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NITTT Module 8 Quiz Answers for 2024

Module 8 / M8 Quiz

Jump ahead to
1. Assessment I – MCQ
2. Assessment II – MCQ
3. Assessment III – MCQ
4. Assessment IV – MCQ

Assessment I – MCQ
This Assessment is based on Units 1 to 4 of Module 8

1. Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of an institution?

Distinct purpose expressed in a goal or set of goals

People come and work together to achieve the institutional goals
A deliberate and systematic structure
All of these

Accepted Answers:
All of these

2. Who gave this statement? “Management is an art of getting the things done through and with the people in
formally organised groups”.

F W Taylor
George R Terry
Harold Koontz
A H Maslow

Accepted Answers:
Harold Koontz

3. Which of the following is not an objective of institutional management?

Achievement of institutional goals

Enhance productivity of the society
Ensure optimum utilization of institutional resources
Manage inter-personal conflicts effectively

Accepted Answers:
Enhance productivity of the society

4. In Institutional Management, function of planning is __________?

Preparing for future for desired goals

Organised resources
To appoint staff
All of the Above

Accepted Answers:
Preparing for future for desired goals

5. Institutional Management is concerned with the administration of __________.

Physical Assets
Financial Resources
Human Resources
All of the Above

Accepted Answers:
All of the Above

6. In what order do institutional managers typically perform the managerial functions?

Organising, Planning, Controlling, Leading

Organising, Leading, Planning, Controlling
Planning, Organising, Leading, Controlling
Planning, Organising, Controlling, Leading
Accepted Answers:
Planning, Organising, Leading, Controlling

7. Which level of management is responsible for establishing a vision for the organization, developing broad plans
and strategies, and directing subordinate managers?

first level managers

middle level managers
top level managers
All of these

Accepted Answers:
top level managers

8. The ability of a manager to interface and work effectively with individuals and groups is descriptive of what type
of managerial skill?

Technical
Administrative
Organizational
Interpersonal

Accepted Answers:
Interpersonal

9. Which of the following statements is false? Formal strategic Planning

Implies determined actions for achieving objectives

Is a time consuming process
Should develop clear and rigid plans for the institution to implement
Is most applicable in stable environment

Accepted Answers:
Should develop clear and rigid plans for the institution to implement

10. __________ refers to the purposes an institution strives to achieve.

Strategic intent
Strategic formulation
Strategic implementation
Strategic control

Accepted Answers:
Strategic intent

11. A possible and desirable future state of an institution

 Mission
Vision
Mandate
Strategy Implementation

Accepted Answers:
Vision

12. Which environment can create new market and new institutional business segments?

Political environment
Economic environment
Socio- cultural environment
Technological environment

Accepted Answers:
Technological environment

13. Organisation is a process of

Identifying and grouping of work to be performed

Defining and delegating the responsibility and authority
Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
None of the above

Accepted Answers:
Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

14. Responsibility always flows from

Superior to subordinate
Subordinate to superior
Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
None of the above

Accepted Answers:
Subordinate to superior

15. The following is not a principle of organization

Principle of exception
Principle of balance
Principle of complexity
Principle of co-ordination

Accepted Answers:
Principle of complexity

Assessment II – MCQ
This Assessment is based on Units 5 to 8 of Module 8

1. The concept “Together Everyone Achieves More conveys” the following:

The importance of team work at the work place

The institution is more important than the employee(s)
The achievement of goals must be done on an individual basis
What the employee has to say is not important

Accepted Answers:
The importance of team work at the work place

2. The most significant attribute required for the team work is:

A need to be part of a team

A willingness to help and guide other employees
Respect for others
Enjoyment in working alone

Accepted Answers:
Respect for others

3. Members of a __________ team have been cross trained so that each person is able to perform the duties of all the
other team members.

Functional
Cross functional
Multi functional
Self directed

Accepted Answers:
Multi functional

4. The process of eliminating unsuitable candidates is called:

Selection
Interview
Induction
Recruitment

Accepted Answers:
Selection
5. The purpose of getting an application blank is to gather information about the:

Institute
Candidate
Employees of the institute
Recruitment procedures

Accepted Answers:
Institute

6. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want advertisements?

Direct
Indirect
On payroll
None of the above

Accepted Answers:
Indirect

7. Which strategic choices an institution needs to make before designing its orientation programme?

Formal or informal
Individual or collective
Serial or disjunctive
All of the above

Accepted Answers:
All of the above

8. Which of the following refers to the allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial assignment of new employees,
and promotion, transfer, or demotion of present employees?

Recruitment
Placement
Selection
None of the above

Accepted Answers:
Placement

9. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an organisation?

Removing performance decencies

Enhancing management capabilities
Preparing manpower for future challenges
 All of the above

Accepted Answers:
All of the above

10. Which of the following is an off – the – job training method?

Television
Job rotation
Orientation training
Coaching

Accepted Answers:
Television

11. CCS Conduct Rules apply to:

Every person appointed to a Civil Service

Every civilian in Defense Service
Both (a) & (b)
None of these

Accepted Answers:
Both (a) & (b)

12. Sec 3-A of CCS Conduct rules explains:

Observance of Government’s policies

Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women
Promptness and Courtesy
All the above

Accepted Answers:
Promptness and Courtesy

13. The financial powers of the Government, which have not been delegated to a subordinate authority, shall vest in
the:

Union Cabinet
Finance Ministry
Parliament
President

Accepted Answers:
Finance Ministry

14. Powers to write off of losses are available under the:

 GFR 2017
Delegation of Financial Powers Rules.
R&P 1983
GAR 1990

Accepted Answers:
Delegation of Financial Powers Rules.

15. A material shall generally be considered surplus if it remains in stock for over __________ unless adequate reasons
to treat it otherwise exist.

four years
a year
three years
two years

Accepted Answers:
a year

For updates and discussion on NITTT modules join our telegram group

Assessment III – MCQ

This Assessment is based on Units 9 to 12 of Module 8

1. The potential to influence and drive the group efforts towards the accomplishment of goals is called as:

Mentoring
Leadership
Managing
Coaching

Accepted Answers:
Leadership

2. A __________ gets his authority by virtue of his position while a __________ gets his authority from his followers.

Mentor; Leader
Leader; Manager
Manager; Leader
Coach; Leader

Accepted Answers:
Manager; Leader

3. Which of the following seeks to determine the personal characteristics of effective leaders?

Trait theory
Fiedler’s contingency theory
House’s Path Goal theory
Behavioural theory

Accepted Answers:
Trait theory

4. Which of the following style of leadership leads to satisfied, motivated and more skilled employees, in turn
leading to an optimistic work environment and encouraging creativity?

Autocratic
Democratic
Laissez Faire
Bureaucratic

Accepted Answers:
Democratic

5. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a Motivated Workforce?

High Productivity
Ingenuity in the use of Resources
High Employee Turnover
Work conscious

Accepted Answers:
High Employee Turnover

6. Which of the following theories of motivation is concerned with comparing the ratios of inputs to outcomes they
receive against the ratios of other people?

Equity Theory
Expectancy Theory
Two Factor Theory
Need Hierarchy Theory

Accepted Answers:
Equity Theory

7. Unlike his co-workers, Suresh was motivated by challenge, personal satisfaction and by doing interesting work;
most of his co-workers were just in it for money. Suresh was motivated by:
 Extrinsic motivators
Esteem motivators
Intrinsic motivators
Social motivators

Accepted Answers:
Intrinsic motivators

8. Which of the following deals with one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager for
developing the leadership skills of the later?

Orientation
Mentoring
Counseling
Coaching

Accepted Answers:
Coaching

9. Give the correct sequence to the following components of Communication process:

i. Decoding
ii. Encoding
iii. Feedback
iv. Transmission

i, ii, iii, iv
ii, iii, i, iv
i, iii, iv, ii
ii, iv, i, iii

Accepted Answers:
ii, iv, i, iii

10. In organization, the flow of communication sometimes slows down because there are too many:

Channels
Departments
Hierarchical Levels
Managers

Accepted Answers:
Hierarchical Levels

11. When do senders hinder communication?

When they use language that causes confusion

 When they reject a message that contradicts their beliefs and assumptions
When they hear or see only certain parts of the message
When they jump to conclusions

Accepted Answers:
When they use language that causes confusion

12. Managers need effective communication skills to perform the following roles:

Personal
Interpersonal
Impersonal
Decisional

Accepted Answers:
Interpersonal

13. Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four key areas that strategic change seeks to influence?

Formal organisation structures

Informal organisation structures
Technology

Accepted Answers:
Technology

14. Which of the following is a strategic move of the institutions for implementation with the futuristic objective?

Unplanned change management

Global change management
Planned change management
Incidental change management

Accepted Answers:
Planned change management

15. Why might individuals resist organisational change?

i. Anxiety
ii. Irritation
iii. Lack of interest
iv. Opposing strategy proposals
v. Pessimism

i, iii, and iv
ii, iii, and v
iii, iv, and v
 All of the above

Accepted Answers:
All of the above

Assessment IV – MCQ
This assessment is based on Units 13 to 16 of Module 8

1. Clearly stated goals are best if they are:

Specific
Realistic
Measurable
All of the above

Accepted Answers:
All of the above

2. I will “attain an A grade by the end of this year” is a __________ range goal, while “Read Chapter 1 of the text book”
is more of a __________ range goal.

Long, Short
Short, Long
Long, Long
Short, Short

Accepted Answers:
Long, Short

3. The following is/are suggested time management technique(s):

Concentrate on one key task at a time

Make good use of technology
Clean up and get organized
All of these

Accepted Answers:
All of these

4. The following is an example of streamlining your work in an effort to eliminate time wasting tasks:

Reading and replying to e-mail hourly

Looking for duplication of effort and waste; then, taking action to eliminate them.
Assisting your secretary with routine phone calls
Being a good organization citizen and helping others routinely with their tasks.
Accepted Answers:
Looking for duplication of effort and waste; then, taking action to eliminate them.

5. Which of the following is/are accurate description(s) of attitude?

Directly observable behaviours

Personality traits
Multi-component evaluations
Concrete variables

Accepted Answers:
Multi-component evaluations

6. When an institutional manager monitors the work performance of employees in his department to determine if
the quality of their work is ‘up to standard’, this manager is engaging in the function of:

Planning
Controlling
Organising
Leading

Accepted Answers:
Controlling

7. Which of the following is the LAST element of any effective control system?

Measuring Performance
Setting Standards
Taking Corrective Action
Providing Feedback

Accepted Answers:
Taking Corrective Action

8. The least penalty as per CCS (CCA) Rules is:

Withholding of one increment

Transfer without TA/DA
Censure
Withholding of promotion

Accepted Answers:
Censure

9. The time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority is:
 3 months
6 months
9 months
18 months

Accepted Answers:
6 months

10. The method used for evaluating the performance of executives or supervisory positions is:

Psychological Appraisals
Assessment Centers
Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
360 degree feedback

Accepted Answers:
Assessment Centers

11. Which of these is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while performing performance appraisal?

Minimise inventory costs

Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones
Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
None of the above

Accepted Answers:
Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour

12. Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method?

Assuming that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

Work is reliable
The error of central tendency
None of the above

Accepted Answers:
Assuming that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

13. Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the performance rater?

The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimise their effect
Performance factors are properly defined
The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall
The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously

Accepted Answers:
 The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously

14. Evaluation measures:

The timeliness of a programs activities.

The outcomes and impact of a programs activities.
How closely a program kept to its budget
How well the program was implemented

Accepted Answers:
The outcomes and impact of a programs activities.

15. A formal inquiry into some issue or aspect of an institutional system is known as:

Report
Review
Agreement
Audit

Accepted Answers:
Audit

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Q1. Which term best describes the process of obtaining, deploying, and utilizing a variety of essential resources to
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contribute to an institution’s success?

A) planning
B) organizing
C) staffing
D) management
Answer Key:
D) management

Q2. In Institutional management, the function of Budgeting is:

A) Financial Planning
B) Accounting
C) Control and expenditure
D) All of the Above

Answer Key:
D) All of the Above

Q3. In what order do institutional managers typically perform the managerial functions?

A) organising, planning, controlling, leading

B) organising, leading, planning, controlling
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling
D) planning, organising, controlling, leading

Answer Key:
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling

Q4. Which one of the following statement is correct?

A) Planning and controlling are essentially one and the same

B) Controlling is a part of the planning process
C) Controlling is a substitute for planning
D) A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals

Answer Key:
D) A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals

Q5. Planning for the Institution should be based on:

A) Syllabus
B) Aims and Needs
C) Resources
D) All of the Above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Aims and Needs
Q6. Goals of the institution should be:

A) Relevant
B) Achievable
C) Specific
D) All of the Above

Answer Key:
D) All of the Above

Q7. The assumptions about the environment in which an institutional plans are formulated and executed are:

A) A regular follow-up
B) Derivative plans
C) Planning Premises
D) Setting of objectives

Answer Key:
C) Planning Premises

Q8. Planning begins with:

A) assessing and choosing the best alternative

B) designing evaluation procedures
C) selecting material
D) setting of objectives

Answer Key:
D) setting of objectives

Q9. Which level of management is responsible for implementing programs that are intended to carry out the
broader objectives of an institution set by executives?

A) shop floor workers

B) middle level managers
C) first level managers
D) chief financial managers

Answer Key:
B) middle level managers

Q10. The ability of a manager to interface and work effectively with individuals and groups is descriptive of what
type of managerial skill?

A) technical
B) administrative
C) interpersonal
D) organizational

Answer Key:
C) interpersonal

Q11. Which of the following characterize a manager as being effective?

A) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of outputs produced
B) They devote a large amount of time to planning
C) They achieve their goals
D) They interview, select, and train people who are most suitable to fill open jobs.

Answer Key:
C) They achieve their goals

Q12. Which of the following strategies aim at improving internal weaknesses by taking advantage of external
opportunities?

A) SO
B) WO
C) SW
D) ST

Answer Key:
B) WO

Q13. Which of the following requires an institution to establish annual objectives, devise policies, motivate
employees and allocate resources for the execution of strategies?

A) Strategy formulation
B) Strategy evaluation
C) Strategy implementation
D) Strategy estimation

Answer Key:
C) Strategy implementation
Q14. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see in a vision statement?

A) Descriptions of desirable future interactions

B) Motivational Terminology
C) Focus on values to which an institution is committed
D) What an institution seeks to do to reach desirable future state

Answer Key:
D) What an institution seeks to do to reach desirable future state

Q15. Which of the following indicated an important functional area, of an institution, requiring change?

A) Core value
B) Thrust area
C) Change agent
D) Strategy

Answer Key:
B) Thrust area

Q16. What is the recommended length of an effective Mission statement?

A) One page
B) Less than 200 words
C) One sentence of 10 to 20 words
D) There is no recommendation, it can be as long as the institute management wants

Answer Key:
B) Less than 200 words

Q17. Which of the following is associated with successful strategies?

A) Creating superior value to customers

B) Exploitation of key success factors
C) Creating and maintaining strategic fit
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

Q18. Any person, group or organisation that can place a claim on an institution’s attention/resources/output is
called:
A) Customer
B) Top Management
C) Stakeholder
D) Consumer

Answer Key:
C) Stakeholder

Q19. The following is NOT a principle of organisation:

A) Principle of exception
B) Principle of balance
C) Principle of complexity
D) Principle of co-ordination

Answer Key:
C) Principle of complexity

Q20. The process of dividing the work and then grouping them into units and subunits for the purpose of
administration is known as:

A) Departmentation
B) Organisation structure
C) Committee
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
A) Departmentation

Q21. Each subordinate should have only one superior whose command he has to obey. This is known as:

A) Division of work
B) Exception principle
C) Unity of Command principle
D) Authority – responsibility principle

Answer Key:
C) Unity of Command principle

Q22. Delegation of authority is linked to:

A) Managerial planning
B) Management coordination
C) Management control
D) Scientific management

Answer Key:
C) Management control

Q23. The main advantage of functional organisation is:

A) Specialisation
B) Simplicity
C) Expert advice
D) Experience

Answer Key:
A) Specialisation

Q24. In line and staff organisation, the authority lies in:

A) Line
B) Staff
C) Both line and staff
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
A) Line

Q25. If the span of control is narrow, a number of managers would be required in each unit of the organization and
there would be many managerial levels or layers, such an organizational structure is referred to as:

A) Flat structure
B) Tall structure
C) Matrix structure
D) Project structure

Answer Key:
B) Tall structure
Q26. What are group norms?

