21-10-2024

0000CMD303003240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Use the small angle approximation to find approximate value for :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

For y-x graph shown in the figure, value of is :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

3) Particle's position as a function of time is given by x = –t2 + 4t + 4. Find the maximum value of
position co-ordinate of particle.

(1) 0
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16

4) The volume of a sphere is increasing at constant rate . If radius of the sphere is denoted
by R, the surface area of the sphere will increase at the rate :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) In the figure, graph of function y = sinx is shown.

(a) Slope of the tangent at is 1.

(b) Slope of tangent at x = 0 is 1.
(c) Slope of tangent at x = 0 is less than 1 and greater than zero
(d) Slope of tangent at is zero.

Correct statement are :-

(1) Only (a) & (b)

(2) Only (c) & (d)
(3) Only (a) & (c)
(4) Only (b) & (d)

6) For the curve shown in figure at point P (a) dy/dx is Positive.

(b) d2y/dx2 is Negative.
(c) d2y/dx2 is Positive
(d) dy/dx is Zero.

Correct statement are :-

(1) Only (a) & (b)

(2) Only (a) & (c)
(3) Only (b) & (d)
(4) Only (c) & (d)

7)
Find :-

(1) e2 + c
(2) 2e2 + c
(3) e2 x + c
(4) 2xe2 + c

8) Which of the following forces cannot be a resultant of 15 N force and 11 N force ?

(1) 2 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 5 N

9) Two forces F1 = 2N and F2 = 3N are acting on a particle along x = 0 and y = 0 lines in positive
direction respectively. The resultant force on the particle will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) A vector points vertically upwards and points towards north. The vector product × is :-

(1) along west

(2) along east
(3) zero
(4) vertically downward

11) ,
(a) and are perpendicular to each other
(b) Magnitude of and is same
(c) and are parallel to each other
(d)
Correct statements are :-

(1) Only (a) & (b)

(2) Only (b) & (c)
(3) Only (b) & (d)
(4) Only (a), (b) & (d)

12) The velocity of a particle is . The component of the velocity of the particle parallel to
vector is:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) A bird moves directly from point (1, –2) m to (4, 2) m. If the speed of the bird is 20 m/s, then the
velocity vector of the bird is (in m/s):-

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

14) What displacement must be added to the displacement to give a resultant

displacement of 7 m pointing in +ve x-direction ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) Three forces act on a stationary particle and particle does not move. If the forces are
, and , then the value of (a + b + c) will be

(1) 0
(2) 9
(3) –9
(4) Can't be determined

16) A particle is moving on straight line and velocity of particle changes with time as shown in
diagram. Calculate average speed of particle for the whole motion shown in figure.

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

17) A particle moves m in South–West direction, 12m in upward direction and then 1m in East
direction. Find the net displacement.

(1) 13 m
(2) 17 m
(3) 14 m
(4) 18 m

18) A balloon starts rising from ground with some initial velocity. A stone is dropped from balloon.
This stone always reaches ground with same speed no matter from what height it was dropped.
Mark the correct statement (Assume acceleration due to gravity does not vary with height) :-

(1)
Balloon decelerates with a value
(2) Balloon decelerates with a value g
(3) Balloon decelerates with a value 2g
(4) Balloon accelerates with a value g

19) A particle is projected vertically upwards with velocity u from a point O. When it returns to the
point of projection, then for entire journey :- (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) Its average velocity is zero
(b) Its displacement is zero
(c) Its average speed is u/2
(d) Its average speed is u
Correct statements are :-

(1) Only (a) and (c)

(2) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(4) Only (a), (b) and (c)

20) Acceleration time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is given. Then average

acceleration between t = 0 s & t = 4 s is :-

(1) 0 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 7.5 m/s2

21) An object is thrown horizontally from a tower H meter high with a velocity of m/s. Its
speed on striking the ground will be :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Which of the following graph represents particle moving with constant velocity ?

(1) A, B only
(2) A only
(3) C only
(4) A, B, C

23) vx is the velocity of a particle moving along the x axis as shown. If x = 2.0 m at t = 1.0 s, what is

the position of the particle at t = 6.0 s?

