THE WEST AFRICAN EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

P M B - 158
BANJUL, THE GAMBIA

THE GAMBIA BASIC EDUCATION

CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION for
SCHOOL CandidateS

MAY 2021

CHIEF EXAMINERS’ REPORTS

 T ABLE OF CONTENTS
SUBJECT/PAPER PAGE
GENERAL RÉSUMÉ I – VI

LANGUAGES
Résumé A–B
Arabic 2 1–5
English Language 1 6 – 10
French 2 11 – 15
Literature-in-English 2 16 – 19
Literature-in-English 1 20 – 24

GENERAL SUBJECTS
Résumé A–B
Christian Religious Knowledge 2 25 – 31
Islamic Studies 2 32 – 38
Social and Environmental Studies 2 39 – 44

MATHEMATICS
Résumé A
Mathematics 2 45 – 50

SCIENCES
Résumé A
Agricultural Science 1 51 – 56
Agricultural Science 2 57 – 62
Physical Education 2 63 – 66
Science 2 67 – 80

TECHNICAL/VOCATIONAL SUBJECTS

Résumé A–B
Art & Craft 81 – 85
Home Economics 2 86 – 99
Metalwork 2 100 – 104
Technical Drawing 2 105 – 108
Woodwork 2 109 – 112
 GABECE (SC) 2021
RÉSUMÉ OF THE CHIEF EXAMINERS’ REPORTS
GENERAL RÉSUMÉ

1. STANDARD OF THE PAPERS

All the Chief Examiners of the Gambia Basic Education Certificate Examination for School
Candidates (GABECE/SC), 2021 indicated that the standard of the papers were appropriate for
the level of the candidates and that the questions were within the scope of the syllabuses.

2. CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

The Chief Examiners of the different subject groupings reported on Candidates’ Performance
as follows:
(1) THE LANGUAGES
The Chief Examiner for French stated that this year's results are a bit below expectation
compared to that of last year. The overall performance was unsatisfactory as well.
The Chief Examiner for Literature 1 and 2 indicated that the general performance was
not encouraging. Over 60% of the candidates were either unprepared or inadequately
prepared due to the initial attempt at the new textual syllabus. The majority of the
candidates manifested inadequate preparation through inaccessibility to the text.

(2) GENERAL SUBJECTS

The Chief Examiners reported that the performance of candidates improved slightly in
Christian Religious Education, Islamic Studies and Social and Environmental Studies.
The major improvement as they observed was realized in Islamic Studies.

(3) MATHEMATICS
The Chief Examiner reported that the general performance of the candidates was poor.
About 40% of the candidates scored marks ranging from 0 to 5 marks out of the 60
marks allocated to paper 2.
(4) THE SCIENCES

The Chief Examiners indicated that the performance of candidates in both papers of
Agricultural Science and Physical Education were unsatisfactory, while there was a
slight improvement in the Science paper 2.

(5) TECHNICAL/VOCATIONAL SUBJECTS

The Chief Examiner for Metalwork 2B and Woodwork 2B reported that, the performance
of the candidates were not impressive and not the least encouraging, however, they
performed well in the practical papers. The Chief Examiner for Home Economics
reported that the candidates performed very well. The Chief Examiner for Technical
Drawing 2 reported that the performance of the candidates was better this year compared
I
 to the previous year, while the Chief Examiner for Art 2 reported that, the performance
of the candidates this this year like previous years remains undesired and shows a
continued decline in standard.

3. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
The Chief Examiners of the different subject groupings reported on the candidates’ strengths
as follows:
(1) THE LANGUAGES
The Chief Examiner for English revealed that most candidates armed with reading ability
fared very well in comprehension. The Chief Examiner for Literature 1 stated that some
candidates demonstrated clear understanding of the requirements of the question and
adequate mastery of the language to write essays of reasonable lengths and properly
organized ideas. The Chief Examiner for French indicated that the replacement of the
pronoun was handled easily by most candidates this year as well as Section A parts 1, 4
and 5.

The Chief Examiner for Literature 2 indicated that some students scored good marks in
both Prose and Poetry, while the Chief Examiner for Arabic observed that students
answered Section A, which consists of six parts very well.
(2) GENERAL SUBJECTS

The Chief Examiners highlighted the following strengths:

 The ability of candidates to express their answers clearly and systematically in

Christian Religious Education.
 Candidates demonstrated good understanding of the Quran, Tawheed and Fiqh.
 Rubrics were strictly followed in Social and Environmental Studies and Islamic
Studies
 Candidates demonstrated the ability to analyze data in Social and Environmental
Studies.

(3) MATHEMATICS
It was reported by the Chief Examiner that candidates showed good knowledge in
solving sets, inequality, drawing linear graph and application of Pythagoras theorem.

(4) THE SCIENCES

The following strengths were observed by all examiners:

 Some candidates presented sensible and neat answers

 Ability to interpret the questions well and correct spelling of words
 Candidates’ ability to answer the required number of questions with in-depth
knowledge

II
 (5) TECHNICAL/VOCATIONAL SUBJECTS

The Chief Examiners Technical and Vocational Subjects reported on the candidates’ strengths
as follows:
 Good skills in drawing border lines and title block.
 Good skills in freehand sketching.
 Clarity and legibility of work.
 A majority of the candidates were able to present the six articles required to be
completed for assessment in Economics.
 Candidates were able to complete the task given within the time frame with the
prior guidance of the subject teachers.

4. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
The Chief Examiners of the different subject groupings gave many reasons for the poor
performance of candidates as listed below:

(1) THE LANGUAGES

The Chief Examiner for English indicated that candidates made mistakes in subject/verb
agreement, spelling, faulty splits and amalgamations and copying part of questions as
answers.

The Chief Examiners for Literature 1 and 2 revealed that candidates’ performance was
comparatively worse than the previous years. They further stated that the candidates were
inadequately prepared for the examination and submitted empty booklets with only their
names, while others just copied questions as answers or wrote less than ten lines.

The Chief Examiner for French revealed that candidates were able to understand the
questions and rubrics and that others exhibited poor knowledge of formation of negatives
and interrogative words.
(2) GENERAL SUBJECTS
The following were some of the weaknesses highlighted by the Chief Examiners:

 Non-adherence to the rubrics in Christian Religious Education

 Poor expression and difficulty of spelling common words associated with Social
and Environmental Studies
 Lack of clear understanding of the questions by candidates in Christian Religious
Education
 Poor performance of candidates in Sunnah/Hadith in Islamic Studies

(3) MATHEMATICS

The candidates’ performance was very poor as reported by the Chief Examiners in the
following areas:
 Presentation of solutions.
III
  Ability to read and understand instructions.
 Application of mathematical formula.
 Failure to measure correctly and constructions using mathematical instruments.

(4) THE SCIENCES

The following weaknesses were reported for all the papers:
 Inadequate preparation for examination
 Wrong spellings and use of words
 Ineligible handwriting and weak expression of ideas
 Failure to read and understand the questions well
 Inability to answer the required number to questions

(5) TECHNICAL/VOCATIONAL SUBJECTS

 Reading and understanding the working drawing.
 Produce finished work was a problem.
 Insufficient coverage of the syllabus
 Lack of drawing instruments.
 Poor drawing ability and composition
 Inability to follow instructions on the question.
 Poor visualisation

5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiners of the different subject grouping made the following suggestions as a
way of improving on performance.

(1) THE LANGUAGES

 Candidates should be equipped and prepared for the examination.

 Teachers should devise ways to assist candidates to improve their spelling and
sentence construction (English, French, Arabic)
 French periods should be increased to 4 or 5 period a week.
 Enough learning material should be made available for students at all levels.
 Candidates should be encouraged to speak English, French or Arabic if they offer
it to enhance on their communication skills and competence.
 Candidates must always read the questions carefully before attempting them.
 Relevant texts should be made available to candidates and taught accordingly for
better performance.
 Workshops should be organized to acquaint teachers with the standard required
for teaching their subject area.
 The mark in section B of French paper 2 which is 30 % of the total mark should
be reduced to 20% for this section is responsible for most failures in French.
 French should be a core subject and therefore compulsory in all schools
 Teachers should teach their students how to write essays and letters in French
from grade 7.
IV
  Candidates should be given more exercises and teachers must mark the exercises.
 It is highly recommended that teachers be acquainted with the marking
procedures and try to apply them in classroom situations to teach pupils more
appropriate.
 Schools should endeavor to adopt books which are truly beneficial to the learners.
Such books should be able to expose teachers as well as students to the things
they should know in preparation of their candidates.
 The Department of State for Education should discourage or minimize mass
promotion in the upper basic sector to enhance better results at GABECE.
 School administrators should make this report available to teachers to help them
in preparing students for the Gambia Basic Education Certificate Examination
(GABECE).
 Preparation and supply of Arabic language books recommended by WAEC
 Allocation of more periods to Arabic language for its teachers to be able to cover
the syllabus
 Speaking Arabic language side by side with English language be emphasized to
students
 Students in the lower levels be introduced to Arabic language as early as Grade 4
 WAEC examinations in Arabic should be conducted in the Arabic Islamic
Schools.
 Writing skills should be much improved in terms of language, organization of
ideas and length of essays. (English and Literature)

(2) GENERAL SUBJECTS

 Candidates should be guided by teachers to follow the rubrics as demanded by the

question(s) in Christian Religious Education.
 Islamic Studies teachers should be trained to enhance their proficiency in English
Language
 Use of recommended textbooks for teaching and learning
 Encourage team teaching for Social and Environmental Studies to ensure proper
coverage of the broad syllabus
 Teachers, principals and cluster monitors should read the Chief Examiners
Reports and implement the recommendations.

(3) MATHEMATICS

 Candidates should read and understand both the instructions and the questions
before solving.
 Heads of school should make available the necessary teaching and learning
materials in schools.
 Mathematics teachers should have access to Chief Examiners’ reports. This will
help teachers to identify weakness areas that would require extra or remedial
teaching.
 Both teachers and candidates should have access to past papers to ensure
familiarity with the standard of the paper.

V
(4) THE SCIENCES

 More teachers should be adequately trained to be able to teach the subjects,

especially the practical aspects
 The use of recommended text books and syllabuses should be adhered to
 Complete coverage of syllabuses and revisions should be encouraged

(5) TECHNICAL/VOCATIONAL SUBJECTS

 Teachers should put more effort in helping the students overcome the problem of
reading a working drawing.
 Accuracy and good finish should be given top priority at all times.
 All students doing Technical and Vocational subjects must do Technical
Drawing.
 More practice is required of candidates on both building and mechanical tools
and must demonstrate the awareness of resemblance and proportionality in their
freehand sketches.
 Candidates need to prepare adequately before exams.
 Technical and Vocational teachers be creative and innovative.

VI
LANGUAGE
SECTION
 GABECE (SC) 2021
RÉSUMÉ OF CHIEF EXAMINERS’ REPORTS
THE LANGUAGES

1. STANDARD OF THE PAPERS

All the Chief Examiners in the Languages Section highlighted that the papers conformed to standard
and were within the scope of the candidates.

2. CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

The Chief Examiner for French stated that this year's results are a bit below expectation compared to
that of last year. The overall performance was unsatisfactory as well.
The Chief Examiner for Literature 1 and 2 indicated that the general performance was not encouraging.
Over 60% of the candidates were either unprepared or inadequately prepared due to the initial attempt at
the new textual syllabus. The majority of the candidates manifested inadequate preparation through
inaccessibility to the text.

3. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner for English revealed that most candidates armed with reading ability fared very
well in comprehension. The Chief Examiner for Literature 1 stated that some candidates demonstrated
clear understanding of the requirements of the question and adequate mastery of the language to write
essays of reasonable lengths and properly organized ideas. The Chief Examiner for French indicated
that the replacement of the pronoun was handled easily by most candidates this year as well as Section
A parts 1, 4 and 5.

The Chief Examiner for Literature 2 indicated that some students scored good marks in both Prose and
Poetry, while the Chief Examiner for Arabic observed that students answered Section A, which consists
of six parts very well.

4. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner for English indicated that candidates made mistakes in subject/verb agreement,
spelling, faulty splits and amalgamations and copying part of questions as answers.

The Chief Examiners for Literature 1 and 2 revealed that candidates’ performance was comparatively
worse than the previous years. They further stated that the candidates were inadequately prepared for
the examination and submitted empty booklets with only their names, while others just copied questions
as answers or wrote less than ten lines.

The Chief Examiner for French revealed that candidates were able to understand the questions and
rubrics and that others exhibited poor knowledge of formation of negatives and interrogative words.

A
5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Candidates should be equipped and prepared for the examination.

 Teachers should devise ways to assist candidates to improve their spelling and sentence construction
(English, French, Arabic)
 French periods should be increased to 4 or 5 period a week.
 Enough learning material should be made available for students at all levels.
 Candidates should be encouraged to speak English, French or Arabic if they offer it to enhance on
their communication skills and competence.
 Candidates must always read the questions carefully before attempting them.
 Relevant texts should be made available to candidates and taught accordingly for better performance.
 Workshops should be organized to acquaint teachers with the standard required for teaching their
subject area.
 The mark in section B of French paper 2 which is 30 % of the total mark should be reduced to 20%
for this section is responsible for most failures in French.
 French should be a core subject and therefore compulsory in all schools
 Teachers should teach their students how to write essays and letters in French from grade 7.
 Candidates should be given more exercises and teachers must mark the exercises.
 It is highly recommended that teachers be acquainted with the marking procedures and try to apply
them in classroom situations to teach pupils more appropriate.
 Schools should endeavor to adopt books which are truly beneficial to the learners. Such books
should be able to expose teachers as well as students to the things they should know in preparation of
their candidates.
 The Department of State for Education should discourage or minimize mass promotion in the upper
basic sector to enhance better results at GABECE.
 School administrators should make this report available to teachers to help them in preparing
students for the Gambia Basic Education Certificate Examination (GABECE).
 Preparation and supply of Arabic language books recommended by WAEC
 Allocation of more periods to Arabic language for its teachers to be able to cover the syllabus
 Speaking Arabic language side by side with English language be emphasized to students
 Students in the lower levels be introduced to Arabic language as early as Grade 4
 WAEC examinations in Arabic should be conducted in the Arabic Islamic Schools.
 Writing skills should be much improved in terms of language, organization of ideas and length of
essays. (English and Literature)

B
 GABECE 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
ARABIC 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Questions were generally at the standard of the candidates. All questions of this year years’ paper
were drawn from and within the content of the prescribed syllabus. Arabic language is a
recommended subject in the Gambia at WAEC level. A good number of candidates who passed
through Arabic and Islamic Education institutions had opted for Arabic in their list of grade 9
subjects.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates’ strength was observed in Section B, where a list of 5 essay topics was given for them
to choose out of the 5 and one not less than 100 wards on it. Candidates were able to do well in
this section. Though, some of them had difficulty in writing their ideas properly in writing, they
managed to obtain impressive mark on it.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

I noticed that their weaknesses were found in part 3, 5 and 6 in Section A. In this section candidates
were required to construct their own sentences to answer question in this section. However, it seems
that they face difficulty in doing so due to their poor back ground in Arabic Language. Consequently,
their performance was below expectation.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Authorities should train more qualified Arabic teachers.

 Supply of Arabic language textbooks recommended by WAEC.
 Allocation of more periods to Arabic language for its teachers to be able to cover the Syllabus.
 Speaking Arabic language within the school premises by both students and teachers throughout
school hours.
 Establishing Arabic clubs and magazines in the schools to perfect candidates shills of writing
and speaking.

1
‫‪5.‬‬ ‫‪DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS‬‬

‫‪SECTION A‬‬

‫‪Part 1‬‬
‫اﻟﻘﺳم ‪1‬‬
‫‪ . 1‬ﻛم ﻣﺳﺟدا ﻓﻲ ﻣﻧطﻘﺗﻛم ؟‬
‫‪ . 2‬ﻣﺎ طول ﻣﺳﺟدﻛم ؟‬
‫‪ . 3‬ﻣﺎ ﺳﻌﺔ ﻣﺳﺟدﻛم ؟‬
‫‪ . 4‬ﻣﺗﻰ ﺗﺻﻠ َون اﻟﻣﻐرب ؟‬
‫‪ . 5‬أﯾن ﻧﺎﺋب اﻻﻣﺎم ؟‬
‫‪ . 6‬ﻛم ﺳورا ﻣن اﻟﻘرآن ﺣﻔظت ؟‬
‫‪ 7.‬أﻛﺗب اﺳم َ أرﺑﻊ ﺳور ﻣن اﻟﻘرآن‪.‬‬
‫‪ . 8‬ﻓﻲ أﯾﺔ ﻣدرﺳﺔ ﺗﺣﻔﯾظ ﻛﻧت ؟‬

‫‪Part 2‬‬
‫اﻟﻘﺳم ‪2‬‬
‫‪ . 9‬ھل ﺗﻌرف ﻣﺎ ھو اﻟﺳﺟن ؟‬
‫‪ . 10‬ﻟم ﺑ ُﻧﻲ اﻟﺳ ُﺟون ؟‬
‫‪ . 11‬ھل ﺗﻌرف ﻣﺎ ھﻲ اﻟﻣﺣﻛﻣﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 12‬ﻣن ﯾﺣﻛم ﻓﻲ اﻟﻣﺣﻛﻣﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 13‬ﻟم ﺑ ُﻧﻲ اﻟﻣﺣﻛﻣﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 14‬ھل رأﯾت ﻟ ِﺻﺎ ﻣن ﻗﺑل ؟‬
‫‪ . 15‬ﻣﺎ ذا ﺳرق اﻟﻠص ؟‬
‫‪ . 16‬أدﺧل اﻟﻠص ﺑﯾﺗﻛم ﻣن ﻗﺑل ؟‬
‫‪2‬‬
‫‪Part 3‬‬
‫اﻟﻘﺳم ‪3‬‬
‫‪ . 17‬ﻣﺗﻰ ﺑدأت اﻟدراﺳﺔ ﻓﻲ ھذه اﻟﺳﻧﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 18‬ﻛم ﺷﮭرا ﺟﻠﺳت ﺑدون دراﺳﺔ ﻓﻲ ھذه اﻟﺳﻧﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 19‬إﻟﻰ أي ﻣﺳﺗوا ً ﺗﻠﺗﺣﻖ ﻓﻲ ھذه اﻟﺳﻧﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 20‬ﻛم ﻋد َ د َ اﻟﻣدرﺳﯾن ﻓﻲ ﻣدرﺳﺗﻛم ؟‬
‫‪ . 21‬ﻣﺎ ھﻲ اﻟﻣﺎدة اﻟﺗﻲ ﺗﺣﺑﮭﺎ أﻛﺛر ﻣن ﻏﯾرھﺎ ؟‬
‫‪ . 22‬وﻟﻣﺎ ذا ﺗﺣﺑﮭﺎ أﻛﺛر ؟‬
‫‪ . 23‬ھل ﻋﻧدك ﻛﺗﺑﺎ ﻛﺎﻓﯾﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 24‬ﻣن أﯾن ﺗﺟد اﻟﻛﺗب ؟‬

‫‪Part 4‬‬
‫اﻟﻘﺳم ‪4‬‬
‫‪ . 25‬ﻣﺎ ذا اﺷﺗرى ﻟك واﻟدك ﻟﻠﻣدرﺳﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 26‬ھل اﺷﺗرت ﻟك أﻣك ﺷﯾﺋﺎ ؟‬
‫‪ . 27‬ﻛﯾف ﺗﺻل إﻟﻰ اﻟﻣدرﺳﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 28‬ﻛم اﻟﻣﺳﺎﻓﺔ ﺑﯾن ﺑﯾﺗﻛم واﻟﻣدرﺳﺔ ؟‬
‫‪ . 29‬ﻣﺎ ﺳﻌﺔ ﻓﺻﻠك ؟‬
‫‪ . 30‬ھل ﻓﻲ ﻓﺻﻠك ﻧواﻓذ ؟ وﻛم ﻋددھﺎ ؟‬
‫‪ . 31‬ھل ﺗذاﻛر دروﺳك ﻓﻲ اﻟﻠﯾل ؟ وﻟﻣﺎ ذا ؟‬

‫‪3‬‬
Part 5
5 ‫اﻟﻘﺳم‬
. ‫ أذﻛر ﺣروف اﻟﻣﺿﺎرع‬. 32
.‫ ﻏﯾ ِر ﻛﻠﻣﺔ ) ﺟﻠوس ( إﻟﻰ ﻓﻌل ﻣﺎض و ﻓﻌل ﻣﺿﺎرع‬. 33

. ‫ ﺿﻊ ﻛﻠﻣﺔ ﻣﻧﺎﺳﺑﺔ ﻓﻲ اﻟﻔراق‬. ‫ﻛﻠﮫ‬ _________________ ُ ‫ أﻛل اﻟﻧﺎس‬.34

‫ ﻣﺎ ذا ﺗﻘول ﻟزﻣﯾﻠك ﻓﻲ اﻟﺻﺑﺎح ؟‬. 35
‫ ﻛم أﻗﺳﺎم اﻟﻔﻌل ؟‬. 36
.ً ‫ ھﺎت ﺟﻣﻠﺔ ً اﺳﻣﯾﺔ‬.37
. ً ‫ ھﺎت ﺟﻣﻠﺔ ً ﻓﻌﻠﯾﺔ‬.38
Part 6
6 ‫اﻟﻘﺳم‬
. َ ‫ ﻛﺎن اﻟطﺎﻟب ُ ___________________ أﻛﻣل اﻟﺟﻣﻠﺔ‬.39
. َ ‫ إن َ اﻟﺑﯾت َ ____________________ أﻛﻣل اﻟﺟﻣﻠﺔ‬40
.
. ‫ طوﯾل‬، ٌ ‫ ذﻛﻲ‬، ‫ ﻛﺳول‬، ‫ ﻧظﯾف‬.‫ ھﺎت ﻋﻛس اﻟﻛﻠﻣﺎت اﻵﺗﯾﺔ‬.41
‫ ﻣﺎ ھو اﻟطﻌﺎم اﻟذي ﺗﻔﺿﻠﮫ ؟‬. 42
. ‫ أذﻛر اﺳم َ ﺛﻼث ﻧﺑﺎت‬.43
‫ ھل أﻧت ﺳﺎﻓرت ﻣن ﻗﺑل ؟‬. 44
‫ﻛﺗﺎب‬،‫ رﺟل‬،‫ ﺑﯾت‬،‫ ﻣﺎ ﺟﻣﻊ اﻟﻛﻠﻣﺎت اﻵﺗﯾﺔ ؟ ﻗﻠم‬. 45

This section contained 6 parts. The first three (3) parts carried eight (8) marks each while other three
(3) of the section carried seven (7) marks each.

