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Topic : KINEMATICS (TILL COVERED) [BACK UNIT] BASIC MATHS & VECTORS.

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 6. A particle moves with constant speed v along a

regular hexagon ABCDEF in same order (i.e. A
1. P is the point of contact of a wheel and the to B, B to C, C to D, D to E, E to F, F to A...)
ground. The radius of the wheel is 1 m. The Then magnitude of average velocity for its
wheel rolls on the ground without slipping. The motion from A to C is-
displacement of point P when the wheel V
completes half rotation is : (1) V (2)
2
(1) 2 m (2) π2 + 4 m √ 3V
√
(3) (4) None of these
2
(3) π m (4) √
π2 + 2 m 7. The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and
2. A person moves 30m north and then 20m the acceleration 'f ' is given by f = bt. Which of
towards east and finally 30 2 m in south-west
√ the following relation is valid :-
direction. The displacement of the person from 2 t2
the origin will be : (1) v = u + b t (2) v = u + b
2
(1) 10m along north (2) 10m long south (3) v = u + b t (4) v = u
(3) 10 m along west (4) Zero 8. A point object transverses half the distance with
3. A truck travelling due north at 20 m/s turns west velocity n0. The remaining part of the distance
and travels at the same speed. The change in its was covered with velocity n1 for the half time
velocity be : and with velocity n2 for the rest half. The
average velocity of the object for the whole
(1) 40 m/s N-W (2) 20√2 m/s N-W journey is
(3) 40 m/s S-W (4) 20√2 m/s S-W (1) 2n1 (n0 + n2) / (n0 + 2n1 + 2n2)
4. If velocity of particle is given by v = 2t + 3 (2) 2n (n0 + n1) / (n0 + n1 + n2)
where 't' is time. find average velocity for
(3) 2n0 (n1 + n2) / (n1 + n2 + 2n0)
interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 3 sec.
(4) 2n2 (n0 + n1) / (n1 + 2n2 + n0)
(1) 6 m/s (2) 12 m/s (3) 18 m/s (4) 24 m/s
Assertion : The magnitude of average velocity of 9. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km
5.
an object over an interval of time is either with constant speed of 2.5 km/h and walks back
smaller than or equal to the average speed of the with a constant speed of 4 km/h. His average
object over the same interval. speed for round trip expressed in km/h is :-
Reason : Path length (distance) is either equal to (1) 24/13 (2) 40/13 (3) 3 (4) 1/2
or greater than the magnitude of displacement.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason
10. A ball moves with velocity →v1 = 5i^ + 6j^ at t = 0
is a correct explanation of the Assertion. and moves with →v2 = 2i^ + 2j^ at t = 5s. The
(2) Both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason magnitude of average acceleration in this
is not correct explanation of the Assertion. interval is :-
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false. (3) 3 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
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11. The motion of a particle is described by 17. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity
the equation x = a + bt 2 where a = 15 cm v0, it reaches a maximum height of h. If one
and b = 3 cm/sec 2 . Its acceleration at wishes to triple the maximum height, then the
time 3 sec will be :- ball should be thrown with velocity :-
(1) 36 cm/sec2 (2) 18 cm/sec2 (1) √ 3v0 (2) 3v0 (3) 9v0 (4) 3
v0
2
(3) 6 cm/sec2 (4) 32 cm/sec2
18. A particle is thrown vertically upward from the
12. The velocity v of a particle as a function of its ground with some velocity and it strikes the
position (x) is expressed as v = c1 − c2 x, where
√ ground again in time 2s. The maximum height
c1 and c2 are positive constants. The acceleration achieved by the particle is : (g = 10 m/s2)
of the particle is :- (1) 2.50 m (2) 1.25 m (3) 6.25 m (4) 5 m
c
(1) c2 (2) − 2 19. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed
2
c1 + c2 of 10m/sec when it has reached one half of its
(3) c1 – c2 (4) 2 maximum height. How high does the ball rise ?
13. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any Take g = 10 m/s2 :-
time are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, (1) 20 m (2) 15 m
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds.
The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 sec is (3) 5 m (4) 10 m

(1) 0 (2) 5 m/s2 20. A ball is thrown upwards with a velocity of

100 m/sec. It will reach the ground after :
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 8 m/s2
(1) 40 second (2) 20 second
14. A particle moves along x-axis and its displacement
(3) 10 second (4) 5 second
at any time is given by x(t) = 2t3 – 3t2 + 4t in SI
units. The velocity of the particle when its 21. A ball is released from the top of a tower of
acceleration is zero, is : height h m. It takes T s to reach the ground.
(1) 2.5 m s – 1 (2) 3.5 m s – 1 What is the position of the ball in T/3 s :-
h
(3) 4.5 m s – 1 (4) 8.5 m s – 1 (1)
9
m from the ground
15. A particle starts from rest and moves with (2) 7h
m from the ground
uniform acceleration to 36 km/hr in 10 seconds 9
then distance travelled by it in this duration. 8h
(3) m from the ground
9
(1) 100 m (2) 50 m 17h
(4) m from the ground
(3) 200 m (4) 120 m 18
22. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed
16. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for
20 sec after starting from rest. If it travels a u, the distance covered during the last t second
distance S1 in the first 10 sec and a distance S2 in of its ascent is :-
the next 10 sec, then 2
(1) ut -(gt /2) (2) (u+gt)t
(1) S1 = S2 (2) S1 = S2 / 3
1 2
(3) ut (4) 2
gt
(3) S1 = S2 / 2 (4) S1 = S2 / 4
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23. A body of mass 500 kg is thrown vertically 28. Two equal forces are acting at a point with an
upwards with a speed of 200 m/s. On the return angle of 60° between them if the resultant is
journey its speed at the starting point will be :- equal to 20 3 then magnitude of each force is :-
√

(1) 40 N
(1) 2000 m/s (2) 200 m/s
(2) 20 N
(3) 980 m/s (4) 1000 m/s
(3) 80 N
24. There are two force vectors, one of 5N and other
of 12N. At what angle the two vectors be added (4) 30 N
→ → → → →
to get resultant vector of 17 N, 7N and 13 N 29. If |P + Q | = |P − Q | , then angle betwen P and
respectively →
Q is :-
(1) 0°, 180° and 90° (1) 0° (2) 45°
(2) 0°, 90° and 180° (3) 90° (4) 60°
(3) 0°, 90° and 90° 30. Find the area under the shaded region for curve
(4) 180°, 0° and 90° y = 3x2 :-
25. Vector which is perpendicular to
(a cos θ )^i + (b sin θ ) ^j is given by
(1) (b sin θ ) ^i − (a cos θ ) ^j