A) Modes of behaviours that are shared by some members of the group

B) Modes of behaviours that challenge group values and beliefs
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members
D) Modes of behaviours that are different of those of other group members

Answer Key:
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members

Q27. Teams occur when a number of people have _________ and recognise that their personal success is dependent
on the success of others.

A) A shared work environment

B) A common goal
C) Similar jobs
D) The common boss

Answer Key:
B) A common goal

Q28. Which of the following is a way to increase team participation?

A) Plan the team meetings and share agenda with people beforehand
B) Ask the leader of the group to run the meeting and talk the most.
C) Encourage everyone to talk whenever they have something to say, even if another person is talking
D) Point out dominating behavior to everyone.

Answer Key:
A) Plan the team meetings and share agenda with people beforehand

Q29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective team?

A) The open expression of feelings and disagreements

B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves
C) A belief in shared aims and objectives
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Answer Key:
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Q30. Which of the following is NOT a Team Maintenance Role?

A) Encouraging
B) Compromising
C) Harmonising
D) Information giving

Answer Key:
D) Information giving

Q31. From the point of view of an effective team, answer the following question:

Hari, a senior member of the team, and Ramesh, a junior member of the team, are on the opposite sides of an
important issue. Both of their positions have merit. You notice that as Hari and Ramesh present their arguments,
other team members:

A) Seem to be harsher in the criticisms of Ramesh’s arguments

B) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences
C) Favour Hari slightly over Ramesh.
D) Don’t pay much attention to either viewpoint

Answer Key:
B) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences

Q32. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Group Think?

A) Illusions of vulnerability
B) Belief in inherent group morality
C) Applying direct pressure to deviants
D) Self-censorship by member

Answer Key:
A) Illusions of vulnerability

Q33. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads?

A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) On payroll
D) Third pay

Answer Key:
B) Indirect

Q34. Which of the following provides complete job related information (both positive and negative) to the
applicants so that they can make right decisions before taking the job?

A) Job Compatibility Questionnaire

B) Realistic job preview
C) Market survey
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
B) Realistic job preview

Q35. Selection is __________ in its application as much as it seeks to eliminate as many unqualified applications as
possible in order to identify the right candidates.

A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Both negative and positive
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
B) Negative

Q36. Which of the following topics are covered in employee orientation programme?

A) Training and education benefit

B) Relationship to other jobs
C) Disciplinary regulations
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

Q37. The allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial assignment of new employees, and promotion, transfer, or
demotion of present employees is referred to as:

A) Recruitment
B) Placement
C) Selection
D) Orientation

Answer Key:
B) Placement

Q38. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?

A) Improves morale
B) Helps people identify with institutional goals
C) Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co – ordination
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
C) Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co – ordination

Q39. What is the alternate name for incentives?

A) Gratuity
B) Paid holidays
C) Payments by result
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
C) Payments by result

Q40: Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –

I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option

II. Job Context —— B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites ——— C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ———– D. Medical Care

A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
Q41. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?

A) Employee participation
B) Pay secrecy
C) Comparable worth
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

Q42. When a higher level job is assigned to an individual without increase in salary, it is called:

A) Horizontal promotion
B) Vertical Promotion
C) Dry promotion
D) Diagonal promotion

Answer Key:
C) Dry promotion

Q43. Payment to faculty on per class/period of teaching or output per period/hour basis is called:

A) Time rate method

B) Period rate method
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Period rate method

Q44. Which of following is wrong statement in respect of CCS (Conduct) Rules 1964?

A) A Govt. servant qualified to vote at such election may exercise his right to vote.

B) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an
election in legislature election only

C) Govt servant endeavour to prevent any member of his family from taking part in elections

D) None of the these

Answer Key:
B) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take
part in an election in legislature election only
Q45. The following act, conduct and commissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct:

A) If the act or conduct is prejudicial or likely to be prejudicial to the interests of the master or to the reputation of
the master

B) If the act or conduct is inconsistent or incompatible with the due or peaceful discharge of his duty to his master

C) If the act or conduct of a servant makes it unsafe for the employer to retain him in service

D) All the above

Answer Key:
D) All the above

Q46. A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in part
has been made during a period of:

A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.

B) Financial year in which sanction accorded.
C) 6 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
D) 3 months from the date of issue of such sanction.

Answer Key:
A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.

Q47. If a bid is accepted during the process of auctioning the disposal, earnest money should immediately be taken
on the spot from the successful bidder. The amount of the earnest money should be:

A) not less than 10%

B) not less than 20%
C) not less than 25%
D) not less than 30%

Answer Key:
C) not less than 25%

Q48. A physical verification of all the consumable goods and materials should be undertaken at least once in:

A) one month
B) six months
C) one year
D) two years
Answer Key:
C) one year

Q49. The process of recording financial data up to trial balance is:

A) Classifying
B) Summarising
C) Analyzing
D) Book keeping

Answer Key:
D) Book keeping

Q50. As per accrual concept, which of the followings is not true:

A) sales + gross profit = revenue

B) revenue –profit = expenditure
C) revenue –expenditure = profit
D) revenue = profit + expenditure

Answer Key:
A) sales + gross profit = revenue

Q51. A manager gets his authority by virtue of his position, while a __________ gets his authority from his followers.

A) Mentor
B) Counsellor
C) Leader
D) Coach

Answer Key:
C) Leader

Q52. Which of the following theories seeks to determine the personal characteristics of effective leaders?

A) Behavioural theory
B) Fiedler’s contingency theory
C) House’s Path Goal theory
D) Trait theory

Answer Key:
D) Trait theory

Q53. A style of leadership that takes account of others’ views, opinions and ideas is:

A) Autocratic
B) Democratic
C) Laissez-faire
D) A mix of laissez-faire and democratic

Answer Key:
B) Democratic

Q54. According to Fiedler’s LPC scale, leaders with a low LPC score will gain satisfaction from:

A) Achieving objectives
B) Developing team relationships
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer Key:
A) Achieving objectives

Q55. Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence
because of the leader’s:

A) Ability to punish or reward

B) Position within an organization
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Personal charisma
Answer Key:
D) Personal charisma

Q56. The situational theory of leadership emphasises:

A) Environment
B) Events
C) Personality Traits
D) Political Situation

Answer Key:
B) Events

Q57. Which of the following style of leadership leads to satisfied, motivated and more skilled employees, in turn
leading to an optimistic work environment and encouraging creativity?

A) Autocratic
B) Bureaucratic
C) Democratic
D) Laissez Faire

Answer Key:
C) Democratic

Q58. In which stage of the communication process, does the receiver interpret the message and translate it into
meaningful information?

A) Encoding
B) Decoding
C) Feedback
D) Transmission

Answer Key:
B) Decoding

Q59. Which of the following facial clues often reveals that a person is lying?

A) Failure to look you in the eye

B) Facial shift
C) Crooked smile
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

Q60. Upward communication flows from ____________ by way of complaints, suggestions, advice, feedback etc.:

A) Customers
B) Clients
C) Competitors
D) Lower levels

Answer Key:
D) Lower levels

Q61. The formal greeting with which a business letter begins is called:

A) Body of the letter

B) Reference
C) Salutation
D) Subject

Answer Key:
C) Salutation

Q62. Which of the following terms best describes the grapevine as a communication pattern?

A) Diagonal
B) Informal
C) Serial
D) Verbal

Answer Key:
B) Informal

Q63. When working to create and maintain a favourable relationship with a receiver, a sender should:

A) Use Positive wording

B) Stress mutual interests and benefits
C) Impress the receiver by using technical terms
D) Do just what the receiver expects

Answer Key:
B) Stress mutual interests and benefits
Q64. Rearrange the following six steps of motivation logically:

A. Engages in goal – directed behaviour

B. Reassesses needs deficiencies
C. Performs
D. Identifies needs
E. Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
F. Receives either rewards or punishment

A) ABCDEF
B) BCDEAF
C) DFCAEB
D) DEACFB

Answer Key:
D) DEACFB

Q65. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a Motivated Workforce?

A) High Productivity
B) Ingenuity in the use of Resources
C) High Employee Turnover
D) Work conscious

Answer Key:
C) High Employee Turnover

Q66. Which of the following theories of motivation focus on the needs a person is trying to satisfy and the features
of the work environment that seems to satisfy those needs?

A) Process theories
B) Situational theories
C) Content theories
D) Motivational theories

Answer Key:
C) Content theories

Q67. Which is one of the following Techniques of Motivating Oneself?

A) Individualizing reinforcers
B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying
C) Matching people to tasks
D) Providing opportunities to grow

Answer Key:
B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying

Q68. In which of the following employees ‘career hazards’ are dealt?

A) Coaching
B) Counselling
C) Development
D) Mentoring

Answer Key:
D) Mentoring

Q69. Which one of the following is the aim of Counselling?

A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication

B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour

Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity

Q70. Setting SMART goals imply:

A) Specific, Matching, Accurate, Realistic, Tactful

B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely
C) Specific, Measurable, Accurate, Reliable, Tactful
D) Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely

Answer Key:
B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely

Q71. Goals are the ______ of Management action.

A) Starting points
B) Planning
C) End points
D) Directions

Answer Key:
C) End points

Q72. Which of the following time management technique refers to eating meals on the run to make good use of
time ordinarily spent on sitting down for meals?

A) Grazing
B) Greasing
C) Snacking
D) Snagging

Answer Key:
A) Grazing

Q73. An example of streamlining your work effort to eliminate time wasting tasks is:

A) Assist your secretary with routine phone calls

B) Be a good employee and help others routinely with their tasks
C) Look for duplication of effort and waste; then, take action to eliminate them
D) Read and reply to e-mail hourly

Answer Key:
C) Look for duplication of effort and waste; then, take action to eliminate them

Q74. Work attitudes can be reflected in an institution/organization through:

A) Job Satisfaction
B) Organizational Commitment
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer Key:
C) Both (A) and (B)

Q75. Which of the following is NOT the component of Attitudes?

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognition
C) Behaviour
D) Affect

Answer Key:
A) Psycho-motor
Q76. Which of the following is not one of the stages in Kurt Lewin’s famous three stage prescriptive model of
change developed in the 1950s?

A) Moving to a new level

B) Refreezing attitudes at the new level
C) Unfreezing current attitudes
D) Melting resistance

Answer Key:
D) Melting resistance

Q77. Which of the following is NOT a way of overcoming resistance to change?

A) Communication and discussion

B) Involving those who resist in the change process
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
D) Giving incentives

Answer Key:
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line

Q78. Which of the following will NOT affect the choice of planned change programme in an institution?

A) Culture
B) Leadership style
C) Nature of institution
D) Government policy

Answer Key:
D) Government policy

Q79. Which of the following is a part of the six-point plan for strategic change?

A) Foster consensus for the new vision, competence to enact it and cohesion to move it along
B) Institute revitalisation through formal policies, systems and structures
C) Monitor and adjust strategies in response to problems in the revitalization process
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

Q80. Which of the following is NOT a key task for those involved in seeking political agreements over planned
change in an institution?

A) Seek out potential opposition and attempt to change opinions or, at least, to neutralise them

B) Identify potential and influential supporters and persuade them to support the new strategy

C) Negotiate any necessary ‘side deals’ to get people on side

D) Build the maximum consensus for the new proposals, preferably prior to any formal decision meeting

Answer Key:
C) Negotiate any necessary ‘side deals’ to get people on side

Q81. The personalities of creative people tend to have all of the following characteristics except:

A) A positive self-image without being blindly self-confident

B) Can work along in isolation necessary for developing ideas
C) Frequently considered to be nonconformists and do not need strong approval from the group
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Answer Key:
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Q82. Creativity is likely to occur when three components come together which involve expertise, creative thinking
skills and:

A) proper lighting in the work environment

B) right type of motivation
C) stable economical conditions
D) extrinsically motivating conditions in the work environment

Answer Key:
B) right type of motivation

Q83. The last step in a control process is:

A) Allocate resources
B) Taking corrective action
C) Select a strategy
D) Set standards

Answer Key:
B) Taking corrective action
Q84. The weakest form of control is:

A) Pre-control
B) Simultaneous control
C) Post-control
D) Dual control

Answer Key:
C) Post-control

Q85. What is the term for the monitoring of events both internal and external to the institution that affects strategy?

A) Operational control
B) Strategic surveillance
C) Strategic control
D) Environmental scanning

Answer Key:
B) Strategic surveillance

Q86. The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity

B) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Answer Key:
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Q87. Budget is an instrument of:

A) planning only
B) control only
C) both planning and control
D) none of these

Answer Key:
C) both planning and control

Q88. The full form of “BARS” is:

A) Baseline Accounting and Reporting System
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
C) Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System
D) Behaviourally Anchored Reporting Scales

Answer Key:
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

Q89. Which of the following is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while performing performance
appraisal?

A) Minimise inventory costs

B) Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones
C) Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
C) Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour

Q90. Which of the following performance appraisal methods undertakes maximum time?

A) Rating Scales
B) Critical incident
C) Tests and Observation
D) Essay method

Answer Key:
D) Essay method

Q91. The first person to give the concept of Management by Objectives was:

A) Edwards Deming
B) D.W. Cheetham
C) Peter F. Drucker
D) Hershey Blanchard

Answer Key:
C) Peter F. Drucker

Q92. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of performance management?

A) Performance interview
B) Archiving performance data
C) Use of appraisal data
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

Q93. “Disciplinary action is contemplated” means:

A) Employee is suspended
B) Prima facie decision is taken on file to penalise the employee
C) Prima facie decision is taken on file to file charges against employee
D) Employee should be removed from service

Answer Key:
C) Prima facie decision is taken on file to file charges against employee

Q94. The time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority is:

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 18 months

Answer Key:
B) 6 months

Q95. Which of the following involves collecting and analysing information about a programme’s activities,
characteristics and outcomes:

A) Academic audit
B) Education evaluation
C) Programme evaluation
D) Organisational assessment

Answer Key:
C) Programme evaluation

Q96. Which of the following is NOT a component of institutional evaluation?

A) Systematic collection of evidence

B) Process identification
C) Judgement of value
D) Interpretation of evidence

Answer Key:
B) Process identification

Q97. A standard for performance, settled/ established early on, for later comparison is called :

A) Scope line
B) Base line
C) Performance line
D) Boundary line

Answer Key:
B) Base line

Q98. In institutional evaluation, “Plausibility” means:

A) To check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) To check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) To determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) To determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:
B) To check whether the institute has attained the expected goals

Q99. Which of the following statement is WRONG about academic audit?

A) Framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) Externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

Q100. Academic Audit report contains all of the following except:

A) Current status
B) Strengths and weaknesses
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals
D) Action plan for future improvements

Answer Key:
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals

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NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2021 October

Module 8 / M8 PYQ

2024 February

2023 February September

Module 8 Previous Year Questions:
2022 July

2021 March October

1) Strategic mission

A) Is an internally focused affirmations of an institution’s societal and ethical goals

B) Is developed by an institution before it develops its strategic intent
C) Do not limit the institution in specifying the environment in which it intends to compete
D) Is a statement of institution’s unique purpose and scope of operations

Answer Key:
D) Is a statement of institution’s unique purpose and scope of operations
2) One of the following deals with one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager for
developing the leadership skills of the later, which is that:

A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Orientation
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Coaching

3) Strategic planning is _______ in nature.

A) Descriptive
B) Theoretical
C) Creative
D) Analytical

Answer Key:
D) Analytical

4) Pick the incorrect one

A) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case of libraries having
more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or unreasonable shortages, complete
verification shall be done

B) Loss of five volumes per 1000 volumes of books issued/consulted in a year may be taken as reasonable
provided such losses are not attributable to dishonesty or negligence. However, loss of a book of a value
exceeding Rs. 1,000/- (Rupees One thousand only) and rare books irrespective of value shall invariably be
investigated and appropriate action taken.

C) For libraries having more than 20000 volumes and up to 50000 volumes, such verification should be done at
least once in three years.

D) Complete physical verification of books should be done every year in case of libraries having not more than
20000 volumes

Answer Key:
A) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case of libraries
having more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or unreasonable shortages,
complete verification shall be done

5) Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Outstanding expenses -current asset
B) Good will- intangible asset
C) Sundry debtors -current asset
D) Loose tools -tangible fixed asset

Answer Key:
A) Outstanding expenses -current asset

6) In institutional management, the function of planning is ____?