The section carried 45 marks in total. Candidates were able to obtain good marks on this section due
to the nature of its questions. Questions in this section required short answers, consequently,
candidates had attempted all question.
4
 ( ‫اﻟﺟزء ) ب‬
SECTION ( B )

. ‫ ﻛﻠﻣﺔ‬100 ‫أﻛﺗب ﻋن واﺣد ﻓﻘط ﻣن اﻟﻣوﺿوﻋﺎت اﻟﺗﺎﻟﯾﺔ ﺑﺣﯾث ﻻ ﺗﻘل ﻛﺗﺎﺑﺗك ﻋن‬
WRITE AN ESSAY OF NOT LESS THAN 100 WORDS ON ANY ONE OF THE
FOLLOWING TOPICS.
.‫ ـ ﻣرض ﻛوروﻧﺎ وأﺛره ﻓﻲ اﻟﻣﺟﺗﻣﻊ‬1
.‫ ـ ﺻﻌوﺑﺎت ﻋﺑور اﻟﺑﺣر ﺑﯾن ﺑﺎر وﺑﺎﻧﺟول‬2
.‫ ـ اﻣﻛﺎﻧﯾﺔ ﺑﻧﺎء ﺟﺳر ﺑﯾن ﺑﺎرا وﺑﺎﻧﺟول‬3
.‫ ـ ﻛﺛرة اﺣزاب اﻟﺳﯾﺎﺳﺔ ﻓﻲ اﻟﺑﻠد‬4
.‫ ـ ﺧطورة اﻟﻘﺑﻠﯾﺔ ﻓﻲ اﻟوطن‬5
In this section, candidates were required to choose only one topic out of five (5) and write on it.
Candidates had chosen different topics, but in general, they scored its pass mark.

5
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

This paper compares favorably with those of the previous years. It was clearly printed with no ambiguities
regarding the instructions and questions to the candidates. It was structured in a way that candidates were
expected to apply common sense before responding to the questions satisfactorily. Therefore, the paper was
within the scope of the candidates.

Irrespective of the fact that the questions were simple and straightforward, majority of the candidates
performed far below expectation simply due to lack of/inadequate practice.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates demonstrated an understanding of question one particularly the meaning and use of the word
relocate as it refers to moving from one place to another. They addressed the letter to their parents as
prompted by the question and had convincing reasons strong enough to persuade their parents to suspend or
cancel their relocation plan. About 80 percent of the candidates attempted it. As for those who understood
what to do, it was the best attempted.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Many candidates made mistakes in words like: “you guys” instead of “Parents”, “Mum and Dad” or simply
“you”; cases of subject and verb agreement like: “How is Uncle Ben and his wife?” Faulty splits like “class
room” instead of “classroom”, “head master” instead of ‘headmaster’ “back ground” instead of
“background” etc. and amalgamations like ‘inconclusion’, ‘inaddition’, ‘infact’ etc. instead of ‘in
conclusion’, ‘in addition’, in fact etc.

It is also observed that many candidates used short words that they are used to in ‘text messaging’.
Examples are: “u” for you, “dis” for this, “pls” for please. This did a great harm to their performances as
the actual answers differed from what they eventually meant. There is a strong appeal to candidates to limit
text messaging or write messages in full.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Candidates have to prepare adequately for the examination before registering for it.

 Candidates should be given more exercises and teachers must mark the exercises.
 Teachers must use prescribed texts instead of substandard pamphlets making the rounds in schools.

 Candidates should be equipped with relevant ideas and approaches to discussing issues.

 Teachers should devise ways to assist students to improve their spelling and sentence constructions.
The use of punctuation marks must be checked and corrected often.

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  It is highly recommended that teachers be acquainted with the marking procedures and try to apply
them in classroom situations to teach pupils more properly.

 Schools should endeavor to adopt books which are truly beneficial to the learners. Such books
should be able to expose teachers as well as students to the things they should know in preparation
of their candidates.

 The Department of State for Education should discourage or minimize mass promotion in the upper
basic sector to enhance better results at GABECE.

 It is advised that schools try to create special classes for promising candidates so as to pay special
attention to them. This has been tried in some schools; and it has paid off.

 School administrators should make this report available to teachers to help them in preparing
students for the Gambia Basic Education Certificate Examination (GABECE).

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Section A: Essay and Letter Writing

The section tested major communication skills such as composition of ideas, discussing and their
presentation in clear understandable sentences. This section thus presented different issues to be discussed
from which a candidate chose only one out of the four.

Question 1

This question was an informal letter, and was to be addressed to both parents. Candidates were to present
three convincing reasons to make them either postpone or cancel their proposal/plan to relocate. They were
expected to appeal to their parents but not to force them.
This question was the most popular among the four. About 80 percent of the candidates attempted it.
As for those who understood what to do, it was the best attempted. However, candidates who were ill
prepared got entangled midway and thus wrote horrible letters.

Candidates’ Strengths: Candidates demonstrated an understanding of the question particularly the

meaning and use of the word relocate as it refers to moving from one place to another. They addressed the
letter to their parents as prompted by the question and had convincing reasons strong enough to persuade
their parents to suspend or cancel their relocation plan.

Weaknesses: Disappointingly, very many candidates had a partial view or interpretation of the word
parents; and thus addressed the letter to their father or mother. Worse still is the use of the phrase “you
guys” when addressing their parents. This is deemed disrespectful. Another major flaw was the issue of
examinees addressing the letter to their uncle, aunt or whoever they could remember. This shows that such
candidates were at a loss as regards the words “parents”.

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Generally, there was poor presentation of facts and the problem of direct translation when chocked with
words or simply because they are used to such grammatical structures, developed over time due to irregular
or non-existent evaluation at school.

Question 2

Question 2, was an article on indiscipline. Candidates were asked to highlight causes of it and suggest ways
of stopping it. This was the third most popular question among candidates; and it attracted about 10 percent.

Candidates’ Strengths: Good students were able to present a heading or title, state and explain three or
more causes, effects and recommendations as to the way forward. There was also logical presentation of
ideas in a coherent manner, using the formal diction as expected.

Weaknesses: One gross inadequacy was that very many candidates approached the article like a letter. They
presented address features necessary for a letter and thus were penalized under organization.

Their expressions were muddled; and very many candidates only subconsciously talked about the effects but
without causes and possible recommendations.

Question 3

This question was a debate on the motion: Students should be involved in the school’s decision making
process. They were to argue for or against. The arguments were expected to be logical enough, presented in
paragraphs, using a simple but clear, understandable language. It was the least popular; and attracted about 4
percent.

Candidates’ Strengths: Good candidates applied the usual vocatives, presented a stance and discussed
three or more reasons for or against the motion. Some even gave counter arguments.

The language was clear enough to help the reader comprehend.

Weaknesses: Very many candidates individualized the debate by only using “my school’, ‘our principal’
etc. instead of generalizing it. Others were stuck along the way. Majority of them could not use English to
bring forth their points convincingly.

Question 4

As usual, this was a narrative to illustrate: Better Late than Never. The story could be real or imaginary,
built and developed around a climax and concluded appropriately. Candidates were expected to use elements
of drama. They were not to interpret it literarily. It was attempted by about 6 percent of the number of
candidates.

Candidates’ Strengths: Good story tellers began with an introduction, developed the story to a climax and
concluded appropriately. They displayed elements of drama such as suspense which made the story
captivating.

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There was fluency in their expressions and they displayed an understanding of tense-forms.

Weaknesses: Most of the stories were unrelated. Some of them were fables, demonstrating the inability of
the candidates to adapt known stories to the requirement of the question. Some merely wrote unrelated
stories and tagged “Better Late than Never” at the end.

Common Errors
As observed, very many candidates made mistakes in words like: “you guys” instead of “Parents”/ “Mum
and Dad” or simply “you”; cases of subject and verb agreement like: “How is Uncle Ben and his wife?”;
faulty splits like “class room” instead of “classroom”, “head master” instead of ‘headmaster’ “back ground”
instead of “background” etc. and amalgamations like ‘inconclusion’, ‘inaddition’, ‘infact’ etc. instead of ‘in
conclusion’, ‘in addition’, in fact etc.
Common spelling errors were:

ERRORS INSTEAD OF
their there
live leave
you your
does those
writting writing
decipline discipline
nite night

It is also observed that very many candidates used short words that they are used to in ‘text messaging’.
Examples are: u for you, dis for this, pls for please etc and this did a great harm to their performances as the
actual answers differed from what they eventually meant.

There is a strong appeal to candidates to either limit text messaging or write messages in full.

SECTION B: Comprehension

The comprehension passage was simple but demanded that candidates understand written and spoken
English, aimed at enhancing effective communication in our daily lives. They should in addition, be able to
respond to inference questions and express their thoughts in simple terms. They were also tested on
contextual meanings of words and were required to replace certain words in their contexts.

Candidates’ Strengths:

Most candidates armed with reading ability fared very well in the passage. They were able to tackle the
questions conveniently, especially questions ‘a’, ‘b’ ‘d’ ‘e’ and ‘f’. Some candidates were clever enough to
give excellent answers to these questions as required.

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Candidates’ Weaknesses:

On the other hand, candidates with poor or inadequate readiness for the examination could not even answer
as simple a question as ‘a’. Very many candidates failed to answer questions ‘c ‘and ‘g’. As regards
question ‘g’, very many candidates merely copied anywhere they deemed fit as the interpretation.

Section C: Summary

The summary passage was indeed simple and within candidates’ understanding. To crown it all, the passage
did lend itself for lifting which very many candidates did wisely. Even those who fared poorly in the
Comprehension, could respond well in summary.
Strengths: Smart candidates could not just copy answer sentences but were clever enough to change just
one word correctly to earn the total mark allotted to such a question. Very intelligent candidates presented
excellent answers without copying directly from the passage content and thus, earned maximum points.
Weaknesses: In contrast, a huge number of candidates did not quite know what to do. Most of such
candidates lifted their answers but did not even know where to dump them or where to stop. They ended up
copying lengthy answers which are unacceptable in summary writing.

Another problem was the poor understanding of the words in the questions, especially the word
“consequence” in question ’b”. Based on this, this very question was not answered as solutions were
presented instead of the effects which the question asked for.

Summary answers do not require detailed information. Very many candidates used the central information
and added examples/particulars to the main idea. This rendered their summary too detailed to be accepted as
good answers.

It is highly recommended that teachers and students use the practical approach in order to achieve
meaningful results in English. It was shocking to realize that candidates whose language strength earned
them between 25 and 35 marks in essay or letter writing could not even score up to 10 marks in both
comprehension and summary. Students need to Practise comprehension and summary exercises more
often and get used to the right approach, if they wish to excel in internal and external examinations. Most
candidates used phrases to answer summary question which is not ideal.

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 MAY 2021 GABECE
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
FRENCH 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper was very satisfactory as compared to the previous years. The paper was
adequately set to meet the standard of the candidates in grade 9.All questions were drawn from the
syllabus of grade 7 to 9. There was enough time this year for candidates to prepare, compared to last
year when there was an interruption in the education system due to the COVID 19 pandemic .
Candidates were expected to have covered all the topics and questions set for this year’s exam. There
were no ambiguous questions that could confuse the candidates understanding.

However, this year's results are a bit low expectation, compared to that of last year. The overall
performance was unsatisfactory as well. The only areas were there was 60% to 70 % success were on
parts 1, 4 and 5 of section A. The poor performance could be clearly noticed in parts 2, 3, and 6 but
also in section B which dealt with the essay and letter writing. Most of the candidates did not attempt
this section or they simply copied the question or reproduced already prepared essays in their lessons
which had no relevance to the topics they were asked to write on. The best performance came from
very few schools. Candidates in these schools were able to answer questions from the different parts
of both section A and section B.

Some of the reasons for this year’s poor performance could be due to the shift of grades especially in
big schools. Here, to respect the COVID 19 protocol of spacing, some Grades go to school for three
days and stay away for the rest of the week. As a result, they have laisser contact hours with their
teachers. In addition to that, students nowadays have a less affaire attitude in the education system.
They spend more time with their mobile phones than their books. The causes must be addressed and
steps taken to improve the situation.

French is an important international language and must be taken seriously as it can benefit the
candidates in the future. It is evident that the number of candidates who offer for French increases
every year. This is a good sign and there should be lot of improvement in our teaching and learning
methodology to help candidates understand basic instructions in French.

2. CANDIDATES' STRENGHTS

-Few candidates were able to understand the questions and rubrics

-Few candidates found it much easier to deal with section A parts 1, 4, and 5

-The replacement of the pronoun was handled more easily by most of the candidates this year.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

-Inability to conjugate verbs: Present, Future, Imperfect, Past perfect.

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 -Poor knowledge of formation of negatives and interrogative forms.

-Agreement of nouns and adjectives and/or use of masculine and feminine nouns.

-Failure to construct simple French sentences.

- Scanty vocabulary and poor knowledge of simple grammatical rules.

-Poor understanding of what the question really asked for.

-Guesswork.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

-The mark in section B which is 30 % of the total mark should be reduced to 20% for this section is
responsible for most candidates' failures.

-French periods in schools should be increased to 4 or 5 periods a week.

-French should be a core subject and therefore compulsory in all schools

-Most emphasis should be put on grammar.

-Teachers should ensure that their students have mastered mastery of the auxiliary verbs in French
etre ( to be) and avoir (to have).

-French teachers should communicate with their students in French.

-Teachers should teach their students how to write essays and letters in French from grade 7.

-In addition to this, several exercises and French conversation should be conducted to sharpen the
oral skills.

-Candidates should read publications in French and listen to programs on radio and French TV
channels to build on their vocabulary.

-Candidates who opt for French for the were purpose of obtaining the required number of subjects
needed for GABECE exams should be discouraged to do so because this can only increase the rate of
failure.

-French teachers should deal in most case in grade 9 with the French exam past papers to familiarize
the candidates with the rubrics.

-Candidates should not be encouraged to reproduce essays or letters done with their teachers in class.
They should read and attempt the topics on the examination paper given to them.

-Candidates should indicate clearly the number of the question they want to attempt in section B.
This will help the examiners when marking the essay or letter.

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 -Enough French learning material (text books and work books) should be made available for students
in different levels.

-The government of the Gambia, the French Technical Assistance and WAEC should collaborate
thoroughly to help improve the teaching and learning of French by organizing regular workshops in
various regions.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

PART 1

Instructions

Choose from the options lettered A to D the most appropriate one to complete the sentence and write
the letter of the option you have chosen in the space provided for answer.

Example : Le garçon ……………vraiment passer son examen. Answer= …..A.....

(A) Veut (B) Veux (C) voules (D) vouloir

This appears to be the easiest part of the paper as generally 60% of the candidates performed well.
The rest were only involved in guesswork as most of them cannot read and understand the questions.

PART 2

Instructions

Complete the questions for each one of the statements given below by supplying the appropriate
word.

Example: ………………churches-tu?

-Je cherche mon crayon noir. Answer : ……Que………….

The performance of the candidates in this section was generally very unsatisfactory. They were
tested on simple question tags like Que, Pourquoi, Combien ,Quand , and Comment , but 90% of the
candidates were not able to produce the correct word to complete the sentence.

PART 3

Instructions

Complete the following sentences by writing in the space provided the correct form of the verb given
in brackets.

Example :- Que…………… (faire)-tu dans la chambre ? Answer: fais

In this part of the section, candidates were only asked to conjugate the verb in brackets. However,
about 15% of the candidates performed well in it.

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The rest did not have the capacity to conjugate the present tense, the future and the past tenses. This
work is simply enough to be taught and mastered in three years. Conjugating verbs helps candidates
in writing correct French sentences.

PART 4

Instructions

Rewrite the following sentences by replacing the underlined nouns with the pronouns given in
brackets and placing them in their correct positions.

Example: -Vous copiez la leçon ? (la)

Answer : vous la copiez ?

Although about 85% of the candidates performed well in this part, questions number26, 30 and 34
were poorly answered by most of the candidates.

PART 5

Instruction

Rewrite the following sentences replacing the underlined words with the ones given in brackets and
making any necessary changes.

Example: Il est infirmier. (Elle) Answer : Elle est infirmière.

The candidates were asked to do two things: - replace the underlined word with the one in brackets
and make any other necessary agreement in the sentence. It has to do with the nouns, adjectives and
pronouns in the masculine or feminine. About 60% of the candidates managed to pass in this
section. The problem of the candidates in this section was complete misunderstanding of the
instructions given. They did not also understand that there should be agreement between the nouns
and pronouns. Most candidates only replace the underlined word, but they don't know which words
should be changed to masculine or feminine.

PART 6

Instructions

Complete the answer to the following questions by using the negating particles given in brackets.

Example :- Elle a travaillé dur Answer : Elle n’a pas travaillé dur.

This part of section A is where most candidates scored the poorest marks. About 93% of them
performed below expectation. They were unable to place the negative tag in the correct position.
This part of the section entails the use of: ne.......pas, ne.....rien, ne.....plus, ne.......personne and
ne………jamais . Most of those who performed poorly were not able to recognize the verb in the
sentence and as a result they don't know where to put the negative tag,

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 It has always been a big challenge for candidates to answer a question in the negative, especially
when the verb is in the perfect tense (passé composé). Example : question number 45 = As-tu une
fois visité Gorée au Sénégal?Answer= Non, je n’ai jamais visité Gorée au Sénégal.This is a tricky
question. French teachers should teach their students on how to change a sentence from positive to
negative.

SECTION B

Instructions

Answer one question only from this section. Your answer should be written in French in the s
pace provided and should not be less than 100 words long.

Question 1

Racontez comment vous avez passé votre dernier anniversaire avec vos amis.

Question 2

Vous voulez devenir président ou présidente de l’association des élèves dans votre école. Dites
comment vous allez faire pour gagner les élections.

Question 3

Vous avez quitté vos parents pour la première fois pour étudier dans une autre ville. Ecrivez une
lettre à ton père ou ta mère pour lui parler de votre nouvelle expérience.

Question 4

Ecrivez une lettre à votre père qui est en France pour lui expliquer pourquoi vous avez choisi
d’étudier les sciences en G10.
This section has always been the most difficult in this paper and has been since the GABECE exam
was introduced. It is also responsible for a lot of failures in French. The candidates could not form
correct simple sentences in French, conjugate properly and use idiomatic expressions and
grammatical agreements in French. Some candidates simply did not attempt the essay or the letter.
Most of them use to reproduce essays or letters they had done in schools which had no relevance to
the topics given. The majority did not even attempt this section. It is also advisable for candidates to
indicate the number of the question which they want to attempt.

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 MAY GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 2 (PROSE & POETRY)

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The questions were simple, direct and compared favorably to those of previous years. The questions
were standard and set from familiar topics of the syllabus. The general performance of the candidates
was dismal, far worse than last years which were the covid year. Various factors could be responsible for
this poor performance.

 Lack of seriousness on the part of the candidates.

 Poor quality teaching.
 Teachers being unable to cover all aspects of the syllabus thoroughly.
 Lack of proper guidance and inability of the candidates to lay hands on the relevant textbook.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

 Although, the overall performance of the candidates might not be an impressive one yet few good
candidates these strengths. About 08% of the candidates understood the questions and answered
them correctly especially in prose.
 About 10% of the candidates exhibited a high degree of legibility and clarity of work which showed
their strengths.
 Few candidates were able to score decent marks in poetry.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

 It was observed that over 60% of the candidates could not adhere to the demands of the questions
and therefore resorted to a lot of narration instead of addressing the questions,
 some candidates had read the set texts and poems but had not really studied them as they are
expected to do.
 About 70% 0f the candidates could not express themselves well in English. Grammar spelling,
remain a serious challenge. In addition, over 40% of candidates could not spell the names of
characters correctly.
 majority of candidates, over 80% attempted questions on either animal farm or the African child. The
other prescribed texts were totally neglected.
 As usual performance in poetry unlike prose was dismal. Over 80% of candidates failed score a
passing grade in this section of the paper. A possible reason could be students were not taught.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Only qualified teachers should teach literature in English.