1 ^ 1 ^
(2) sin θ i − cos θ j
a b
^
(3) 5k
(1) 80 (2) 26 (3) 20 (4) 40
(4) All of these 31. Value of (1.002)3 = … …
26. → is rotated through an angle π /2, the
A vector A (1) 1.008 (2) 1.004
magnitude of new vector is - (3) 1.006 (4) 1.005
(1) 2 A 32. Average value of y = 2x + 3 in the interval
(2) A 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 :-
(3) A/2 (1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4
(4) zero 33. sin75° =
27. Which of the following group of forces can't √ 3+1
(1)
produce zero resultant ? 2 √2
√ 3−1
(1) 10, 10, 10 (2)
2 √2
(2) 10, 10, 20 √ 2+1
(3)
(3) 10, 20, 20 2

(4) 10, 20, 40 (4) None

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34. The greatest value of the function – 5 sin θ + 12 cos θ 39. A body starts from rest and travels a distance S
is with uniform acceleration, then moves distance
2S uniformly, and finally comes to rest after
(1) 12
moving further 5S under uniform retardation.
(2) 13 The ratio of the average velocity to maximum
(3) 7 velocity is :-
(4) 17 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
5 5 7 7
35. cos 300° is equal to :- 40. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate of
1 2 m/s2 for some time. Then, it retards at a
(1) constant rate of 4 m/s2 and comes to rest. What
√ 2
1 is the maximum speed attained by the car, if it
(2)
2 remains in motion for 3 seconds ?
√ 3 (1) 2 m/s
(3)
2
(2) 3 m/s
(4) 1
(3) 4 m/s
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
(4) 6 m/s
36. A particle is moving with constant speed v on a 41. A particle starts to move from rest under a
circular path of 'r' radius when it has moved by constant acceleration for 6 seconds. If it travels a
angle 60°. Then average acceleration :- distance d1 in the first two seconds, a distance d2
6v2 3v2 in the next two seconds and a distance d3 in the
(1) (2)
πr πr last two seconds, then :-
3v2
(3) (4) None of these (1) d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 1 : 1
2πr
37. An object moving with a speed of 6.25 m s – 1, is (2) d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 2 : 3
decelerated at a rate given by : d υ = −2.5 υ .√ (3) d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 3 : 5
dt
Where υ is the instantaneous speed. The time (4) d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 5 : 9
taken by the object, to come to rest, would be:
42. A man holds four balls 180 m above the ground
(1) 1 s and drops them at regular intervals of time so
(2) 2 s that when the first ball hits ground, the fourth
ball is just leaving his hand. At this time, the
(3) 4 s second and third balls from the ground are at the
(4) 8 s positions
38. Position of a particle moving along x-axis is (1) 160 m and 100 m respectively
given by x = 4 + 6t – t2. The distance travelled (2) 80 m and 20 m respectively
by particle from t = 0 to t = 5 sec :-
(3) 20 m and 80 respectively
(1) 10 m (2) 9 m
(4) 100 m and 160 m respectively
(3) 13 m (4) 20 m
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43. A rocket is fired vertically from the ground. It 47. A body is projected with a velocity u. It passes
moves upwards with a constant acceleration 20 m/s2 through a certain point above the ground after t1
for 30 sec, after which the fuel is finished. After second. The time interval after which the body
what time from the instant of firing the rocket will
passes through the same point during the return
attain the maximum height ?
journey is :-
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
u
(1) 90 s (1) ( − t21 )
g
(2) 45 s u
(2) 2( − t1 )
(3) 60 s g
u
(4) 75 s (3) ( − t1 )
g
44. A ball is dropped downwards. After 1 second u2
(4) ( − t1 )
another ball is dropped downwards from the g2
same point. What is the approximate distance 48. ^
If vector (a^ + 2b) is perpendicular to vector
between them after 3 seconds of dropping the ^ ^
(5a^ − 4b) , then find the angle between a^ and b :-
first ball :-
(1) 30°
(1) 25 m
(2) 45°
(2) 20 m
(3) 60°
(3) 50 m
(4) 90°
(4) 9.8 m −−
→ −−
→ −−
→ −−
→
49. If AB + AC + AD = nAO, then n = ?
45. A ball is projected upward such that distance
covered in 6th second is equal to distance
covered in 11th second then find time of Ascent :
(1) 8.5 sec
(2) 8 sec
(1) 2
(3) 11 sec
(2) 3
(4) 6 sec
(3) 4
46. A body dropped from the top of a tower clears
7/16th of the total height of the tower in its last (4) 5
second of flight. The time taken by the body to 50. If distance between points (5, a) and (6, 5) is
reach the ground is : √ 10, then values of 'a' are :-
(1) 2 s (1) 2, 8
(2) 3 s (2) 2, 3
(3) 4 s (3) 2, 4
(4) 5 s (4) 2, 6
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NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T03A

49. Four particles of masses m1 = 2m, m2 =

4m, m3 = m and m4 are placed at four
corners of a square. What should be the
value of m4 so that the centre of mass of all
the four particles are exactly at the centre of
the square?

(1) 2 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 6 m
(4) Not possible for any value of m4

50. If g be the acceleration due to gravity at the

surface of earth, then what will be its value at
depth 64 km below the surface of earth?
(Radius of earth = 6400 km)
(1) 99
( )g
100

(2) 9
( )g
10

(3) g

10

(4) 100
( ) g
9

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. 100 ml 10–4 M HCl is mixed with 200 ml 10– 52. Reaction for which Kp > Kc at 27°C
4 M NaOH and the volume is made upto 1 temperature is
litre. The pH of the final solution will be (1) H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g)
(1) 9 (2) 2NH3 (g) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
(2) 5 (3) 2NO2 (g) N2 O4 (g)
(3) 8 (4) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g)
(4) 7

7
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T03A

53. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction 59. If at 25°C, Ka (HX) is 1 × 10–5 , then the
N2 + 3 H2 ⇌ 2 NH3 is K, then the hydrolysis constant of NaX will be
equilibrium constant for the reaction NH3
(1) 5 × 10–7
1 3
⇌ N2 + H2 is
2 2 (2) 1 × 10–9
(1) K
−
−
(3) 5 × 10–8
(2) √K
(4) 4 × 10–5
(3) 1

√K

(4) K2 60. Select the incorrect statement at equilibrium.