(1) – 2.0 m
(2) + 2.0 m
(3) + 1.0 m
(4) – 1.0 m

24) Path of projectile of two particles is shown in the figure. If T1 and T2 are time of flight of particle

(1) and (2) respectively, then :-

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 < T2
(3) T1 = T2
(4) Can't say
25)

Three blocks are connected by string and pulled by a force F = 60 N as shown in figure. If mA = 10
kg, mB = 5 kg & mC = 15 kg, then :

(a) Acceleration of the system is 2 m/s2

(b) T1 = 10 N
(c) T2 = 30 N
(d) Net force on block B will be 10 N

Correct statements are :-

(1) Only (a) & (b)
(2) Only (a) & (c)
(3) Only (a), (b) & (c)
(4) Only (a), (c) & (d)

26) If the system is released, then the acceleration of the block of mass m is (assume pulley and

string to be ideal) :-

(1) g/4
(2) g/2
(3) g
(4) 2g

27) The elevator shown in figure is descending with an acceleration of 2 m/s2. The mass of the block

'A' is 5 kg. Force exerted by block 'A' on block B is :- (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 40 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 10 N
(4) Data insufficient

28) Two forces, one with a magnitude of 3N and the other with a magnitude of 5N, are applied to an
object. For which orientations of the forces shown in the diagrams is the magnitude of the
acceleration of the object the least?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In order to jump off the floor, the floor must exert a force on you :-

(1) in the direction of your weight and equal to your weight.

(2) opposite to your weight and equal to your weight.
(3) opposite to your weight and less than your weight.
(4) opposite to your weight and greater than your weight.

30) Shown system is released at t = 0. Select INCORRECT statement about subsequent motion of
blocks. Here strings are massless and pulley is frictionless & massless. [g = 10 m/s2]

(1) Acceleration of A is equal to 1 m/s2

(2) Tension T1 = 5N
(3) Tension T2 = 9N
(4) Clamp force on pulley is 9N.

31) A particle is moving along x-axis. Its v2 and position graph is given in the figure. Initial

acceleration of the object :-

(1) zero
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

32) With what minimum acceleration should wedge "A" be moved so the block "B" remains at rest

with respect to "A". [All surface are smooth] :-

(1)

(2)

(3) g
(4) Not possible

33) Assertion :- A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.
Reason :- To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

34) Assertion :- When a body starts from rest subjected to a uniform acceleration, it always move in
a straight line.
Reason :- For uniformly accelerated motion along straight line, the position versus time graph is a
straight line.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

35) A body is projected with a velocity v = m/s–1. The maximum height attained by the body
(take acceleration due to gravity = m/s–2) :-

(1) 0.8 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 800 m

SECTION-B

1)
Equation for the straight line shown in the figure is:-

(1) ν = – t – 2
(2) ν = t – 2
(3) ν = t + 2
(4) ν = – t + 2

2) In the cube of side 'a' shown in the figure, the vector from the central point G of the face ABOD to

the central point H of the face BEFO will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Column-I shows vector diagram relating three vectors and . Match the vector equation in
column-II, with vector diagram in column-I :

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P)

(B) (Q)
 (C) (R)

(D) (S)

(1) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q

(2) A→R, B→S, C→Q, D→P
(3) A→R, B→Q, C→P, D→S
(4) A→Q, B→P, C→S, D→R

4) An object is projected vertically up from ground at t = 0 in the presence of uniform gravity (g =

10 m/s2). It is observed to be at a given height at two instants of time t = 2s and t = 4s. Match the
column (All values are given in SI unit) :-

List-I List-II
Initial velocity
(I) (P) 10
of projection.
Maximum height
(II) (Q) 30
attained by particle.
Distance covered
(III) by particle in t = 2s (R) 45
to t = 4s.
Time taken to come
(IV) back to initial point (S) 6
of projection.
(1) I→S, II→P, III→Q, IV→R
(2) I→Q, II→R, III→P, IV→S
(3) I→Q, II→R, III→S, IV→P
(4) I→P, II→S, III→R, IV→Q

5) Find value of frictional force acting on block A:-

(1) 50 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 30 N

6)
Velocity (in m/s) of a particle moving in a straight line is given by V = (t2 – 2t +1) :-