 Adequate grammatical exercises should be given to candidates on a regular basis.
 Students should have all the prescribed texts.

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  Candidates should be encouraged to read widely so that they will be able to express themselves
clearly.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

SECTION –A AFRICAN PROSE

MARIAMA BA – SOLONG A LETTER

Question 1

Explain the problems of polygamy in “So long a letter”.

The questions on this text were very unpopular. Less than 10 candidates attempted the questions.
Altogether about four candidates attempted this particular question and response was poor. Their essays
were scanty and it appears as if they had never read the text. The answers they gave were erroneous and
scanty failed badly.

Question 2

Describe the characters of Binetou.

Six candidates attempted this question and they performed slightly better. Three of them were able to
give a reasonable account of Binetou’s character with supporting details from the texts. The rest failed to
come up with relevant facts and so could not earn decent grades.

THE AFRICAN CHILD – CAMARA LAYE

Question 3

Describe the character of Camara Laye’s father.

This was a very popular question attempted by over 50% of the candidates. About 20% of the candidates
performed well but the rest did not because instead of describing Laye’s father they focused on the black
snake of their family. The scores ranged from 15 to zero.

Question 4

How they important was the black snake to Camara Laye’s father.

This was also another popular question attempted by about 40% of the candidates. About 25% were able
to come up with relevant points but the rest could not. Most of them only discussed the provision of
guidance by the snake to Camara Laye’s family leaving out the rest of the other vital points. The scores
ranged from 15 to zero.

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NON-AFRICAN PROSE

TREASURE ISLAND ROBERT –L. STEVENSON

Question 5

Comment on the importance of the coracle in “Treasure Island”.

Although it was a straightforward question, vet no one attempted it.

Question 6

Describe the character of Jim Hawkins.

Only three candidates attempted this question and their performance was terrible. It seems as if they
have never read the text. Their essays were between three to four lines long without anything relevant to
the question.

ANIMAL FARM –GEORGE ORWELL

Question 7

Explain any four commandments of animalism.

This was the most popular question on the paper attempted by over 65% of the candidates. This was a
simple and straightforward question that demanded a demonstration of candidate’s knowledge of text.
Only about 20% were able to do justice to the question and obtain good grades. The rest showed a very
shocking and superficial understanding of the text by stating that the commandments of animalism
include the following nonsense.

1) No animal should watch television

2) No animal should put on underwear.
3) No animal should eat pawpaw.
4) No animal should smoke tobacco. etc.

The final scores ranged from 16 to zero.

Question 8

Describe the character of Benjamin.

Only about 10% of the candidates attempted this question. Answered were vague, scanty and irrelevant.
In fact some of the candidates do not know who Benjamin is in the story. One candidate claimed he is a
pig and another dog. The final scores were poor.

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SECTION B (POETRY)

AFRICAN POETRY

Question 9

Describe the appearance of the pauper in “the Pauper”.

This was a fairly popular question attempted by about 30% of the candidates. About 10% of them were
able to score a passing mark but most of them could not give the pauper as it is stated in the poem. Some
answers were vague and irrelevant mixing their facts up with what they know generally about paupers.
The scores ranged from 12 to zero.

Question 10

Describe the passenger in “the taxis of my country”.

This was the most popular question on the paper attempted by over 60% of the candidates. It was a
simple and straightforward question but most of them about 40% misunderstood it. Instead of describing
the passengers some candidates digressed by discussing the interior of the vehicle and the attitude of the
apprentice. Other candidates were also tempted to write about their own personal ordeals as passengers
instead of the situation in the poem. The scores ranged from 12 to zero.

NON-AFRICAN POETRY

Question 11

Why does the poet call the earth friendly in the poem “Beautiful World”?

This was the least attractive of the four questions on the poetry section of the paper. Only about 02% of
the candidates attempted it. The general response was rather poor because sufficient details were not
provided to earn candidates a credits mark. As such only a few managed.

Question 12

Explain why the Daffodils are compared to the stars in the poem ‘The Daffodils’

An attractive question as about 40% of the candidates attempted it. About 15% were able to obtain
between a credit and a weak pass. The rest did poorly because lack of details and poor expression marred
their essays. The scores ranged between 10 to zero.

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 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
LITERATURE- IN – ENGLISH 1B

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

As the first in the new textual syllabus, this year’s paper was reasonably fair and conformed in many
ways to the expected standard and patter. However, by a strange coincidence, three of the essay
questions (5, 7 and 8) shared the same material base for their answers. Thus, although differently
worded, they were actually repetitive. This was reflected in the answers of all the candidates.
Otherwise, the paper fitted adequately within the level of proper understanding for averagely prepared
candidates.

This year’s performance was comparatively weaker than the previous years. Over 60% of the
candidates were either unprepared or inadequately prepared. The marks were generally low in both in
context and essay questions. However, the well- prepared candidates (minority) showed clear mastery
and much promise in their performance.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The general performance of the candidates was manifested from question 1 to 4, almost 60% of the
candidates scored higher marks. The candidates were able to expressed themselves in grammar,
spellings etc. it was generally better compared to other sections and candidates who scored lower
markers was as a result of either they did not read the book thoroughly or did not understand the
questions.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Slightly over 20% of all the candidates showed average or better understanding of the questions,
scoring 20 or more out of the 40 marks for the paper. A little above 35% of all the candidates
manifested some (but less than average) understanding of the questions, scoring 15-19 out of the total
40 marks. Almost all these candidates showed, in varying degrees, inadequate knowledge of the text
over 40% of the total candidates showed very little or no understanding of either the text or the
question. Over 10% of these candidates either copied only the questions verbatim or wrote practically
nothing on their answer sheets. The general performance was rather weak, notwithstanding, some very
outstanding ones. As a first attempt, fallen exceptional may be anticipated and excused on the grounds
that subsequent performances should be far better.

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4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

This year’s downward performance can be primarily attributed to the initial attempt at the new textual
syllabus. The majority of the candidates manifested inadequate preparation through inaccessibility to
the text.

Any subsequent improvement will be determined by proper and comprehensive understanding of both
text and questions. Also, writing skills should be much improved in term of language, organization of
ideas and length of essays. With these, next year’s performance will be positively different.

5. GENERAL COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Questions 1 – 4

PART I

William Shakespeare: As you Like it.

Answer two questions only from this part.

1. Speaker A: I thank you, Sir, and pray you, tell

me this: Which of the two was
daughter of the duke that here
was at the wrestling

Speaker B: Neither his daughter, if we

judge by manners.

Act 1: Scene 2 lines 269 – 272

a) Who are the speakers?

b) Who is Le Beau in the play?
c) Where are the speakers?
d) Which duke is referred to here?

2. Sweet are the uses of adversity

Which like the ugly toad and venomous
Wears yet a precious Jewel on its head
And our life exempt from Public haunt
Finds tongues in trees, books in the running brooks

Act 2: Scene 1 lines 12 – 16

a) Who is the speaker?
b) Who is the speaker addressing?
c) Where is the speaker?
d) What does the expression “Public haunt” mean?
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3. .......... one inch of delay more is a South Sea
of discovery. I Prithee tell me who it is quickly
and speak apace. I would thou coldest stammer
that thou might’s pour this concealed man out
of thy mouth as wine comes out of a narrow
mouthed bottle.

Act 3: Scene 2 lines 200 – 205

a) Who is the speaker?
b) Who is being addressed?
c) Who is the concealed man?
d) What device is used in the underlined expression?

4. If that an eye may profit by a tongue

Then should I known you by description
Such garments and such years. This boy is fair
of female favor, and bestows himself
like a ripe sister.

Act 4: Scene 3 lines 88 – 91

a) Who is the speaker?
b) Who is the person being addressed?
c) Who is the other person present?
d) State the underlined figure of speech in the last line.
The general performance here was fair in terms of the whole paper per se. over 60% of all the candidates
scored the higher or only in this section. However, this was far below exception as a good majority failed in
this section. Also the performance here was far weaker than previous years. There was much evidence of
ignorance and unfamiliarity with the text. Again, such negative aspects should be anticipated and excused in
a first, experimental attempt.

Essays

Question 5

Explain the theme of brother against brother in the play.

This was the most popular question (attempted by over 50% of the candidates). It also provided many of the
good answers. The question requires concentration on two separate families- royal and ou Bios families.

(a) Royal Family

The younger brother Fredrick seizes and attempts to consolidate power from his brother (the
incumbent).
1) The overthrows his elder (Duke Senior), makes himself duke and chases Duke Senior out of the
dukedom.

22
 2) The Duke Senior flees to the Arden forest, accompanied by his loyal courtiers. They take refuge
there without making any attempt to regain power.
3) Duke Frederick next chases out the youngsters Orlando, and Rosalind (accompanied by Celia)
whose radiant talents and popularity he considered threatening to his position. These refugees,
like Duke Senior, remain peacefully in the Arden forest without attempting to return to the
dukedom.
4) Still feeling insecure, Duke Frederick first sends Oliver and next Advances himself into the
Arden forest to attack the fugitives.
5) Instead of fighting in the forest, he is converted into holiness, reconciles with his brother and
hands his rightful throne to him.
About 20% of these candidates discussed, at least, three of these points in varying degrees of
reasonable Language, relevant details, organization and lengths. Another 35% of these
candidates discussed two or less of these points in less than average degrees of standard and
quality. The remaining candidates (over 40%) wrote very little or no relevant material in very
brief lengths (10 lines or less) of narrations. This question was popular but far less well
answered.
(b) The Du Bios Family

Here also, we notice a rather bitter few between the two Du Bios brothers, Oliver and Orlando,
which is finally settled in the Arden forest. The main points here are as follows.
1. The elder brother- Oliver’s dislikes, envy and ill-treatment of his younger brother, Orlando
against their late father’s instructions.
2. Orlando’s bitterness which causes physical confrontation, between them in old Adam’s presence.
3. Oliver’s failed conspiracy with Charles to eliminate Orlando during the wrestling contest.
4. Orlando’s flight with old Adams to the Arden forest following a rumoured plan of Oliver’s to
burn his sleeping place at night.
5. Oliver’s attempt (in conspiracy with Duke Fredrick) to attack Orlando in the Arden forest.
(c) Reconciliation between the brothers and following Orlando’s defense of Oliver from an attacking
lioness.
(d) Marriages of the brothers to Celia and Rosalind.

About 20% of these candidates treated three or more of the above points in well balanced essays with
reasonable details, organization and lengths. Some 35% of the candidates discussed two or less points in
lower than average degrees of standard and quality. Over 40% (the remainder) of the candidates very
little or no relevant material in the form of very brief narrations, again, this was the most popular
question but it was not so well answered.

23
 Question 6

What advantages did Rosalind enjoy as a result of her disguise?

This was a far less popular (attempted by about 30% of the candidates. This answer was marred by
too many brief and inaccurate narrations. Also, there was too much confusion over the names of the
characters e.g. Rosalind and Celia, Graymede and Aliena, Orlando and Oliver, Sylius and Phoebe
etc.

1. The disguise enhanced the success of the joint escape attempt from the dukedom. The
disguised fugitives landed safely at the Arden forest where they settled down to simple
peaceful lifestyle.
2. It enables Rosalind to develop and consolidate her love for Orlando fully for their union as
well as the union between Oliver and Celia.
3. It enables her to play the role of match-maker to different couples which lead to the four
weddings in the Arden forest, Silvius and Phoebe, Touchstone and Audrey, Celia and Oliver
and above all, Orlando and herself.
4. Through the disguise, Rosalind becomes a wise male teacher and adviser to those she assists
especially Silvius, Phoebe and Orlando.
5. The disguise enables her to secretly maintain a dignified elevation in the Arden forest until she
meets and reunites with her exiled father (Duke senior) who gives her away in marriage as the
female Rosalind.
Less than 20% of these candidates discussed, at least, three of these points in the proper
manner of details organization language length etc. about 30% treated two or less of the points
in varying lesser degree of standard and quality. The remaining candidates provided very weak,
brief and inaccurate accounts. The question was neither popular nor well answered.

Question 7

Comment on the family feud in the play.

Question 8

Explain Frederick’s struggle for power.

Question 7—some answered as question 5

Question 8—some answered as question 5 (Royal Family)

24
GENERAL
SUBJECTS
 GABECE (SC) 2021
RÉSUMÉ OF CHIEF EXAMINERS’ REPORTS
GENERAL SUBJECTS

1. STANDARD OF THE PAPERS

The Chief Examiners for Christian Religious Education, Islamic Studies and Social and
Environmental Studies reported that the standard of the papers were within the syllabus coverage and
it was also within the level of the candidates who sat to the examination. In spite of the challenges
posed by COVID 19 pandemic, the performance of candidates had improved slightly compared to the
previous year (2020).
2. CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

The Chief Examiners reported that the performance of candidates improved slightly in Christian
Religious Education, Islamic Studies and Social and Environmental Studies. The major improvement
as they observed was realized in Islamic Studies.

3. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiners highlighted the following strengths:

 The ability of candidates to express their answers clearly and systematically in Christian
Religious Education.
 Candidates demonstrated good understanding of the Quran, Tawheed and Fiqh.
 Rubrics were strictly followed in Social and Environmental Studies and Islamic Studies
 Candidates demonstrated the ability to analyze data in Social and Environmental Studies.

4. CANDIDATES WEAKNESSES

The following were some of the weaknesses highlighted by the Chief Examiners:

 Non-adherence to the rubrics in Christian Religious Education

 Poor expression and difficulty of spelling common words associated with Social and Environmental
Studies
 Lack of clear understanding of the questions by candidates in Christian Religious Education
 Poor performance of candidates in Sunnah/Hadith in Islamic Studies

5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Candidates should be guided by teachers to follow the rubrics as demanded by the question(s)
in Christian Religious Education.
 Islamic Studies teachers should be trained to enhance their proficiency in English Language
 Use of recommended textbooks for teaching and learning

A
 Encourage team teaching for Social and Environmental Studies to ensure proper coverage of
the broad syllabus
 Teachers, principals and cluster monitors should read the Chief Examiners Reports and
implement the recommendations.

B
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
CRE2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The 2021 GABECE serves as a healing period for schools and candidates as they were trying to go
through COVID.

Despite the COVID challenges, the council struggles to organize and conduct the exams after there
was a reduction in the risk of COVID contraction.

The 2021 GABECE was fairly set which cut across the syllabus. The language used was simpler and
understood in which 1334 Candidates were registered country wide. The variety of questions makes
many to choose those that they could write best on.

Some candidates wrote extremely well and stated the facts as expected. Their language is simple and
captivating to the reader for they follow the instructions, writes neatly and points are unique most
especially at lessons. Some use real life situations.

Despite the variety, some students failed to follow the instructions on the paper. Some answers more
questions than asked. Some only focus on the Old Testament in which all the questions on that
section are attempted. Others do not answer the required number in both sections but sometimes
attempt one in section A or B and sometimes none in a section. With these wrong attempts, the
candidates will gain less or no mark depending on what he/she writes.

2. CANDIDATES’STRENGTHS

 The candidates were well informed or well prepared for the paper as they express themselves
freely and clearly as seen in the answering of questions attempted.
 They also outlined their work systematically that ease the reading and reduce the amount of time
taken to read
 Another strengths realized in the scripts are the facts that the candidates stated in their scripts.
The facts were jotted down clearly.
 Again the most interesting thing realized is the uniqueness of some candidates writing as their
language is not copied but from the candidates themselves
 Some candidates stuck to the questions asked and do not derail as some do in their writing

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

 Some candidates write on a different story as in question nine (JESUS EATS THE LAST
MEAL WITH HIS DISCIPLES) IN part C. Some students especially Catholics lift it up from the
mass recitation.
 Also some students attempted only part of section A and left section B blank.
 The issue of illegibility is always surfacing on the scripts.

25
  Some candidates will answer all of section A and would not attempt section B which will only
attract two marks in section A.
 There are others who only copy the questions without answers been inserted.
 There are some who miss narrate the stories attempted especially in question 9 when Jesus eats
his last meal with his disciple.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 To help candidates to stick to the story asked during their preparations.

 To train candidates to write legibly for easy reading.
 Setters to be mindful of unfamiliar stories such as Amos in question 6.
 Candidates to be familiar with the instructions before attempting the questions as many do not
follow the rules.
 The time for the exams should be well calculated to allow examiners to have time to work on the
schools work as this year was hard up for examiners because it confided with end of year exams.

5. DETAIL COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

THE CREATION

Question 1

(a) What was the nature of the earth when God began his work of creation?

(b) (i) What was moving about over the water?

(ii) What did God use in his creation activities?
(iii) Which elements were created on the:
a) First day?
b) Second day?
c) Third day?
d) Fifth day?

(c) Describe the creation of man and state what happened after.
(d) Why was the seventh day different from the other days?

This has been a familiar story. Most of the candidates attempted it and some answered it correctly.
Some missed the days of creation, but it was well answered

SONS OF ADAM AND EVE

Question 2.

1. (a) Who were Cain and Abel?

(b) What were their occupations?
26
 (c) What happened after their sacrifices?
(d) What was Cain’s reward?
(e) State two lessons that could be learnt from the story.

This story too was well attempted though some mixed the occupation of Cain and Abel. The lessons
too is also difficult to be identified

THE FLOOD

Question 3

(a) (i) State two things that the Lord did to end the flood.

(ii) How long did it take for the water to go down?

(b) Where was Noah during the flood?

(c) (i) What did Noah first send out and what happened?
(ii) What did Noah send the second time and what happened?

(d) (i) State two blessings Noah received after the flood.
(ii) State one thing God forbade Noah from doing.
The flood is partly answered because some are not able to distinguish the birds sent at different
times. Also, the mentioning of rainbow is frequent which was not asked.

ABRAHAM IS PROMISED A SON

Question 4

(a) (i) At which holy tree did the Lord appear to Abraham?
(ii) Where was Abraham sitting at that time?
(iii) Narrate what Abraham said and what he did.

(b) What did Abraham give his visitors as food?

(c) (i) What promise did the visitors make to Abraham?

(ii) What was Sarah’s reaction to the promise?

In this story, candidates do not spell out Abraham’s encounter with the strangers. Equally the food
served by Abraham is not quite stated.

27
 CROSSING OF THE RED SEA

Question 5

(a) When the king of Egypt was told that the Israelites had escaped, what happened?

(b) (i) How did the Israelites react when they saw the king’s people?
(ii) What were they told after this reaction?

(c) (i) State the Lord’s instructions to Moses and his people.
(ii) Narrate what happened when Moses carried out the instructions he was given.

(d) What lesson did the Israelites learn after what they saw?

Few attempted it but could not spell the reaction of the king when the Israelites escaped. Also at the
crossing of the red Sea the facts were limited because went onto writing Moses experience with the
burning bush

AMOS’ CALL FOR REPENTANCE

Question 6

(a) Write down the funeral song that Amos sang for the people of Israel.
(b) What did the Lord say to the people of Israel concerning their soldiers?
(c) (i) What did Amos urge the people to do?
(ii) What did he say will happened if they failed to do what he told them?
(d) How did Amos describe the mightiness of the Lord?

(e) What lesson could be learnt from Amos’ message?

This is the least answered question and the least scored. The question seems not familiar to candidates.
There is no one that stated the facts as asked in the question. The most unanswered part was the song
of repentance.

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 SECTION B

JOHN THE BAPTIST SENT MESSENGERS TO JESUS

Question 7

(a) (i) Where was John when he sent messengers to Jesus?

(ii) What information was he looking for from Jesus?
(ii) Narrate Jesus’ reply to John’s messengers?

(b) Who did Jesus say John was as stated in the scriptures?

Complete the following sentences.

(c) Jesus also told the crowd that John was Elijah __________________________

(d) “Then what did you go out to see? A prophet?” “Yes ______________________”

In this question many were able to state the required facts especially Jesus’ answer to the messengers.
The part that seems disturbing is the last part where Jesus talked of John the Baptist equating him to
Elijah and his mission as a Herald.

TEACHING ABOUT THE KINGDOM

Question 8

(a) Narrate the parables of the:

(i) Hidden treasure;
(ii) Pearl;
(iii) Net.

(b) What will happen at the end of age?

These parables are mixed up by many. Some will start correctly but will divert to another story
especially the parable of the pearl and the hidden treasure. The parable of the net was explicitly
answered but the last part which is the last day was missed by many.

JESUS EATS HIS LAST MEAL WITH HIS DISCIPLES

Question 9

(a) (i) What did Jesus tell the disciples while they sat down to eat?
(ii) How did the disciples react to what Jesus said?

29
 (b) Narrate what Jesus said to the disciples after they asked him questions.

(c) Describe what Jesus did with the bread and cup of wine.