(1) Equilibrium is possible in closed
system only
54. The ratio of salt to base is 10 : 1 for a basic
buffer. If the pKb of base is 5, then the pOH of (2) Both the opposing processes occur at
the same rate
buffer solution is
(3) Concentration of reactants always
(1) 5
become equal to the concentration of
(2) 6 products
(3) 8 (4) All measurable properties of the system
(4) 9 remain constant

55. At equilibrium, PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g), 61. If internal energy of an ideal gas decreases
the observed molecular weight of PCl5 is by same amount as work done by the
system, the process is
124 g mol–1 at 250°C. The degree of
dissociation of PCl5 at 250°C will be (Molar (1) Cyclic
mass of PCl5 = 208.5 g mol–1 ) (2) Isothermal
(1) 46% (3) Adiabatic
(4) Isolated
(2) 68%
(3) 54%
(4) 42% 62. The amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 21 g of aluminium from 250 K
to 350 K is (Specific heat of aluminium is 0.9
56. CaF2 has solubility 1.56 × 10–3 g per 100 J (°C)–1 g–1 )
mL of solution at 25°C. Its solubility product (1) 1590 J
is (Atomic mass Ca = 40, F = 19) (2) 2010 J
(1) 2 × 10–4 (3) 1890 J
(2) 3.2 × 10–11 (4) 2400 J
(3) 8 × 10–12
(4) 6.24 × 10–9 63. The enthalpy of atomisation of CCl4 is 450
kJ/mol and enthalpy of atomisation of COCl2
is 600 kJ/mol. The bond energy of C = O
57. 20 g CaCO3 is taken in a 10L container at bond is
827°C. For the equilibrium CaCO3 (s) ⇌ (1) 125 kJ
CaO(s) + CO2 (g), Kp = 1.1 at 827°C. Find the
(2) 375 kJ
percentage of CaCO3 that remains
(3) 225 kJ
unreacted. (Given R = 0.08 L atm K–1 mol–1 )
(4) 300 kJ
(1) 28%
(2) 37.5%
64. Which among the following is an exothermic
(3) 12.5% process?
(4) 27.5% (1) Melting of ice
(2) Sublimation of camphor
58. For the following equilibrium (3) Condensation of steam
NH2 CO2 NH4 ( s) ⇌ 2NH3 ( g) + CO2 ( g)
(4) Vapourisation of water
KP is found to be 1.185 at 400 K. Hence,
partial pressure of NH3 and CO2 at
equilibrium are respectively
(1) 2.0, 1.5 atm
(2) 1.0, 2.0 atm
(3) 1.33, 0.66 atm
(4) 0.66, 1.33 atm

8
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T03A

65. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 50°C 70. Third law of thermodynamics states that
expands from 2.5 L to 3.5 L against a (1) The entropy of any pure crystalline
constant external pressure of 4 atm. The substance approaches zero at absolute
work done by the gas is zero temperature
(1) – 603.4 J (2) For an isolated system, entropy will
(2) – 312.6 J increase in the direction of spontaneity
(3) – 820 J (3) If a reaction takes place in several
(4) – 405.2 J steps then its standard reaction
enthalpy is the sum of the standard
enthalpies of the intermediate steps
66. Consider the following reversible changes (4) The energy of an isolated system is
AB (Isothermal) and AC (Adiabatic) for constant
monoatomic ideal gas

71. Consider the following half cell reactions

(a) Co3+ + e– → Co2+ E° = 1.81 V
(b) Au3+ + 3 e– → Au(s) E° = 1.40 V
(c) Br2 + 2 e– → 2 Br– E° = 1.09 V
(d) Zn2+ + 2 e– → Zn(s) E° = –0.76 V
The strongest oxidising and reducing
species respectively are
Then the incorrect statement among the (1) Co2+ and Zn2+
following is (2) Co3+ and Zn
(1) For same final volume, |W|adia < |W|iso (3) Br– and Zn
(2) TA = TB and TB > TC
(4) Au and Co2+
(3) Molar heat capacity for path AB < molar
heat capacity for path AC
(4) ΔUAB > ΔUAC and QAB > QAC 72. Electrolysis of acidified water using platinum
electrodes gives
(1) H2 O2
67. Select the correct option(s) among the
(2) O2 (g)
following.
(1) Magnitude of Wreversible > Wirreversible (3) H2 (g)
for expansion (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Work done in free expansion of gas is
always zero 73. Select the reaction which is not a
(3) Slope of reversible P-V curve : disproportionation reaction?
Adiabatic process > Isothermal process (1) Cl2 + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaOCl + H2 O
(4) All of these (2) Δ
NH4 NO3 → N2 O + 2H2 O
68. Enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids A, B, (3) 6XeF4 + 12H2 O → 4Xe + 2XeO3 +
C and D with NaOH are –10.5, –13.7, – 5.9 24HF + 3O2
and –12.7 kcal eq–1 respectively. Out of A, B, (4) Br2 + H2 O → HBr + HOBr
C and D strongest acid is
(1) C
74. Oxidation states of S in Na2 S2 O3 , SF6 and
(2) A
SO2 are respectively
(3) D
(1) +3, +6, +2
(4) B
(2) +2, +6, +3
(3) +2, +6, +4
69. Which among the following is a path
function? (4) +3, +6, +4
(1) U
(2) U+PV 75. For the balanced redox reaction
− − + 2+
aMnO + bI + cH → xMn + yI2
(3) H – TS 4

(4) W + zH2 O
a, b and z respectively are
(1) 5, 4 and 3
(2) 16, 5 and 8
(3) 2, 10 and 8
(4) 2, 10 and 6

9
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T03A

76. A : Cu2 O can act both as an oxidant and a 81. If 0.01 M CH3 COOH has molar conductance
reductant. 19.5 ohm cm2 mol–1 then its degree of
R : Cu+(aq) cannot undergo º
dissociation will be [Given: λm (H + ) and λº
disproportionation to form Cu2+(aq) and Cu.
(CH3 COO– ) as 349.1 and 40.9 S cm2 mol–1
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and respectively]
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion, then mark (1) (1) 0.05
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but (2) 0.08
the reason is not the correct (3) 0.02
explanation of the assertion, then mark (4) 0.1
(2)
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
Reason is false, then mark (3) 82. A : In a Daniel cell, if concentrations of Cu2+
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false and Zn2+ ions are doubled, the emf of the
statements, then mark (4) cell will be doubled.
R : Emf of the cell is directly proportional to
the concentration of ions.
77. Equivalent weight of KMnO4 (Molar mass = (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
M) in acidic medium is the reason is the correct explanation of
(1) M the assertion
5 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(2) M the reason is not the correct
3 explanation of the assertion
(3) M (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
1 is false
(4) M (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
6
statements