A) Preparing for future for desired goals

B) Financial planning
C) To appoint staff
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Preparing for future for desired goals

7) The pattern in which every person has someone ” on each side of him ” with whom he can communicate is
the:

A) Circular pattern
B) Chain pattern
C) Centralised pattern
D) Y pattern

Answer Key:
A) Circular pattern

8) Matrix organizations are really a combination of the:

A) Product and process bases

B) Process and geographic bases
C) Customer and functional bases
D) Functional and product bases

Answer Key:
D) Functional and product bases

9) Identifying the ——— candidates and —- them to apply for the job is called recruitment.

A) Available, insisting
B) Available, making
C) Potential, insisting
D) Potential, attracting
Answer Key:
D) Potential, attracting

10) The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity

B) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance
D) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity

Answer Key:
B) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

11) ‘No one on the organisation should have more than one boss’ is a statement of principle of:

A) Specialisation
B) Authority
C) Unity of command
D) Span of control

Answer Key:
C) Unity of command

12) Which of the following is NOT a method used for changing the attitude on an employee?

A) Use of fear
B) Providing new information
C) Giving feedback
D) Performance appraisal

Answer Key:
D) Performance appraisal

13) A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the institution is
called:

A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement

Answer Key:
C) Orientation
14) The final activity for time management before moving out of work is:

A) Beware of time wasters

B) Optimize work environment
C) Prioritise all your tasks
D) See what all you set out to accomplish and what all did you actually finish

Answer Key:
D) See what all you set out to accomplish and what all did you actually finish

15) For fostering team creativity, which is an appropriate way an institution may use:

A) Establishing a competitive environment to promote creative ideas

B) Establishing challenges for the team
C) Evaluating ideas during the idea generation stage
D) Stressing deadlines to encourage intensity and focus

Answer Key:
B) Establishing challenges for the team

16) All of the following are dangers inherent in over control except:

A) Accenting short run results and ignoring long run outcomes

B) The reduction of personal freedom and independence at work
C) The creation of anxiety and stress among workers
D) A tendency toward increased flexibility

Answer Key:
D) A tendency toward increased flexibility

17) Which of the following leave is admissible to an employee under suspension?

A) Study leave
B) Half pay leave
C) Extra ordinary leave
D) None of these

Answer Key:
C) Extra ordinary leave

18) Which of the following theories of motivation deal with the basic components of effort, performance and
outcomes?

A) Expectancy Theory
B) Equity Theory
C) Goal Setting Theory
D) Reinforcement Theory

Answer Key:
A) Expectancy Theory

19) Which of the following is the correct sequence in the process of motivation?

1. Action
2. Need
3. Relief
4. Tension

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer Key:
B) 2, 4, 1, 3

20) For best management, controlling should be

A) Profit-oriented
B) Cost-oriented
C) Objective-oriented
D) Man-oriented.

Answer Key:
C) Objective-oriented

21) The proper sequence of elements in the expanded communication model is :

A) Sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning
B) Message-sender-signal-receiver-decode
C) Sender-transmission-message-decode-meaning
D) Message- transmission- encode-receiver-decode

Answer Key:
A) Sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning

22) The descriptive word most clearly associated with the organic approach to structure is :

A) Static
B) Rigid
C) Bureaucratic
D) Dynamic.

Answer Key:
D) Dynamic.

23) The situational theory of leadership emphasis is:

A) Environment
B) Events
C) Personality traits
D) Political situation

Answer Key:
B) Events

24) The ideas which interfere with the solution of the problem fade away during ________ of creativity process.

A) Preparation phase
B) Evaluation phase
C) Idea generation phase
D) Incubation phase

Answer Key:
D) Incubation phase

25) The style of leadership which represents the extreme of centralised decision making authority:

A) Bureaucratic
B) Authoritarian
C) Laissez faire
D) Democratic

Answer Key:
B) Authoritarian
26) Members of a _______team have been cross trained so that each person is able to perform the duties of all
other members.

A) Functional
B) Cross functional
C) Multi-functional
D) Self directed

Answer Key:
C) Multi-functional

27) Which of the following is NOT a road block to team progress in an institution?

A) Lack of management support

B) Project objectives are significant
C) No time to do improvement
D) Project scope too large

Answer Key:
B) Project objectives are significant

28) Diwali advance given to an employee is:

A) Revenue Expenditure
B) Capital Expenditure
C) Not an Expenditure
D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Answer Key:
C) Not an Expenditure

29) Who propounded “Motivation-Maintenance Theory?”

A) A.H. Maslow
B) Douglas Mc Gregor
C) Frederick Herzberg
D) F.W. Taylor

Answer Key:
C) Frederick Herzberg

30) The major weakness of the forced distribution method is:

A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
B) Work is reliable
C) The error of central tendency
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

31) Which one of the following is the aim of Counseling?

A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication

B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour

Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity

32) The test of the adequacy of any wage level is in the:

A) Real wages
B) Time wages
C) Money wages
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Real wages

33) If controls are to be effective, they must be specially tailored to:

A) Plans and positions

B) Individual managers and their personalities
C) Needs for efficiency and effectiveness
D) All of these.

Answer Key:
C) Needs for efficiency and effectiveness

34) The traditional method of appraisal whereby the appraiser lists the employees according to their level of
performance is called the:

A) Ranking method
B) Critical incident method
C) Graphic scales method
D) Forced distribution method.
Answer Key:
A) Ranking method

35) One of the following is not the basic principle underlying an academic audit, which is that:

A) Base decisions on evidence

B) Define quality in terms of inputs
C) Learn from best practices
D) Make continuous improvement a priority

Answer Key:
B) Define quality in terms of inputs

36) Which of the following leader behaviours, feature in Hersey and Blanchard’s (1971) Situational leadership
theory?

A) Delegating and supportive behaviours

B) Directive and consultative behaviours
C) Supportive and directive behaviours
D) Supportive and participative behaviours

Answer Key:
C) Supportive and directive behaviours

37) A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still __________________ together
closely.

A) Temporally; work
B) Geographically; work
C) Geographically; decide
D) Physically; think

Answer Key:
B) Geographically; work

38) A manager who shows consistency between his or her words and actions develops a reputation for:

A) Self-confidence
B) Walking the talk
C) Emotionally intelligent
D) Highly energetic

Answer Key:
B) Walking the talk
39) One of the following is not an element of strategic thinking, which is that?

A) Judgement of what strategic changes to make

B) Realisation of what needs to change
C) Understanding of current strategic positions
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Answer Key:
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

40) All are the advantages of institutional planning, except:

A) Helps in channelizing the energies of teachers towards goal achievement

B) Helps in preserving uniqueness of an educational institution
C) Enhances emphasis on the direction of expenditure
D) Provides ample opportunities to individuals to experiment and innovate

Answer Key:
C) Enhances emphasis on the direction of expenditure

41) Which of the following is an on the job training method?

A) Vestibule training
B) Position rotation or job rotation
C) Conference and seminars
D) Lecture method

Answer Key:
A) Vestibule training

42) Which of the following would be considered as using the time management technique of “getting off a good
start”?

A) Tackle easy items first to build momentum

B) Leave after the morning rush is over to avoid traffic jams on the freeway
C) Tackle the tough task first because this is usually your peak energy time
D) Begin the day by talking to co-workers to find out what are the hot agendas items for the day.

Answer Key:
C) Tackle the tough task first because this is usually your peak energy time

43) All of the following are true about strategic planning in an institution Except:

A) It is a top down approach of planning

B) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution

Answer Key:
A) It is a top down approach of planning

44) Regulatory requirements, Economic uncertainty, technological innovations, and new competitors are
examples of what type of factors that affect institutional management?

A) Internal factors
B) Intra-personal factors
C) External factors
D) Inter-personal factors

Answer Key:
C) External factors

45) The systematic collection and interpretation of evidence, leading as part of the process, to a judgement of
value with a view to action is called:

A) Feedback
B) Evaluation
C) Corrective action
D) Assessment

Answer Key:
B) Evaluation

46) Effective control depends on:

A) Organisation structure
B) Proper direction
C) Flow of communication
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

47) The five stages of the coping cycle are (in order):

A) Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization

B) Defence, denial, discarding, adaptation, internalization
C) Denial, resistance, discarding, adaptation, internalization
D) Denial, defence, resistance, adaptation, internalization
Answer Key:
A) Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization

48) Fixed assets should be verified at least once in:

A) Six months
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Three years

Answer Key:
B) One year

49) The following is/are associated with successful strategies:

A) Creating superior value to customers

B) Exploitation of key success factors
C) Creating and maintaining strategic fit
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

50) Out of the following identify the reasons “Why individuals might resist organisational change?

i) Lack of interest.
ii) Pessimism.
iii) Anxiety.
iv) Irritation.
v) Opposing strategy proposals.
vi) Personal ambitions.

A) All of these
B) ii), iii), v) and vi)
C) i), ii), and iv)
D) ii), iv), v) and vi)

Answer Key:
A) All of these
51) Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration?

A) Cost of living
B) Legislations
C) Institutional Business strategy
D) Society

Answer Key:
C) Institutional Business strategy

52) The level of managers, responsible for establishing a vision for the institution, developing broad plans and
strategies, and directing subordinate staff, is:

A) First level managers

B) Middle managers
C) Top level managers
D) Second level managers

Answer Key:
C) Top level managers

53) “The person who was a good performer in distant past is assured to be okay at present also”. This is an
example of ________________ in performance appraisal

A) Halo effect
B) Central Tendency
C) Spill over effect
D) Horn effect

Answer Key:
C) Spill over effect

54) One of the following is NOT an appropriate way that manager can employ for increasing the employee
acceptance and commitment to Goals, which is that:

A) Explaining goal relevance to personal needs

B) Convincing employees that goal attainment is within their capabilities
C) Providing managerial support
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Answer Key:
D) Setting ambiguous standards

55) Which of the following skills is equally important at all levels of management?

A) Technical skill
B) Human relation skill
C) Conceptual skill
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
B) Human relation skill

56) The curriculum drift means:

A) Identifying obsolete content

B) Identifying missing content in the curriculum
C) Identifying inappropriate content
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

57) The team gathers for the monthly progress and problem report about reaching individual and departmental
objectives. Which of the following statements reflect effective team meeting?

A) Only a few team members seem to be concerned about the impact of their presentation; they attempt to
build allies within the team

B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems

C) Some team members seem to be playing the political game, while others do not

D) One clique exists within this team and their presentations sound about the same-politically safe

Answer Key:
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems

58) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of strategic planning that makes it different from other
types of planning?

A) It is inter-disciplinary
B) It concerns the present direction of the institution
C) It has an external focus
D) It has an internal focus

Answer Key:
C) It has an external focus

59) What is the time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority?

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months

Answer Key:
B) 6 months

60) Transformational change is often carried out:

A) By middle managers
B) Top down
C) Bottom up
D) After extensive consultation

Answer Key:
B) Top down

61) The tendency that listeners arrive at judgement before all relevant information has been received is called:

A) Filtering
B) Premature evaluation
C) Psychological distance
D) Pressure of time

Answer Key:
B) Premature evaluation

62) The managerial function of organizing is to:

A) Review and adjust plan in the light of changing conditions

B) Establish a program for the accomplishment of objectives
C) Create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people
D) Get things done through and with the help of people

Answer Key:
C) Create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people
63) Line function are concerned with those activities which are connected with the discharge of direct
responsibility for:

A) Accomplishing the subsidiary objectives of the institution

B) Accomplishing the main objectives of the institution
C) Taking and implementing all decisions
D) None of these

Answer Key:
B) Accomplishing the main objectives of the institution

64) The area of behavioural science research that focuses on the personal factors underlying high productivity,
as well as high morale, is the area of employee:

A) Communication
B) Motivation
C) Leadership
D) Economic development

Answer Key:
B) Motivation

65) The three types of plans in an educational institution are:

A) Top, middle and bottom

B) Operational, occupational and strategic
C) Strategic, tactical and operational
D) Corporate, divisional and local

Answer Key:
C) Strategic, tactical and operational

66) In institutional management, the process of evaluation is:

A) Input directed
B) Process directed
C) Program directed
D) Goal directed

Answer Key:
D) Goal directed

67) _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials.

A) Individual equity
B) External equity
C) Internal equity
D) All of these

Answer Key:
C) Internal equity

68) Process of collecting and analysing information about the duties, responsibilities and conditions of a specific
work assignment is:

A) Job analysis
B) Job evaluation
C) Activity analysis
D) Occupation analysis

Answer Key:
B) Job evaluation

69) Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that there is:

A) A single style of leadership appropriate to all managers

B) A single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
C) No single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
C) No single style of leadership appropriate to all situations

70) ——– is a selection test, which evaluate the emotional ability which will help to judge an individual’s working
in group

A) Intelligence test
B) Personality test
C) Mental ability test
D) Aptitude test

Answer Key:
B) Personality test

71) According to Fiedler’s LPC scale, leaders with a low LPC score will gain satisfaction from:

A) Achieving objectives
B) Developing team relationships
C) Both A) and B)
D) Neither A) nor B)

Answer Key:
A) Achieving objectives

72) Which of the following is a correct statement with regards to Academic audit:

A) A framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) An externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Answer Key:
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

73) In institutional evaluation, “Adequacy” means to:

A) Check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) Check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) Determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) Determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:
A) Check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not

74) A material shall generally be considered surplus if it remains in stock for over______ unless adequate reasons
to treat it otherwise exist.

A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Four years

Answer Key:
A) One year

75) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A) A belief in shared aims and objectives.

B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
C) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.
D) The open expression of feelings and disagreements.

Answer Key:
C) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.
76) The synchronous, interactive, real time exchange of message via a mediated source is:

A) Blogs
B) E-mail
C) Online chat
D) Social networking sites

Answer Key:
C) Online chat

77) The actual performance of an individual is measured in terms of his________________.

A) Input and output

B) Returns to the organization
C) Business earned by him
D) Efficiency and effectiveness

Answer Key:
D) Efficiency and effectiveness

78) For achieving organizational goals effectively, the manager and subordinate should NOT jointly:

A) Identify common goals

B) Indulge in negative criticism of each other
C) Define each individual’s major areas of responsibility
D) Assess the contribution of each of its members

Answer Key:
B) Indulge in negative criticism of each other

79) Which of the following is NOT a recommended approach to encourage creativity?

A) Tolerating failures
B) Offering recognition for good effort and performance
C) Restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence
D) Encouraging experimentation among employees

Answer Key:
C) Restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence

80) CCS Conduct Rules came into force on

A) 1956
B) 1964
C) 1966
D) 1971

Answer Key:
B) 1964

81) According to “Scalar Principle of Organization”

A) A manager can directly supervise a limited number of people

B) The line of authority must be clearly defined
C) Exceptionally complex problems are referred to higher levels of management
D) Each subordinate should have one superior

Answer Key:
B) The line of authority must be clearly defined

82) Thinking in term of phases in planning helps to:

A) Reduce the plan to a simple series of actions

B) Keep the planned efforts on schedule
C) Co-ordinate the separate activities within the plan
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

83) The evidence available to auditor is _______ in nature, rather _______ in nature.

A) Conclusive, pervasive
B) Pervasive, conclusive
C) Limited, unlimited
D) None of these

Answer Key:
B) Pervasive, conclusive

84) Institutional Administration is the process of:

A) Utilizing appropriate resources for development of Human qualities

B) Managing activities of educational institutions
C) Planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in educational setting
D) None of the above.

Answer Key:
B) Managing activities of educational institutions

85) As per CCS conduct rules the following omissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct :-

(i) Willful insubordination or disobedience, whether alone or in combination with others, to any lawful and
reasonable order of a superior
(ii) Habitual late attendance
(iii) Habitual absence without permission and overstaying leave
(iv) Conviction by a criminal court

A) Only (i), (ii) & (iii)

B) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
D) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Answer Key:
D) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

86) Training refers to the process of imparting _________ skills

A) General
B) Important
C) Specific
D) Overall

Answer Key:
C) Specific

87) Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –

I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option

II. Job Context —— B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites ——— C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ———– D. Medical Care
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

88) All of the following are the objectives of institutional management EXCEPT one, which is that:

A) Achievement of institutional objectives

B) Improvement in planning, organising and implementation of institutional programmes and activities
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
D) Enhance employees’ job satisfaction

Answer Key:
C) Enhancing productivity of industry

89) The statement “I am going to apologise for my mistakes” is an example of ________ component of attitude

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognitive
C) Behavioural
D) Affective

Answer Key:
C) Behavioural

90) Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence
because of the leader’s:

A) Ability to punish or reward

B) Position within an organization
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Personal charisma

Answer Key:
D) Personal charisma

91) In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of
acceptable behaviour.