It has been a famous story most especially those Catholic Church goers. This is in relation to the
substantiation. Many got the facts right while others narrated on the passion of Jesus. It was brilliantly
answered by many who attempted it. On the B part of it many could not state the reaction of the
apostles when Jesus mentioned that one of them will betray him.

THE RESURRECTION OF JESUS

Question 10

(a) Name the two women who visited Jesus’ tomb.

(b) When did the women visit the tomb?
(c) How did the angel calm the women’s fears?
(d) What message did the angel give to the women?
(e) Describe how Jesus appeared to the women and how they reacted.
It is a famous narration. Candidates got some of the facts in the first part but the second part was not
satisfactory as the reply by the angel and of Jesus' appearance was not clearly stated. The meeting of Jesus
with his disciples on Galilee is never stated and the wishing of peace by Jesus to the women is also missed
out.

LIFE AMONG EARLY BELIEVERS

Question 11

(a) State three ways in which the early believers of the Christian community lived.

(b) What did Joseph the Levite from Cyprus do?

(c) (i) What was the relationship between Ananias and Sapphira?
(ii) How did they go against the practices of the early believers?

(d) What two lesson could be learnt from the story?

Very interesting story ever answered. Many candidates were able to state the required facts especially the
issue of Ananias and Sapphira. There are some who narrated the appointment of the seven deacon and their
service of food distribution. The last part of the question is not clear as the duo went against the principles of
the believers as some stated the punishment of Ananias and Sapphira.

30
 PHILIP AND THE ETHIOPIAN OFFICIAL

Question 12

(a) “Get ready and go south to the road that goes from Jerusalem to Gaza”.
(i) Who was speaking to Philip?
(ii) What further instructions did Philip receive and from whom?

(b) What was the person that Philip met doing and what question did Philip ask him?

(c) What question did the person ask Philip and what was his reply?

(d) (i) What request did the person make to Philip when they reached a certain place?
(ii) What happened when they reached the place?

(e) (i) How did Philip and the official part?

(ii) Where did Philip find himself after they parted?
(iii) What did Philip do after this?

The story was partly narrated as many do not state the encounter of Philip and the official. The
instruction by the angel to Philip, the instruction by the angel, the conversation of Philip and the
official, the separation of Philip and the official and the final destiny of Philip and the place where he
continued his work are all not clearly stated as expected. The facts were scanty.

31
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
ISLAMIC STUDIES 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
Generally, the standard of the paper this year was reasonable, and any serious candidate would be
able to have a good score. Questions were really the reflection of the content of the syllabus.

We noticed some major improvement in the performance of the candidates in different parts of the
country. There are centers in up country which the range of passing scores would be between fifty
and sixty five percent of candidates. This shows that more than fifty percent of candidates who sat to
this Examination were able to pass.

It is no longer the case that only Greater Banjul schools and some private schools performed better
than schools in other zones, in this Examination. The performance of candidates in different regions
has this year, shown a remarkable improvement. However, this should not mean that the efforts of
teachers can be relaxed. This, in fact should be a motivation and encouragement for both teachers
and students to accelerate, enhance and consolidate this improvement in these regions. This new
development may be attributed to certain factors some of which are:

 Islamic teachers in different schools now communicate better in English Language.

 The materials such as Islamic books are now available in most schools.
 Some more effective monitoring system for teachers might have been used.
 Teachers are better motivated to improve their performance.
 Teachers are now more familiar with the Islamic studies syllabus.
 May be lesser use of mobile phones and social media in the rural areas has benefited candidates in
these zones.
Authorities in the Department of State for Education, principals, and teachers in general should come
together to consolidate these new gains so that the rate of passes will be on the high side.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
The performance this year in the Qur’an was good especially in question number three where the
translation of the Surah was required. Tawhid also attracted fairly good performance notably in
question number six and Fiqh in question number eight. As for Morals (AKHLAQ), the candidates
did very well in question number twelve. They manifested their profound knowledge of the topic.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

They poorly performed in the question dealing with Sunnah/Hadith. Candidates find it difficult to
give even a simple definition of Sunnah. They could have said that Sunnah is the deeds or practices
of the Prophet and that is considered to be a correct definition of Sunnah. Only with this simple
expression they could have scored some marks. Their performance on the questions dealing with
Sunnah/ Hadith was not impressive.

32
 Candidates seemed to be strong only in the memorization of some verses of the Qur’an but when it
comes to the understanding of these verses their weaknesses become clearly visible. In fact, this was
the case in question number four. Candidates who attempted this question were less than ten percent
of the total number and the scores were extremely poor. Candidates also failed to do well in question
five due to lack of understanding of the processes of funeral prayers.

Quite few candidates were able to make any significant scores on question number eleven. Most of
them limited their answers to cutting of the hand of the thief as if that is the only punishment that
should be given to a thief.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
To improve the performance of our candidates in the GABECE Examination the following is
needed:

 The Islamic books which directly deal with the syllabus must be supplied to students in all
schools
 Teachers need to be trained in English Language.
 The contact hours for Islamic teachers should be increased.
 Only well qualified Islamic teachers should be appointed.
 Coverage of the syllabus should not be compromised.
 More efforts are needed to give students a detail explanation of Fiqh in all schools to minimize
such weakness in Fiqh among students in different schools.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1

(a) Define Tafsir

(b) Highlight the significance of Tafsir in the life of Muslims.

This question was not popular among the candidates. Consequently, they scored very poor marks on
it.

However, definition of Tafsir is easier than bringing the significance of Tafsir as required in the
second part of the question and this was shown in their answers. Ninety percent of those who made
any score did so in the definition of Tafsir. A simple statement such as, Tafsir is the translation of the
Qur’an can be a correct answer for part (A) of the question. It could even be that Tafsir is the
interpretation of the Qur’an and will still be a valid point. This part of the question is not difficult
and any candidate could have scored all five marks allocated to it, but it seems that most of them did
not have any knowledge on the significance of Tafsir.

The part (B) of the question was attempted by few candidates and only about 15% of them. And only
3% of them scored any mark in part (B) of the question.

33
Question 2

Outline six benefits of Sunnah to Muslims.

Question number two was poorly attempted, and the scores were in the range of 20% to 25%. The
challenge faced by many of the candidates is to know that Sunnah and Hadith cannot be
distinguished. They have the same function and cannot be separated. Those who understand the
relation between the two performed better. The requirements of the question are really wide opened;
beginning with Sunnah is the source of Islamic law, gives historical events, teaches the treatment of
Non-Muslims in Islam and ending with Sunnah explains the meaning of the Qur’an. The greater
number of candidates did not understand the question and therefore performed very poor but a small
number of them have done relatively well.

Question 3

Translate SuratulAsr into English.

This question was attempted by a large number of candidates and their performance was very
outstanding. Eighty percent of candidates answered this question and up to seventy-five of them
scored high marks. The Surah is short and therefore easy to translate. Despite the high scores on this
question, there were some candidates who did not understand the requirement of the question. This
group of candidates could not distinguish between translation and transliteration of the Surah. They
went on giving the full transliteration of the text of the Surah in place of translation and that made
them miserably failed in their attempt.

Question 4

List five lessons of SuratulAsr

The number of candidates who attempted question four was less than fifteen percent and the
performance of these ones was really poor. It was a surprise to many examiners that almost up to
ninety percent of candidates could not score its pass mark because the requirement was really within
the scope of the syllabus. The main requirements of the question were

. The Surah is the Makkan Surah.

. Allah may swear on anything.

. A Muslim should always say the truth.

. We should advise others to do good.

. We should be patient and encourage others to be patient.

Anyone who translated the Surah, should have been able to bring these points because they are the
reflection of the meaning of the surah.

34
 SECTION B

FIQH AND TAWHEED

Answer at least one question from this section

Question 5

Explain how funeral prayer is performed

The number of candidates attempted this question was in the range of fifty to sixty percent. This
group was able to mention certain valid points such as, the prayer has no Ruku, has no Sujud, has no
Iqaamah and has four takbirs. They were hardly able to go beyond these points. Exceptionally few
candidates were able to state other details of the prayer. Points like recitation of Fatihah after the first
takbir, saying salaatualaanabi after the second takbir, praying for the dead after the third takbir and
general prayer after the fourth takbir. All these are points that were absent from ninety percent of
answers of the candidates.

Question 6

(a) Name the books revealed to each of the following prophets

(i) Musa
(ii) Dawud
(iii) Essa
(iv)Muhammed

(b) State four other names of the holy Qur’an

Question number six was widely attempted and successfully answered by more than eighty percent
of the candidates. They were able to mention all the books revealed to the four prophets as well as
giving the names of these prophets. This question was the only question on Tawhidon which their
performance was indeed impressive.

They were also able to state the other names of the Holy Qur’an which are as follow:

1. Furqan

2. Kitab

3. Huda

4. Tanzil

5. And many other names.

Over eighty percent of candidates had scored high marks on question number six but still there was
nearly twenty percent of them who had performed poorly and scored extremely low marks. We

35
observed that these candidates who performed poorly on question number six generally did not do
well on other questions.

Question 7

Highlight the conditions that must be satisfied before embarking on Hajj.

Question number seven was not very popular with candidates and the few who attempted it did not
perform well. Those who attempted question number seven were between twenty and twenty five
percent but eighty percent of this number did not make any significant scores.

This question is naturally easy. It is one of the questions that might be considered as general
knowledge. The conditions of Hajj is publicly discussed in many forums and the media. It is dealt
with every day by the preachers over Radios, TVS and sermons in different mosques.

The following are the most prominent conditions before embarking on Hajj:

a) Intention
b) Being a Muslim
c) Being healthy
d) Having financial means
e) Being free from debt
f) Having enough security

This question was largely avoided by overwhelming majority of candidates which is really a surprise
to many examiners.

Question 8

State any five spiritual benefits of fasting

As many as fifty percent of candidates tried to answer question number eight and the rate of success
in their attempt indeed was high. They were able to bring many relevant points which were part of
the requirement of the question. The most noted points brought by candidates were fasting;

. creates unifying purpose among Muslims

. Brings a Muslim closer to Allah

. promotes good health

. erases sins

. reduces tendence of greed.

Generally, those who opted for this question were able to score very good marks. It was naturally
expected that the performance of candidates would have been much better because of their relation
with fasting in the month of Ramadan which is a big occasion in our Muslim society.

36
 SECTION C

TARIKH AND AL-AKHLAQ

Answer at least one question from this section.

Question 9

Explain the conditions of women in Arab society before Islam

Question number nine was well attempted, and they made a very impressive scores but mainly in
three points only such as, women were maltreated, women were divorced without reasons and baby
girls were buried alive. These three points were handled by almost every one of them. Many scored
the pass marks, but the similarity of points makes the quality of their answers somehow inferior.
There were other points that could have been mentioned added to the three points repeatedly written
in their answers. Theses ones are:

. women were not allowed to inherit

. Unlimited polygamy

. Women could be inherited by elder son of the husband

. Disrespect and misused of women in the Arab society.

Question 10

What are the responsibilities of Muslims towards disabled people?

The majority of candidates have some ideas of the requirements of question number ten. They were
able to bring some relevant points into their responses. Some of them failed to give minimum points
that would have allowed them to make reasonable scores.

The question demands general knowledge to score good marks.

We live with the disabled people and know their needs and it is our responsibility as society to be
conscious of these needs. We guide them when guidance is needed. We give them information when
is required or necessary. We should provide convenient facilities for them to feel comfortable. These
points were completely absent from their answers. However, they were generally able to list the most
basic requirements of the question, such as:

. they must be supported

. they must be respected

. we must be kind to them

. we must have sympathy for them

37
All these are other relevant points that would make them to score the pass mark.

Question 11

Highlight the Islamic punishment for the act of stealing.

Question number eleven was not understood by the majority of candidates and that has caused them
a poor performance on this question. The question was too difficult for most of the candidates to
score good marks. Fifty percent of them could not go in their answers beyond cutting off the hand of
the thief. Some of them were able to make other points such as, cutting the left hand if the act is
repeated, cutting the right leg if repeated for the third time and cutting of the left leg if the act is
repeated for the fourth time.

Only fifteen to twenty percent of candidates were able to score the required pass mark of this
question.

Question 12

Explain the Islamic teaching on modesty in dress and behaviour.

This question was easy and needs only general knowledge to answer it. The options are widely
opened. When it comes to modesty in dress, the difference between good and bad dress is obvious.
Short, tight, transparent and too long dresses are bad dresses in Islam. As for behaviour, Islam has
recommended sets of behaviours that a Muslim should observe and these are:

- not urinating in streets

- not insulting

- not quarrelling in public

- greeting other Muslims and return their greetings

- lowering their gazes.

A big number of candidates attempted question number twelve but very few made significant score.

38
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
SES 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The 2021 Social and Environmental Studies Examinations (Paper 2) was set at the required
standard and covered about 80% of the examination syllabus.

This year’s examination was the second conducted at a time when the country was hit by the
second and third waves of the COVID 19 Pandemic. In spite of this, it was observed that overall
performance of candidates improved marginally (2%) compared to last year (2020).

The Ministry’s early intervention (in 2020) through the delivery of virtual lessons during the
lockdown helped in mitigating loss time in lesson delivery. In 2021, in addition to virtual lessons,
schools were allowed to reopen with reduced class sizes and additional Saturday classes were
organized for pupils to cover the stipulated contact hours.

The face to face delivery helped in 2021 exams and improved students’ performance.

2. CANDIDATES STRENGTH

 About 25% of the candidates strictly followed examination rubrics and presented their work in
a legible form.

 About 30% of the candidates who sat to this examination scored 35% of the overall marks.
This is a significant improvement in performance compared to the precious years.

 About a 15% of the candidates demonstrated their abilities to correctly analyze data as required
by some of the questions.

3. CANDIDATES WEAKNESES

 Poor expression was common – 25% of the candidates demonstrated some level of inability to
correctly express themselves in the English Language. Some of the candidates wrote the words
lack of when they meant inadequate.

 10% of the candidates had difficulty in spelling words of common usage in the Social and
Environment Syllabus. Words like dumb were written as dump other examples of wrongly
spelt words are; tree and not tress,’British’ and not ‘Biritish’,libation not liberation, cheap
and not cheep.

 Poor mastery of the subject matter was evident. This is probably due to inadequate coverage of
the syllabus.

39
4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Teachers should penalize candidates for poor expression and wrong spelling in all forms of
school assessment.

 The School Heads should encourage teachers and Cluster Monitors to read the Chief
Examiner’s Report and follow the advice given by supporting teachers to take note and
implement the recommendations.

 The School Administration with the support of Department Heads should encourage team
teaching at school and Custer level with the support of Cluster Monitors. The SES Syllabus is
broad and teaching it satisfactorily will require the support of other teachers.

 SES books being used in school should be reviewed periodically by the CRED for useful
inclusion of current information.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTION

SECTION A:

TRADITIONAL SOCIETY AND CULTURE IN THE GAMBIA.

Questions

a) The ethnic group in which slaves could hold political power was ________________________
b) Inheritance in traditional Mandingo Society was________________________________________
c) Name the founder of the Za dynasty of Songhai Empire.
d) State one function of the wood carvers in Gambian society.-------------------------------------------
e) Name any two states that were part of the Kaabu kingdom.
f) The “balafon” is a musical instrument associated with the
ethnic group.
g) Mention one taboo associated with pregnant women and give its interpretation.
h) Name two ceremonies in the Gambia that have both traditional and religious rituals.
i) The act of pouring water or alcohol on the ground for a special prayer is called
j) Name the Christian denomination that first introduced Western Education in The Gambia.
k) Name two means of traditional communication in pre-colonial Gambian society.
l) Which sacred place of worship is found in Brufut? ______________________________
m) “Faano” is to Mandinka as “Malaan” is to ______________________________________
n) Outline one benefit of the trans-Saharan trade to the people of Western Sudan.
o) The European nation that started the abolition of the Atlantic Slave Trade is
p) Name any two places where the liberated African Slaves were settled in the Gambia.

40
q) Give one reason for preserving the Wassu Stone Circles in The Gambia.
r) Give any two functions of an Alkalo in Gambian Society.
s) From which foreign language is the term “Findeferr” (Ironware) borrowed?
t) Name one hairstyle in traditional Wollof society.

The Section required candidates to recall facts. Generally, the overall performance of the candidates
was satisfactory, which is an indication that syllabus coverage was satisfactory, and that 30% of the
candidates covered a lot of ground in their studies.

20% of the candidates had problems in spelling words of common usage in the Social Studies
syllabus.

In questions 15, 16 and 17; 10% of the candidates could not figure out what the questions required.
In question 15, the candidates were supposed to give the nation that started the process of the
abolition of the slave trade. About 40% erroneously give British as the answer. In the same vein, in
question 16, 10% of the candidates had an idea of the location where the liberated slaves were settled
but could not correctly spell the names of such settlements.

Only about 10% of the candidates who answered question 17 could correctly give one reason for
preserving the Wassu Stone Circles.

SECTION B:

THE GAMBIAN ENVIRONMENT

Question 21

The quality of farming in The Gambia is highly affected by soil erosion.

(a) Name two types of soil erosion.
(b) Name any two factors responsible for soil erosion.
(c) State any two problems associated with soil erosion.
(d) Suggest two ways to solve each of the problems identified in 21(b) above.

The question was quite popular; about 40% of the candidates opted for it and scored about 30% and
above the total marks allocated to the question. Part of this performance could be attributed to
syllabus coverage by teachers.

21. d. 40% of the candidate could not distinguish the difference between water and wind erosion.
This error could have emanated from the way this topic was taught by the teachers.

Question 22

(a) What is urban growth?

(b) Name four types of settlement based on size.

41
(c) State two problems associated with urban growth.
(d) Outline two solutions to each of the problems identified in 22(c) above.

This was not a popular question. Few of those who attempted it scored low marks. Candidates who
attempted it found it difficult to answer 22 (b).C and d were fairly well done; although some of the
suggested solutions did not relate to answers given in 22 c

Question 23

(a) What is an economy?

(b) State four sources of government revenue.
(c) List the main three types of economic activities.
(d) Give one example of each of the economic activities listed in 23(c) above.

This question was answered by about 50% of the candidates. It required the candidates to recall facts
and those who worked hard to cover the syllabus scored good marks. 10% of the candidates had
difficulty in listing the types of economic activities in 23 c, and as a result the answerers they gave
for 23 d were wrong.

Question 24

(a) What is trade?

(b) Name two types of trade.
(c) State two problems associated with trade in the Gambia.
(d) Outline four benefits of trade to the Gambian people.

This was probably the easiest question this section and was also the most popular. Above 60% of the
candidates opted for it and out of that number 25% scored at least 40% of the marks allocated to the
question.

This could be combination of candidate’s interest in the country’s economy and the level and clarity
of the delivery of the teachers in their teaching.

SECTION C:

SOCIAL, HISTORICAL AND POLITICA DEVELOPMENT OF THE GAMBIA

Question 25

(a) What is transportation?

(b) List two modes of land transportation in The Gambia.
(c) State two advantages of water transportation.
(d) State two disadvantages of water transportation.

This question was answered by about 25% of the candidates. 2% of this number had difficulty in
correctly defining transportation while trying to answer 25 (a). Another 10% defined transportation as
the ’movement of goods and people’ and left out ’services’. Question 25 b, 10% of the candidates

42
 misunderstood ’mode of transportation’ and answers given fell under category of only one mode of
transportation.

Question 25 c (i) and (ii) was generally well done by about 70% of the candidates.

Question 25 d posed problems to some (25%) candidates. They were required to give out the full
names (correctly spelt) of the parastatals and not the acronyms. Some (5%) had difficulty in
correctly naming the parastatals which currently provide transport service in The Gambia. Some of
the candidates wrongly gave answers like Gambia Public Transport Corporation. Teachers should
be abreast with current issues and developments to ensure that right information is given to our
students.

Question 26

(a) Give two main aims of the African Union (A.U).

(b) State any three problems faced by the African Union (A.U) in trying to achieve its aims
(c) Name four member countries of the African Union (A.U) apart from The Gambia.

This was the least popular question. Only 15% of the candidates answered the question.

In trying to answer 26a, 5% of the candidates confused the aims of the OAU and AU. Candidates
(20%) had difficulty in explaining the problems faced by African Union (A.U) in trying to achieve
its aims. This question can only be correctly answered if the (a) part of the question was understood
by the candidates.

The (c) part of the question was answered correctly by 60% of the candidate, but due to the low mark
allocated to the question; the impact on the overall score on this question was minimal.

Question 27
(a) Name two Trade Unions formed in The Gambia before independence.
(b) State two functions of Trade Unions.
(c) List three methods used by Trade Unions to achiever their objectives
(d) Name any two Trade Union leaders in The Gambia.

This question probably took many candidates off guard. Trade Unions /Unionists played a vital role in
the country’s struggle to gain independence and as a result should be given the much-deserved
credence by the teachers.

Unfortunately, few candidates (10%) opted for it, and the majority of them scored below 40%. There
is a lot of documentation on Trade Unions in the National Archives which can easily be accessed by
teachers. Understanding such documents can help to strengthen nationalistic sentiments and lay a
solid foundation of hard work and patriotism in our youths.