78. For strong electrolytes NaCl, NaOH and 83. What is the product of electrolysis of
BaCl2 , the molar conductivities at infinite KNO3 (aq) using Pt electrodes?
dilution (in S m2 mol–1 ) are x, y and z (1) K, NO2
respectively. The molar conductivity of
(2) H2 , NO2
Ba(OH)2 at infinite dilution (in S m2 mol–1 )
will be (3) K, O2
(1) z – 2y + 2x (4) H2 , O2
(2) 2z – x + y
(3) z – 2x + 2y 84. Mass of silver deposited at cathode by
(4) z – 2x – 2y passage of 9.65 A current for 1000 sec is
(Ag = 108 u)
(1) 27
79. For strong electrolyte, variations of molar
conductivity with concentration is given by (2) 54
equation (3) 10.8 g
−
−
(1) (4) 216 g
λ
m = λm + A√C
o

−
−
(2) o
λm = λm + A√C 85. Three faradays of electricity were passed
through AgNO3 (l), CuSO4 (l) and AlCl3 (l)
−
−
(3) o kept in three different vessels using Pt
λ
m = λ + A√C 3

m electrodes. The ratio of the moles of Ag, Cu

−
−
(4) o and Al deposited will be
λ = λm + A√C 3

m (1) 2 : 3 : 6
(2) 6 : 3 : 2
80. The Λom value for Mg(OH)2 is (3) 1 : 2 : 3
(Given :
o
λ = 106 S cm
2
mol
−1 (4) 3 : 2 : 1
2+
Mg

o 2 −1
λ −
= 199 .1 S cm mol )
OH

(1) 504.2 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 292.2 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 305.1 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 610.2 S cm2 mol–1

10
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T03A

SECTION-B

86. For the cell reaction 92. The correct relation between ΔSsurrounding
Ni(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Ni2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) and ΔHsystem for a reversible process is
°
E cell = 1.05 V at 298 K. The standard (1) ΔHsys
ΔSsurr =
Gibbs energy (ΔrG°) of the cell reaction is T

[Given that Faraday Constant (F) = 96500 C (2) ΔSsurr = ΔHsys + T

mol–1 ] (3) ΔSsurr = ΔHsys – T
(1) –101.32 kJ mol–1 (4) −ΔHsys
ΔSsurr =
(2) 101.32 kJ mol–1 T

(3) 202.65 kJ mol–1

93. Assertion (A): For an adiabatic expansion
(4) –202.65 kJ mol–1 process, work done by the system is equal to
the change in internal energy.
Reason (R): In adiabatic process, there is
87. The correct relation between E
0
and Keq
cell no heat exchange between system and
is surrounding.
(1) nE
∘
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and

DRAFT
cell
log Keq =
0.0591 the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) 0.0591E
∘

c ell
the assertion
log Keq =
n (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(3) log Keq = 0.0591nE
∘ the reason is not the correct
cell explanation of the assertion
(4)
e
0.0591E
c ell (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
Keq =
n is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
88. In mercury cells, cathode used is statements
(1) Paste of HgO and carbon
(2) Paste of KOH and ZnO 94. C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + X kJ
(3) Pb 2CO(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + Y kJ
(4) PbO2 The enthalpy of formation of CO is
(1) X – Y
(2) 2X – Y
89. In H2 –O2 fuel cell, the overall cell reaction is
(3) X − Y
(1) H2 O(I) → H
+
(aq) + OH
−
(aq) 2

(2) (4) Y
−X
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2 O(l) 2

(3) 2H2 O(l) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)

95. For the redox reaction,
(4) H
+
(aq) + OH
−
(aq) → H2 O(l)
xFe2++yCr2 O7 +zH+→ Fe3++Cr3++H2 O,
2−

x, y, z are respectively
90. If equilibrium constant of a reaction is 1000
(1) 3, 1, 4
at 27°C, then the standard Gibbs energy
change for the reaction will be (2) 6, 1, 7
(1) –15.2 kJ (3) 6, 2, 14
(2) –25.5 kJ (4) 6, 1, 14
(3) +15.2 kJ
(4) –17.2 kJ 96. The oxidation state of Mn in MnO4 2– is
(1) +8
91. At 27°C latent heat of fusion of compound is (2) +6
3000J g–1 . Entropy change during fusion is (3) +7
(1) 10 J g–1 K–1 (4) +5
(2) 10 kJ g–1 K–1
(3) 11.1 J g–1 K–1
(4) 111.1 J g–1 K–1

11
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T03A

97. A : AlCl3 acts as a Lewis acid. 99. pH of saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is (Ksp
R : In AlCl3 molecule central atom has of Ca(OH)2 ) = 4 × 10–6 )
incomplete octet.
(1) 12.3
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) 11.9
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (3) 10.7
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (4) 13.3
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion 100. Which of the following is an example of
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason homogeneous equilibrium?
is false (1) H2 O ⇌ H2 O
(l) (g)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (2) CaC O3(s) ⇌ 2 Hl(g)

(3) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g)

98. Which one of the following pairs of solution
will not act as an acidic buffer? (4) 2C O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + C(s)
(1) H2 CO3 and Na2 CO3
(2) H2 SO4 and Na2 SO4
(3) CH3 COOH and CH3 COONa
(4) HCN and NaCN

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Find the mismatched pair. 104. Select the correct statement.
(1) Vessels : Not found in most of the (1) Large, empty and colourless cells
gymnosperms present along the abaxial epidermis of
(2) Tracheids : Dead and without dicot leaf are called bulliform cells
protoplasm (2) The parenchymatous cells which lie
(3) Xylem fibre : Living and thin walled between the vascular bundles of dicot
stem are called conjunctive tissues
(4) Xylem parenchyma : Stores tannins
(3) Light coloured peripheral region of
wood involved in the conduction of
102. The meristem, which occurs between mature water and minerals is sapwood
tissues (4) Thick walled non-chlorophyll
(1) Is known as intercalary meristem containing cells of leaf are called
(2) Is found in all plants mesophyll
(3) Is always secondary in origin
(4) Is not responsible for the elongation of 105. Which of the following is incorrectly
plant organs matched?
(1) Dedifferentiated medullary cells –
Interfascicular cambium
103. Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
‘In grasses, the guard cells are ____ (2) Heart wood – Highly lignified walls and
shaped’. non-conductive
(1) Round (3) Vascular cambium in dicot root – Partly
primary in origin
(2) Bean
(4) Lenticels – Lens shaped openings for
(3) Kidney
gaseous exchange
(4) Dumb-bell

12
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Topic : BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION (CYANOBACTERIA TO COMPLETE CHAPTER), PLANT KINGDOM
(UPTO ALGAE) & ANIMAL KINGDOM [BACK UNIT] CELL BIOLOGY.