List-I List-II

Velocity (in m/s) of

(P) (1) 1
particle at t = 3 sec is

Acceleration (in m/s2)

(Q) (2) 2
of particle at t = 2 sec is

Time (in sec) when

(R) (3) 3
particle is at rest is

Magnitude of average
acceleration (in m/s2)
(S) (4) 4
of particle in first one
second is
(1) P→3, Q→2, R→4, S→1
(2) P→4, Q→3, R→2, S→1
(3) P→4, Q→2, R→1, S→1
(4) P→1, Q→4, R→3, S→2

7) Average speed (vavg) and average velocity gives measure of overall fastness or slowness of
the motion of a particle for a given time interval. Average speed and average velocity are always
defined for a time interval.

Consider a particle which is at point A at time t1 and moves to B in

time t2 – t1 along the path ACB then,

Average speed (vavg) =

Average velocity =

Average speed is a scaler quantity while average velocity is vector quantity whose direction is same
as the direction of displacement. A particle moves from point A to B with constant speed v1 and from
B to A with constant speed v2. Distance between two points A to B is L. Neglect time taken to change
the speed. Select the correct statement(s).

(1)
Average speed for whole journey is equal to .

(2)
Average speed for whole journey is equal to .
(3) Average speed for whole journey is equal to zero.
Average velocity for whole journey is equal to
(4)

8) Acceleration–time graph of a particle is as shown in figure. Initially particle was at rest and moves
on straight line with variable acceleration. Find the time at which particle will have maximum

magnitude of velocity.

(1) 4 sec
(2) 8 sec
(3) 16 sec
(4) 35 sec

9) Boys A, B and C are moving with constant velocities as shown in diagram.

vPQ → it shows velocity of P w.r.t. Q.

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Correct statements are :-

(1) Only (a) & (b)

(2) Only (b) & (c)
(3) Only (c) and (d)
(4) Only (a), (b) & (c)

10) Two particles 1 and 2 move with constant velocities and . At the initial moment their radius
vectors are equal to and . How must these four vectors be inter-related for the particles to
collide?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

11) All surfaces shown in figure are smooth. For what ratio m1 : m2 : m3, system is in equilibrium ?

All pulleys and strings are massless.

(1) 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 2 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 2 : 2

12) A 10kg block is held at rest against rough vertical wall by applying a horizontal force F as

shown, then magnitude of force F can't be :-

(1) 1000 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 1500 N
(4) 2000 N

13) In the figure shown, find the accelerations of blocks A, B and C immediately after string
connecting between block B and block C is cut.

(1) aA = 3g↓, aB = g↓, aC = g↓

(2) aA = 2g↓, aB = aC = 0
(3) aA = 3g↓, aB = aC = 0
(4) aA = 0, aB = g , aC = g↓

14) In the system shown both pulley and string are massless. Mass of each block is M and a force F

is applied on both the blocks as shown. The tension in the string is :-

(1) Mg
(2) 2Mg
(3) Mg + F
(4) Mg – F

15) ‘y-x’ graph of the particle moving in plane is given below. If the graph shows the motion of a

particle for 2 sec, the ratio of average velocity and average speed is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY
 SECTION-A

1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

If 0.15 mole of H2 are reacting, then how many moles of N2 are required :-

(1) 0.5 mol

(2) 0.15 mol
(3) 0.05 mol
(4) 1.5 mol

2) What is the mass percent of oxygen in ethanol ?

(1) 16%
(2) 34.73%
(3) 17.36%
(4) 26.26%

3) If water sample are taken from river, ponds or pipe. They contain hydrogen and oxygen in the
ratio of 1 : 8 by mass. This law is :-

(1) Multiple proportion

(2) Mass conservation
(3) Definite proportion
(4) Gaseous volume

4) How many mL of 0.2 M NaOH solution contains 0.2 g NaOH ?

(1) 250 mL
(2) 25 mL
(3) 2.5 mL
(4) 0.25 mL

5) 0.0112 mL of oxygen gas at NTP is :-

(1) 5 × 10–7 mol

(2) 5 × 10–3 mol
(3) 5 × 10–6 mol
(4) 5 × 10–2 mol

6) 2Ca + O2 → 2CaO
Maximum amount of CaO that can be produced by 10 mol of Ca is ?