43
Question 28

The British adopted a policy of indirect rule in The Gambia.

a) State three effects indirect rule
b) State three reasons for the British adoption of Indirect rule in The Gambia
c) Name two British Colonial governors in The Gambia
d) Mention two problems faced by the British in The Gambia

About 15% of the candidates answered this question. It was the least popular. 10% of the few who
answered this question scored 40% of the overall marks in questions 28 (a), (b) and (d) 10% of the
candidates scored 45% of the marks. 90% of the candidates who answered question 28 (c) had
problems not only in naming the two Governors but also in spelling their names.

This aspect of the syllabus was not given the attention it deserved by the teachers in their lesson
deliveries.

44
MATHEMATICS
SECTION
 GABECE (SC) 2021
RÉSUMÉ OF CHIEF EXAMINERS’ REPORTS
MATHEMATICS

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The Chief Examiner for Mathematics reported that the paper was within the prescribed GABECE
Syllabus and questions were within the knowledge of the candidates. The questions covered wide
range topics in the syllabus. An average candidate had the opportunity to do well.

2. CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

The Chief Examiner reported that the general performance of the candidates was poor. About 40% of
the candidates scored marks ranging from 0 to 5 marks out of the 60 marks allocated to paper 2.

3. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

It was reported by the Chief Examiner that candidates showed good knowledge in solving sets,
inequality, drawing linear graph and application of Pythagoras theorem.

4. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The candidates’ performance was very poor as reported by the Chief Examiners in the following areas:
 Presentation of solutions.
 Ability to read and understand instructions.
 Application of mathematical formula
 Failure to measure correctly and constructions using mathematical instruments.

5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Candidates should read and understand both the instructions and the questions before solving.
 Heads of school should make available the necessary teaching and learning materials in
schools.
 Mathematics teachers should have access to Chief Examiners’ reports. This will help teachers
to identify weakness areas that would require extra or remedial teaching.
 Both teachers and candidates should have access to past papers to ensure familiarity with the
standard of the paper.

A
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
MATHEMATICS 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the mathematics two (2) compared to those of the past years, was fairly easy. The level
of difficulty of the individual questions was good. The questions actually covered a wide range of topics
in the syllabus and significantly tested a good number of basics concepts and skills.

The average candidates availed themselves of the opportunity to give a good account of themselves.
The general performance of the candidates was not encouraging as in the previous years. About 40% of
the candidates scored marks ranging from five to zero.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
Although the general performance of the candidates was not encouraging, there were few very good
scripts with candidates scoring between 45 to 60 out of the 60 marks.

The candidates have demonstrated their liking of topics such as sets, percentages and application of
Pythagoras theorem.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
Candidates’ poor performance was attributed by the following factors;

 Poor presentation of solution;

 Lack of systematic detailed working;
 Inability to correctly use diagrams in answering questions;
 Wrong application of mathematical rules and formula;
 Failure to correctly measure and construct with mathematical instrument;
 Failure to give answers to the required degree of accuracy.
These factors were manifested mostly on topics such as percentage, numbers, bar charts, construction
and inequalities.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
Generally, the questions were quite easy. The printing and the diagrams were clear. There was room for
the average candidates to give a good performance.

However, the general performance of the candidates was still below expectation and needs to be
improved. I would therefore, like to give my humble recommendations as thus.

 Mathematics teachers should:

(i) Teach thorough the area of the syllabus that are difficult to understand as some teachers are in the
habit of dodging difficult to teach areas in the syllabus.

45
(ii) Teach the candidates using simple methods with sole aim of getting rid of the notion that
mathematics is difficult and it is impossible.
 Teachers should constantly preach the culture of reading and understanding the
instructions/question
 during revision time before answering the questions
 Both teachers and candidates alike should have access to WAEC past questions papers to ensure
 familiarity with the standard of the paper.
 Mathematics teachers should have access to the chief examiner’s reports. This will greatly help
the
 teachers to identify areas of weaknesses that would require extra or remedial teaching.
 Teachers should thoroughly research into the topics they are teaching to adequately prepare
before
 teaching the topics. This would enhance free flow of relevant information from the teacher to the
candidates

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1

Simplify:

(a) 3 −2 ÷

. × .
(b)
.

COMMENT

The application of the rule of bodmas was a problem for most candidates. Most candidates straight
away found the L.C.M including the fraction which is out of the bracket which earned them a wrong
solution and eventually a wrong answer.

In the ‘b’ part of the question, most candidates could not change the decimal fraction below to whole
numbers. The few who went a little far could not simplify to arrive at the final answer.

Question 2

In a class of 45 pupils, 20 like dancing, 28 like singing and 2 like neither singing nor dancing.
(a) Show the information above in a venn diagram.
(b) How many pupils like both dancing and singing?

COMMENT

In this question, most candidates were unable to interpret it into a Venn diagram. The four regions were
not properly shown.
46
The ‘b’ part of the question was not properly answered by most candidates, because they could not
equate the sum of the four regions to 45 and find the number of pupils who like both dancing and
singing.

Question 3

A trader bought 2 dozens of mangoes for D200.00. Four of the mangoes got bad and could not be sold. He sold
the rest at D12.00 each. Calculate:
(a) the profit made;
(b) the percentage profit.

COMMENT

This question was fairly attempted by the candidates. However, most of the candidates who attempted
the question lack the ability to interpret two dozen into number of mangoes to correctly find the selling
price which resulted in getting the wrong answer.

In the ‘b’ part of this question, most candidates were able to express their profit as a fraction of the cost
price and multiply by 100 to find the percentage profit.

Question 4

(a)

54°

128°
°

In the diagram above find the value of:

(i) ;
(ii) .

(b) Express 400 g as a percentage of 8 kg.

47
 COMMENT

Most candidates who attempted this question lack the ability to apply properties of parallel lines to
find the values of angles p and q.

In the ‘b’ part of the question, most candidates could not correctly convert kilograms to grams as a
result a wrong solution was presented. How to express 400grams as a fraction of 8kg in grams in an
attempt to further express 400grams as a percentage of 8kg was a problem.

Question 5

14 cm

12cm

The diagram above is an open cylinder with height 12 cm and diameter 14 cm. Calculate:

(a) the total surface area;

(b) the volume.
22
Take =
7

COMMENT

The ‘a’ part of the question was poorly attempted because most candidates do not know the correct
formular to use for the total surface area of a cylinder when open and closed. Most candidates randomly
applied the formular as a result, the final answer was wrong.

The ‘b’ part was successfully answered by most candidates who attempted the question because it has
one unique formular. Therefore, there was no confusion as to what formular to use to find the volume of
a cylinder.

Question 6

Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only, construct quadrilateral ABCD such that

48
 = 7 , = 4.5 , = 5.5 ,∠ = 90° and ∠ = 60°.

COMMENT

This question was poorly attempted because majority of the candidates seem not to know how to
construct a quadrilateral including special angles like 60 o and 90o at their correct position. It needs the
correct use of the pair of compasses which most of the candidates either wrongly used or did not use at
all.

Question 7

(a) Solve the inequality:

−4 + 5 ≥ 2 − 7.

(b) If a = 1, b = 2 and c = 9, find the value of .

COMMENT

Most candidates who attempted this question do not have the ability to collect like terms before solving
for the value of x. The signs against the terms in the inequality were not taken into account which
earned them a wrong solution.

The ‘b’ part was poorly attempted because candidates do not know how to properly substitute the value
of the letters in the expression to find its value. Failure to distinguish between multiplication and
addition was another major problem as a result many answers were wrong.

Question 8

5
If 0<θ<90 and cos θ = , find:
13

(a) sin θ ;
(b) 1 − tan θ.

COMMENT

Candidates lack the ability to use Pythagoras theorem or knowledge of Pythagorian tripplets to find the
opposite side inorder to establish the value of sinꝊ. The correctness of the ‘b’ part depends on the
correct values obtained from the ‘a’ part of the question.

Question 9

The table below shows the frequency distribution of the ages of pupils in a class.

Age 13 14 15 16 17
No of 2 5 6 4 3
pupils
49
(a) Use the information above to draw a bar chart.
(b) What is the modal age?
(c) How many pupils are at least 15 years old?

COMMENT

In this question, most candidates were not able to construct a correct bar chart because they could not
locate the right axes for ages and the number of pupils.

Candidates eventually drew the bar chart with the rectangular blocks facing a wrong direction because
wrong labelling of the axes ‘b’ and ‘c’ parts of the question were fairly answered.

Question 10

The graph on page 7 shows the journey of a car travelling from Serekunda to Bansang and a bus travelling from
Bansang to Serekunda on the same road.

(a) When did the bus leave Bansang?

(b) At what distance from Serekunda did they meet?

(c) Calculate the average speed of the car and the bus.

COMMENT

The nature of the graph showing the journey of a bus and a car, most candidates could not properly read
and interpret the graph to obtain the relevant answer. The horizontal and vertical axes were wrongly
drawn and the correctness of the answers in ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ depends on the proper reading from the
graph.

50
SCIENCES
SECTION
 GABECE (SC) 2021
RÉSUMÉ OF CHIEF EXAMINERS’ REPORT
THE SCIENCE

GENERAL COMMENTS

The Chief Examiners for the Science subjects reported that the papers were appropriate with no ambiguities
and all the questions reflected candidates’ level. The questions were selected from all over the syllabuses.

CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

The Chief Examiners indicated that the performance of candidates in both papers of Agricultural Science
and Physical Education were unsatisfactory, while there was a slight improvement in the Science paper 2.

CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The following strengths were observed by all examiners:

 Some candidates presented sensible and neat answers.

 Ability to interpret the questions well and correct spelling of words.
 Candidates’ ability to answer the required number of questions with in-depth knowledge.

CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The following weaknesses were reported for all the papers:

 Inadequate preparation for examination.

 Wrong spellings and use of words.
 Ineligible handwriting and weak expression of ideas.
 Failure to read and understand the questions well.
 Inability to answer the required number to questions.

SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 More teachers should be adequately trained to be able to teach the subjects, especially the practical
aspects.
 The use of recommended text books and syllabuses should be adhered to.
 Complete coverage of syllabuses and revisions should be encouraged.

A
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
AGRICULTURE SCIENCE 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Generally, the questions were up to standard and at the level of the candidates. The questions
covered general aspects of agriculture, soil science, crop science, and animal science. Compared to
last year, the performance of candidates this year was unsatisfactory. This was attested by all the
examiners. The examiners also acknowledged that the distribution of the questions was both
appropriate and balanced. Items were drawn from all the four sections of agriculture mentioned
above.
From the above question distribution observed, it is important for teachers and students to equally
cover all the branches of agriculture. This will enhance students’ performance.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Despite the weaknesses highlighted above, the following strengths were also observed:

 About 30% of the candidates understood the questions before attempting them.
 40% of the candidates had attempted all the questions.
 About 25% of candidates did not read questions well.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The following are some of the weaknesses observed by examiners:

 Candidates did not read the questions properly.

 Majority of the candidates failed to attempt some questions.
 Some of the candidates found it difficult to spell words properly.
 Some of the candidates could not write their answers appropriately.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The general performance of candidates was unsatisfactory, going through most of the answers
presented, it was clear that 85% of the candidates had problems with the language instruction,
English. In this respect, all the examiners are of the view that:

 The teaching of English language be improved so as to enhance students understanding of

questions and to ensure coherent expressions of ideas.
 All examiners opined that all diagrams be coloured for easy identification.

51
  Students be exposed to practical work through school farms/gardens and field trips.
 Spellings of the main agricultural terms should be taught during lessons.
 The relevant syllabus and text books should be used in schools because all these diagrams are
from The Gambia Agricultural Science Text Book.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1

The diagrams below represent some crops commonly grown in The Gambia.

(iv)
(ii

a) State the group of plants each of the crops above belong to.

This question required candidates to group the crops based on uses. About 70% of the candidates
attempted this question but 50% cannot tackle the question due to the following reasons.

 Spelling errors
 They the crops based on life cycle which is wrong.
 Candidates did not interpret the question properly.

The strength here was that about 40% of the candidates comprehended the question and answered it
correctly, with a legible handwriting.

b) Name the life cycle of each of the crops mentioned in (1a).

This question required the candidates to name the growth cycle of the crops e.g. annuals biennial
and perennials.
52
 About 65% of the candidates were just naming the crops including those that are not even listed in 1a
above. About 10% manage to give the right answer to this question.

c) List two crops from 1(a) above that can be processed into oil.
This question required them to name two crops from the list that can produce oil.

About 70% who attempted it could not answer it correctly while the remaining 30% get the
answer correctly.

Question 2

(a) Briefly define the following terms:

(i) Crop Improvement:

This question was asking the candidates to explain the term crop improvement. This was
standard question, yet candidates could not answer it as expected. They confused the answers
with the definition of animal improvement. About 40% were able to answer it correctly.

(ii) Crop Protection

In this question, it was the same attempt as crop improvement or they inter-change the
answers.

(b) Outline three aims of crop improvement.

The question was asking candidates to mention three reasons or objectives attached to crops
improvement.

About 55% of the candidates who tried this question got it correct.

(c) (i) Name one bacterial disease of banana

(ii) Name one fungal disease of pumpkin

(iii)Name one viral disease of bean

This question required the candidates to name one bacterial, fungal and viral disease of banana
pumpkin and bean respectively. About 75% of the candidates attempted it but scored no points, 20%
skipped it. Only 5% were able to answer it correctly.

Question 3

(a) Identify each of the following farm tools below.

53
 The question required the candidates to identify the tools as pickaxe, axe and hoe respectively.

This was a fair question, about 85% of the candidates attempted it, and out of this about 35% could not
spell the names of the tools properly or identify them properly.

Only 15% were able to answer it correctly.

(b) State the proper use of each tool

Here candidates tend to state the uses of other tools and also give the function of tools e.g. uses of
pickaxe was been given to axe. Only about 30% of the candidates got it right.

(c) State one advantage and one disadvantage of using hand tools.

This question was poorly attempted as only 15% of the candidates were able to state the advantage and
disadvantage of using simple farm tools. The remaining 85% answered it wrongly or left it unanswered.

Question 4

(a) Differentiate between major soil nutrients and minor soil nutrients.

This question asked the candidates what is a major soil nutrient and minor soil nutrient.
About 25% of the candidates who attempted it got it wrong. About 45% left it blank.
Only 30% were able to answer it correctly.

(b) Group the following soil nutrients below into major and minor.

54
 MAGNESIUM, MANGANESE, IRON, PHOSPHORUS, SULPHUR, MOLYBDENUM.

Major nutrients Minor nutrients

(i) (i)

(ii) (ii)

(iii) (iii)

Nutrients – magnesium, manganese, iron, phosphorus, sulphur, molybdenum.

This question asked the candidates to group the elements like phosphorus, magnesium and sulphur as
major elements and iron, molybdenum and manganese as minor elements respectively. About 40% were
able to answer it correctly while, the remaining 60% got it wrong or left it blank.

(c) (i) What is the meaning of N.P.K?

The question wanted the candidates to state the meaning of N.P.K such as nitrogen, phosphorus and
Potassium. About 60% of the candidates were able to state the meaning correctly.

(ii) Name one type of single Nutrient fertilizers.

This question required candidates to name one fertilizer that supplies only one element to crops. About
20% attempted it and got it correct while the remaining 80% got it wrong. That is Urea.

Question 5

The illustration below represents a way of farming, study it and answer questions (a)-- (c)below.

(i) ____________________________________

(ii) ____________________________________
(iii) ____________________________________

(a) Identify the type of farming illustrated above?

55
 (b) Label the areas (i) - (iii) on the illustration

(c) State the significance of this type of farming

This was one of the unpopular questions as it was poorly attempted. The diagram confused the
candidates as they could not identify the type of farming, label the parts, much more to state the
significance of the type of farming. Only 5% were able to answer it correctly.

Question 6

Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follows.

(iii)
(i)

(ii)

(a) Identify the diagram above.

The question required the candidates to name the diagram as skull or skull of any ruminant. About 10%
named it as head of various animals such as sheep, cow, pig, etc. and not skull.

Also 82% of the candidates left it blank. Only 2% of the candidates got it right by identifying it as a
skull of a ruminant.

(b) Label the parts indicated on the diagram (i)- (ii)

(c) Only 2% of the candidates got it right by stated lower jaw, back teeth and front teeth.
(d) State which part of the diagram is used to

(i) cut the grass

(ii) grind the grass

About 5% the candidates were able to answer it correctly. The remaining 95% of the candidates got it
wrong or left it blank.

56
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEIF EXAMINER’S REPORT
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE PAPER 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The questions were standard, straight forward and with little or no ambiguity. Yet the performance of
certain candidates was not the least encouraging. The general performance of the candidates was
average. Despite this, there were candidates that performed exceptionally well while others do not
measure up to expectation. This may be link to the Corona virus pandemic, as it has affected both
contact and instructional hours for almost all schools in the country. Two thousand three hundred
and thirty-three (2,333) candidates scored 40 and above representing (22%) of the total marked
scripts.

2. CANDIDATES’STRENGHTS

Despite the poor performance of most candidates, there were candidates whose performance was
exceptional good. Their performance in all sections was quite commendable. They followed every
instruction given, with clear and legible handwriting, orderly and neatly presentation of work. This is
particularly true for certain questions and some centers. About 40% of the candidates scored above
the average mark of the paper.

3. CANDIDATES’WEAKNESSES

 As observed in past examinations, the problem of reading and understanding the task and the
questions still remain a problem to many of the candidates. A good number of the candidates
could not simply read and understand the instructions and consequently attempted the questions
wrongly. Where it says explain, many candidates were just stating or listing. This is evident in the
candidates’ use of local languages in answering questions and sometimes recopying the questions
in their answer booklets instead of the answers only.
 Another weakness of the candidates, lies in their inability to properly construct simple sentences
with good spellings. This is a major concern as spellings remain a major challenge to most of the
students.
 There was also a problem of candidates’ inability to explain concepts and technical terms used in
agricultural science.
 Candidates also had problems in presenting and organizing facts and ideas.
 . Candidates’ handwriting still remains a great concern as many cannot write legibly.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The following recommendations are suggested to help students in the forthcoming examinations:

57
 The English lessons should encourage early grade reading. Reading should be emphasized at all
levels of the systems especially at early grades. In addition students should be encouraged to write
clearly and legibly.
 Emphasis should be put on animal and crop science as the performance of the candidates indicated
that animal science component was not properly handled.
 The Council should endeavor to increase the payment of examiners and to make it timely.
 Agricultural science should be considered as one of the core subjects taught in schools.
 Agricultural terminologies should not be taught through rote learning. There should be a provision
to practically understand these terminologies. School gardens and orchard should be used to
demonstrate these practices. This will enable students to have a clear understanding of the terms.
 Teachers should from time to time invite experts on various fields of agriculture to help them teach
certain topics as this will help to enhance better understanding for both students and the teacher.
 The Ministry of Basic and Secondary Education should try to reintroduce exams that would be used
as a yard stick for promotion to the next level of education. For example, the then primary school
Leaving Certificate examination and common entrance examination should be reintroduced. This
will help to boost standard of education as teachers, students and parents alike would be more
serious with education.
 Students should be exposed to standard assessment tests and assignments. The daily or weekly
home works and periodical tests should be designed in a way to expose the students to the basic
standard questioning techniques of WAEC. The terms such as state, list, differentiate, illustrate,
explain, etc., should not only be properly explained but be used in the local exams to help students
get familiar with them. They should be trained to follow examination instructions when preparing
them for exams.
 The proper completion and comprehension of the syllabus is an area of great concern. Teachers
should not just gamble with the students to pass exams. The understanding of the syllabus by
students is very important. The required books for the syllabus must be adhered to although
additional reading materials may be used to substantiate. School administrations and the Ministry
of Basic and Secondary Education should ensure that text books that are designed for upper basic
level and written by seasoned teachers should be used by both teachers and students. Only
approved textbooks by the ministry should be allowed to be used in schools as this has created a lot
of confusion for students and subject teachers.

 MoBSE in collaboration with WAEC should organize training workshops for teachers to highlight
and discuss problems encountered in past examinations and to find solutions and ways forward to
those problems.
 Schools should endeavor to share the Chief Examiners’ Reports with all those teaching agricultural
science. The report should also be shared with the incoming candidates. They should be accessible
by anyone at any time.
 Candidates should be taught to always start with answering questions they know best. This attracts
higher marks and saves time.

58
 Examiners have always been faced with the problem of registers, which has always delayed the work
of examiners. To this end, the Council should employ competent supervisors and invigilators who
are well trained in order to take care of this problem.
 Council/ MoBSE should change the mode of invigilation during exams. Instead of using teachers
teaching in a particular school for invigilation, teachers of a particular school should be posted to
another school and pay them allowances.
 Schools administrators should endeavour to organize Parent Teachers Association meetings, to
discuss and analyse the performance of candidates in the past exams, taking into consideration the
problems and recommendations highlighted in the chief examiners report with to map a way forward
together.
 The font size use in typing questions are very small. A font size of 14 should be used. The spaces
provided for candidates to write their answers should be increased for those candidates with big hand
writings and those that may make mistakes and would want to rewrite their answers.
 Experience subject teachers should guide candidates on how to answer questions. For example
candidates’ start with questions they are more comfortable with, writing their names and index
numbers as correctly, among others.
 There should be fair allocation of marks among individual questions. For example the mark
allocation for Question 5 is unfair when compared to any question in Section C. This in fact makes
Section C more demanding than any other section in terms providing answers.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

The most popular questions were 1, 6 and 12. About 92% of the candidates attempted these
questions and from this, 39% were able to score 10 and above especially for 1 and 12. Questions 5,
8, 9, were the least popular questions. About 23% of the candidates attempted these questions and
20% of them scored good marks.