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I ) 104. Assertion : Anabaena and Nostoc can fix

atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells.
101. Characteristic feature of Euglenoids :- Reason : Both Anabaena and Nostoc have
(A) Presence of Cellwall specialized cells called heterocyst.
(B) Presence of two flagella (1) Both Assertion and Reason is correct and
(C) Phtosynthesis in presence of light Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(D) Presence of pellicle on their cell wall
(2) Both Assertion and Reason is correct but Reason
(1) A and B only is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) B and D only (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) B, C and D only (4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) B and C only 105. Identify the following pictures (A) and (B)
102. Match the list-I with list-II -
List-I List-II
Extreme salty
(A) (i) Chlorophyll-a
areas
(B) Hot spring (ii) Methanogens
(1) A → Aspergillus, B → Mucor
(C) Marshy area (iii) Thermoacidophiles
(2) A → Aspergillus, B → Agaricus
(D) BGA (iv) Halophiles
(3) A → Agaricus, B → Mucor
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A → Mucor, B → Agaricus
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
106. What is indicated by A to D in this figure ?
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
103. I. Mostly marine
II. Appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red
colour
III. Photosynthetic
IV. Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates
V. Most of them have two flagella
Above statements are correct for.
(1) Diatoms (1) A-Collar, B-Tail fibres, C-Head, D-Sheath
(2) Dinoflagellates (2) A-Sheath, B-Collar, C-Head, D-Tail fibres
(3) Chlorella (3) A-Tail fibres, B-Sheath, C-Collar, D-Head
(4) Euglena (4) A-Tail fibres, B-Collar, C-Head, D-Sheath
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107. Identify the correct match from column I, II and 111. Which of the following protist have a protein
III :- rich layer called pellicle?
Column I Column II Column III (1) Slime mould (2) Diatoms
Alcoholic
(1) Phycomycetes a Trichoderma i
fermentation (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglena
(2) Ascomycetes b Albugo ii Smut 112. Dikaryophase of fungi is found in -
Obligate (1) Phycomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes c Saccharomyces iii
parasite
Decomposer (3) Ascomycetes (4) All of the above
of litter 113. Which of the following is responsible for red
(4) Deuteromycetes d Ustilago iv
mineral
cycling tides ?

(1) 1 – a – i, 2 – b – ii, 3 – c – iii, 4 – d – iv (1) Red algae (2) Blue green algae

(2) 1 – b – iii, 2 – c – i, 3 – d – ii, 4 – a – iv (3) Gonyaulax (4) Trichodesmium

(3) 4 – a – i, 3 – b – ii, 2 – c – iii, 1 – d – iv 114. White rust of mustard is caused by the member
of :-
(4) 4 – d – iv, 3 – a – i, 2 – c – ii, 1 – b – iii
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
108. Read the following statements :
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
(i) Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association
between roots of higher plants and fungus. 115. Under favourable conditions, slime moulds form
an aggregation called -
(ii) Lichens are very good pollution indicators.
(iii) Viroids contain only low molecular weight (1) Fruiting body (2) Sporocarp
DNA and protein. (3) Plasmodium (4) Sporangium
(iv) W.M. Stanley crystallised TMV 116. Deuteromycetes are commonly called 'fungi
Which of the above statements are correct : imperfecti' because :-
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) (iii) only (1) Only sexual phases of these fungi are known
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i) and (iii) only (2) Both sexual and asexual phases are known
109. If hyphae consist of multinucleated cytoplasm it (3) Only asexual or vegetative phases are known
is known as :
(4) They possess fruiting bodies
(1) Septate hypha (2) Coenocytic hypha
117. Cell organelle which exhibit cart wheel structure
(3) Monokaryotic hypha (4) Dikaryotic hypha (A) Have 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
110. Which of the following belong to the same (B) Covered by a unit membrane
kingdom? (C) Central part is proteinaceous called hub
(D) It is helpful in cell division in animal cells
(1) Mycoplasma and Euglena
(E) Form the basal body of Cilia or Flagella
(2) Golden algae and Green algae Which of the above is correct for this structure ?
(3) Toadstool and Albugo (1) B, C & E (2) A, B & E
(4) Blue green algae and Red algae (3) C, D, E (4) B, C, E
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118. Match the column-I with column-II 121. Head part and tail part of phospholipid molecule
Column I Column II is respectively :-
(A) Robert Hooke (i) Saw first live cell (1) Polar and Polar
(B) Rudulof Virchow (ii) Fluid Mosaic model
(2) Non-Polar and Polar
(C) A.V. Leuwenhoek (iii) Discovery of cell
(D) Singer and Nicolson (iv) Omnis cellulae cellula
(3) Non-Polar and Non-Polar
(4) Polar and Non-Polar
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
122. Which of the following is gradually diminished
(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
as the cell matures ?
(3) A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii
(1) Primary cell wall
(4) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
(2) Secondary cell wall
119. Identify A to D in the diagrammatic representation
(3) Plasmodesmata
of internal structure cilia/flagella :-
(4) Middle lamella
123. Which of the following structure help in
osmoregulation and excretion in some
unicellular organisms ?
(1) Golgi body
(2) Lysosome
(1) A-Dynein arms, B-Central microtubule,
C-Plasma membrane, D-Radial spoke (3) Contractile Vacuole
(2) A-Plasma membrane, B-Central microtubule, (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
C-Dynein arms, D-Radial spoke 124. Cell to cell recognition is due to :-
(3) A-Plasma membrane, B-Dynein arms, (1) Phosphoglycerides (2) Cholestrol
C-Central microtubule, D-Radial spoke
(3) Oligosaccharides (4) Protein
(4) A-Plasma membrane, B-Dynein arms,
C-Radial spoke, D-Central microtubule 125. Which of the following are NOT considered as
120. Statement-I : The nucleoli are spherical the part of endomembrane system ?
structures present in the cytoplasm. A. Mitochondria
Statement-II : Larger and more numerous B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
nucleoli are present in those cells which are C. Chloroplasts
actively carrying out lipid synthesis. D. Golgi complex
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is E. Peroxisomes
incorrect Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct options given below :
(3) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct (1) A, C and E only (2) A and D only
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect (3) A, D and E only (4) B and D only
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126. The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes 131. Match the stages of meiosis in Column – I to their
required for the synthesis of - characteristic features in Column – II and select
(1) Carbohydrates only the correct option using the codes given below :
Column-I Column-ll
(2) Proteins & Fats
a Pachytene i Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(3) Fat & carbohydrates
b Metaphase-I ii Terminalization of chiasmata
(4) Carbohydrates & proteins
c Diakinesis iii Crossing over takes place
127. The ribosome of the chloroplast are composed of
d Zygotene iv Chromosomes align at equatorial plate
two subunit these are -
Codes :
(1) 60 S smaller subunit and 40 S larger subunit
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) 40 S larger subunit and 40 S smaller subunit
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(3) 50 S smaller subunit and 40 S larger subunit
132. Statement-I : Small disc-shaped structure at the
(4) 50 S larger subunit and 30 S smaller subunit surface of the centromeres are called kinetochores.
128. Depending upon the ..........., membrane proteins Statement-II : In anaphase stage, spindle fibres
can be classified as integral or peripheral. attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.
(1) Size (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) Sedimentation rate correct.