A) Adjourning
B) Norming
C) Forming
D) Storming

Answer Key:
B) Norming

92) Control systems typically focus on all but which of the following factors:

A) Quality of the product

B) Resources consumed
C) Employee performance
D) Quality of planning process

Answer Key:
D) Quality of planning process

93) Which of the following represents heart of the institutional management process?

A) Communication
B) Leadership
C) Organisation
D) Control

Answer Key:
A) Communication

94) The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive
weapons are:

A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

95) Which of the following is NOT the part of the forming stage of team development in an institution?

A) Team’s purpose
B) Hostilities and personal needs
C) Members roles
D) Acceptance of roles

Answer Key:
B) Hostilities and personal needs
96) Moving your head, face, and eyes away from another person while communicating is often interpreted as
a lack of self-:

A) Respect
B) Esteem
C) Confidence
D) Control

Answer Key:
C) Confidence

97) In an organization, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by:

A) Using high decibel audio tools

B) Increasing the information load
C) Exposing the ignorance of co-workers
D) Establishing a view point

Answer Key:
D) Establishing a view point

98) With reference to power and authority, we may conclude all but which one of the following:

A) Authority is only one source of influence among many

B) Supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results
C) Constant reliance on authority indicates a potential supervisory problem
D) Group acceptance of authority is necessary for it to become useful influence

Answer Key:
B) Supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results

99) A change agent is the individual who:

A) Supports change
B) Opposes change
C) Initiates change
D) Helps implement change

Answer Key:
D) Helps implement change

100) Assignment of a higher level job to an individual without increase in salary is called:

A) Diagonal promotion
B) Horizontal promotion
C) Vertical Promotion
D) Dry promotion

Answer Key:
D) Dry promotion

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NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2022 July

Module 8 / M8 PYQ

2024 February

2023 February September

Module 8 Previous Year Questions:
2022 July

2021 March October

1) The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

B) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance

Answer Key:
A) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
2) Team creativity can be promoted by:

A) Establishing a competitive environment to promote creative ideas

B) Establishing challenges for the team
C) Evaluating ideas during the idea generation stage
D) Stressing deadlines to encourage intensity and focus

Answer Key:
B) Establishing challenges for the team

3) The level of management responsible for establishing a vision for the organization, developing broad plans and
strategies, and directing subordinate managers:

A) first level management

B) middle management
C) top level management
D) second level management

Answer Key:
C) top level management

4) Payment to faculty on per class/period of teaching or output per period/hour basis is called:

A) Time rate method

B) Period rate method
C) Both (A) and(B)
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
B) Period rate method

5) One of the following is NOT the suggestion for improving individual’s listening skills. Which is that?

A) Empathizing with the speaker

B) Maintain eye contact with the speak
C) Paraphrase the speaker
D) Sympathizing with the speaker

Answer Key:
A) Empathizing with the speaker

6) Responsibility always flows from:

A) Superior to subordinate
B) Subordinate to superior
C) Peer to peer
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
B) Subordinate to superior

7) A typical confidential report comprises of following attributes of an individual:

I) Leadership
II) Ability to reason
III) Integrity

A) I & II
B) I & III
C) I, II & III
D) II & III

Answer Key:
C) I, II & III

8) A programme of one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager for developing the
leadership skills of the later is called:

A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Orientation
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Coaching

9) Transformational leadership has the following characteristics:

A) Believe success arises from leaders and staff working together

B) Takes the view that rewards and punishment motivate staff
C) Seeks to involve staff in the decision making process
D) Employs a clear chain of command

Answer Key:
D) Employs a clear chain of command

10) The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive weapons
are:

A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

11) The most significant skill required for teamwork is:

A) A need to be part of a team

B) A willingness to help and guide other employees
C) Respect for others
D) An employee that enjoys working alone

Answer Key:
C) Respect for others

12) Effective control depends on:

A) Organisation structure
B) Proper direction
C) Flow of communication
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

13) Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Outstanding expenses – Current asset

B) Good will – Intangible asset
C) Sundry debtors – Current asset
D) Loose tools – Tangible fixed asset

Answer Key:
A) Outstanding expenses – Current asset

14) Identify the correct statement. Academic audit is:

A) A framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) An externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Answer Key:
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

15) Which of these is a consequence of pay dissatisfaction?

A) Strikes
B) Grievances
C) Turnover
D) Job dissatisfaction

Answer Key:
D) Job dissatisfaction

16) Horizontal communication takes place between:

A) Employees with same status

B) Subordinate to Superior
C) Superior to Subordinate
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
A) Employees with same status

17) When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said most people believe in:

A) Verbal messages
B) Non-verbal messages
C) Indeterminate messages
D) Don’t believe in the message at all

Answer Key:
B) Non-verbal messages

18) When a higher level job is assigned to an individual without increase in salary, it is called:

A) Horizontal promotion
B) Vertical Promotion
C) Dry promotion
D) Diagonal promotion

Answer Key:
C) Dry promotion

19) Criticism of Government means and includes (as per CCS Conduct Rules):

A) Which has the effect of an adverse criticism of any current or recent policy or action of the Central Government
or a State Government
B) Which is capable of embarrassing the relations between the Central Govt. and the Government of any State
C) Which is capable of embarrassing the relations between the central government and the Government of any
foreign state
D) All the above
Answer Key:
D) All the above

20) Which of the following is the correct sequence in the process of motivation?

1. Action
2. Need
3. Relief
4. Tension

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer Key:
B) 2, 4, 1, 3

21) The theory of motivation where employees make comparison of the ratios of their job inputs to outcomes
relative to those of others:

A) Expectancy Theory
B) Equity Theory
C) Two Factor Theory
D) Need Hierarchy Theory

Answer Key:
B) Equity Theory

22) The fundamental purpose of an institution’s mission statement is to:

A) Create a good human relations climate in the institution

B) Define the operational structure of the institution
C) Generate good public relations for the institution
D) Define the institution’s purpose in society

Answer Key:
D) Define the institution’s purpose in society

23) Which of the following is NOT true in respect of planning?

A) Planning is an intellectual activity

B) Planning function is only performed at the lowest level of management
C) Planning is related to objectives
D) Planning is forward-looking
Answer Key:
B) Planning function is only performed at the lowest level of management

24) The term used for the set of behaviours and tasks that a member of the team is expected to perform because he
or she is its member:

A) Team roles
B) Virtual teamwork
C) Synergy
D) Role making

Answer Key:
A) Team roles

25) Innovation is:

A) commercialization of a new product or process

B) invention of a new product or process
C) development of a new product or process idea
D) implementation of a new production method

Answer Key:
A) commercialization of a new product or process

26) The best strategy(ies) for planning out your time effectively is/are:

A) Delay any unnecessary work

B) Prioritize all your tasks
C) Ignore all the unexpected work
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
B) Prioritize all your tasks

27) Development provides _____ and _____, which will be helpful to employees in higher positions.

A) general knowledge, behaviour

B) general knowledge, specific skills
C) Specific skills, attitudes
D) general knowledge, attitudes

Answer Key:
D) general knowledge, attitudes

28) All of these are the approaches to encourage creativity in an institution except:
A) tolerating failures
B) offering recognition for good effort and performance
C) restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence
D) encouraging experimentation among employees

Answer Key:
C) restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence

29) Fixed assets should be verified at least once in:

A) Six months
B) one year
C) two years
D) three years

Answer Key:
B) one year

30) The following steps are involved in the process of organising

1. Forming supportive objectives

2. Delegating to the head of each group the authority necessary to perform the activities
3. Establishing enterprise objectives
4. Identifying and classifying activities

The correct sequence of steps is :

A) 3,1,2,4
B) 3,1,4,2
C) 1,3,4,2
D) 1,3,2,4

Answer Key:
B) 3,1,4,2

31) Ravi is a type of manager who is concerned primarily with accomplishing goals and objectives and concentrates
on the task itself. His behavioural style is called:

A) authoritarian
B) democratic
C) task oriented
D) people oriented.

Answer Key:
C) task oriented
32) The middle management is responsible for _____.

A) Official Goals
B) Operational Goals
C) Operative Goals
D) All of these

Answer Key:
C) Operative Goals

33) In institutional evaluation, “Adequacy” means to:

A) check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:
A) check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not

34) If nothing is written about the accounting assumption to be followed, it is presumed that:

A) They have not been followed

B) They are followed to some extent
C) They are fully followed
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
A) They have not been followed

35) The simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance:

A) Rating Scales
B) Critical Incident
C) Cost accounting
D) BARS

Answer Key:
A) Rating Scales

36) A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the institution is called:

A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement
Answer Key:
C) Orientation

37) The skill which is equally important at all levels of management:

A) Technical skill
B) Human relation skill
C) Conceptual skill
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
B) Human relation skill

38) Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development?

A) Forming
B) Deciding
C) Performing
D) Storming

Answer Key:
B) Deciding

39) Which is NOT a true statement regarding academic audit?

A) Leads to deeper acknowledgement to all internal processes and systems

B) Enhances the involvement of individuals in identifying key performance indicators
C) Provides the present status but does not identify the thrust areas for future growth & development
D) Provides yardsticks for performance judgement

Answer Key:
C) Provides the present status but does not identify the thrust areas for future growth & development

40) The following is/are an example(s) of mentoring behaviour:

A) Coaching
B) Counselling
C) Giving reinforcement
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

41) The correct sequence of the components of Communication Process is:

i. Decoding
ii. Encoding
iii. Feedback
iv. Transmission

A) i, ii, iii, iv
B) i, iii, iv, ii
C) ii, iii, I, iv
D) ii, iv, i, iii

Answer Key:
D) ii, iv, i, iii

42) The team gathers for the monthly progress and problems’ report about reaching individual and departmental
objectives. Which of the following statements reflect effective team meeting?

A) Only a few team members seem to be concerned about the impact of their presentation; they attempt to build
allies within the team
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems
C) Some team members seem to be playing the political game, while others do not
D) One clique exists within this team and their presentations sound about the same-politically safe

Answer Key:
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems

43) Rearrange the following steps of recruitment:

I. Searching
II. Evaluation and control
III. Planning
IV. Screening
V. Strategy development

A) III, II, I, V, IV
B) III, V, I, IV, II
C) IV, V, III, I, II
D) II, I, IV, V, III

Answer Key:
B) III, V, I, IV, II

44) The systematic collection and interpretation of evidence, leading as part of the process, to a judgement of value
with a view to action is called:

A) Assessment
B) Evaluation
C) Corrective action
D) Feedback

Answer Key:
B) Evaluation

45) The following is NOT the component of Attitude:

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognition
C) Behaviour
D) Affect

Answer Key:
A) Psycho-motor

46) ‘Matrix organisation’ refers to:

A) Organisation where authority and responsibility coexist

B) Organisation in which two or more basic types of departments are combined
C) Mathematical arrangement of events in columns and rows.
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
C) Mathematical arrangement of events in columns and rows.

47) Institutional Management is concerned with the administration of:

A) Physical Assets
B) Financial Resources
C) Human Resources
D) All of the Above

Answer Key:
D) All of the Above

48) Control is the function of:

A) Top level management

B) Lower level management
C) Middle level management
D) All levels of management

Answer Key:
D) All levels of management

49) As per Sec 3-C of CCS conduct Rules “sexual harassment” includes such unwelcome sexually determined
behaviour whether directly or otherwise:

A) Physical contact as advances

B) Demand or request for sexual favours
C) Sexually coloured remarks
D) All the these

Answer Key:
D) All the these

50) The curriculum drift means

A) Identifying missing content in the curriculum

B) Identifying inappropriate content
C) Identifying obsolete content
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

51) Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a Motivated Workforce?

A) High Productivity
B) Ingenuity in the use of Resources
C) High Employee Turnover
D) Work conscious

Answer Key:
C) High Employee Turnover

52) The first basic step involved in institutional planning:

A) Defining the present problem

B) Establishing goals and objectives
C) Developing a set of actions
D) Determining aids and barriers

Answer Key:
B) Establishing goals and objectives

53) Which of the following is not the stage in Kurt Lewin’s famous three-stage prescriptive model of change
developed in the 1950s?

A) Moving to a new level

B) Refreezing attitudes at the new level
C) Unfreezing current attitudes
D) Melting resistance

Answer Key:
D) Melting resistance

54) The appraisal made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients is called:

A) Peer appraisal
B) BARS
C) Self – appraisal
D) 360 degree feedback

Answer Key:
D) 360 degree feedback

55) Economic uncertainty, regulatory requirements, and new competitors are examples of what type of factors that
affect institutional management?

A) intrapersonal factors
B) internal factors
C) interpersonal factors
D) external factors

Answer Key:
D) external factors

56) Which of the following is not an element of strategic thinking?

A) Judgement of what strategic changes to make

B) Realisation of what needs to change
C) Understanding of current strategic positions
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Answer Key:
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

57) In line and staff organisation, the staff performs the function of:

A) Management
B) Advising the management
C) Assigning responsibility
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
B) Advising the management
58) The outcomes from a study of the external environment are __________ and _________.

A) Threats and Weaknesses

B) Strengths and Weaknesses
C) Strengths and Opportunities
D) Opportunities and Threats

Answer Key:
D) Opportunities and Threats

59) ______ is any learning activity directed towards future needs rather than present needs.

A) Training
B) Development
C) Education
D) Instruction

Answer Key:
B) Development

60) The following is NOT a barrier to effective communication:

A) One-way communication
B) Mixed signal from sender
C) Feedback
D) Different interpretation of words

Answer Key:
C) Feedback

61) Which strategic choices an institute needs to make before designing its orientation programme?

A) Formal or informal
B) Individual or collective
C) Serial or disjunctive
D) All of the above

Answer Key:
D) All of the above

62) Which of the following is NOT true about strategic planning in an institution?

A) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change

B) It is a top down approach of planning
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution
Answer Key:
B) It is a top down approach of planning

63) A plan prepared by an institution on the basis of its development and improvement is called:

A) Educational plan
B) Institutional plan
C) Vision
D) Development plan

Answer Key:
B) Institutional plan

64) One of the following is NOT a tip that manager can employ for increasing the employee acceptance and
commitment to Goals, which is that?

A) Convincing employees that goal attainment is within their capabilities

B) Providing managerial support
C) Explaining goal relevance to personal needs
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Answer Key:
D) Setting ambiguous standards

65) According to Path Goal Theory, which of the following is NOT a Leadership Behaviour?

A) directive behaviour
B) supportive behaviour
C) participative behaviour
D) none of the above

Answer Key:
D) none of the above

66) A material shall generally be considered surplus if it remains in stock for over______ unless adequate reasons to
treat it otherwise exist.

A) one year
B) two years
C) three years
D) four years

Answer Key:
A) one year

67) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a team?

A) Collective output
B) Individual and collective responsibility
C) Fluid dimension to roles and tasks
D) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing

Answer Key:
D) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing

68) The questionable assumptions underpinning the prescriptive approach to strategic change:

A) Change is unpredictable and discontinuous

B) Change is a continuous process
C) Change is predictable, sequential and controllable by management
D) Change is an organic and fundamentally about managing culture

Answer Key:
C) Change is predictable, sequential and controllable by management

69) The three types of plans in an educational institution are:

A) Operational, occupational and strategic

B) Top, middle and bottom
C) Strategic, tactical and operational
D) Headquarters, divisional and local

Answer Key:
C) Strategic, tactical and operational

70) Which of the following is NOT one of the task related functions within a team?

A) Resource acquisition and management

B) Work distribution
C) Participation
D) Commonly accepted mission

Answer Key:
C) Participation

71) All of the following are traits and characteristics of effective leaders EXCEPT:

A) Charisma
B) Strong motivation and high energy
C) Trustworthiness and character
D) Being so self-confident that they believe they can handle anything
Answer Key:
D) Being so self-confident that they believe they can handle anything

72) According to the principle of “Span of control”, there is:

A) A tendency of overload supervisors with too much of work

B) A limit to the number of subordinates a supervisor can effectively supervise
C) No limit to the number of subordinates a supervisor can supervise
D) A limit to delegation of authority to the subordinate

Answer Key:
B) A limit to the number of subordinates a supervisor can effectively supervise

73) Which of the following is not the objective of institutional management?