Below is a detailed description of candidates’ performances by question.

Question 1

(a) What is wildlife conservation?

(b) State three benefits of wildlife conservation
(c) Name three) nature reserves in The Gambia

In this question, 93% of all the candidates attempted it. From the number who attempted it,68% of
them scored above 40%of the mark. Some of the candidates had problems in naming nature reserves
instead they were naming the forest parks in the country.

Question 2

(a) Briefly defined agricultural resources

(b) Name five agricultural resources
(c) Briefly describe the following land tenure systems
(i) Communal

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 (ii) Free hold
(iii) Leasehold

67% of the candidates attempted question 2. Out of those who attempted it, 47 % did well, most of
them cannot define either free hold or Lease hold or both.

Question 3

(a) State the difference between commercial and Subsistence agriculture

(b) State one advantage and one disadvantage of both commercial and subsistence agriculture

(c) Suggest two solutions for each of the disadvantages mentioned in 3 (b) above

In question 3(a), candidates found it difficult to match their answers and this had affected the rest of
the questions that followed as all the questions had direct link to each other. For this reason, 58% of
the total candidates who attempted this question scored below average.

Question 4

(a) What is drainage?

(b) State three benefits of drainage
(c) State two methods of drainage

For question four, 46% of all candidates attempted it. From this figure, 37% were able to score
beyond 50%. Most candidates who attempted this question had a challenge in stating the methods of
drainage.

Question 5

(a) State the difference between soil structure and soil texture
(b) Briefly explain why soil structure is important to a farmer
(c) Name the best soil structure for growing crops

Question 5 was attempted by 57% of all candidates. From this number who attempted, 37% got
above average mark for the question. A significant number of candidates differentiate between soil
structure and texture or name the best soil structure for growing crops. The mark allocation for this
question is too high especially part (a) and (b) of the question.

Question 6

(a) What is a rock?

(b) Name three types of rocks
(c) List two examples of each of the rocks mentioned in 6 (b) above

This question was attempted by 68% of all the candidates. From this number, 63% scored 75% of the
mark allotted to the question. A good number that attempted this question had problem in giving
examples of the types of rocks mentioned in 6(b).

60
 CROP SCIENCE

Question 7

(a) (i) State three ways of classifying crops based on life cycle
(ii) Name one crop for each of the classification methods in 7 (a) i

(b) (i) state four methods of crop classification based on product

(ii) Name one crop for each of the crop classification methods in 7(b
(c) (i) State three methods of crop classification based on importance
(ii) Name one for each of the crop classification methods in 7c)i

This question was attempted by 38% of all candidates. Out of this, 28% of them were able to score
45% of the mark. The greatest challenge for candidates that opted for this question was difficulty to
answer all the components of the question.

Question 8

(a) List three factors limiting vegetable production in The Gambia

(b) Suggest one possible solution for each factor mentioned in 8 (a) above
(c) Briefly discuss one method of preservation and storage for tomatoes

Question 8 was attempted by 49% of all candidates. Out of the number, 45% scored 60%.The
challenge for this question was that; quite a good number stated the problems that affect agricultural
development in The Gambia instead of vegetable production. Although the two may be similar in
many aspects but may be different in other aspects. The method used in tomato preservation and
storage was another challenge for candidates.

Question 9

(a) Explain each of the following terms

(i) Spacing
(ii) Staking
(iii) Pruning
(iv) Trimming
(v) Transplanting

(b) Name two crops that needs staking

(c) State the significance for one of the terms mentioned in 9 (a)

35% of the candidates attempted this question. 33% of those who opted for this question, most of them
could not give the right definitions of (I to iv). This affected the subsequent questions that followed.

ANIMAL SCIENCE

Answer one question only from this section

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 Question 10

(a)Briefly explained the advantages of rearing animals as a source of:

(i) Power
(ii) Excreta
(iii) Plant Eating

(b) Briefly describe the following

(i) Amino Acids
(ii) Proteins

(c) Name one source of protein for human beings

29% of all candidates attempted this question. From this number, 27% of the candidates scored 40% of
the mark. This question proves to be one the most challenging questions for candidates, because most
candidates opted for only answered (a) i that is rearing animals as source of farm power. Plant eating
and amino acids are worst answered questions.

Question 11

(a)What is Poultry?
(b)Name five types of poultry
(c)State three ways of rearing poultry in The Gambia

94 % of all candidates attempted this question. From the number who attempted it, 93 % scored 55%
and above. This was one of the most attempted Questions and candidates scored good grades in it.
Generally, all the components of this question were well answered.

Question 12.

(a) The study of the functions of living organisms is____________

(b) State five characteristics of living organisms
(c)Name two types of living things.

This question was attempted by 88% of all candidates. From the number who opted for this question,
92% scored fairly well. A good number of candidates who opted this question could not deal with the
(a) part, but the (b) and (c) parts were well answered by most candidates. In my view, Question 12 (a)
was not well framed. It should be “The study of the functions of organs in living organisms” instead of
“The study of the functions of living organisms”.

62
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
PHYSICAL EDUCATION 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper for GABECE 2021 compared favorably with those of the previous years.
Though, the general performance of candidates in its entirety was appalling, the format of the paper
followed the established pattern. As usual, there is a steady marked increase in the number of
entrants of candidates from year to year. In any case, the possible reason for the candidates’ inability
to perform well centralizes on the true fact that a greater percentage of candidates x-rayed various
forms of weaknesses ranging from wrong spelling of operational terms to lack of adequate
knowledge of the subject. All in all, there was a wide range in the standard of work of candidates
from one centre to another. Above all; only a small number of candidates from few centres
demonstrated familiarity with the repertoire of the requirements of the syllabus; hence, their general
out-put was commendable.

2. CANDIDATES' STRENGTHS

 Candidates from few centres tackled anatomy and physiology questions very well.
 Those who covered the syllabus well presented sensible and well laid out answers.
 On the whole candidates’ handling of questions based on Physical Education were still very
good.

3. CANDIDATES' WEAKNESSES

Unsatisfactory performance of candidates could be attributed to the following:

 The majority of candidates could not grasp the demands of the questions being answered, hence
wrong answers were supplied.
 In quite a number of cases, candidates used pencils instead of the recommended ball-pens to put
across their answers.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

Candidate’s performance shall improve if;

 they are encouraged to develop the habit of reading on their own.

 trained and qualified tutors of Physical and Health Education are employed to handle the subject
at all middle school levels.

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5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDAUL QUESTIONS

Question 1

(a) Name the muscle found:

(i) In front of the upper arm;
(ii) At the back of the upper arm.

(b) (i) Mention two possible movements in the human joints.

(ii) Give two examples of a reflex action.
(c) Mention two parts in the human body where dislocation can occur.
(d) State two ways of keeping the body clean.

This was a popular question answered by over 97% of the candidates. The candidates’ performance
was not generally encouraging. Q. 1 (a), (b) and (c) were not well attempted by the majority of those
that opted for them. Those who scored some marks did so out of guess-work. Besides, most answers
submitted by a greater number of candidates were totally un-academic and grossly obtuse. In any
case, the (d) part of the question was well attempted by the bulk of candidates that opted for it with
reasonable marks.

Question 2

The diagram below is an illustration of an athlete performing an event. Study it carefully and answer
questions 2(a) to 2(d).

(a) Name the activity the athlete in the diagram is performing.

(b) State three features of the event the athlete is performing.
(c) State three similarities between 4x100m and the event the athlete is performing.
(d) State three types of events the athlete in the diagram can perform.

This question was not well answered by the majority of candidates. A greater percentage of those
who opted for the question only scored satisfactory marks as they were simply writing all forms of
wrong answers with the hope of earning some marks.

64
 Question 3

(a) List four facilities that can be used for indoor recreation.

(b) State three activities that can be performed during outdoor recreation.

(c) State three benefits derived from taking part in outdoor recreation.

This was a popular question attempted by slightly above 98% of the candidates. The answers given
by the majority of the candidates were only satisfactory, thus, their scores were on the average.

Question 4

(a) State two ways in which table tennis and badminton games are similar.
(b) Name three lines in a standard badminton court.
(c) State two differences between the playing surfaces of tennis and table tennis games.
(d) List two qualities required of a person performing aquatic activities.
(e) State one safety measure needed during aquatic activities.

A very popular question that attracted unsatisfactory responses from a greater percentage of the
candidates that opted for it. In fact, only (b) and (e) parts of the question attracted excellent responses
from the majority of the candidates that attempted them.

Question 5

(a) State three reasons why the ancient Greek festivals were established.
(b) State three similarities between the ancient and modern Olympic Games .
(c) (i) Name two types of fractures that can be sustained during a martial art activity.
(ii) State two ways of preventing injury when performing a martial art activity.

Another popular question with satisfactory responses from the bulk of the candidates that opted for
it. Indeed, marks were lost due to candidates’ inability to state clearly the reasons why the ancient
Greek festivals were established.

Question 6

(a) List two equipment required in a gymnasium.

(b) List two activities that can be performed on a mat.
(c) Distinguish between a sporter and a spotter in gymnastics.
(d) Distinguish between a pre-game diet and a balanced diet.
(e) State two body disorders that can result from the lack of a balanced diet.

Another popular question attempted by the majority of candidates. Questions 6(a) and 6(b) were
comfortably answered by over 70% of those who attempted them; hence, their scores were good. On
the contrary, question 6(e) was negatively attempted by over 78% of the candidates that attempted it
and their marks were undesirable.

Comments On Difficulty Of The Questions:

65
The questions were well framed and within the confines of the syllabus but they appeared difficult for
the majority of the candidates to tackle because most candidates were not well prepared before the
examination.

Comments On Incorrect Or Ambiguous Questions Or Questions Outside The Requirements Of

The Syllabus
The questions were structured in such a way that they were all correct and met the requirements of the
syllabus. Therefore, they were free from ambiguity.

Comments On The Suitability For The Level Being Examined Vis-a-Vis The Level For The
Syllabus
The questions were suitable for the level being examined. Candidates inability to perform very well
centered on the true fact that;

 They lacked understanding of basic concepts and principles in relation to physical education
 They were unable to apply correct terminologies.
 They lacked seriousness in the approach and output of important issues required for a better
result.
 They lacked professionally trained personnel to handle them during their course of work.
 They lacked adequate instructional materials.

66
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
SCIENCE 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Based on the analysis of the reports presented by all the assistant examiners, it was noted that the
standard of the 2021 Science paper 2 was appropriate for the candidates, and the questions selected
reflect the level that the candidates should have acquired in the three years of upper basic schooling
using the General Science syllabus (Grade 7 – 9). In general, it was reported by the examiners that there
were no ambiguities in terms of clarity of questions. However, it was evident that there were difficulties
in tackling questions which require comprehension and application of basic scientific concepts.

There were some excellent scripts from candidates who were evidently well prepared for the
examination, but it was apparent that some centres could not complete the syllabus, (which amongst
other things could be due to COVID 19 pandemic lockdown) and their candidates were unable to
attempt questions from all areas of the syllabus. The performance of candidates was slightly above that
of the previous year, especially in the areas of biology and chemistry.

The questions were distributed broadly as shown below. However, candidates scored more marks in
questions related to Biology than questions related to Chemistry and Physics.

Question 1.
Question 2. Biology
Question 3.

Question 4.
Question 5. Physics

Question 6.
Question 7. Chemistry

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTH

 Some of the candidates displayed;

 an in-depth knowledge of the subject matter.
 ability to interpret questions correctly
 good writing skills for some, especially those who did well
 use of scientific/technical words correctly in answering questions.

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3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

As it has been the case in previous years, there was much evidence that the poor `performance of
candidates could be attributed to the following:

 Inadequate preparation for the examination

 Incomplete coverage of the syllabus
 Incorrect interpretation of questions
 Lack of attention to details in doing calculations and omission of units
 Poor expressions and spellings
 Illegible and incomprehensible writings

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

In view of the above observations, the following are recommended:

 Attention of schools be drawn to obtain and synchronize the teaching and examination syllabuses,
and to ensure complete coverage of the syllabus by teachers.
 Proper preparation of candidates and thorough review of work covered in good time prior to the
examination.
 Effort by teachers to emphasise technical details of calculations, including appropriate units,
during teaching.
 Proper use of the MoBSE Science text books as the first reference material in addition to any
other materials; and adequate review of past examination papers in preparation for the
examination.
 Emphasis on improving reading and writing skills.
 The inclusion in the instructions to candidates that they must use only blue or black ink pen to
answer questions.
 Use of chalk or tipex to erase, change or cancel answers should be discouraged.
 Hands-on demonstration to illustrate some simple scientific experiments should be encouraged.
 Schools should establish moderators and marking schemes for internal exams, and teachers should
point out mistakes and make the necessary corrections in children’s work/answers.
 The technology aspects of science (computer) should be synchronized in the syllabus and school
time table to enable students get lessons on Information Technology (IT).
 School heads and external supervisors are reminded to be more vigilant during the conduct of
examinations to minimise malpractice in all forms.

68
5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1

The diagram below illustrates the external structure of lizard. Study the diagram and use it to answer questions
1(a) to 1(c).

D E
C

.
B
A

(a) (i) Name the class of vertebrate to which the organism belongs.

(ii) Name the habitat of the organism.

(iii) Name the parts labelled A, D and E.

(b) State one function of the parts labelled A, B and C.

(c) Name three adaptive features that help the organism to live in its habitat.

Use the organisms listed below to answer questions 2(a) to 2(d).

Frog Tuna fish Water lily Parrot Lizard

Tilapia fish Baobab tree Mangroves Monkey Whale

The diagram of the external structure of the lizard was illustrated. About 95% of the candidates
attempted the whole question, scoring more than half of the total marks allocated. 10 - 15% scored all
the marks allocated. About 5 % didn’t do any work and thus did not score any mark.

a. (i)About60% of the candidates correctly gave the accepted class of vertebrates to which the
organism belongs, which is Reptilia. Approximately 40% of the candidates failed to answer this
question and gave wrong names such as mammals, amphibians or other examples of vertebrates.
Another common mistake given by the candidates was the answer reptile or reptiles (which is the
name for the animals that belong to the class Reptilia).

69
ii. About70% of the candidates provided some of the accepted answers to this question, such as
bushes, walls, fences, buildings or trees. An answer like the environment was not accepted because it
did not specify a habitat.

iii. About 50% of the candidates were able to name correctly the parts labelled A, D and E as the gular
fold, nuchal crest and (overlapping) scales whilst 35% of the candidates mislabelled the parts. Shown
below are the expected answers and some of the wrong answers provided by some candidates.

Correct names Wrong names

gular fold gill cover, gullet, fold,

beards

nuchal crest neck, crest

(overlapping) scales smooth scales, rough skin

b. About45% of the candidates stated the accepted functions for the required parts as follows:

A. = displayed to attract females, to frighten enemies

B. = to detect vibrations, for hearing

C. =to detect the presence of chemicals, for breathing

About 30% stated the wrong functions, or mixed-up some parts with their functions. For e.g., some
wrote smelling for part labelled B and hearing for the part labelled C. Candidates commonly wrote
that the part labelled A was used during fights, which is not correct. About 25%left this part blank.

c. About 90% of candidates were able to name correctly the adaptive features that help the organism
to live in its habitat. About 10% lost marks because they gave the same or related features by
different names, such as limbs, forelimbs, hindlimbs and legs; or toes, claws and clawed toes as
separate adaptive features. Some of the accepted features include: overlapping scales to reduce
water loss, long tail for defense and balance, long tongue for feeding, clawed toes for climbing.

Question 2

(a) Mention two terrestrial vertebrates in the above list that are extremely rare in a desert habita

(b) From the list above name three aquatic organisms.

(c) Which of the above organisms are mammals?

(d) Name the cartilaginous fish in the above list.

70
 Candidates were required to choose from the list of organisms provided to answer the questions in all
the sub-sections. Quite a good number of candidates named the required number of the correct
organisms. Others named more than the number required and, which in some instances, included
some wrong answers which indicated that such candidates were guessing. Some candidates gave the
names of organisms that were not listed.

(a) This question was popular. About 80% of the candidates attempted it and obtained more than half
of the total marks allocated. About 40% – 55% of the candidates were able to identify monkey,
parrot and frog as the required terrestrial vertebrates that are extremely rare in a desert. About 45%
of the candidates could not correctly identify the organisms.

About 20% of the candidates could not correctly identify the terrestrial organisms.

(b) About 45% of the candidates were able to name correctly the aquatic organisms, which included
frog, Tilapia fish, Tuna fish, water lily, mangroves, and whale. About 55% either could not state the
names or stated the wrong names of organisms.

(c). Only about 40% correctly identified monkey and whale as mammals; and achieved half or more
than half of the total marks allocated.

(d). Approximately 50% of the candidates correctly named Tuna fish as the only cartilaginous fish,
the rest either wrote Tilapia fish or both tuna and tilapia fish. Some wrote only fish and so gained no
mark.

Question 3
The diagram below illustrates the female reproductive system. Study the diagram and use it to
answer questions 3(a) and 3(b).
I

II

III

(a) Name the parts labelled I, II and III.

71
(b) (i) In which part are gametes (ova) produced?

(ii) In which part does fertilization occur?

(iii) In which part does a baby develop?

(c) State three functions of the female reproductive system.

About 70% of candidates attempted the whole question, whilst the remaining 30% could not. They
were to use the diagram of the female reproductive system illustrated to answer the questions in all the
sub-sections. About 15% got all the marks allocated, 25% scored less than half of the marks and 30%
scored no mark. Some had difficulty trying to interpret the diagram.

a. About 50% of the candidates correctly identified the part labelled I as the oviductorfallopian tube.
As in some of the sub-sections of Question 2, some candidates named other parts in addition to the
required part or parts and thus in some instances, included some wrong answers which indicated that
such candidates were guessing. For e.g., for the part labelled I, some candidates wrote oviduct, womb
and vagina in the space meant for part I or oviduct or fallopian tube.

b. About 50% of candidates correctly provided the right answers for this question as follows:

(i) part II or ovary

(ii) part I or oviduct or fallopian tube

(iii) part III or womb or uterus

c. About 60% of the candidates were able to state the functions of the female reproductive system.
Some gave the generalized function of reproducing offspring, giving birth to young ones or for
pregnancy. These answers were rejected. Answers like: used for excretion or to urinate, or to provide
pleasure for men were also rejected.

Some of the accepted answers were:

 serves as the passage for the baby during birth/delivery

 serves as passage for menstrual blood (flow) during menstruation
 production of ova / eggs
 fertilization of ovum / eggs
 development of embryo
 production of hormones
 accommodates and nourishes the embryo

72
  receives male organ / gamete during mating
 used for sexual intercourse

Question 4
The diagram below illustrates a vacuum flask. Use it to answer question 4(a) and 4(b).

I
I
I
I

I
V
(a) (i) What is the use of the vacuum flask?

(ii) Name the parts labelled I, II, III and IV.

I.
II.
III.
IV.

(b) Give one function for each of the parts labelled I, II and III.
I.
II.
III.

73
(c) List the seven different colours produced when white light is dispersed by a triangular glass prism.

About 60 - 70% of candidates attempted this question, the remaining 30% failed to do so. They were
to use the diagram of the vacuum flask illustrated to answer the questions in the section. About 60%
were able to perform as expected, the rest failed to score marks for this question.

a. (i). Only about 35% of candidates were able to state correctly the use of the vacuum flask as a
device which stores hot-water hot or cold-water cold; a device that stores liquids at a constant
temperature. About 65% could not answer the question correctly.

Nearly half of them gave incomplete or inappropriate answers like: used to put hot water, used to
contain hot water, used for boiled water.

(ii). About 40% of candidates identified spelt correctly the parts labelled I, II, III and IV.

About 30% jumbled up the labeling or spellings of these parts.

Shown below are the expected answers and some of the wrong answers provided by some candidates.

Expected answers Wrong answers

stopper, rubber stopper, cup, cord, cock,

cover, cork stobber

vacuum no air, vacum

silvered walls double wall, silver

vacuum seal vacuum steal

b. About 90% of candidates could not state the correct functions of the parts labelled I, II and III,
partly because they could not label the parts in the first place, and also due to the fact that they could
not recall and or relate correctly the function for each of the part. Only about 10% stated the
functions of all the parts required correctly.

The accepted answers include:

Part i = reduce heat loss / gain /transfer by evaporation, conduction and convection

Part II = reduce heat loss / gain /transfer by conduction and convection

Part III = reduce heat loss / gain /transfer by radiation / reflects heat

74
 Candidates are encouraged to use reduce heat loss/gain as opposed to prevent heat loss/gain; and to
indicate how this heat loss/gain is reduced by conduction, convection, radiation or evaporation

c. About 90 % of candidates were able to list some or all of the seven different colours when white
light is dispersed by a triangular glass. The remaining 10% could not do anything. About 35% of
these candidates wrongly included other colours such as black, pink, cyan, magenta and white.