(3) Ease of extraction (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

incorrect.
(4) Molecular weight
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II
129. Microtubules are component of : is incorrect.
(A) Spindle fibres
(4) Statement-II is correct and Statement-
(B) Centrioles
I is incorrect.
(C) Cilia
(D) Chromatin fibres 133. In ................. stage, the chromosomal material
becomes untangled during the process of
(1) A and B only chromatin condensation.
(2) C and D only (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) A, B and C only (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(4) D only 134. Which stage is marked by the terminalisation
130. What is common between mitochondria and of chiasmata ?
chloroplasts? (1) Diakinesis (2) Pachytene
(1) ATP synthesis (3) Leptotene (4) Zygotene
(2) Protein synthesis 135. Centrioles undergoes duplication during :-
(3) Endosymbiotic origin (1) Prophase (2) S-phase
(4) All of the above (3) Metaphase (4) G2-phase
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SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I ) 140. Which of the following is not a correct match :
(1) Rust fungi → Puccinia
136. Statement-I :- Methanogens are responsible for
the production of biogas from the dung of cow (2) Yeast → Bread and Beer production
and buffaloes. (3) Chrysophyte → Diatomaceous earth
Statement-II :- Eubacteria are 'True bacteria'.
(4) Penicillium → Red tide
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
141. Match the column A with column B and find out
incorrect.
the correct option.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Column-A Column-B
incorrect. a. Pollution indicator p. Fungal component
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct b. Mycobiont q. Viroid

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. c. Potato spindle tuber disease r. Lichen
d. Obligate intracellular parasite s. Virus
137. The given statements describe a group of organisms.
(A) Saprophytic protist. (1) a - r, b - p, c - s, d - q (2) a - r, b - s, c - p, d - q
(B) Under suitable conditions, they form (3) a - s, b r, c - p, d - q (4) a - r, b - p, c - q, d - s
plasmodium.
(C) The spores posses true walls. 142. Match the column I, II and III, and choose the
(D) Spores are dispersed by air currents. correct combination from the options given.
Above statements are related to -
Column I Column II Column III
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Chrysophytes
(3) Slime mould (4) Euglenoids Mesophyll
a 1. K Elongated
cell
138. Consider the following statements :
(A) Causes potato spindle tuber disease. Round and
(B) Consisting of abnormally folded protein and b 2. Tracheid L
biconcave
causes neurological disease.
(C) Do not grow in polluted areas.
(D) Cause leaf rolling and curling in plants. c 3.
Red blood
M Amoeboid
These statements are correct for which group out Cells
of the following ?
(1) A-Virus, D-Viroid White blood Round and
d 4. N
(2) A-Viroid, B-Prion cells oval
(3) C-Lichen, D-Viroid
(4) B-Viroid, C-Lichen Options :-
139. Consider the following examples of fungi :- (1) a – 3 – M, b – 4 – L, c – 1 – K, d – 2 – N
Ustilago, Colletotrichum, Albugo, Aspergillus
Neurospora, Mucor, Agaricus, Alternaria. (2) a – 4 – M, b – 3 – L, c – 2 – K, d – 1 – N
How many of the above have septate mycelium? (3) a – 3 – L, b – 4 – M, c – 1 – N, d – 2 – K
(1) Five (2) Eight (3) Six (4) Seven (4) a – 4 – L, b – 3 – M, c – 2 – N, d – 1 – K
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143. Which of the following statements are correct - 146. What is correct about metaphase of mitotic
A. The secondary cell wall is formed on the inner division?
side of the cell membrane. (1) Crossing over has been occured between
B. The cell wall and middle lamella may be homologous chromosome
traversed by plasmodesmata which connect the
cytoplasm of neighbouring cells. (2) Centrioles divide and move to opposite
C. ER are extensive and continuous with the outer poles
membrane of the nucleus. (3) Each chromosome consist of two chromatids
D. The cis and the trans faces of the golgi apparatus (4) Daughter chromosomes move to opposite poles
are entirely different, but interconnected.
Choose the correct answer from the options given 147. How many successive generations of mitosis must
below occur to produce 32 cells from a single cell ?
(1) Only A and B (2) Only B and C (1) 5 (2) 3
(3) Only A, B and C (4) B, C and D (3) 2 (4) 6
144. Assertion : Nucleus is required for living cells, to 148. If initial number of chromosome is 14 in G1-phase
regulate cellular activities. then how many number of double chromatid
Reason : Nucleus is a part of endomembrane chromosome appear in metaphase of mitosis ?
system. (1) 7 chromosomes
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (2) 28 chromosomes
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) 14 chromosomes
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) 56 chromosomes
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
149. Organisms which live in freshwater, seawater or
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and moist soil, move and capture their prey by
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. pseudopodia and marine forms have silica shells
145. How many of the given statements are correct? on their surface included in which group :
(a) The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at
(1) Sporozoans
metaphase is referred to as the metaphase plate.
(b) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle (2) Ciliated protozoans
poles at prophase. (3) Amoeboid protozoans
(c) At anaphase morphology of chromosomes is
(4) Flagellated protozoans
most easily studied.
(d) Development of an organism occurs by 150. Which of the following protozoans do not posses
mitosis. locomotory organs/structure -
(1) Two (1) Trypanosoma

(2) Three (2) Euglena

(3) One (3) Paramoecium

(4) Four (4) Plasmodium

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149. In cymose inflorescence

(a) Main axis terminates into a flower.
(b) Flowers are borne in basipetal order.
(c) Younger flowers are present towards the
apex and older at the base.
(1) Only (c) is correct
(2) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Only (a) is correct