A) Achievement of institutional objectives

B) Improvement in planning, organising and implementation of institutional programmes and activities
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
D) Enhance employees’ job satisfaction

Answer Key:
C) Enhancing productivity of industry

74) The purpose of evaluation in institutional management is:

A) Process directed
B) Program directed
C) Goal directed
D) Input directed

Answer Key:
C) Goal directed

75) Mr. X is the only person in the institution with expertise in the E-Commerce field. His source of power is called:

A) reward power
B) knowledge power
C) reference power
D) none of the above

Answer Key:
B) knowledge power

76) The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.

A) Training
B) Recruitment
C) Work quality
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
A) Training

77) Which of the following option is a component of remuneration?

A) Fringe Benefits
B) Commitment
C) External equity
D) Motivation

Answer Key:
A) Fringe Benefits

78) Which of the following are short term milestones or benchmarks that an institution must attain in order to
achieve its long term objectives?

A) Vision
B) Mission
C) Plans
D) Goals

Answer Key:
D) Goals

79) The weakest form of control is:

A) Pre-control
B) Simultaneous control
C) Post-control
D) Dual control

Answer Key:
C) Post-control

80) Institutional Administration is the process of:

A) Utilizing appropriate resources for development of Human qualities

B) Managing activities of educational institutions
C) Planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in educational setting
D) None of the above.

Answer Key:
B) Managing activities of educational institutions

81) Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –

I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option

II. Job Context ———- B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites ——— C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ———– D. Medical Care

A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

82) In the Hersey-Blanchard Situational Leadership Model, the right mix of leadership style is best found by focusing
on which characteristic?

A) Intelligence
B) motivation
C) confidence
D) maturity

Answer Key:
D) maturity

83) A process where employees write down their ideas on slips of paper with no identification, exchange the slips
and attempt to build on each other’s ideas:

A) Mind mapping
B) Brain writing
C) Forced relationship
D) Pattern breakers

Answer Key:
B) Brain writing

84) The premise control is based on:

A) Buildings
B) People
C) Resources
D) Assumptions
Answer Key:
D) Assumptions

85) The starting point of strategic intent is/are:

A) Objectives
B) Goals
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

86) All of the following increase team effectiveness EXCEPT:

A) Understanding team timing

B) Ignoring ineffective team processes
C) Paying attention to team tasks
D) Developing, using and reinforcing effective group norms

Answer Key:
B) Ignoring ineffective team processes

87) Work attitudes can be reflected in an institution through:

A) Job Satisfaction
B) Organizational Commitment
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer Key:
C) Both (A) and (B)

88) Moving your head, face, and eyes away from another person while communicating is often interpreted as a lack
of Self-:

A) Respect
B) Esteem
C) Confidence
D) Control

Answer Key:
C) Confidence

89) The factors that are associated with conditions surrounding the job, according to Herzberg’s two factor theory,
are:
A) Hygiene factors
B) Economic factors
C) Motivating factors
D) Environmental factors

Answer Key:
A) Hygiene factors

90) All the symptoms of poor time management except:

A) Sub- par work quality

B) Not meeting deadlines
C) Too much on the plate
D) Getting organized

Answer Key:
D) Getting organized

91) For overcoming the resistance to change, the following strategy is Not appropriate:

A) Communication and discussion

B) Involving those who resist in the change process
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
D) Giving incentives

Answer Key:
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line

92) ‘No one in the institution should have more than one boss’ is a statement of the principle of:

A) Specialisation
B) Authority
C) Unity of command
D) Span of control

Answer Key:
C) Unity of command

93) The major weakness of the forced distribution method is:

A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

B) Work is reliable
C) The error of central tendency
D) None of the above

Answer Key:
A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

94) The following is NOT the basic principle underlying an academic audit:

A) Base decisions on evidence

B) Define quality in terms of inputs
C) Learn from best practices
D) Make continuous improvement a priority

Answer Key:
B) Define quality in terms of inputs

95) Age old system of administrative hierarchy, based on formal authorities, used to delegate orderly, fair and
logical instructions to subordinates is:

A) Bureaucracies
B) Mechanistic structure
C) Organisational Structure
D) Organic structure

Answer Key:
A) Bureaucracies

96) The first step in a control process is:

A) Allocate resources
B) Choose key personnel for the task
C) Select a strategy
D) Set standards

Answer Key:
D) Set standards

97) If no charge sheet is issued within 3 months of suspension of an employee, then:

A) Suspension is to be revoked
B) Reasons for suspension are to be intimated to the employee
C) His monthly payment should be doubled
D) He should be transferred mandatorily from that place.

Answer Key:
B) Reasons for suspension are to be intimated to the employee

98) A manager who shows consistency between his or her words and actions develops a reputation for:

A) Self-confidence
B) Walking the talk
C) Emotionally intelligent
D) Highly energetic

Answer Key:
B) Walking the talk

99) Diwali advance given to an employee is:

A) Revenue Expenditure
B) Capital Expenditure
C) Not an Expenditure
D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Answer Key:
C) Not an Expenditure

100) The time limit for concluding major penalty proceeding is:

A) Within 1 month
B) Within 3 months
C) Within 6 months
D) Within 18 months

Answer Key:
D) Within 18 months

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NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2023 February

Module 8 / M8 PYQ

2024 February

2023 February September

Module 8 Previous Year Questions:
2022 July

2021 March October

Q1: All of the following are the objectives of institutional management EXCEPT one, which is that:

A) Achievement of institutional objectives

B) Improvement in planning, organising and implementation of institutional programmes and activities
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
D) Enhance employees’ job satisfaction

Answer Key:
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
Q2: Institutional Administration is the process of:

A) Utilizing appropriate resources for development of Human qualities

B) Managing activities of educational institutions
C) Planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in educational setting
D) None of these

Answer Key:
B) Managing activities of educational institutions

Q3: The three types of plans in an educational institution are:

A) Top, middle and bottom

B) Operational, occupational and strategic
C) Strategic, tactical and operational
D) Corporate, divisional and local

Answer Key:
C) Strategic, tactical and operational

Q4: The curriculum drift means:

A) Identifying obsolete content

B) Identifying missing content in the curriculum
C) Identifying inappropriate content
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

Q5: Which of the following represents heart of the institutional management process?

A) Communication
B) Leadership
C) Organisation
D) Control

Answer Key:
A) Communication

Q6: In institutional management, the function of planning is ____?

A) Preparing for future for desired goals

B) Financial planning
C) To appoint staff
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Preparing for future for desired goals

Q7: The level of managers, responsible for establishing a vision for the institution, developing broad plans and
strategies, and directing subordinate staff, is:

A) First level managers

B) Middle managers
C) Top level managers
D) Second level managers

Answer Key:
C) Top level managers

Q8: Regulatory requirements, Economic uncertainty, technological innovations, and new competitors are
examples of what type of factors that affect institutional management?

A) Internal factors
B) Intra-personal factors
C) External factors
D) Inter-personal factors

Answer Key:
C) External factors

Q9: Thinking in term of phases in planning helps to:

A) Reduce the plan to a simple series of actions

B) Keep the planned efforts on schedule
C) Co-ordinate the separate activities within the plan
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

Q10: Which of the following skills is equally important at all levels of management?

A) Technical skill
B) Human relation skill
C) Conceptual skill
D) All of these

Answer Key:
B) Human relation skill

Q11: All are the advantages of institutional planning, except:

A) Helps in channelizing the energies of teachers towards goal achievement

B) Helps in preserving uniqueness of an educational institution
C) Enhances emphasis on the direction of expenditure
D) Provides ample opportunities to individuals to experiment and innovate

Answer Key:
C) Enhances emphasis on the direction of expenditure

Q12: All of the following are true about strategic planning in an institution Except:

A) It is a top down approach of planning

B) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution

Answer Key:
A) It is a top down approach of planning

Q13: Strategic planning is _______ in nature.

A) Descriptive
B) Theoretical
C) Creative
D) Analytical

Answer Key:
D) Analytical

Q14: The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive
weapons are:

A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

Q15: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of strategic planning that makes it different from other
types of planning?
A) It is inter-disciplinary
B) It concerns the present direction of the institution
C) It has an external focus
D) It has an internal focus

Answer Key:
C) It has an external focus

Q16: Strategic mission

A) Is an internally focused affirmations of an institution’s societal and ethical goals

B) Is developed by an institution before it develops its strategic intent
C) Do not limit the institution in specifying the environment in which it intends to compete
D) Is a statement of institution’s unique purpose and scope of operations

Answer Key:
D) Is a statement of institution’s unique purpose and scope of operations

Q17: The following is/are associated with successful strategies:

A) Creating superior value to customers

B) Exploitation of key success factors
C) Creating and maintaining strategic fit
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

Q18: One of the following is not an element of strategic thinking, which is that?

A) Judgement of what strategic changes to make

B) Realisation of what needs to change
C) Understanding of current strategic positions
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Answer Key:
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Q19: The managerial function of organizing is to:

A) Review and adjust plan in the light of changing conditions

B) Establish a program for the accomplishment of objectives
C) Create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people
D) Get things done through and with the help of people
Answer Key:
C) Create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people

Q20: According to “Scalar Principle of Organization”

A) A manager can directly supervise a limited number of people

B) The line of authority must be clearly defined
C) Exceptionally complex problems are referred to higher levels of management
D) Each subordinate should have one superior

Answer Key:
B) The line of authority must be clearly defined

Q21: ‘No one on the organisation should have more than one boss’ is a statement of principle of:

A) Specialisation
B) Authority
C) Unity of command
D) Span of control

Answer Key:
C) Unity of command

Q22: The descriptive word most clearly associated with the organic approach to structure is :

A) Static
B) Rigid
C) Bureaucratic
D) Dynamic

Answer Key:
D) Dynamic

Q23: With reference to power and authority, we may conclude all but which one of the following:

A) Authority is only one source of influence among many

B) Supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results
C) Constant reliance on authority indicates a potential supervisory problem
D) Group acceptance of authority is necessary for it to become useful influence

Answer Key:
B) Supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results

Q24: Matrix organizations are really a combination of the:

A) Product and process bases
B) Process and geographic bases
C) Customer and functional bases
D) Functional and product bases

Answer Key:
D) Functional and product bases

Q25: Line function are concerned with those activities which are connected with the discharge of direct
responsibility for:

A) Accomplishing the subsidiary objectives of the institution

B) Accomplishing the main objectives of the institution
C) Taking and implementing all decisions
D) None of these

Answer Key:
B) Accomplishing the main objectives of the institution

Q26: Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A) A belief in shared aims and objectives.

B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
C) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.
D) The open expression of feelings and disagreements.

Answer Key:
C) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.

Q27: In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of
acceptable behaviour.

A) Adjourning
B) Norming
C) Forming
D) Storming

Answer Key:
B) Norming

Q28: A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still __________________
together closely.

A) Temporally, work
B) Geographically, work
C) Geographically, decide
D) Physically, think

Answer Key:
B) Geographically, work

Q29: Which of the following is NOT a roadblock to team progress in an institution?

A) Lack of management support

B) Project objectives are significant
C) No time to do improvement
D) Project scope too large

Answer Key:
B) Project objectives are significant

Q30: Members of a _______team have been cross trained so that each person is able to perform the duties of all
other members.

A) Functional
B) Cross functional
C) Multi-functional
D) Self directed

Answer Key:
C) Multi-functional

Q31: The team gathers for the monthly progress and problem report about reaching individual and
departmental objectives. Which of the following statements reflect effective team meeting?

A) Only a few team members seem to be concerned about the impact of their presentation; they attempt to
build allies within the team
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems
C) Some team members seem to be playing the political game, while others do not
D) One clique exists within this team and their presentations sound about the same-politically safe

Answer Key:
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems

Q32: Which of the following is NOT the part of the forming stage of team development in an institution?

A) Team’s purpose
B) Hostilities and personal needs
C) Members roles
D) Acceptance of roles
Answer Key:
B) Hostilities and personal needs

Q33: Identifying the ——— candidates and —- them to apply for the job is called recruitment.

A) Available, insisting
B) Available, making
C) Potential, insisting
D) Potential, attracting

Answer Key:
D) Potential, attracting

Q34: ——– is a selection test, which evaluate the emotional ability which will help to judge an individual’s
working in group

A) Intelligence test
B) Personality test
C) Mental ability test
D) Aptitude test

Answer Key:
B) Personality test

Q35: A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the institution is
called:

A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement

Answer Key:
C) Orientation

Q36: Process of collecting and analysing information about the duties, responsibilities and conditions of a
specific work assignment is:

A) Job analysis
B) Job evaluation
C) Activity analysis
D) Occupation analysis

Answer Key:
B) Job evaluation

Q37: Training refers to the process of imparting _________ skills

A) General
B) Important
C) Specific
D) Overall

Answer Key:
C) Specific

Q38: Which of the following is an on the job training method?

A) Vestibule training
B) Position rotation or job rotation
C) Conference and seminars
D) Lecture method

Answer Key:
A) Vestibule training

Q39: _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials.

A) Individual equity
B) External equity
C) Internal equity
D) All of these

Answer Key:
C) Internal equity

Q40: Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –

I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option

II. Job Context —— B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites ——— C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ———– D. Medical Care

A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Q41: Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration?

A) Cost of living
B) Legislations
C) Institutional Business strategy
D) Society

Answer Key:
C) Institutional Business strategy

Q42: Assignment of a higher level job to an individual without increase in salary is called:

A) Diagonal promotion
B) Horizontal promotion
C) Vertical Promotion
D) Dry promotion

Answer Key:
D) Dry promotion

Q43: The test of the adequacy of any wage level is in the:

A) Real wages
B) Time wages
C) Money wages
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Real wages

Q44: CCS Conduct Rules came into force on

A) 1956
B) 1964
C) 1966
D) 1971

Answer Key:
B) 1964

Q45: As per CCS conduct rules the following omissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct :-

(i) Wilful insubordination or disobedience, whether alone or in combination with others, to any lawful and
reasonable order of a superior
(ii) Habitual late attendance
(iii) Habitual absence without permission and overstaying leave
(iv) Conviction by a criminal court Codes

A) Only (i), (ii) & (iii)

B) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
D) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Answer Key:
D) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Q46: Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Outstanding expenses -current asset

B) Good will- intangible asset
C) Sundry debtors -current asset
D) Loose tools -tangible fixed asset

Answer Key:
A) Outstanding expenses -current asset

Q47: A material shall generally be considered surplus if it remains in stock for over______ unless adequate reasons
to treat it otherwise exist.

A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Four years

Answer Key:
A) One year

Q48: Fixed assets should be verified at least once in:

A) Six months
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Three years

Answer Key:
B) One year

Q49: Diwali advance given to an employee is:

A) Revenue Expenditure
B) Capital Expenditure
C) Not an Expenditure
D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Answer Key:
C) Not an Expenditure

Q50: Pick the incorrect one

A) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case of libraries having
more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or unreasonable shortages, complete
verification shall be done

B) Loss of five volumes per 1000 volumes of books issued/consulted in a year may be taken as reasonable
provided such losses are not attributable to dishonesty or negligence. However, loss of a book of a value
exceeding Rs. 1,000/- (Rupees One thousand only) and rare books irrespective of value shall invariably be
investigated and appropriate action taken.

C) For libraries having more than 20000 volumes and up to 50000 volumes, such verification should be done at
least once in three years.

D) Complete physical verification of books should be done every year in case of libraries having not more than
20000 volumes

Answer Key:
A) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case of libraries
having more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or unreasonable shortages,
complete verification shall be done

Q51: A manager who shows consistency between his or her words and actions develops a reputation for:

A) Self-confidence
B) Walking the talk
C) Emotionally intelligent
D) Highly energetic

Answer Key:
B) Walking the talk

Q52: Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence
because of the leader’s:

A) Ability to punish or reward

B) Position within an organization
C) Both Ability to punish or reward and Position within an organization
D) Personal charisma

Answer Key:
D) Personal charisma

Q53: The situational theory of leadership emphasis is:

A) Environment
B) Events
C) Personality traits
D) Political situation

Answer Key:
B) Events

Q54: According to Fiedler’s LPC scale, leaders with a low LPC score will gain satisfaction from:

A) Achieving objectives
B) Developing team relationships
C) Both Achieving objectives and Developing team relationships
D) Neither Achieving objectives and Developing team relationships

Answer Key:
A) Achieving objectives

Q55: Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that there is:

A) A single style of leadership appropriate to all managers

B) A single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
C) No single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
D) None of these

Answer Key:
C) No single style of leadership appropriate to all situations

Q56: The style of leadership which represents the extreme of centralised decision making authority:

A) Bureaucratic
B) Authoritarian
C) Laissez faire
D) Democratic

Answer Key:
B) Authoritarian

Q57: Which of the following leader behaviours, feature in Hersey and Blanchard’s (1971) Situational leadership
theory?

