, dominant (4) IA IO × IA IO

will be able to express in F1 generation 150. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory
144. Which of the following statements is wrong about of inheritance was done by
chromosomal theory of inheritance given by Sutton (1) Sutton and Boveri (2) T.H. Morgan
and Boveri? (3) Punnett (4) Mendel
(1) Chromosomes retain their number, structure and
individuality throughout the life of an organism

(11)
Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A) Advanced Regular Medical - 2022

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 158. Which of the following is an example of dense regular
151. Protection against chemical and mechanical stress connective tissue keeping the muscles firmly attached
is provided by to the bones?
(1) Simple columnar epithelium (1) Tendons (2) Ligaments
(2) Transitional epithelium (3) Lacunae (4) Lamellae
(3) Compound epithelium 159. The type of epithelium which forms inner lining of blood
vessels is
(4) Glandular epithelium
(1) Simple squamous (2) Stratified squamous
152. Which of the following is a common feature of cartilage
and bone? (3) Simple cuboidal (4) Simple columnar
(1) Lamella is the ground material 160. Glands which release their secretions directly to a
particular region are called exocrine glands. The
(2) Cells are present in lacunae
example of a unicellular exocrine gland is
(3) Central cavity acting as site of haematopoiesis
(1) Goblet cell (2) Salivary gland
(4) Vascular ground material
(3) Islets in pancreas (4) Thyroid follicle
153. The most abundant connective tissue in the body is
161. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. characteristics
areolar tissue. The principle cells of this tissue are
of simple columnar epithelium?
(1) Mast cells (2) Macrophages
(1) The cells may have cilia or microvilli on their free
(3) Fibroblasts (4) Adipocytes surfaces.
154. Consider the following features of cardiac muscle fibres (2) The cells are tall and slender in appearance.
and choose the incorrect option.
(3) The nuclei are apical in position.
(1) Presence of intercalated discs at some fusion
(4) Cilia present on cells help to move particles in a
points
particular direction.
(2) Voluntary, vigorous and rhythmic contractions
162. All connective tissues are characterized by cells which
(3) Centrally located nucleus in each cell secrete structural proteins called collagen and elastin,
(4) All the fibres contract as a unit due to presence of except
communication junctions (1) Blood and lymph (2) Tendons and ligaments
155. Which of the following is not a correct statement w.r.t. (3) Areolar tissue (4) Adipose tissue
epithelial tissue?
163. Each type of muscle in the body is composed of many
(1) Cell junctions hold the adjacent cells together. elongated, cylindrical cells called fibres which are
(2) Intercellular matrix is negligible. arranged in parallel arrays. The fibres are further
composed of numerous fine subunits called
(3) A cellular basement membrane lies under epithelial
cells to support them. (1) Myofibrils (2) Microtubules
(4) Epithelial tissues are avascular. (3) Fasciculi (4) Sarcolemma
156. Select the correctly matched option. 164. Consider the given statements about cells of nervous
tissue and select the one which is incorrect.
Type of epithelium – Location
(1) Neurons are the excitable cells of the neural tissue.
(1) Simple squamous epithelium – Inner lining of
buccal cavity (2) Neurons make more than half of the total neural
tissue of the body.
(2) Transitional epithelium – Tubular parts of nephrons
(3) Neuroglial cells are supportive but non-excitable.
(3) Simple columnar brush bordered epithelium –
Small intestine (4) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical
disturbance gets generated, which travels along its
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium – Air sacs of lungs membrane.
157. The cell junction which can be present in both epithelial 165. Muscles present in walls of blood vessels are
and muscular tissues to allow communication of
cytoplasm between adjoining cells is called (1) Striated and voluntary
(1) Gap junction (2) Tight junction (2) Non-striated and involuntary
(3) Interdigitations (4) Hemidesmosomes (3) Striated and involuntary
(4) Non-striated and voluntary
(12)
Advanced Regular Medical - 2022 Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A)
166. Ducts of glands are lined by which type of epithelium? (1) Squamous epithelium
(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium (2) Columnar epithelium
(2) Simple columnar epithelium (3) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium (4) Stratified epithelium
(4) Stratified squamous epithelium 177. Ciliated columnar epithelial cells are found in the inner
167. The brush-border epithelium is seen in which region of lining of
the body? (1) Fallopian tubes (2) Small bronchioles
(1) Loop of Henle (2) Bowman’s capsule (3) Intestine (4) Oesophagus
(3) PCT (4) Glomerulus 178. The inner lining of ducts of the salivary glands have
168. Unicellular glands that secrete a proteinaceous viscous (1) Squamous epithelium
and slimy substance are modified cells of (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(1) Compound epithelium (3) Columnar epithelium
(2) Columnar epithelium (4) Stratified epithelium
(3) Stratified epithelium 179. The cell junction that prevents the leaking of the
(4) Squamous epithelium materials through the epithelium is
169. Ciliated columnar epithelial cells are found in (1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction
(1) Fallopian tubes (2) Blood vessels (3) Macula adherens (4) Desmosome
(3) Intestine (4) Oesophagus 180. Which of the following type of tissue is the most widely
170. The cell junction which prevents the leaking out of the distributed tissue in the body?
materials through the epithelium is (1) Epithelial (2) Connective
(1) Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions (3) Muscular (4) Nervous
(3) Macula adherens (4) Desmosomes 181. Cells that ingest the cellular debris, bacteria and foreign
171. Which of the following cells ingest the cell debris, matter are
bacteria and foreign material? (1) Fibroblasts (2) Histiocytes
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Macrophages (3) Mast cells (4) Plasma cells
(3) Mast cells (4) Plasma cells 182. The blubber of the whales is composed of
172. In which of the following organisms, all functions of life (1) Tendons (2) Ligaments
are performed by a single cell? (3) Areolar tissue (4) Adipose tissue
(1) Planaria (2) Hydra 183. Example of the tissue having parallel bundles of
(3) Scypha (4) Paramecium collagen fibres is
173. Which of the following muscles show(s) presence of (1) Tendons (2) Skin
light and dark bands and are under the control of ANS? (3) Cartilage (4) Bone
(1) Smooth muscle 184. Among the following how many are exocrine
(2) Skeletal muscle secretions?
(3) Cardiac muscle Earwax, Trypsinogen, Chymotrypsinogen,
(4) Both cardiac and skeletal muscle Insulin,Glucagon, Oil, Amylase, Mucus, Saliva,
Milk, Tears
174. The wall of blood capillaries are formed up of which
epithelial cells? (1) 5 (2) 6