150. Which of the following feature is not

associated with China rose?
(1) Twisted aestivation
(2) Monoadelphous stamen
(3) Perigynous flower
(4) Axile placentation

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Respiration is helpful in all, except 154. Match column I with column II and select the
(1) Removing wastes from the body correct option.
(2) Producing energy within the body Column I Column II
(3) Maintaining oxygen supply to body a. FRC (i) ERV + RV
cells b. VC (ii) RV + ERV + IRV + TV
(4) Elimination of glucose c IC (iii) TV + IRV
d. TLC (iv) ERV + TV + IRV
152. Select the wrong statement. (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) The role of oxygen in the regulation of (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) Respiratory rhythm centre primarily (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
responsible for regulating the normal
respiratory rhythm, is located in pons
region. 155. How many of the below mentioned
(3) Receptors associated with aortic arch structures are components of human
and carotid artery can recognise respiratory system?
changes in CO2 and H+ concentration. Larynx, green glands, bronchi,
bronchioles, tracheoles, nasopharynx
(4) Neural signals from pneumotaxic
centre result in shallow and fast (1) Four
breathing, by shortening the duration of
inspiration. (2) Three
(3) Two
153. In humans, solubility of CO2 in the blood is (4) Five
_______ times higher than O2 .
Select the correct option to fill the blank. 156. The major fraction of CO2 is transported
(1) 120-125 by/as
(2) 80-100 (1) NaHCO3 in blood plasma
(3) 20-25 (2) Dissolved form in cytoplasm of RBC
(4) 40-70 (3) Carboxyhaemoglobin
(4) Carbaminohaemoglobin

16
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T02A

157. Read this reaction carefully and find A, B 162. Read the following features:
and C. i. Presence of thin flattened simple
‘A’
−
squamous epithelium
CO2 + H2 O ⇌ ‘B’ ⇌ HCO
3
+ ‘C’ ii. Absence of ciliated epithelium
(1) A = Carbonic anhydrase, B = Adenylate iii. Absence of cartilage
cyclase, C = CO2 Choose the option which fulfills all the above
criteria.
(2) A = Carbonic anhydrase, B = H2 CO3 , C
(1) Primary bronchi
= H+
(2) Pharynx
(3) A = Carbonic anhydrase, B = H2 CO3 , C
(3) Alveoli
= HCO3 – (4) Trachea
(4) A = Acetic anhydrase, B = HCO – , C =
3
H+ 163. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Chemosensitive area – Medulla
158. Oxygen dissociation curve tends to shift oblongata
towards right side under which of the given (2) Pneumotaxic centre – Pons
conditions? (3) Aortic bodies – Chemoreceptors
(1) Increased partial pressure of O2 than (4) Carotid bodies – Thermoreceptors
CO2
(2) Increased concentration or level of H+ 164. During inspiration in humans,
and CO2 in blood (1) Contraction of diaphragm increases the
(3) Low temperature volume of thoracic cavity in antero-
(4) High pH posterior axis
(2) Relaxation of diaphragm increases the
thoracic volume in antero-posterior axis
159. Complete the analogy by selecting the
(3) Contraction of internal intercostal
correct option.
Industrial pollutants : Occupational muscles increases the volume of
thoracic cavity in dorso-ventral axis
respiratory disorders :: Cigarette smoking :
______ (4) Relaxation of internal intercostal
(1) Asthma muscles decreases the volume of
thoracic cavity in dorso-ventral axis
(2) Emphysema
(3) Rhinitis
165. Choose the correct pair of muscles which
(4) Heart attack contract during forceful exhalation in
humans.
160. Read the following statements and select (1) Diaphragm and external intercostal
the correct option. muscles
Statement A: The rate of diffusion of gases (2) Diaphragm and internal intercostal
is inversely related to the thickness of muscles
diffusion membrane.
Statement B: Negative pressure breathing (3) External inter-costal and internal
is characteristic of mammals. intercostal muscles
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Internal inter-costal muscles and
abdominal muscles
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

161. Which among the following structures is the

part of conducting zone of respiratory system
in humans but is not supported by the
incomplete cartilaginous rings?
(1) Initial bronchioles
(2) Tertiary bronchi
(3) Alveolar ducts
(4) Terminal bronchioles

17
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T02A

166. Assertion (A) : SAN is known as the 170. Read the following statements A and B and
pacemaker of human heart. choose the correct option.
Reason (R) : It generates the maximum A. ABO grouping is based on the presence
number of action potentials i.e., 70–75 min–1 or absence of two surface antigens AB and
and is responsible for initiating and O.
maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity B. Person having blood group AB, has anti-
of the heart. AB antibodies in plasma.
In the light of above statements, select the (1) Statement A is correct but statement B
correct option. is incorrect
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) Statement A is incorrect but statement
the reason is the correct explanation of B is correct
the assertion (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason 171. Match column I with column II.
is false Column I Column II
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false Tunica
a. (i) Smooth muscles
statements externa
Tunica
b. (ii) Fibrous connective tissue
167. Left atrium receives the oxygenated blood media
from both lungs and skin while a single Tunica Flattened squamous
c. (iii)
ventricle receives both oxygenated and intima epithelial cells
deoxygenated blood in Select the correct option.
(1) Amphibians (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(2) Crocodiles (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) Aves (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(4) Mammals (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

168. Choose the option with only correct 172. Globulins present in human blood plasma
statements w.r.t. lymph are primarily involved in
a. It carries nutrients and hormones (1) Clotting of blood
b. Fats are absorbed through lymph in
lacteals. (2) Maintaining osmolarity of blood
c. Lymphocytes and platelets are absent in (3) Transport of gases in blood
lymph. (4) Defence mechanism of the body
d. Lymph is drained into major veins.
(1) a and b only
173. Opening of semilunar valves is observed
(2) a, b and d
(1) At the beginning of ventricular diastole
(3) b and d only
(2) During atrial systole
(4) a and c
(3) During ventricular systole
(4) During joint diastole
169. 70 mL is the volume of blood pumped by
each ventricle per beat under normal resting
conditions in humans. This volume is called 174. Sympathetic nervous system stimulates SAN
that leads to all the following, except
(1) Cardiac output
(1) Increased number of heart beat
(2) Stroke volume
(2) Increased strength of ventricular
(3) Diastolic volume
contraction
(4) lsovolumetric volume
(3) Increased cardiac output
(4) Decreased speed of conduction of
action potential

175. If a victim of a road traffic accident with

unknown blood group requires immediate
blood transfusion, the best option is to use
blood group
(1) AB+ve
(2) AB–ve
(3) O+ve
(4) O–ve