A) Delegating and supportive behaviours

B) Directive and consultative behaviours
C) Supportive and directive behaviours
D) Supportive and participative behaviours

Answer Key:
C) Supportive and directive behaviours

Q58: The proper sequence of elements in the expanded communication model is :

A) Sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning
B) Message-sender-signal-receiver-decode
C) Sender-transmission-message-decode-meaning
D) Message- transmission- encode-receiver-decode

Answer Key:
A) Sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning

Q59: Moving your head, face, and eyes away from another person while communicating is often interpreted as
a lack of self-:

A) Respect
B) Esteem
C) Confidence
D) Control

Answer Key:
C) Confidence

Q60: The pattern in which every person has someone ” on each side of him ” with whom he can communicate is
the:

A) Circular pattern
B) Chain pattern
C) Centralised pattern
D) Y pattern

Answer Key:
A) Circular pattern
Q61: The tendency that listeners arrive at judgement before all relevant information has been received is called:

A) Filtering
B) Premature evaluation
C) Psychological distance
D) Pressure of time

Answer Key:
B) Premature evaluation

Q62: The synchronous, interactive, real time exchange of message via a mediated source is:

A) Blogs
B) E-mail
C) Online chat
D) Social networking sites

Answer Key:
C) Online chat

Q63: In an organization, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by:

A) Using high decibel audio tools

B) Increasing the information load
C) Exposing the ignorance of co-workers
D) Establishing a view point

Answer Key:
D) Establishing a view point

Q64: The area of behavioral science research that focuses on the personal factors underlying high productivity, as
well as high morale, is the area of employee:

A) Communication
B) Motivation
C) Leadership
D) Economic development

Answer Key:
B) Motivation

Q65: Which of the following is the correct sequence in the process of motivation?

1. Action
2. Need
3. Relief
4. Tension

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer Key:
B) 2, 4, 1, 3

Q66: Which of the following theories of motivation deal with the basic components of effort, performance and
outcomes?

A) Expectancy Theory
B) Equity Theory
C) Goal Setting Theory
D) Reinforcement Theory

Answer Key:
A) Expectancy Theory

Q67: Who propounded “Motivation-Maintenance Theory?”

A) A.H. Maslow
B) Douglas Mc Gregor
C) Frederick Herzberg
D) F.W. Taylor

Answer Key:
C) Frederick Herzberg

Q68: One of the following deals with one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager for
developing the leadership skills of the later, which is that:

A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Orientation
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Coaching

Q69: Which one of the following is the aim of Counselling?

A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour

Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity

Q70: One of the following is NOT an appropriate way that manager can employ for increasing the employee
acceptance and commitment to Goals, which is that:

A) Explaining goal relevance to personal needs

B) Convincing employees that goal attainment is within their capabilities
C) Providing managerial support
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Answer Key:
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Q71: For achieving organizational goals effectively, the manager and subordinate should NOT jointly:

A) Identify common goals

B) Indulge in negative criticism of each other
C) Define each individual’s major areas of responsibility
D) Assess the contribution of each of its members

Answer Key:
B) Indulge in negative criticism of each other

Q72: The final activity for time management before moving out of work is:

A) Beware of time wasters

B) Optimize work environment
C) Prioritise all your tasks
D) See what all you set out to accomplish and what all did you finish

Answer Key:
D) See what all you set out to accomplish and what all did you finish

Q73: Which of the following would be considered as using the time management technique of “getting off a
good start”?

A) Tackle easy items first to build momentum

B) Leave after the morning rush is over to avoid traffic jams on the freeway
C) Tackle the tough task first because this is usually your peak energy time
D) Begin the day by talking to co-workers to find out what are the hot agendas items for the day.

Answer Key:
C) Tackle the tough task first because this is usually your peak energy time

Q74: The statement “I am going to apologise for my mistakes” is an example of ________ component of attitude

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognitive
C) Behavioural
D) Affective

Answer Key:
C) Behavioural

Q75: Which of the following is NOT a method used for changing the attitude on an employee?

A) Use of fear
B) Providing new information
C) Giving feedback
D) Performance appraisal

Answer Key:
D) Performance appraisal

Q76: A change agent is the individual who:

A) Supports change
B) Opposes change
C) Initiates change
D) Helps implement change

Answer Key:
D) Helps implement change

Q77: The five stages of the coping cycle are (in order):

A) Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization

B) Defence, denial, discarding, adaptation, internalization
C) Denial, resistance, discarding, adaptation, internalization
D) Denial, defence, resistance, adaptation, internalization

Answer Key:
A) Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization
Q78: Transformational change is often carried out:

A) By middle managers
B) Top down
C) Bottom up
D) After extensive consultation

Answer Key:
B) Top down

Q79: Out of the following identify the reasons “Why individuals might resist organisational change?

1. Lack of interest.
2. Pessimism.
3. Anxiety.
4. Irritation.
5. Opposing strategy proposals.
6. Personal ambitions.

A) All of these
B) 2), 3), 5) and 6)
C) 1), 2), and 4)
D) 2), 4), 5) and 6)

Answer Key:
A) All of these

Q80: Which of the following is NOT a recommended approach to encourage creativity?

A) Tolerating failures
B) Offering recognition for good effort and performance
C) Restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence
D) Encouraging experimentation among employees

Answer Key:
C) Restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence

Q81: The ideas which interfere with the solution of the problem fade away during ________ of creativity process.

A) Preparation phase
B) Evaluation phase
C) Idea generation phase
D) Incubation phase

Answer Key:
D) Incubation phase

Q82: For fostering team creativity, which is an appropriate way an institution may use:

A) Establishing a competitive environment to promote creative ideas

B) Establishing challenges for the team
C) Evaluating ideas during the idea generation stage
D) Stressing deadlines to encourage intensity and focus

Answer Key:
B) Establishing challenges for the team

Q83: Control systems typically focus on all but which of the following factors:

A) Quality of the product

B) Resources consumed
C) Employee performance
D) Quality of planning process

Answer Key:
D) Quality of planning process

Q84: For best management, controlling should be

A) Profit-oriented
B) Cost-oriented
C) Objective-oriented
D) Man-oriented.

Answer Key:
C) Objective-oriented

Q85: If controls are to be effective, they must be specially tailored to:

A) Plans and positions

B) Individual managers and their personalities
C) Needs for efficiency and effectiveness
D) All of these.

Answer Key:
C) Needs for efficiency and effectiveness

Q86: The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity

B) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance
D) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity

Answer Key:
B) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Q87: Effective control depends on:

A) Organisation structure
B) Proper direction
C) Flow of communication
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

Q88: All of the following are dangers inherent in over control except:

A) Accenting short run results and ignoring long run outcomes

B) The reduction of personal freedom and independence at work
C) The creation of anxiety and stress among workers
D) A tendency toward increased flexibility

Answer Key:
D) A tendency toward increased flexibility

Q89: The traditional method of appraisal whereby the appraiser lists the employees according to their level of
performance is called the:

A) Ranking method
B) Critical incident method
C) Graphic scales method
D) Forced distribution method.

Answer Key:
A) Ranking method

Q90: The major weakness of the forced distribution method is:

A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

B) Work is reliable
C) The error of central tendency
D) None of these
Answer Key:
A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

Q91: “The person who was a good performer in distant past is assured to be okay at present also”. This is an
example of ________________ in performance appraisal

A) Halo effect
B) Central Tendency
C) Spill over effect
D) Horn effect

Answer Key:
C) Spill over effect

Q92: The actual performance of an individual is measured in terms of his________________.

A) Input and output

B) Returns to the organization
C) Business earned by him
D) Efficiency and effectiveness

Answer Key:
D) Efficiency and effectiveness

Q93: Which of the following leave is admissible to an employee under suspension?

A) Study leave
B) Half pay leave
C) Extra ordinary leave
D) None of these

Answer Key:
C) Extra ordinary leave

Q94: What is the time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority?

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months

Answer Key:
B) 6 months

Q95: The systematic collection and interpretation of evidence, leading as part of the process, to a judgement of
value with a view to action is called:

A) Feedback
B) Evaluation
C) Corrective action
D) Assessment

Answer Key:
B) Evaluation

Q96: In institutional management, the process of evaluation is:

A) Input directed
B) Process directed
C) Program directed
D) Goal directed

Answer Key:
D) Goal directed

Q97: In institutional evaluation, “Adequacy” means to:

A) Check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) Check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) Determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) Determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:
A) Check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not

Q98: Which of the following is a correct statement with regards to Academic audit:

A) A framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) An externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Answer Key:
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Q99: One of the following is not the basic principle underlying an academic audit, which is that:

A) Base decisions on evidence

B) Define quality in terms of inputs
C) Learn from best practices
 D) Make continuous improvement a priority

Answer Key:
C) Learn from best practices

Q100: The evidence available to auditor is _______ in nature, rather _______ in nature.

A) Conclusive, pervasive
B) Pervasive, conclusive
C) Limited, unlimited
D) None of these

Answer Key:
B) Pervasive, conclusive

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NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2023 September

Module 8 / M8 PYQ

2024 February

2023 February September

Module 8 Previous Year Questions:
2022 July

2021 March October

Q1. Which term best describes the process of obtaining, deploying, and utilizing a variety of essential resources to
contribute to an institution’s success?

A) planning
B) organizing
C) staffing
D) management

Answer Key:
D) management
Q2. In Institutional management, the function of Budgeting is:

A) Financial Planning
B) Accounting
C) Control and expenditure
D) All of the Above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the Above mentioned

Q3. In what order do institutional managers typically perform the managerial functions?

A) organising, planning, controlling, leading

B) organising, leading, planning, controlling
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling
D) planning, organising, controlling, leading

Answer Key:
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling

Q4. Which one of the following statement is correct?

A) Planning and controlling are essentially one and the same

B) Controlling is a part of the planning process
C) Controlling is a substitute for planning
D) A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals

Answer Key:
D) A control process is meaningless without pre-set goals

Q5. Planning for the Institution should be based on:

A) Syllabus
B) Aims and Needs
C) Resources
D) All of the Above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Aims and Needs

Q6. Goals of the institution should be:

A) Relevant
B) Achievable
C) Specific
D) All of the Above Mentioned
Answer Key:
B) Achievable

Q7. The assumptions about the environment in which an institutional plans are formulated and executed are:

A) A regular follow-up
B) Derivative plans
C) Planning Premises
D) Setting of objectives

Answer Key:
C) Planning Premises

Q8. Planning begins with:

A) assessing and choosing the best alternative

B) designing evaluation procedures
C) selecting material
D) setting of objectives

Answer Key:
D) setting of objectives

Q9. Which level of management is responsible for implementing programs that are intended to carry out the
broader objectives of an institution set by executives?

A) shop floor workers

B) middle level managers
C) first level managers
D) chief financial managers

Answer Key:
B) middle level managers

Q10. The ability of a manager to interface and work effectively with individuals and groups is descriptive of what
type of managerial skill?

A) technical
B) administrative
C) interpersonal
D) organizational

Answer Key:
C) interpersonal
Q11. A programme of development and improvement prepared by an educational institution is called as a(n):

A) long-term plan
B) institutional plan
C) Planning Premises
D) short term plan

Answer Key:
B) institutional plan

Q12. Which of the following is NOT true about strategic planning in an institution?

A) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change

B) It is a top down approach of planning
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution

Answer Key:
B) It is a top down approach of planning

Q13. The outcomes from a study of the external environment are __________ and _________.

A) Threats and Weaknesses

B) Strengths and Weaknesses
C) Strengths and Opportunities
D) Opportunities and Threats

Answer Key:
D) Opportunities and Threats

Q14. The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive weapons
are:

A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

Q15. What is the starting point of strategic intent?

A) Objectives
B) Goals
C) Vision
D) Mission

Answer Key:
C) Vision

Q16. Which of the following are short term milestones or benchmarks that an institution must attain in order to
achieve its long term objectives?

A) Vision
B) Mission
C) Plans
D) Goals

Answer Key:
D) Goals

Q17. Which of the following is associated with successful strategies?

A) Creating superior value to customers

B) Exploitation of key success factors
C) Creating and maintaining strategic fit
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q18. Which of the following is not an element of strategic thinking?

A) Judgement of what strategic changes to make

B) Realisation of what needs to change
C) Understanding of current strategic positions
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Answer Key:
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Q19. Age old system of administrative hierarchy, based on formal authorities, used to delegate orderly, fair and
logical instructions to subordinates is:

A) Bureaucracies
B) Mechanistic structure
C) Organisational Structure
D) Organic structure

Answer Key:
A) Bureaucracies
Q20. Responsibility always flows from:

A) Superior to subordinate
B) Subordinate to superior
C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Subordinate to superior

Q21. Each subordinate should have only one superior whose command he has to obey. This is known as:

A) Division of work
B) Exception principle
C) Unity of Command principle
D) Authority – responsibility principle

Answer Key:
C) Unity of Command principle

Q22. Delegation of authority is linked to:

A) Managerial planning
B) Management coordination
C) Management control
D) Scientific management

Answer Key:
C) Management control

Q23. The main advantage of functional organisation is:

A) Specialisation
B) Simplicity
C) Expert advice
D) Experience

Answer Key:
A) Specialisation

Q24. In line and staff organisation, the authority lies in:

A) Line
B) Staff
C) Both line and staff
D) None of the above mentioned
Answer Key:
A) Line

Q25. If the span of control is narrow, a number of managers would be required in each unit of the organization and
there would be many managerial levels or layers, such an organizational structure is referred to as:

A) Flat structure
B) Tall structure
C) Matrix structure
D) Project structure

Answer Key:
B) Tall structure

Q26. Group norms are:

A) Modes of behaviours that are shared by some members of the group

B) Modes of behaviours that challenge group values and beliefs
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members
D) Modes of behaviours that are different of those of other group members

Answer Key:
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members

Q27. Teams occur when a number of people have _________ and recognise that their personal success is dependent
on the success of others.

A) A shared work environment

B) A common goal
C) Similar jobs
D) The common boss

Answer Key:
B) A common goal

Q28. Which of the following is a way to increase team participation?

A) Plan the team meetings and share agenda with people beforehand
B) Ask the leader of the group to run the meeting and talk the most.
C) Encourage everyone to talk whenever they have something to say, even if another person is talking
D) Point out dominating behavior to everyone.

Answer Key:
A) Plan the team meetings and share agenda with people beforehand
Q29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective team?

A) The open expression of feelings and disagreements

B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves
C) A belief in shared aims and objectives
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Answer Key:
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Q30. Which of the following is NOT a Team Maintenance Role?

A) Encouraging
B) Compromising
C) Harmonising
D) Information giving

Answer Key:
D) Information giving

Q31. From the point of view of an effective team, answer the following question:

Hari, a senior member of the team, and Ramesh, a junior member of the team, are on the opposite sides of an
important issue. Both of their positions have merit. You notice that as Hari and Ramesh present their arguments,
other team members:

A) Seem to be harsher in the criticisms of Ramesh’s arguments

B) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences
C) Favour Hari slightly over Ramesh.
D) Don’t pay much attention to either viewpoint

Answer Key:
B) Are objective, and attentive to both arguments-the team values differences

Q32. Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development?

A) Forming
B) Deciding
C) Performing
D) Storming

Answer Key:
B) Deciding

Q33. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.
A) Training
B) Recruitment
C) Work quality
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
A) Training

Q34. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment:

(I). Searching
(II). Evaluation and control
(III). Planning
(IV). Screening
(V). Strategy development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (III), (II), (I), (V), (IV).

B) (III), (V), (I), (IV), (II).
C) (IV), (V), (III), (I), (II).
D) (II), (I), (IV), (V), (III).

Answer Key:
B) (III), (V), (I), (IV), (II).

Q35. A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their coworkers and the institution is called:

A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement

Answer Key:
C) Orientation

Q36. Which strategic choices an institute needs to make before designing its orientation programme?