(1) Cuboidal (2) Columnar (3) 9 (4) 8

(3) Squamous (4) Pseudostratified 185. The property that is found in a muscle fibre and not in
a nerve fibre is
175. The brush-border epithelium is seen in which region of
the nephron? (1) Excitability (2) Insulation

(1) Loop of Henle (2) Bowman’s capsule (3) Conductibility (4) Contractibility

(3) PCT (4) Glomerulus SECTION - B

176. The goblet cells that produce mucus is modified form 186. The muscle fibres are branched in which of the following
of cells of muscles?
(1) Smooth muscles (2) Cardiac muscles
(13)
Tri Weekly Test-02 (Code-A) Advanced Regular Medical - 2022
(3) Skeletal muscles (4) Non-striated muscles (1) (i) and (ii) (2) Only (iv)
187. In which of the following connective tissue the matrix (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) Only (iii)
is not secreted by fibroblast? 195. The cementing of neighbouring cells to keep them
(1) Bone (2) Cartilage together is performed by which type of following cell
(3) Areolar (4) Blood junctions?

188. Which of the following type of muscle has the nerve (1) Adhering junction (2) Tight junction
supply from central nervous system and is voluntary? (3) Gap junction (4) Zonula occludens
(1) Smooth muscle (2) Non-striated muscle 196. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the
(3) Cardiac muscle (4) Skeletal muscle simple columnar epithelium?

189. Given are the functions of simple epithelium except (1) It is composed of a single layer of tall and slender
cells.
(1) Diffusion of gases
(2) Their nuclei are located at the base.
(2) Absorption of nutrients
(3) They are found in the walls of Bowman’s capsule
(3) Filtration of nitrogenous wastes and air sacs of lungs.
(4) Bearing chemical stresses (4) Free surface of cells may have microvilli.
190. Select the option that does not belong to cartilage. 197. Read the following statements (a-d) carefully.
(1) Protein matrix (a) It is made up of more than one layer of cells.
(2) Lacunae (b) It has limited role in secretion and absorption.
(3) Solid and pliable intercellular material (c) Their main function is to provide protection to
(4) Concentric arrangement of the cells underlying tissues against chemical and mechanical
stresses.
191. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is present
in (d) It covers the dry surface of skin and moist surfaces
of oesophagus.
(1) Nephron and neuron
How many given statements are correct for compound
(2) Larynx and pharynx
epithelium?
(3) Trachea and bronchi
(1) Four (2) Three
(4) Urinary bladder and intestine
(3) Two (4) One
192. Which of the following tissue covers moist surface of
198. Skeletal muscles are connected to bone by the means
buccal cavity and pharynx?
of
(1) Cuboidal epithelium
(1) Cartilages (2) Ligaments
(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Tendons (4) Adipose tissue
(3) Transitional epithelium
199. Smooth muscles are
(4) Compound epithelium
(1) Involuntary and spindle shaped
193. Epithelial tissue with thin, flat cells appearing like
(2) Voluntary and multinucleated
packed tiles are found in inner lining of
(3) Involuntary, cylindrical and uninucleated
(1) Intestine (2) Stomach
(4) Voluntary, branched and uninucleated
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Wall of blood vessels
200. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature
194. Find out the incorrect match.
of biceps muscle?
(i) Ciliated epithelium – Bronchioles and
(1) We are usually able to make it contract merely
fallopian tubes
by thinking about it.
(ii) Compound epithelium – Ducts of salivary glands
(2) Its muscle fibres taper at both the ends.
(iii) Dense regular connective tissue –
(3) Its muscle fibres are bundled together in parallel
Tendons and ligaments
fashion.
(iv) Areolar tissue – Found in the skin
(4) It has alternate light and dark bands giving a
Choose the correct option. characteristic striped or striated appearance.



(14)