18
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T02A

176. Human heart is protected by a double- 182. The part of conducting system present in
walled membranous bag called ventricular wall of human heart is
(1) Epicardium (1) Sino-atrial node
(2) Pericardium (2) Atrio-ventricular node
(3) Myocardium (3) Purkinje fibres
(4) Endocardium (4) Internodal pathways

177. Erythroblastosis foetails can be prevented 183. Different types of hearts and the blood
by injecting _____A_____ mother with anti – circulation patterns seen in the animal
Rh antibodies immediately after the birth of kingdom are given in table below. Which of
_____B_____ baby. Choose the option that the following is incorrect w.r.t. animal, type
fill the blanks correctly for A and B of heart and type of circulation?
respectively. Type of Type of
(1) Rh – ve, Rh + ve Animal
heart circulation
(2) Rh + ve, Rh + ve 2 Single
(1) Rohu
(3) Rh + ve, Rh – ve chambered circulation
(4) Rh – ve, Rh – ve Incomplete
3
(2) Frog double
chambered
circulation
178. In humans, deoxygenated blood during
circulation does not come in contact with Incomplete
3
(3) Lizard single
(1) Right auricle chambered
circulation
(2) Pulmonary artery
4 Double
(3) Pulmonary vein (4) Human
chambered circulation
(4) Tricuspid valve (1) (1)
(2) (2)
179. Assertion (A) : The cardiac output of an (3) (3)
athlete during exercise will be much higher
(4) (4)
than that of an ordinary man.
Reason (R) : Cardiac output is based on the
body’s ability to alter the heart rate but not 184. Read the given statements and select the
stroke volume. correct option w.r.t. true (T) and false (F).
On the basis of above statements, choose (a) Duration of each cardiac cycle is 0.8
the correct answer from the options given seconds which can be altered in fear or fight
below. conditions.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (b) Rapid passive ventricular filling takes
the Reason is the correct explanation place when auricles are in diastole and
of the assertion auriculoventricular valves remain closed.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (c) Semilunar valves open when
the Reason is not the correct intraventricular pressure exceeds the
explanation of the assertion pressure within aorta.
(d) Sinoatrial node comprises autoexcitable
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false tissue.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) T F T T
180. In a standard ECG, wave that represents the
(2) F T F T
return of the ventricles from excited to
normal state i.e. repolarisation, is (3) T F T F
(1) P wave (4) F T T F
(2) T wave (1) (1)
(3) QR wave (2) (2)
(4) RS wave (3) (3)
(4) (4)
181. Conversion of inactive prothrombin into
thrombin occurs in the presence of
185. Which of the following is not included in
(1) Fibrin and Ca2+
systemic circulation?
(2) Ca2+ only (1) Right atrium
(3) Thrombokinase and Ca2+ (2) Left ventricle
(4) Thromboplastins only (3) Pulmonary vein
(4) Vena cava

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NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T02A

SECTION-B

186. Every 2 L of oxygenated blood can deliver 191. Select the incorrect match.
about ‘X’ mL of oxygen to the tissues under Respiratory
normal conditions in humans. Choose the Value
volume/capacity
correct value for ‘X’.
1100 mL –
(1) 80 (1) Residual volume
1200 mL
(2) 100
Expiratory reserve 1000 mL –
(3) 12 (2)
volume 1100 mL
(4) 120
Functional residual
(3) 2300 mL
capacity
187. Which of the following is responsible for the 3000 mL –
movement of O2 from the alveoli into the (4) Expiratory capacity
3500 mL
blood in the pulmonary capillaries?
(1) (1)
(1) Active transport
(2) (2)
(2) Facilitated diffusion
(3) (3)
(3) Simple diffusion
(4) (4)
(4) Osmosis

192. If a molecule of carbon dioxide released into

188. Which of the following labelling from the
the blood in your left foot travels up to your
figure given below is not a part of diffusion lungs, it must pass through all of the
membrane?
following structures, except
(1) Right atrium
(2) Pulmonary vein
(3) Inferior vena cava
(4) Pulmonary artery

193. What type of blood contains anti B-

(1) A
antibodies in the plasma and lacks Rh
(2) B antigens?
(3) C (1) AB negative
(4) D (2) A negative
(3) B negative
189. If end systolic volume and end diastolic (4) O positive
volume of a person are 60 mL and 130 mL
respectively, then calculate the value of
stroke volume and select the correct option. 194. What would be the effect on human heart if
we give an injection of adrenaline to an
(1) 60 mL
individual?
(2) 70 mL (1) Increase in the rate of heart beat
(3) 80 mL (2) Decrease in the rate of heart beat
(4) 90 mL (3) Increase in the rate of heart beat but
decrease in the strength of ventricular
190. The pCO2 of lungs alveoli in humans is contraction
equal to (4) Decrease in cardiac output
(1) pO2 of oxygenated blood
(2) pCO2 of oxygenated blood 195. If the cardiac output of a person is about 6.3
litres/minute and his stroke volume is 70 mL,
(3) pCO2 of tissues
then heart rate of the person will be
(4) pCO2 of deoxygenated blood (1) 100/minute
(2) 90/minute
(3) 80/minute
(4) 70/minute

20
NCERT Booster Test Series-RM(P1)2324-T02A

196. Read the following statements A and B and 199. Match column A with column B and choose
choose the correct option w.r.t. humans. the correct option w.r.t. a healthy human
A. Movement of air into and out of the lungs Column A Column B
is due to a pressure gradient between the
a. Neutrophils (i) 20-25 % of total WBCs
lungs and the atmosphere.
B. Inspiration takes place when there is a b. Eosinophils (ii) 6-8 % of total WBCs
positive pressure inside the lungs with c. Monocytes (iii) 2-3 % of total WBCs
respect to atmospheric air. d. Lymphocytes (iv) 60-65 % of total WBCs

(1) Statement A is correct and B is the (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
correct explanation of A (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
200. Select the incorrectly matched option.
197. We can usually determine the rate of heart (1) Red blood cells – Helps in
beat of an individual by counting the number transport of
of gases
(1) P-waves (2) Neutrophils – Destroy foreign
organisms
(2) T-waves
entering the
(3) QRS complexes body
(4) P-Q intervals
(3) Basophils – Resist allergic
infections
198. Special fibrous cords which prevent the AV (4) Thrombocytes – Involved in
valves from collapsing back into atria during coagulation of
ventricular systole are called blood
(1) Chordae tendineae (1) (1)
(2) Papillary muscles (2) (2)
(3) Interatrial septum (3) (3)
(4) Conus arteriosus (4) (4)

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