A) Formal or informal
B) Individual or collective
C) Serial or disjunctive
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned
Q37. The learning opportunities designed to help employees grow is referred to as:

A) Training
B) Development
C) Education
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Development

Q38. Which of this is a step in training process?

A) Identify KSA deficiency

B) Provide proper feedback
C) Identify Obstacles in the system
D) Use of evaluation models

Answer Key:
D) Use of evaluation models

Q39. What is the alternate name for incentives?

A) Gratuity
B) Paid holidays
C) Payments by result
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
C) Payments by result

Q40. Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –

List-I List-II

(A). Fringe benefits (I). Stock option

(B). Job context (II). Challenging job responsibilities

(C). Prerequisites (III). Group plans

(D). Incentives (IV). Medical care

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Q41. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?

A) Employee participation
B) Pay secrecy
C) Comparable worth
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q42. When a higher level job is assigned to an individual without increase in salary, it is called:

A) Horizontal promotion
B) Vertical Promotion
C) Dry promotion
D) Diagonal promotion

Answer Key:
C) Dry promotion

Q43. Payment to faculty on per class/period of teaching or output per period/hour basis is called:

A) Time rate method

B) Period rate method
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) Period rate method

Q44. Which of following is wrong statement in respect of CCS (Conduct) Rules 1964?

A) A Govt. servant qualified to vote at such election may exercise his right to vote.
B) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take part in an
election in legislature election only
C) Govt servant endeavour to prevent any member of his family from taking part in elections.
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
B) A Govt servant shall canvass or otherwise interfere with or use his influence in connection with or take
part in an election in legislature election only
Q45. The following act, conduct and commissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct:

A) If the act or conduct is prejudicial or likely to be prejudicial to the interests of the master or to the reputation of
the master

B) If the act or conduct is inconsistent or incompatible with the due or peaceful discharge of his duty to his master

C) If the act or conduct of a servant makes it unsafe for the employer to retain him in service

D) All the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All the above mentioned

Q46. A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in part
has been made during a period of:

A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.

B) Financial year in which sanction accorded.
C) 6 months from the date of issue of such sanction.
D) 3 months from the date of issue of such sanction.

Answer Key:
A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction.

Q47. If a bid is accepted during the process of auctioning the disposal, earnest money should immediately be taken
on the spot from the successful bidder. The amount of the earnest money should be:

A) not less than 10%

B) not less than 20%
C) not less than 25%
D) not less than 30%

Answer Key:
C) not less than 25%

Q48. A physical verification of all the consumable goods and materials should be undertaken at least once in:

A) one month
B) six months
C) one year
D) two years

Answer Key:
C) one year
Q49. The process of recording financial data up to trial balance is:

A) Classifying
B) Summarising
C) Analyzing
D) Book keeping

Answer Key:
D) Book keeping

Q50. As per accrual concept, which of the followings is not true:

A) sales + gross profit = revenue

B) revenue –profit = expenditure
C) revenue –expenditure = profit
D) revenue = profit + expenditure

Answer Key:
A) sales + gross profit = revenue

Q51. A manager gets his authority by virtue of his position, while a _____ gets his authority from his followers.

A) Mentor
B) Counsellor
C) Leader
D) Coach

Answer Key:
C) Leader

Q52. Which of the following theories seeks to determine the personal characteristics of effective leaders?

A) Behavioural theory
B) Fiedler’s contingency theory
C) House’s Path Goal theory
D) Trait theory

Answer Key:
D) Trait theory

Q53. A style of leadership that takes account of others’ views, opinions and ideas is:

A) Autocratic
B) Democratic
C) Laissez-faire
D) A mix of laissez-faire and democratic
Answer Key:
B) Democratic

Q54. According to Fiedler’s LPC scale, leaders with a low LPC score will gain satisfaction from:

A) Achieving objectives
B) Developing team relationships
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer Key:
A) Achieving objectives

Q55. Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence
because of the leader’s:

A) Ability to punish or reward

B) Position within an organization
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Personal charisma

Answer Key:
D) Personal charisma

Q56. The situational theory of leadership emphasises:

A) Environment
B) Events
C) Personality Traits
D) Political Situation

Answer Key:
B) Events

Q57. Which of the following style of leadership leads to satisfied, motivated and more skilled employees, in turn
leading to an optimistic work environment and encouraging creativity?

A) Autocratic
B) Bureaucratic
C) Democratic
D) Laissez Faire

Answer Key:
C) Democratic

Q58. In which stage of the communication process, does the receiver interpret the message and translate it into
meaningful information?

A) Encoding
B) Decoding
C) Feedback
D) Transmission

Answer Key:
B) Decoding

Q59. Which of the following facial clues often reveals that a person is lying?

A) Failure to look you in the eye

B) Facial shift
C) Crooked smile
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q60. Upward communication flows from ____________ by way of complaints, suggestions, advice, feedback etc.:

A) Customers
B) Clients
C) Competitors
D) Lower levels

Answer Key:
D) Lower levels

Q61. The formal greeting with which a business letter begins is called:

A) Body of the letter

B) Reference
C) Salutation
D) Subject

Answer Key:
C) Salutation

Q62. Which of the following terms best describes the grapevine as a communication pattern?

A) Diagonal
B) Informal
C) Serial
D) Verbal
Answer Key:
B) Informal

Q63. When working to create and maintain a favourable relationship with a receiver, a sender should:

A) Use Positive wording

B) Stress mutual interests and benefits
C) Impress the receiver by using technical terms
D) Do just what the receiver expects

Answer Key:
A) Use Positive wording

Q64. Rearrange the following six steps of motivation logically:

(A). Engages in goal – directed behaviour

(B). Reassesses needs deficiencies
(C). Performs
(D). Identifies needs
(E). Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
(F). Receives either rewards or punishment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) ABCDEF
B) BCDEAF
C) DFCAEB
D) DEACFB

Answer Key:
D) DEACFB

Q65 Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a Motivated Workforce?

A) High Productivity
B) Ingenuity in the use of Resources
C) High Employee Turnover
D) Work conscious

Answer Key:
C) High Employee Turnover

Q66. Which of the following theories of motivation focus on the needs a person is trying to satisfy and the features
of the work environment that seems to satisfy those needs?
A) Process theories
B) Situational theories
C) Content theories
D) Motivational theories

Answer Key:
C) Content theories

Q67. Which is one of the following Techniques of Motivating Oneself?

A) Individualizing reinforcers
B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying
C) Matching people to tasks
D) Providing opportunities to grow

Answer Key:
B) Making the task more intrinsically satisfying

Q68. In which of the following employees ‘career hazards’ are dealt?

A) Coaching
B) Counselling
C) Development
D) Mentoring

Answer Key:
D) Mentoring

Q69. Which one of the following is the aim of Counselling?

A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication

B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour

Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity

Q70. Setting SMART goals imply:

A) Specific, Matching, Accurate, Realistic, Tactful

B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely
C) Specific, Measurable, Accurate, Reliable, Tactful
D) Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely

Answer Key:
B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely

Q71. Goals are the ______ of Management action.

A) Starting points
B) Planning
C) End points
D) Directions

Answer Key:
C) End points

Q72. Which of the following time management technique refers to eating meals on the run to make good use of
time ordinarily spent on sitting down for meals?

A) Grazing
B) Greasing
C) Snacking
D) Snagging

Answer Key:
A) Grazing

Q73. An example of streamlining your work effort to eliminate time wasting tasks is:

A) Assist your secretary with routine phone calls

B) Be a good employee and help others routinely with their tasks
C) Look for duplication of effort and waste; then, take action to eliminate them
D) Read and reply to e-mail hourly

Answer Key:
C) Look for duplication of effort and waste; then, take action to eliminate them

Q74. Work attitudes can be reflected in an institution/organization through:

A) Job Satisfaction
B) Organizational Commitment
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer Key:
C) Both (A) and (B)

Q75. Which of the following is NOT the component of Attitudes?

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognition
C) Behaviour
D) Affect

Answer Key:
A) Psycho-motor

Q76. Which of the following is not one of the stages in Kurt Lewin’s famous three stage prescriptive model of
change developed in the 1950s?

A) Moving to a new level

B) Refreezing attitudes at the new level
C) Unfreezing current attitudes
D) Melting resistance

Answer Key:
D) Melting resistance

Q77. Which of the following is NOT a way of overcoming resistance to change?

A) Communication and discussion

B) Involving those who resist in the change process
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
D) Giving incentives

Answer Key:
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line

Q78. Which of the following will NOT affect the choice of planned change programme in an institution?

A) Culture
B) Leadership style
C) Nature of institution
D) Government policy

Answer Key:
D) Government policy

Q79. Which of the following is a part of the six-point plan for strategic change?

A) Foster consensus for the new vision, competence to enact it and cohesion to move it along
B) Institute revitalisation through formal policies, systems and structures
C) Monitor and adjust strategies in response to problems in the revitalization process
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q80. Which of the following is NOT a key task for those involved in seeking political agreements over planned
change in an institution?

A) Seek out potential opposition and attempt to change opinions or, at least, to neutralise them

B) Identify potential and influential supporters and persuade them to support the new strategy

C) Negotiate any necessary ‘side deals’ to get people on side

D) Build the maximum consensus for the new proposals, preferably prior to any formal decision meeting

Answer Key:
C) Negotiate any necessary ‘side deals’ to get people on side

Q81. The personalities of creative people tend to have all of the following characteristics except:

A) A positive self-image without being blindly self-confident

B) Can work along in isolation necessary for developing ideas
C) Frequently considered to be nonconformists and do not need strong approval from the group
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Answer Key:
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Q82. Creativity is likely to occur when three components come together which involve expertise, creative thinking
skills and:

A) proper lighting in the work environment

B) right type of motivation
C) stable economical conditions
D) extrinsically motivating conditions in the work environment

Answer Key:
B) right type of motivation

Q83. The last step in a control process is:

A) Allocate resources
B) Taking corrective action
C) Select a strategy
D) Set standards

Answer Key:
B) Taking corrective action
Q84. The weakest form of control is:

A) Pre-control
B) Simultaneous control
C) Post-control
D) Dual control

Answer Key:
C) Post-control

Q85. What is the term for the monitoring of events both internal and external to the institution that affects strategy?

A) Operational control
B) Strategic surveillance
C) Strategic control
D) Environmental scanning

Answer Key:
B) Strategic surveillance

Q86. The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity

B) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Answer Key:
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Q87. Budget is an instrument of:

A) planning only
B) control only
C) both planning and control
D) none of these mentioned

Answer Key:
C) both planning and control

Q88. The full form of “BARS” is:

A) Baseline Accounting and Reporting System

B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
C) Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System
D) Behaviourally Anchored Reporting Scales
Answer Key:
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

Q89. Which of the following is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while performing performance
appraisal?

A) Minimise inventory costs

B) Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones
C) Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
D) None of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
C) Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour

Q90. Which of the following performance appraisal methods undertakes maximum time?

A) Rating Scales
B) Critical incident
C) Tests and Observation
D) Essay method

Answer Key:
D) Essay method

Q91. The first person to give the concept of Management by Objectives was:

A) Edwards Deming
B) D.W. Cheetham
C) Peter F. Drucker
D) Hershey Blanchard

Answer Key:
C) Peter F. Drucker

Q92. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of performance management?

A) Performance interview
B) Archiving performance data
C) Use of appraisal data
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q93. “Disciplinary action is contemplated” means:

A) Employee is suspended
B) Prima facie decision is taken on file to penalise the employee
C) Prima facie decision is taken on file to file charges against employee
D) Employee should be removed from service

Answer Key:
C) Prima facie decision is taken on file to file charges against employee

Q94. The time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority is:

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 18 months

Answer Key:
B) 6 months

Q95. Which of the following involves collecting and analysing information about a programme’s activities,
characteristics and outcomes:

A) Academic audit
B) Education evaluation
C) Programme evaluation
D) Organisational assessment

Answer Key:
C) Programme evaluation

Q96. Which of the following is NOT a component of institutional evaluation?

A) Systematic collection of evidence

B) Process identification
C) Judgement of value
D) Interpretation of evidence

Answer Key:
B) Process identification

Q97. A standard for performance, settled/ established early on, for later comparison is called :

A) Scope line
B) Base line
C) Performance line
D) Boundary line
Answer Key:
B) Base line

Q98. In institutional evaluation, “Plausibility” means:

A) To check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) To check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) To determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) To determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:
B) To check whether the institute has attained the expected goals

Q99. Which of the following statement is WRONG about academic audit?

A) Framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) Externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) All of the above mentioned

Answer Key:
D) All of the above mentioned

Q100. Academic Audit report contains all of the following except:

A) Current status
B) Strengths and weaknesses
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals
D) Action plan for future improvements

Answer Key:
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals

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NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2024 February

Module 8 / M8 PYQ

2024 February

2023 February September

Module 8 Previous Year Questions:
2022 July

2021 March October

Q1) Which of the following is not the objective of institutional management?

A) Achievement of institutional objectives

B) Improvement in planning, organising and implementation of institutional programmes and activities
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
D) Enhance employees’ job satisfaction

Answer Key:
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
Q2) Institutional Administration is the process of:

A) Utilizing appropriate resources for development of Human qualities

B) Managing activities of educational institutions
C) Planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in educational setting
D) None

Answer Key:
B) Managing activities of educational institutions

Q3) The curriculum drift means:

A) Identifying missing content in the curriculum

B) Identifying inappropriate content
C) Identifying obsolete content
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q4) Economic uncertainty, regulatory requirements, and new competitors are examples of what type of factors
that affect institutional management?

A) Intrapersonal factors
B) Internal factors
C) Interpersonal factors
D) External factors

Answer Key:
D) External factors

Q5) Which of the following is NOT true in respect of planning?

A) Planning is an intellectual activity

B) Planning function is only performed at the lowest level of management
C) Planning is related to objectives
D) Planning is forward-looking

Answer Key:
B) Planning function is only performed at the lowest level of management

Q6) Which of the following is NOT true about strategic planning in an institution?

A) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change

B) It is a top down approach of planning
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution

Answer Key:
B) It is a top down approach of planning

Q7) The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive
weapons are:

A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

Q8) Which of the following are short term milestones or benchmarks that an institution must attain in order to
achieve its long term objectives?

A) Vision
B) Mission
C) Plans
D) Goals

Answer Key:
D) Goals

Q9) The fundamental purpose of an institution’s mission statement is to:

A) Create a good human relations climate in the institution

B) Define the operational structure of the institution
C) Generate good public relations for the institution
D) Define the institution’s purpose in society

Answer Key:
D) Define the institution’s purpose in society

Q10) Responsibility always flows from:

A) Superior to subordinate
B) Subordinate to superior
C) Peer to peer
D) None
Answer Key:
B) Subordinate to superior

Q11) In line and staff organisation, the staff performs the function of:

A) Management
B) Advising the management
C) Assigning responsibility
D) None

Answer Key:
B) Advising the management

Q12) The following steps are involved in the process of organising:

(A). Forming supportive objectives

(B). Delegating to the head of each group the authority necessary to perform the activities
(C). Establishing enterprise objectives
(D). Identifying and classifying activities

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (C), (A), (B), (D)

B) (C), (A), (D), (B)
C) (A), (C), (D), (B)
D) (A), (C), (B), (D)

Answer Key:
B) (C), (A), (D), (B)

Q13) Matrix organisation’ refers to:

A) Organisation where authority and responsibility coexist

B) Organisation in which two or more basic types of departments are combined
C) Mathematical arrangement of events in columns and rows
D) None

Answer Key:
C) Mathematical arrangement of events in columns and rows

Q14) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a team?

A) Collective output
B) Individual and collective responsibility
C) Fluid dimension to roles and tasks
D) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing

Answer Key:
D) Minimal and formal knowledge sharing

Q15) All of the following increase team effectiveness EXCEPT:

A) Understanding team timing

B) Ignoring ineffective team processes
C) Paying attention to team tasks
D) Developing, using and reinforcing effective group norms

Answer Key:
B) Ignoring ineffective team processes

Q16) Which of the following is NOT one of the task related functions within a team?

A) Resource acquisition and management

B) Work distribution
C) Participation
D) Commonly accepted mission

Answer Key:
C) Participation

Q17) The team gathers for the monthly progress and problems’ report about reaching individual and
departmental objectives. Which of the following statements reflect effective team meeting?