The accepted colours were: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo & violet.

Question 5

(a) (i) Define Kinetic energy;

(ii) Define Potential energy.

(b) (i) Give two examples of kinetic energy.

(ii) Give two examples of potential energy.

(c) Calculate the work done in lifting a stone weighing 100 N from the ground to a height of 20 m.

Candidates were to give definitions and examples of kinetic and potential energy, and to calculate
the work done in moving a certain force over a given distance. About 85% of the candidates
attempted this question, scoring about half of the total marks allocated. Approximately 15% of the
candidates failed to answer this question, or found it difficult to express themselves appropriately in
simple statements. About 40% of the candidates mixed up or interchanged the answers, which means
that they could not distinguish between kinetic and potential energy.

a. About 55% of the candidates successfully defined the terms, whilst 45% could not provide any
definition or stated the wrong definitions.

Expected definitions include:

(i) Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body / object due to its motion / movement.

(ii) Potential energy is the energy possessed by a body / object due to its position or condition.

Some candidates confused the term possessed with other terms such as opposed which made their
definitions wrong. They wrote for example:

Kinetic energy is the energy opposed by a body; the energy that causes a body to move;

Potential energy is the energy opposed by a body

75
b. About 70% of candidates gave accurate examples of kinetic energy, but potential energy remained
a serious challenge for many.

Expected examples rejected examples

Kinetic Energy: a bird flying, a boy walking, Flying, dancing

a moving car, a mango fruit falling.

Potential Energy: a rock at the top of a hill, a Sleeping, standing, hanging

man standing, a hanging fruit, a sleeping dog.

Note that stationary objects mentioned as examples of potential energy were accepted if their
positions or conditions were indicated.

For example, a man standing was accepted, but the following were rejected: a man, a fence,
standing, sleeping;

likewise, only one point was awarded if a candidate repeated the same idea.

Example

(i) a man standing

(ii) a woman standing

Both (i) and (ii) were considered to be the same idea of an object standing, thus only one mark was
awarded instead of two.

c. About 75% of the candidates attempted this question, out of which 40% were able to calculate
correctly the work done in lifting a stone weighing 100N from the ground to a height of 20m, as well
as stating the correct unit. About 35% divided or added up the quantities instead of solving the
problem using the product rule. About 30% failed to state the correct unit or did not indicate any
unit. One common error was to write N/m, which indicated that the quantities were divided rather
than multiplied.

The accepted solution is given as

Work done = force x distance moved by the force or W= F x D
Work done = 100N x 20m
Work done = 2000Nm or 2000 joules or 2000 J

76
 Question 6

The diagram below shows the set up for separating cooking oil and water. Study the diagram and
use it to answer the questions that follow.

Tap

(a) Explain how the method should be carried out.

(b) Name the separation method used in the illustrated diagram.

(c) State the observation at the end of the experiment.

The diagram of a separating funnel was illustrated for separating cooking oil and water.

a. About 70% of the candidates attempted this question, of which 30% scored less than half of the total
marks allocated. Approximately 40% of the candidates failed to answer this question satisfactorily.

Candidates who attempted this question demonstrated an understanding of the concept of separating
immiscible liquids. However, they could not present their ideas in a logical sequence. Moreover,
most of the candidates failed to explain all the steps involved in the separation process. The correct
steps are outlined as follows;

 close the tap,

 pour the mixture into the separating funnel,

 allow the different layers to form/ settle,

 open the tap to remove the water,

 close the tap.

b. About 70% of the candidates were able to recall the name of the separation technique. There were
errors in the spelling of the method, e.g., separating finnel, funnel separation, separation, funnel,
filtration, etc.; others used the illustration to explain filtration method. The correct name should be
using separating funnel.

77
c. About45% of candidates gave the correct observation required, and scored the required mark
allocated. There were errors in describing the observations made at the end of the experiment. Few
candidates used other substances in stating their observations, instead of water and cooking oil. The
expected observation should be;

 Water collects/ settles at the bottom of the oil, or oil settles on top of the water/ water sinks at
the bottom, or oil floats on top.

 The oil and water will be separated.

Question 7

(a) Write the chemical formulae of the following compounds:

(i) Sodium chloride;
(ii) Potassium Nitrate;
(iii) Copper sulphate.

(b) Complete the table below on elements that can combine to form compounds.

ELEMENTS FORMULA OF COMPOUND

Potassium + Chlorine

Magnesium + Oxygen

Aluminium + Oxygen

(c) State the combining power of each of the following elements and give their symbols in the table
below.

ELEMENT COMBINING POWER SYMBOL

Carbon

Neon

Calcium

78
 a. About 55% of the candidates were able to write the correct chemical formulae of the substances
given.

Quite a good number however made a good attempt to complete the table as shown below. Shown
also are some wrong answers.

Name of compound Correct formulae Wrong formulae

Sodium Chloride NaCl Na Cl, Nacl, NaCL, nacl

Potassium Nitrate KNO3 KNO3,KNo3,KnO3,kno3

Copper Sulphate CuSO4 CuSO4, Cuso4, CUSO4,Cuso4

Approximately 40% of the candidates lost marks because they failed to apply the correct principles
for writing formulae of chemicals. Some used only capital letters or wrote small letters, or used them
in the wrong places.

b. Candidates had a similar difficulty in this section as in (a). Quite a good number however made a
good attempt to complete the table as shown below. Shown also are some wrong answers.

Elements Correct Formula of Wrong formulas

compound

Potassium + KCl KCL, Kcl, kcl

Chlorine

Magnesium + MgO MGO, mgo,

Oxygen MGo

Aluminium + Al 2O3 Al2O3, Al2o3,

Oxygen Al2O, AlO

79
 c. About 90% of the candidates attempted this question, out of which 40 % were able to state the
correct combining power and scored the total mark allocated, but lost marks for incorrect symbols
mainly, as in (a) above, because they failed to observe the rules for writing symbols and formulas.
Two-letter symbols still remain a problem for many candidates. About 10% didn’t attempt the
question.

The table below shows expected figures for combining power and symbols that correctly completes
the table, and samples of unaccepted symbols.

Elements Combining power Correct symbols Wrong symbols

Carbon 4 C c

Neon 0 Ne NE, ne, nE

Calcium 2 Ca CA, ca, cA

80
 TECHNICAL
VOCATIONAL
SECTION
 GABECE (SC) 2021
RÉSUMÉ OF CHIEF EXAMINERS’ REPORTS
TECHNICAL AND VOCATIONAL SUBJECTS

1. STANDARD OF THE PAPERS

The Chief Examiners reported that all the papers were set to the level of the candidates. The rubrics
were clear and up to standard. They also reported that questions were appropriate for level of the
candidates and the questions set covered a wide range of the syllabus which tested a wide variety of
knowledge.

2. CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

The Chief Examiner for Metalwork 2B and Woodwork 2B reported that, the performance of the
candidates were not impressive and not the least encouraging, however, they performed well in the
practical papers. The Chief Examiner for Home Economics reported that the candidates performed
very well. The Chief Examiner for Technical Drawing 2 reported that the performance of the
candidates was better this year compared to the previous year, while the Chief Examiner for Art 2
reported that, the performance of the candidates this this year like previous years remains undesired
and shows a continued decline in standard.

3. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiners Technical and Vocational Subjects reported on the candidates’ strengths as
follows:
 Good skills in drawing border lines and title block.
 Good skills in freehand sketching.
 Clarity and legibility of work.
 A majority of the candidates were able to present the six articles required to be completed for
assessment in Economics.
 Candidates were able to complete the task given within the time frame with the prior guidance of the
subject teachers.

4. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

 Reading and understanding the working drawing.

 Produce finished work was a problem.
 Insufficient coverage of the syllabus
 Lack of drawing instruments.
 Poor drawing ability and composition
 Inability to follow instructions on the question.
 Poor visualisation

A
5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Teachers should put more effort in helping the students overcome the problem of reading a working
drawing.
 Accuracy and good finish should be given top priority at all times.
 All students doing Technical and Vocational subjects must do Technical Drawing.
 More practice is required of candidates on both building and mechanical tools and must
demonstrate the awareness of resemblance and proportionality in their freehand sketches.
 Candidates need to prepare adequately before exams.
 Technical and Vocational teachers be creative and innovative.

B
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
ART AND CRAFT 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

This paper aims at testing the candidate’s ability and skills in visual expression in the areas of
imaginative composition, nature drawing, drawing from a group of objects (still-life), and designing.
Candidates who write this exam should therefore be able to accurately represent ideas and objects on
paper, and enhance their drawings using the shading techniques to show three dimensionality of the
objects they draw, use colour to show harmony and contrast, source of light, foreground and
background among others. The performance of candidates in art 2 this year like previous years shows a
continued decline in standard.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGHTS

Some candidates were able to produce good drawings and they used colour meaningfully and shade
properly.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Some of the weaknesses and concerns observed during this year marking exercise are as follows:

 Poor drawing ability and composition.

 Inability to observe objects
 Inability to use of colour or shade properly.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Candidates should be scrutinized before allowing them to sit the GABECE Art examination.
 School should provide items required for still-life drawing and specimens for nature drawing.
 Workshop should be held for teachers of art so that they can be updated and upgraded both in terms
of knowledge, skills and methodology.
 Directives on the display of specimens for candidates during the examination should be emphasized
by WAEC to school heads.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

This paper comprises four sections namely, imaginative composition (two questions), nature drawing
(two questions), still- life drawing (two questions) and design (two questions). The question paper was
given to candidates one week prior to the date for examination.
This is done to allow candidates time to carefully study the options with the view of choosing the option
they are best able to do. What follows is an analysis of candidate’s performance in the different
questions.

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SECTION A

IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION

Question 1

Imagine a team of immigration police arresting some people.

Question 2

On your way to school, two cars are involved in an accident, people are helping to rescue the victims
inside the cars.
This section comprises two questions and candidates were to answer only one. Question 1 requires
candidates to imagine a team of immigration police arresting some people while question 2 on your way
to school, two cars are involved in an accident, people are helping to rescue the victims inside the cars.
These two questions were the least popular questions attempted by candidates because students find it
difficult to draw human figures. Only 2% of candidates opted for these two questions.

WEAKNESSESS

These two questions were poorly executed, because of inability to draw the human figures
proportionally, and poor composition and colouring techniques.

STRENGHTS

Some candidates make good drawings and they were well rewarded because they scored above average
mark which is 25 marks.

SECTION B

NATURE DRAWING

Question 3
Make a close study of the following vegetables.
(i) A garden egg
(ii) 2 big okra
(iii) 2 tomatoes
Question 4
Make a close study of a pumpkin fruit split into two halves exposing seeds and flesh inside.
This section also comprises of two questions 3 and 4 candidates were to answer only one. Question 3
demands candidates to make a close study of the following vegetables a garden egg, 2 big okra, and 2
tomatoes. This question was the most popular question among all the questions attempted by
candidates. 68% of candidates opted for this question and majority of them scored below average,
simply because they did not draw the vegetables accurately and some of them did not apply colour or
shade.

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Question 4requires candidates to make a close study of a pumpkin fruit split into two halves exposing
seeds and flesh inside. About 5% of candidates opted for this question and majority of them scored
below average because of poor drawing ability, composition, and inability to use colour meaningfully.
Some of the candidates did not expose the seeds of the pumpkin.

WEAKNESSES
Poor drawing ability, observation and composition, also poor shading techniques.

STRENGHTS
Some of the candidates produce good drawings and they were rewarded. Their ability to observe was
good and they used colour meaningfully.

SECTION C

DRAWING FROM A GROUP OF OBJECTS

Question 5

On a table high enough and close to a good source of light, arrange the following to make a good
composition:

(i) Brewing kettle;

(ii) Two tumblers;

(iii) Sugar;

(iv) Charcoal pot.

Question 6

Arrange the following items to form a good composition:

(i) Frying pan;

(ii) Fork and knife;

(iii) Oil inside a bottle

This section also comprises of two questions 5 and 6 and they were to answer only one. Question 5
demands candidates to observe and draw on a table high enough and close to a good source of light, to
arrange the following items to make a good composition. Brewing kettle, two tumblers, sugar, and a
charcoal pot. About 8% of candidates attempted this question and majority of them scored below
average because of poor drawing ability and composition. Question 6 demands candidates to arrange
the following items to form a good composition. Frying pan, fork and knife, and oil inside a bottle,
This question also was not popular only 2% of candidates opted for it and majority of them scored
below average simply because of poor drawing ability and composition.

83
WEAKNESSES

Candidates were unable to draw the objects correctly and the table they draw has greatly affected the
objects they draw, lacking in perspective among others.

STRENGHTS

There were some very impressive quality drawings with good representation of objects, good
perspective, composition, shading techniques and colour application.

SECTION D

DESIGN

Question 7
Design a poster to advertise “AFRICANA ART ASSOCIATION’. Include the slogan “ART IS
LIFE”.
Question 8

Your school will be 50 years old this year. Design a suitable calendar to commemorate the golden
jubilee.

This section comprises two questions 7 and 8 and allows the use of rulers and compasses but lettering
stencils are not allowed.

Question 7 demands candidates to design a poster to advertise “AFRICANA ART ASSOCIATION

“Include the slogan “ART IS LIFE”. This was not a popular question only 15% of candidates opted for
this question and it was very poorly executed with poor design, lettering illustration and colour
application. Question 8demands candidates to design a suitable calendar to commemorate their
school’s 50 years old golden jubilee. This question was also poorly executed. About 10% of
candidates answered this question.

STRENGHTS

Few candidates produced good works and they were rewarded with good marks

WEAKNESSES

Poor designs, lettering; illustrations and poor colour application. Some of the candidates used lettering
stencil.

CONCLUSION

Generally, the overall performance of candidates in the 2021 GABECE examination in Art and craft
like previous years continued to decline in standard especially in drawing which reveals candidates
inability to;

84
 Represent objects pictorially on paper.
 Use colour meaningfully to show colour relationship harmony and contrast.
 To shade drawn objects effectively to create form, solidity and three dimensionality.

85
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
CLOTHING & TEXTILES (COURSEWORK ASSESSESSMENT)

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Each candidate was required to present six articles which demonstrate the skills learnt in the various
grades within the three-year period Candidates performed to the best of their abilities through the
guidance of their teachers although, some candidates found it difficult to sew seams.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

A majority of the candidates were able to present the six articles required by the examining body and
they followed the assessment guidelines.

3. CANDIDATES’ CHALLENGES

Some candidates were unable to complete some of the articles presented. There is still room for
adjustments because incomplete articles, washed articles and in some cases worn clothes were presented
as renovated articles.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

Considering the above points, It is therefore, recommended that the following be considered:

A reduction on the number of articles to be presented by candidates from 6-4.

WAEC course work requirement be observed by all teachers.
Training for teachers by MoBSE.
Teachers to follow the syllabus by making the articles required at each grade level.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

INDIVIDUAL ARTICLES

BOY’S SHORTS

Candidates tried their best but there is still room for improvement on the type of seam used. A majority
of the candidates used the open seam instead of either the French or run- and- fell seam and most
candidates did not attach a pocket. Some did not even put any features.

CROCHETTED ARTICLE

It was one of the most well done articles. Candidates did extremely well with a variety of articles.

EMBROIDERY ARTICLE

Candidates have improved significantly especially on the number of stitches used. Some of the issues
realized were that some candidates presented the household article requested with less than four stitches
on the pattern although, some candidates really performed well.

86
KNITTED BELT/SCARF

It was another well-made article but some candidates knitted hats and headbands which were not
requested for as the article to be made was specified. Some candidates did not also do the finishing on
the belts.

BABY’S DRESS

Candidates have improved but some of them made child dress instead of a baby’s one, a majority
applied the processes required. Some candidates are still sewing the open seam but generally the
performances in most centers have improved.

RENOVATED ARTICLE

Very impressive articles were presented by candidates. Candidates showed real skills in using old
garments. On the other hand, some candidates presented Arts & craft items.

CONCLUSION

In conclusion, at the level and age of the candidates and the time allocated on the school timetable for
Home Economics, one would conclude that some candidates have done well together with the teachers
but some centers need to improve.

87
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
FOODS AND NUTRITION PRACTICAL TEST

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the assessment was to the level assessed. The questions were derived from the syllabus
and the language used was very clear and simple. Candidates’ attendance was very good.

The assessment covered the knowledge and skills that candidates should have acquired during their three
years in the upper Basic.

The lack of proper labs in schools remains a hindrance to candidates’ performance.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

 They performed well on the planning session and coped with the limited resources available in the
centers.
 They were able to complete the task given within the time frame with the prior guidance of the
subject teachers.

3. CANDIDATES’ CHALLENGES

There is still room for improvement on the following:

 Quantity of ingredients purchased

 Clearing of work areas and stoves.
 Correct names of dishes chosen (some copy the question or write the name of the food item).
 Pastry making.
 Table- setting.
 Not applying the theory learnt on the practical.
 Type of furniture used (combined benches).

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

Considering the above, it would be therefore, recommended that:

Practical lessons to be conducted in schools at least once every term.

In-service training for teachers to be conducted regularly.
Appropriate rooms and utensils to be available in centers (schools).
Only trained Home Economics teachers to teach the subject.
Grouping of candidates not to exceed 16 per group considering the types of rooms and furniture used
during the practical.

88
5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1

(a) Prepare, cook and serve a dish using shell fish as the main ingredient.
(b) Prepare a suitable accompaniment for (a).
(c) Make a fruit cocktail drink.

Majority of the candidates performed well in ‘a’ and ‘b’ parts but the ‘c’ part was misinterpreted with
fruit salad. About 85% of the candidates made right choices.

Question 2

(a)Prepare, cook and pack a lunch suitable for an excursion.

(b)Prepare a suitable snack for the excursion.
(c) Make a refreshing drink.

Dishes were well chosen. Although. Some followed the instructions in ‘a’ by packing, but about 35% of
the candidates did not pack the food even though pack meal bowls were used for the food prepared.

Question 3

(a)Prepare, cook and serve three snacks displaying three methods of cooking.
(b)Make a drink using seasonal fruits.

Majority of candidates showed real skills especially in the steaming method by performing well in both
using the colander and between two plates.
Pastry making still remains a concern and needs improvement. About 1% of the candidates instead of
making snacks, prepared dishes such as soup, stew and so on.

Question 4

(a)Using offal as the main ingredient, prepare, cook and serve a dish.
(b)Prepare a suitable accompaniment for ‘a’.
(c) Prepare and serve a hot beverage.

It was well answered by 90% of the candidates. The remaining 10% instead of using the offal as the main
ingredient as requested, used it as enrichment to dishes such as okra soups. Local herbs were as well used
to economize cost.

Question 5

(a)Prepare, cook and serve a suitable dish for a strict vegetarian.

(b)Prepare a nourishing drink.

It was a question well understood by almost 90% of the candidates. Some did not use the fresh flesh of
animals or their products but used the preserved ones such as salted fishing in a few situations some did
not cook but just prepared whereas the question requires the candidate to cook.

89
Question 6

(a)Prepare, cook and serve a dish using beef as the main ingredient.
(b)Make a refreshing fruit juice.

Almost all candidates performed well by using beef as the main ingredient although, just about 1% of the
candidates used the beef as enrichment instead of as a main ingredient.

CONCLUSION

Candidates have generally performed well considering the conditions under which they take the exams.
Candidates must try to understand the questions well before making any choices and teachers MUST
ensure that candidates are assisted well within the 96 hours allocated for preparation.

RECOMMENDATION

Considering the above, I therefore, recommend that:

All schools to allocate special rooms for HOME ECONOMICS
The number of candidates per group be minimized to 16 considering that they do everything inside.
Schools to try and purchase for the basic cooking utensils.
The practical money allocated for the subject be allocated to the candidates to help minimize cost on
candidates.

90
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
HOME ECONOMICS 2B

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The paper was set in accordance to the GABECE syllabus. It was up to standard but candidates’
performance was below average although, a few performed better.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates performed better in sections B and C (Foods & Nutrition and Home Management). They
were also able to follow the instructions by answering two questions from each section.

3. CANDIDATES’ CHALLENGES

Wrong labelling of answers

Unable to answer some of the Clothing & Textiles questions
Mixing up of answers (“a” and “b” parts together and “c” part on another section)
Answering questions from section C under section A space
Misinterpreting questions

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

Considering the above concerns, it would be therefore, recommended that:

There be in-service training courses for teachers

Teachers teach the syllabus and not only concentrate on WAEC past papers
Teachers teach Clothing and Textiles and not only coursework articles
WAEC to use the 2020 answer booklet format where candidates answer directly under each question.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1

(a) Name the tools used in the following processes:

(i) Transfering pattern markings;
(ii) Protecting the middle finger when sewing;
(iii) Fastening two pieces of fabric;
(iv) Removing stitches;
(v) Keeping pins organized and at hand.

(b) State five guidelines for choosing needlework tools.