A) Only a few team members seem to be concerned about the impact of their presentation; they attempt to
build allies within the team
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems
C) Some team members seem to be playing the political game, while others do not
D) One clique exists within this team and their presentations sound about the same-politically safe

Answer Key:
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems

Q18) Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development?

A) Forming
B) Deciding
C) Performing
D) Storming

Answer Key:
B) Deciding

Q19) Rearrange the following steps of recruitment:

(A). Searching
(B). Evaluation and control
(C). Planning
(D). Screening
(E). Strategy development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)

B) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
C) (D), (E), (C), (A), (B)
D) (B), (A), (D), (E), (C)

Answer Key:
B) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)

Q20) A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the institution is
called:

A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement

Answer Key:
C) Orientation

Q21) ______ is any learning activity directed towards future needs rather than present needs.

A) Training
B) Development
C) Education
D) Instruction

Answer Key:
B) Development

Q22) Which of the following option is a component of remuneration?

A) Fringe Benefits
B) Commitment
C) External equity
D) Motivation

Answer Key:
A) Fringe Benefits

Q23) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A). Fringe benefits (I). Stock option

(B). Job context (II). Challenging job responsibilities

(C). Prerequisites (III). Group plans

(D). Incentives (IV). Medical care

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)

B) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
C) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
D) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)

Answer Key:
A) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)

Q24) When a higher level job is assigned to an individual without increase in salary, it is called:

A) Horizontal promotion
B) Vertical promotion
C) Dry promotion
D) Diagonal promotion

Answer Key:
C) Dry promotion

Q25) Payment to faculty on per class/period of teaching or output per period/hour basis is called:

A) Time rate method

B) Period rate method
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None

Answer Key:
B) Period rate method
Q26) As per Sec 3-C of CCS conduct Rules “sexual harassment” includes such unwelcome sexually determined
behaviour whether directly or otherwise:

A) Physical contact as advances

B) Demand or request for sexual favours
C) Sexually coloured remarks
D) All the these

Answer Key:
D) All the these

Q27) Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Outstanding expenses – current asset

B) Good will – intangible asset
C) Sundry debtors – current asset
D) Loose tools – tangible fixed asset

Answer Key:
A) Outstanding expenses – current asset

Q28) Fixed assets should be verified at least once in:

A) six months
B) one year
C) two years
D) three years

Answer Key:
B) one year

Q29) Diwali advance given to an employee is:

A) Revenue Expenditure
B) Capital Expenditure
C) Not an Expenditure
D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Answer Key:
C) Not an Expenditure

Q30) All of the following are traits and characteristics of effective leaders EXCEPT:

A) Charisma
B) Strong motivation and high energy
C) Trustworthiness and character
D) Being so self-confident that they believe they can handle anything

Answer Key:
D) Being so self-confident that they believe they can handle anything

Q31) According to Path Goal Theory, which of the following is NOT a Leadership Behaviour?

A) directive behaviour
B) supportive behaviour
C) participative behaviour
D) none

Answer Key:
D) none

Q32) Ravi is a type of manager who is concerned primarily with accomplishing goals and objectives and
concentrates on the task itself. His behavioural style is called:

A) authoritarian
B) democratic
C) task oriented
D) people oriented

Answer Key:
C) task oriented

Q33) Mr. X is the only person in the institution with expertise in the E-Commerce field. His source of power is
called:

A) reward power
B) knowledge power
C) referent power
D) None

Answer Key:
B) knowledge power

Q34) Transformational leadership has the following characteristics:

A) Believe success arises from leaders and staff working together

B) Takes the view that rewards and punishment motivate staff
C) Seeks to involve staff in the decision making process
D) Employs a clear chain of command
Answer Key:
D) Employs a clear chain of command

Q35) Moving your head, face, and eyes away from another person while communicating is often interpreted
as a lack of Self-:

A) Respect
B) Esteem
C) Confidence
D) Control

Answer Key:
C) Confidence

Q36) The following is NOT a barrier to effective communication:

A) One-way communication
B) Mixed signal from sender
C) Feedback
D) Different interpretation of words

Answer Key:
C) Feedback

Q37) One of the following is NOT the suggestion for improving individual’s listening skills. Which is that?

A) Empathizing with the speaker

B) Paraphrase the speaker
C) Maintain eye contact with the speaker
D) Sympathizing with the speaker

Answer Key:
A) Empathizing with the speaker

Q38) Horizontal communication takes place between:

A) Employees with same status

B) Subordinate to Superior
C) Superior to Subordinate
D) None

Answer Key:
A) Employees with same status
Q39) Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a Motivated Workforce?

A) High Productivity
B) Ingenuity in the use of Resources
C) High Employee Turnover
D) Work conscious

Answer Key:
C) High Employee Turnover

Q40) The theory of motivation where employees make comparison of the ratios of their job inputs to outcomes
relative to those of others:

A) Expectancy Theory
B) Equity Theory
C) Two Factor Theory
D) Need Hierarchy Theory

Answer Key:
B) Equity Theory

Q41) The factors that are associated with conditions surrounding the job, according to Herzberg’s two factor
theory, are:

A) Hygiene factors
B) Economic factors
C) Motivating factors
D) Environmental factors

Answer Key:
A) Hygiene factors

Q42) A programme of one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager for developing the
leadership skills of the later is called:

A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Orientation
D) None

Answer Key:
A) Coaching

Q43) One of the following is NOT a tip that manager can employ for increasing the employee acceptance and
commitment to Goals, which is that?
A) Convincing employees that goal attainment is within their capabilities
B) Providing managerial support
C) Explaining goal relevance to personal needs
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Answer Key:
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Q44) The middle management is responsible for _____.

A) Official Goals
B) Strategical Goals
C) Operative Goals
D) All these

Answer Key:
C) Operative Goals

Q45) The best strategy(ies) for planning out your time effectively is/are:

A) Delay any unnecessary work

B) Prioritize all your tasks
C) Ignore all the unexpected work
D) All these

Answer Key:
B) Prioritize all your tasks

Q46) All the symptoms of poor time management except:

A) Sub- par work quality

B) Not meeting deadlines
C) Too much on the plate
D) Getting organized

Answer Key:
D) Getting organized

Q47) Work attitudes can be reflected in an institution through:

A) Job Satisfaction
B) Organizational Commitment
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer Key:
C) Both (A) and (B)

Q48) The following is NOT the component of Attitude:

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognition
C) Behaviour
D) Affect

Answer Key:
A) Psycho-motor

Q49) Which of the following is not the stage in Kurt Lewin’s famous three-stage prescriptive model of change
developed in the 1950s?

A) Moving to a new level

B) Refreezing attitudes at the new level
C) Unfreezing current attitudes
D) Melting resistance

Answer Key:
D) Melting resistance

Q50) The questionable assumptions underpinning the prescriptive approach to strategic change:

A) Change is unpredictable and discontinuous

B) Change is a continuous process
C) Change is predictable, sequential and controllable by management
D) Change is an organic and fundamentally about managing culture

Answer Key:
C) Change is predictable, sequential and controllable by management

Q51) For overcoming the resistance to change, the following strategy is Not appropriate:

A) Communication and discussion

B) Involving those who resist in the change process
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
D) Giving incentives

Answer Key:
C) Bullying and harassing people into towing the line
Q52) A process where employees write down their ideas on slips of paper with no identification, exchange the
slips and attempt to build on each other’s ideas:

A) Mind mapping
B) Brain writing
C) Forced relationship
D) Pattern breakers

Answer Key:
B) Brain writing

Q53) All of these are the approaches to encourage creativity in an institution except:

A) tolerating failures
B) offering recognition for good effort and performance
C) restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence
D) encouraging experimentation among employees

Answer Key:
C) restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence

Q54) Innovation is:

A) commercialization of a new product or process

B) invention of a new product or process
C) development of a new product or process idea
D) implementation of a new production method

Answer Key:
A) commercialization of a new product or process

Q55) The weakest form of control is:

A) Pre-control
B) Simultaneous control
C) Post-control
D) Dual control

Answer Key:
C) Post-control

Q56) The premise control is based on:

A) Buildings
B) People
C) Resources
D) Assumptions

Answer Key:
D) Assumptions

Q57) The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

B) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity
D) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance

Answer Key:
A) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Q58) Effective control depends on:

A) Organisation structure
B) Proper direction
C) Flow of communication
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q59) The simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance:

A) Rating Scales
B) Critical Incident
C) Cost accounting
D) BARS

Answer Key:
A) Rating Scales

Q60) The major weakness of the forced distribution method is:

A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

B) Work is reliable
C) The error of central tendency
D) None

Answer Key:
A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
Q61) A typical confidential report comprises of following attributes of an individual:

(A). Leadership
(B). Ability to reason
(C). Integrity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (A), (B) only.

B) (A), (C) only.
C) (A), (B), (C).
D) (B), (C) only.

Answer Key:
C) (A), (B), (C).

Q62) If no charge sheet is issued within 3 months of suspension of an employee, then:

A) Suspension is to be revoked
B) Reasons for suspension are to be intimated to the employee
C) His monthly payment should be doubled
D) He should be transferred mandatorily from that place.

Answer Key:
B) Reasons for suspension are to be intimated to the employee

Q63) The systematic collection and interpretation of evidence, leading as part of the process, to a judgement of
value with a view to action is called:

A) Assessment
B) Evaluation
C) Corrective action
D) Feedback

Answer Key:
B) Evaluation

Q64) In institutional evaluation, “Adequacy” means to:

A) check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes
Answer Key:
A) check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not

Q65) Identify the correct statement. Academic audit is:

A) A framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) An externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Answer Key:
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Q66) Institutional Planning is a good method of:

A) Solving problems
B) Eliminating trial and error method
C) Checking wastage and stagnation of resources
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q67) The most appropriate order in which the institutional managers typically perform the managerial functions:

A) organising, planning, controlling, leading

B) organising, leading, planning, controlling
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling
D) planning, organising, controlling, leading

Answer Key:
C) planning, organising, leading, controlling

Q68) The function of Budgeting in Institutional management is:

A) Financial Planning
B) Accounting
C) Control and expenditure
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q69) The assumptions about the environment in which an institutional plans are formulated and executed are:
A) A regular follow-up
B) Derivative plans
C) Planning Premises
D) Setting of objectives

Answer Key:
C) Planning Premises

Q70) The term best describes the process of obtaining, deploying, and utilizing a variety of essential resources to
contribute to an institution’s success:

A) planning
B) organizing
C) staffing
D) management

Answer Key:
D) management

Q71) Which of the following characterize a manager as being effective?

A) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of outputs produced
B) They devote a large amount of time to planning
C) They achieve their goals
D) They interview, select, and train people who are most suitable to fill open jobs.

Answer Key:
C) They achieve their goals

Q72) The strategies which aim at improving internal weaknesses by taking advantage of external opportunities:

A) SO
B) WO
C) SW
D) ST

Answer Key:
B) WO

Q73) 4 Ps of internal scan in SWOT analysis does not include:

A) Properties
B) People
C) Processes
D) Profits
Answer Key:
D) Profits

Q74) ______ is an important functional area of an institution requiring change.

A) Core value
B) Thrust area
C) Change agent
D) Strategy

Answer Key:
B) Thrust area

Q75) Any person, group or organisation that can place a claim on an institution’s attention/resources/output is
called:

A) Customer
B) Top Management
C) Stakeholder
D) Consumer

Answer Key:
C) Stakeholder

Q76) The following is NOT a principle of organisation:

A) Principle of exception
B) Principle of balance
C) Principle of complexity
D) Principle of co-ordination

Answer Key:
C) Principle of complexity

Q77) Each subordinate should have only one superior whose command he has to obey. This is known as:

A) Division of work
B) Exception principle
C) Unity of Command principle
D) Authority – responsibility principle

Answer Key:
C) Unity of Command principle
Q78) Organisation structure establishes relationships between:

A) organisation and environment

B) people, work and resources
C) organisation and society
D) suppliers and customers

Answer Key:
B) people, work and resources

Q79) Group norms are:

A) Modes of behaviours that are shared by some members of the group

B) Modes of behaviours that challenge group values and beliefs
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members
D) Modes of behaviours that are different of those of other group members

Answer Key:
C) Modes of behaviours that are acceptable to and shared by group members

Q80) The following is NOT a characteristic of an effective team:

A) The open expression of feelings and disagreements

B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves
C) A belief in shared aims and objectives
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Answer Key:
D) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives

Q81) Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads?

A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) On payroll
D) Third pay

Answer Key:
B) Indirect

Q82) Which of the following topics are covered in employee orientation programme?

A) Training and education benefit

B) Relationship to other jobs
C) Disciplinary regulations
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q83) The following is not a method of on the job training:

A) Supervision
B) Job instruction
C) Role play
D) Job rotation

Answer Key:
C) Role play

Q84) Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?

A) Employee participation
B) Pay secrecy
C) Comparable worth
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q85) The following act, conduct and commissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct:

A) If the act or conduct is prejudicial or likely to be prejudicial to the interests of the master or to the reputation
of the master

B) If the act or conduct is inconsistent or incompatible with the due or peaceful discharge of his duty to his
master

C) If the act or conduct of a servant makes it unsafe for the employer to retain him in service

D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q86) A sanction for any fresh charge shall, unless it is specifically renewed, lapse if no payment in whole or in
part has been made during a period of:

A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction

B) Financial year in which sanction accorded
C) 6 months from the date of issue of such sanction
D) 3 months from the date of issue of such sanction

Answer Key:
A) 12 months from the date of issue of such sanction

Q87) As per accrual concept, which of the followings is not true:

A) sales + gross profit = revenue

B) revenue – profit = expenditure
C) revenue – expenditure = profit
D) revenue = profit + expenditure

Answer Key:
A) sales + gross profit = revenue

Q88) A manager gets his authority by virtue of his position, while a _____ gets his authority from his followers.

A) Mentor
B) Counsellor
C) Leader
D) Coach

Answer Key:
C) Leader

Q89) The leadership styles given by Hersey and Blanchard include:

A) Telling, Selling, Participative and Delegating styles

B) Telling, Selling, Directing and Delegating styles
C) Telling, Selling, Directing and Controlling styles
D) Telling, Selling, Leading and Delegating styles

Answer Key:
A) Telling, Selling, Participative and Delegating styles

Q90) In which stage of the communication process, does the receiver interpret the message and translate it
into meaningful information?

A) Encoding
B) Decoding
C) Feedback
D) Transmission

Answer Key:
B) Decoding

Q91) Which of the following facial clues often reveals that a person is lying?

A) Failure to look you in the eye

B) Facial shift
C) Crooked smile
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q92) Rearrange the following six steps of motivation logically:

A. Engages in goal – directed behaviour

B. Reassesses needs deficiencies
C. Performs
D. Identifies needs
E. Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
F. Receives either rewards or punishment

A) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F)

B) (B), (C), (D), (E), (A), (F).
C) (D), (F), (C), (A), (E), (B).
D) (D), (E), (A), (C), (F), (B)

Answer Key:
D) (D), (E), (A), (C), (F), (B)

Q93) The broad aim of Counselling is:

A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication

B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour

Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity

Q94) The creative people tend to have all of the following characteristics except:

A) A positive self-image without being blindly self-confident

B) Can work along in isolation necessary for developing ideas
C) Frequently considered to be nonconformists and do not need strong approval from the group
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task
Answer Key:
D) Have a low tolerance for ambiguity, must have clear directions on all task

Q95) The last step in a control process is:

A) Allocate resources
B) Taking corrective action
C) Select a strategy
D) Set standards

Answer Key:
B) Taking corrective action

Q96) The full form of “BARS” is:

A) Baseline Accounting and Reporting System

B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
C) Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System
D) Behaviourally Anchored Reporting Scales

Answer Key:
B) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

Q97) The time limit for completing an inquiry and submitting report by the Inquiring Authority is:

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 18 months

Answer Key:
B) 6 months

Q98) _______ involves collecting and analysing information about a programme’s activities, characteristics and
outcomes.

A) Academic audit
B) Education evaluation
C) Programme evaluation
D) Organisational assessment

Answer Key:
C) Programme evaluation
 Q99) ________ is/are WRONG statement(s) about academic audit.

A) Framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) Externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of institute
D) All these

Answer Key:
D) All these

Q100) Academic Audit report contains all of the following except:

A) Current status
B) Strengths and weaknesses
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals
D) Action plan for future improvements

Answer Key:
C) Criticism of non performing units/individuals

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