91
It was the second most answered question from section A but was not well answered. Only about 4-
5% scored on average.

Question 2

What is the difference between:

(a) Tucks and darts?
(b) Binding and facing?
(c) Plain weave and twill weave?

It was not attempted by majority of the candidates and even with the few that tried answering it were
unable to differentiate the “b” and “c” parts.

Question 3

Define the following:

(a) Facing;
(b) Appliqué;
(c) Knife pleat;
(d) Smocking;
(e) Chain stitch.

It was an unpopular question and was equally poorly answered.

Question 4

(a) What is a seam?

(b) Name four types of seam.
(c) State four general rules for making seams.

This was the most popular question from section A. Although, it was fairly answered but some
candidates’ confused choice of seams with points to consider when working on seams.

Question 5

(a) Define vegetables.

(b) Name six types of vegetables.
(c) Why are vegetables important in the diet?
(d) List three methods of cooking vegetables.

In section B, it was the most popular question and well answered. Almost 99% of the candidates who
attempted it performed impressively.

92
Question 6

Define the following cookery terms:

(a) Rechauffé;
(b) Diet;
(c) Meal;
(d) Menu;
(e) Batter.

It was not a popular question. The few candidates who attempted it were unable to
define the terms as expected.

Question 7

(a) Define food nutrients.

(b) State the function and main source of each of the following food nutrients
using a table as shown below.
FOOD
NUTRIENT FUNCTION MAIN
SOURCE
Protein
Carbohydrate
Fats and oil
Vitamin C

It was the second most popular question from section B. It was also well answered by
a majority of the candidates.

Question 8

(a) Define a meal.

(b) State three points to consider when serving a meal.

93
 (c) State three reasons for setting a dining table.

It was attempted by many, although, most of the candidates misunderstood the points
to consider when serving meal with the points to consider when planning meal.

Question 9

(a) Define marriage. (b)

Name and explain two types of marriage.
(c) State one advantage of each type of marriage named in 7(b).

The most popular question from section C, almost all candidates attempted it and the
performance was very impressive. The types of marriages was misunderstood by some
with the types of families.

Question 10

(a) What is wardrobe planning?

(b) State a reason for planning a wardrobe.
(c) State five points to consider when planning a wardrobe

It was well chosen but poorly treated. Instead of the selection of clothes, it was
misinterpreted with the container for clothes.

Question 11

(a) Who is an adolescent?

(b) State three stages in adolescence development.
(c) State three physical changes that occur in girls during adolescence.

It was the second most popular question from section C. Some candidates confused
adolescence with adolescent and also in “b” the stages with physical changes in boys
but the “c” part was perfectly treated.

Question 12

(a) What is first aid?

(b) List three basic first aid equipment.

94
(c) Describe the first aid treatment to apply in the following cases:
(i) Electric shock;
(ii) Bruise;
(d) Sting from a bee.

The candidates who attempted it were able to perfectly answer the “a” and “b” parts but the “c” part
was a challenge.

CONCLUSION

The general performance of candidates was not impressive. Considering the overall performance, it
seems that some topics in the syllabus were not treated in school or were not well understood by the
candidates’.

RECOMMENDATIONS

In service training for teachers.

All six questions to be answered in any centre with six or more candidates (all questions to be equally
balloted).

95
 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
HOME ECONOMICS 2 (ESSAY)

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Generally, the questions were at the level of the candidates as all questions were derived from the
syllabus to be covered from grades 7-9. It has been realized that most candidates do not refer to the
notes from the lower grades and questions are set around all topics.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates followed the instructions by answering 6 questions 2 from each section. Candidates
performed very well in sections B (Foods & Nutrition) and C (Home Management).

3. CANDIDATES’ CHALLENGES

Section A (Clothing & Textiles) still remains a challenge to candidates. Candidates were not able to
interpret the questions well.
The usage of the answer booklet also remains a challenge as candidates would sometimes squeeze all
answers in two pages or in some cases jump three pages to answer a second question.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

Considering the above, it is therefore, recommended that:

Schools be supplied with the required tools for candidates to recognize them
In service training program for teachers teaching Home Economics
Teachers must teach the syllabus and not depend on past papers only
School must be provided with the teaching syllabus
The number of questions to be answered be reduced to 4 as before considering that it is a practical
subject
Students to be guided on how to answer questions using the answer booklet

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

SECTION A (CLOTHING & TEXTILES)

Question 1

(a) List six types of clothing

(b) Give two reasons for wearing clothes
(c) Give two main reasons for ironing clothes
It was the most popular question from section A, about 90% of the candidates attempted it. The “b” c
and “c” parts were well answered but the “a” part was not well answered. Instead of types of
clothing, most candidates gave coursework.

96
Question 2

Explain the uses of the following tools:

(a) Tracing wheel

(b) Pinking shears
(c) Sleeve board
(d) Tape measure
(e) Full length mirror

It was an unpopular question. Only about less than 30% of the candidates attempted it but not more
than 7% were able to give the uses of the tools.

Question 3

(a) Define the term controlling fullness

(b) Name four methods of controlling fullness
(c) State two reasons why fullness is allowed on commercial patterns

It was a popular question from section A. The “a” and “b” parts were well treated by the candidates
but the “c” part was not well answered.

Question 4

(a) Define temporary stitches

(b) Give five examples of temporary stitches
(c) State four general rules for working stitches

It was the second most popular question from section A. It was also misunderstood by most
candidates, instead of giving the temporal stitches; they gave examples of permanent stitches. About
70- 80 % attempted it.

SECTION B (FOODS & NUTRITION)

Question 5

(a) Who is a sedentary worker?

(b) Give four examples of a sedentary worker
(c) State two points to consider when serving meals

It was the least popular question from this section. The very few who attempted it were not able to
answer it correctly.

Question 6

(a) What is a snack?

(b) State two groups of snacks
(c) Give four examples of each of the groups mentioned above

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It was another unpopular question. About 9% of the candidates attempted it but not more than 1%
was able to define what a snack is.

Question 7

(a) Define food

(b) State five reasons for cooking food

(c) Explain the following:

Boiling
Stewing
Frying
Roasting

95% the candidates attempted this question. The “b” part was misunderstood with the reasons for
eating while the question was asking for the reasons for cooking.

Question 8

(a) What is food preservation?

(b) State three reasons for preserving food
(c) Give three methods of preserving food

It was the second most popular question from this section. About 70% of the candidates attempted it
and they performed well.

SECTION C (HOME MANAGEMENT)

Question 9

(a) What is ventilation?

(b) Give two examples of each of the following:

 Natural ventilation
 Artificial ventilation

(c) State two uses of the sitting room

It was a popular question from this section, and it was well attempted too.

Question 10

(a) What is courtship?

(b) State four reasons for courtship
(c) State four factors to consider when choosing a partner

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It was not a popular question but was not well answered. Candidates did not understand it properly.

Question 11

(a) State two child care activities

(b) Give the advantages of breastfeeding
(c) What is exclusive breastfeeding?

It was a popular question although some answered it well while others performed badly. The “c” part
was a problem to all candidates who attempted the question.

Question 12

(a) What is a family?

(b) State three functions of a family
(c) State three roles of children in a family

It was the most popular question from this section. It was well answered by most of the candidates.
The “b” part was confused with the types of family.

CONCLUSION

In conclusion, candidates have improved on their standards and over 97% answered the required 6
questions.

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 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
METAL WORK

This subject consists of Three Components: namely Course Work Assessment, Practical Test and
Essay.

i. Course Work Assessment

Candidates were given the option to choose out of three projects. The selected projects are the
following:
Project A – Design and make a flower vase stand use for decorating the front of an office.
Project B – Design and make a spade suitable for use in the school garden.
Project C - Design and make a charcoal pot suitable for brewing “ATAYA”.

All three projects were chosen by the candidates nationwide. The determining factor being the
availability of the materials, tools and access to resources.

The performance of the candidates ranged from very good to satisfactorily. A small percentage did
poorly in Project Work.

ii. Practical Test

Candidates were required to read and understand the working drawing, mark out, cut and file to
shape and size a fitting job.

iii. Essay
This paper consists of two sections, namely: Section A and Section B
Section A – is A multiple – choice Objective Test 40 marks
Section B –essay (i.e. short answer Questions and Sketching)

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The questions set this year (2021) covered a wide range of the syllabus and were easy and straight
forward and apparently required straight sharp answers. The performance of candidates this year
compared to last year (2020) is not the least encouraging. 85% of the candidates failed the paper this
year.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

 There was no particular strength noticed.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
 Sketching and labeling of diagrams was difficult for the majority of candidates and therefore, loose
marks.

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  80% of the candidates failed to achieve good proportionate drawing with regards to free hand
sketching.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 School Heads/ Principals should encourage the effective teaching of Technical Drawing in their
schools.
 Technical Teachers should be creative/innovative.
 Technical Students should be encouraged to use the workshop facilities regularly and frequently.
 Technical Students should be encouraged to develop their skills in freehand sketching of tools,
equipment etc. in oblique, Isometric and orthographic projections.
 School Heads/Principals should make the teaching of Technical Drawing a compulsory subject in
their schools. To reinforce the Creative Arts Department.
 Metalwork teachers are therefore, urged to encourage candidates in the use of drawing instruments,
during lessons and examinations

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1

(a) (i) Sketch a spring divider and label the parts.

(ii) State two uses of a spring divider.

In this question 65% of the candidates drew the divider in their mathematical set box which do not have a
spring, and could not score full mark. Teachers should tell the candidates the difference between a
divider and a spring divider. 90% of the candidates stated the use of a scriber, internal and odd-leg
caliper.

(b) State one use of each of the following files.

(i) Round file;
(ii) Triangular file;
(iii) Square file.

95% of the candidates could not state correctly the use of any of these file and scored no marks.

(c) (i) Name three parts of the moulding box used in sand casting.
(ii) Sketch a rammer used in sand casting.
(iii) What is the purpose of ‘green sand’ in sand casting?
Only 45% of the candidates were able to name only 2 parts i.e. Drag and Cope, but did not mention the
pins. 50% of the candidates were able to sketch the rammer and scored full mark.

The purpose of the green sand was a difficult question to all the candidates and none of them got it right.

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Question 2

Sketch the following tools.

(a) Folding bar;

(b) Half-moon stake.

Only 5% of the candidates who opted for this question were able to draw them correctly and score good
mark, while 95% of them drew either the caliper, steel rule or hatch stake.

Question 3

(a) State two purposes for which a surface plate is used.

(b) State two uses of the flute of a twist drill.

(c) What is a blind hole?

All candidates who opted for this question could not answer it correctly, and it was above the level of the
candidates. Candidates do not know what a surface plate is

Only 3% of the candidates answered part of the question correctly and scored good marks.
90% of the candidates stated that a blind hole is a small hole punched before drilling, and did not score full
mark.

Question 4

Name the furnace used to produce the following metals:

(a) Cast iron;
(b) Pig iron;
(c) Mild steel;
(d) Wrought iron;
(e) High carbon steel.

4% of the candidates were able to name them correctly and got the full mark allocated.
96% of them mixed up the whole question i.e. wrought iron is blast furnace, pig iron is pudding furnace.

Question 5

(a) Name two types of soldering iron.

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(b) Sketch any of the soldering irons named in 5(a).

(c) Explain the term ‘tinning’ in soft soldering.

95% of the candidates named the iron correctly and scored good marks.
65% of them could not sketch the soldering iron.
Only 35% sketched it correctly, but did not specify which of the soldering irons they have drawn.
None of the candidates were able to explain the term “TINNING”.

Question 6

Define the following terms:

(a) Annealing;
(b) Normalising;
(c) Tempering;
(d) Hardening;
(e) Case-hardening.

80% of the candidates who opted for this question could not answer it correctly. They could not explain
any of the terms and therefore scored zero.

Question 7

(a) Name any four tongs used in forge work.

(b) Sketch any one of the tongs named in 7(a).

Candidates did very well in this question and scored good marks.

80% were able to draw the tongs while 20% drew hand-shears or snips.

Question 8

Explain the following properties of metal:

(a) Malleability;
(b) Hardness;
(c) Brittleness;
(d) Ductibility;
(e) Fusibility.

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65% of the candidates did well in this question but found it difficult to explain ductility and fusibility.

CONCLUSION

Teachers concern should always be made known to WAEC prior to the Practical Test and during the
production of course work items, if they do not understand the projects highlighted/selected and choice of
materials.

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 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
TECHNICAL DRAWING 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

This year’s questions were set according to the prescribed WAEC syllabus. The questions were also to
the standard and scope of the candidates. It is a well-balanced paper which has been agreed upon by all
the examiners. However, this year’s performance seems better as compared to the previous years. About
40% of the candidates have performed greatly.

The solutions revealed that they were ill-prepared for the paper. It is important for candidates to cover
wide range of topics that will equip them for the examination than to depend on wrong prediction of
questions. For better performance, candidates must be well prepared and coached to master the rudiments
of technical drawing in accordance with WAEC syllabus on time.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

 Good skills used in producing the three views in question number one.
 Questions number 2 and 3 were the most popular and therefore a greater percentage of the candidates
performed very well in those areas.
 Good marks were scored in question number 1 by some candidates.
 Skills used to draw border lines and title blocks.
 Clarity and legibility of work done.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

 Most of the candidates could not draw the symbol of projection.

 Very little knowledge on wood and metal work that are involved in free-hand sketching.
 Poor visualisation.
 Wrong dimensioning
 Evidence of insufficient syllabus coverage.
 Failure to follow instructions.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Candidates preparing for this examination should be well taught to cover up designed syllabus.
 Candidates should be able to understand the difference between first and third angle projection.
 Engage qualified personnel to teach the subject effectively.
 Teachers and students should be encouraged to use the prescribed text books.
 Technical drawing rooms should be available in schools.
 Candidates should read instructions carefully before attempting to answer.
 More practice on freehand drawing on mechanical and woodwork tools.

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5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

SECTION A

Question 1

E
80 mm

40 mm

30°
70 mm

A hexagonal pyramid is shown above. Draw in full size (1:1) the following views:

(a) Front elevation;

(b) Plan;
(c) End elevation in the direction of arrow E.

This Section comprises of the compulsory question (number one). This question examined knowledge and
skills of the candidates to visualise orthographic views of geometrical solid (hexagonal based pyramid
truncated with a cutting plane X-X). This question was well handled by some candidates and were able to
score good marks.

However, some candidates could not draw the true shape using projection lines at 90ᴼ from the cutting
plane, instead drawing only the front view. Only about 30% of the candidates were able to perform well on
this section with correct dimensions.

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 SECTION B

Questions 2

(a) Construct a regular pentagon of sides 50 mm using 45° and 60° set squares.
(b) Draw a triangle given that one of the angles is 60° and two of the sides are 60 mm and
90 mm. Inscribe a circle in the triangle.

Question 3

Construct an ellipse whose major and minor axes are 100 mm and 60 mm respectively, using the concentric
circles method.

Question 4

(a) The vertical height between the parallel sides of a trapezium ABCD is 30 mm. Angle ABC is 120°, AD
is 75 mm and AB is 35 mm. Construct the trapezium and find the value of angle ADC.

(b) Construct a parallelogram of sides AB = 100 mm, BC = 50 mm and the inclined angle ABC =
120°.

This also examined the knowledge, skill and use of different types of lines with the construction of
geometrical plane figure.

In question number 2, candidates demonstrated poor quality lines and wrong dimensions. In question
number 3, candidates could not allocate the points of intersection and drawing the given ellipse having a
smooth curve.

In question number 4, candidates were asked to construct a trapezium and a parallelogram with given sides.
Candidates could not manifest a clear understanding on how to solve these problems. As a result, a good
number of candidates scored poor marks.

SECTION C

Questions 5

Make a well-proportioned freehand sketch of the following:

(a) Engineer’s try-square;

(b) Housing joint.

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Question 6

Make a well-proportioned freehand sketch of the following:

(a) Center punch;

(b) An exploded dovetail halving joint.
Question 7

10 mm
20 mm 20 mm
40 mm

20 mm
P 60 mm P 50 mm
F.E E.E
50 mm

PLAN

The diagram above shows an orthographic projection. Make a well-proportioned freehand isometric sketch
of the block using ‘P’ as the lowest point.

The candidates were asked to give a freehand sketch in questions five and six or to attempt question number
7 in which a diagram shows an orthographic projection of three views. Candidates were to make a well-
proportioned freehand Isometric sketch of the block using P as the lowest point.

This section also examined the candidates’ skills based on proportionality and resemblance likewise, the
quality of lines. In this section, the candidates’ performance was not to expectation, revealing lack of
proportionality, no resemblance, poor quality of lines and visualization. As referenced in question number 7
which showed orthographic views to be drawn in isometric block some candidates gave the same
orthographic views as stated on the question paper. However, candidates who managed to draw an isometric
block could not even complete their work.

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 GABECE (SC) 2021
CHIEF EXAMINER’S REPORT
WOOD WORK 2B, COURSE WORK AND PRACTICAL ASSESSMENT

1. GENERAL COMMENT

The standard of the Woodwork 2B paper was within the syllabus but the performance of the
candidates in the paper 2B was not impressive at all if compared to that of last year. The majority
of the candidates have problems in free hand sketching. The drawings were not up to standard.

There were three projects and candidates were required to choose a design and produce one project
only. It would have been more interesting if candidates designed and produce different projects but
all of them chose the same. About 30% of the school visited rush to complete their coursework’s.
This was simply because head of schools were late to fund the woodwork department with money
to buy materials for the coursework. Some woodwork teachers complained that materials to work
on were received very late, and this has also contributed on candidates rushing to complete their
coursework.

2. CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

 Candidates were able to finish work within the time frame.

 Some of the candidates produce good work and sketches.

3. CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

 Problem in free-hand sketching and drawing.

 Tools were not properly prepared the exams.
 Reading the instructions was a problem.
 Very little knowledge on Technical Drawing that involved in free-hand sketching.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

 Before attempting a question it is important that instructions are read.

 Free hand sketching should be practiced
 Candidates need to prepare adequately before exams.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question 1

(a) Sketch a pictorial view of a corner bridle joint.

(b) List four tools required to construct a corner bride joint
(c) Give one example where a corner bridle joint is commonly used.
(d) State two reasons why plywood is lipped.

This was a compulsory question but 50% of the candidates did not attempt it, and those who
attempted it scored zero.

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 None of the candidates were able to sketch a pictorial view of a corner bridle joint. 90% of the
candidates could not list the four tools required to construct a corner bridle Joint. 80% of the
candidates were not able to give examples where a corner bridle joint is commonly used. Question
1d was not a common question and none of the candidates could not state the reasons why plywood
is lipped.

Question 2

(a) Sketch the following seasoning defects:

(i) Cupping;
(ii) End split.

(b) State two reasons for seasoning timber.

(c) (i) Name one method of seasoning timber.

(ii) State one advantage of the method named in question 2(c)(i).

This was a common question and 80%of the candidates attempted it and 70% who attempted it could
not sketch cupping and End split. 50% of the candidates state two reasons for seasoning timber.
Question (C i,ii) was a common question and 80 percent of candidates who attempted it were able
to answer it correctly.

Question 3

(a) Sketch and label the following tools:

(i) Sliding bevel;
(ii) Mortice chisel.
(b) State the use of the claw hammer.

This was also a common question and 90%of the candidates who attempted 3(a) could not sketch the
sliding bevel and mortise chisel and therefore scored very low marks. Question 3(b) is also a very
popular question but about 90% of the candidates got it wrong.

Question 4

(a)State the use of the following:

(i) Scotch glue;
(ii) Resin glue.

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(b)Sketch and show the construct of a three layer plywood.
(c) Sketch a tenon saw and label any two parts.

About 95% of the candidates get question 4(b) wrong. To sketch and show the construction of three
layer plywood posed a problem because it requires sketching and 80% of the candidates had a problem
in sketching.

Question 5

(a)Make a neat sketch of a stop housing joint.

(b)State where the joint sketched in 5(a) is commonly used.
(c) Name four tools used for the construction of a stop housing joint.
(d)Name two types of adhesive used in the woodwork shop.

This was a popular question but 95% of the candidates did not attempt to answer this question.

Question 6

(a) State four processes involved in sharping a blunt saw.

(b) Sketch and label two parts of a fret saw.

About 80% of the candidates who attempted question 6(a) could not state four processes involved in
sharpening a blunt saw. About 70% of the candidates who attempted question 6(b) drew a cooping
saw instead of a fret saw.

Question 7

(a) State the use of the following portable powered tools.

(i) Sander;
(ii) Pistol drill.

(b) State five safety precautions to be observed on the use of the portable powered tools.
(c) Name one type of softwood.

Only about 30% of the candidates who attempted question 7(b) stated five general safety precautions
instead of portable power tools.

Question 8

(a) Sketch a wooden mallet and label any two parts.

(b) State the use of the following:

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 (i) Shooting board;
(ii) Sawing stool;
(iii) Bench hook.

(c) State one use of a hardwood.

Question 8(a) was a popular question but 60% of the candidates were unable to sketch a wooden mallet.
90% of the candidates who attempted 8(b) were unable to state the use of shooting board, sawing tool
and bench hook.

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