(1) 1 mol
(2) 2 mol
(3) 5 mol
(4) 10 mol

7) A 5 dm3 hydrocarbon on combustion produces 10 L CO2 and 10 L H2O. Find it's formula :-

(1) CH4
(2) C3H8
(3) C2H6
(4) C2H4

8) Which of the following sample has maximum mass :-

(1) 1 mole of CO2

(2) 5 gram-molecules of oxygen
(3) 5 moles of N2
(4) 2 moles of helium

9) An organic compound contains C = 40%, H = 6.7% and rest is oxygen. It's empirical formula will
be :-

(1) CH2O2
(2) CH4O
(3) CH2O
(4) C3H4O2

10) Find the total number of neutrons in 3.2 g CH4 ?

(1) 1.2 NA
(2) 2.4 NA
(3) 0.6 NA
(4) NA

11) 15 g of a gas occupies 12 L of volume at NTP. The gas is :-

(1) N2O
(2) CO
(3) C3O2
(4) NO

12) 1 amu is :-

(1) 1.66 × 10–24 mg

(2) 1.6 × 10–24 kg
(3) 1.66 × 10–24 g
(4) 1.6 × 10–20 g
13) A sample of CaCO3 is 80% pure. Amount of CO2 obtained by complete decomposition of 20 g of
sample is :-

(1) 0.08 mol

(2) 0.2 mole
(3) 0.16 mole
(4) 0.02 mol

14) Number of de-Broglie waves in sixth excited state of hydrogen atom is :-

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 8

15) Convert 38 mm of Hg pressure into atm :-

(1)
atm

(2)
atm

(3)
atm

(4)
atm

16) Which is not a basic SI unit :-

(1) m
(2) kg
(3) cd
(4) amu

17) 3.01 × 1021 molecules of urea are present in 500 mL solution. The molarity is :-

(1) 10–1 M
(2) 10–2 M
(3) 10–3 M
(4) 10–4 M

18) Law of multiple proportion is valid for :-

(1) CaCO3 & SrCO3

(2) NaBr & NaCl
(3) CO & C3O2
(4) SO2 & CO2
19) Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength (all have same velocity) ?

(1) NH3
(2) CO2
(3) electron
(4) Proton

20) Shortest wavelength in paschen series of Li+2 ion will be :-

(1) R

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following quantum number set is not possible :-

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = +1, S = –1/2

(2) n = 4, ℓ = 1, m = +2, S = +1/2
(3) n = 4, ℓ = 3, m = 0, S = +1/2
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 0, S = –1/2

22) ratio is minimum for :-

(1) H⊕
(2) He⊕
(3) Na⊕
(4) Mg+2

23) Nucleus which are isoneutronic :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) Which configuration follows Hund's rule :-

(1) [He]

(2)
[He]

(3)
[He]
(4)
[He]

25) Atomic weight of an element is 62.8, it has 2 isotopes : X62 and X64. What is % occurence of
lighter isotope :-

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 80

26) The energies of 2 radiations are 50 eV & 150 eV respectively. The relation of their wavelengths
λ1 and λ2 is :-

(1) λ1 = 3λ2
(2) λ1 = 2λ2
(3) λ2 = 3λ1
(4) None

27) If wavelength of a photon is 400 nm then its energy is :-

(1) 10–18 J
(2) 5 × 10–19 J
(3) 10–16 J
(4) 5 × 10–17 J

28) Angular momentum of M-shell electron is :-

(1)

(2) 0

(3)

(4)

29) For Be+3, r2 : r5 will be :-

(1) 25 : 4
(2) 9 : 25
(3) 25 : 9
(4) 4 : 25

30) The energy of H-atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of n = 4 will be :-

(1) –0.54 eV
(2) –0.85 eV
(3) –3.4 eV
(4) –1.51 eV

31) If total energy of H-atom e– is –1.51 eV. Then potential energy will be :-

(1) –2.02 eV
(2) –3.02 eV
(3) –1.51 eV
(4) +3.02 eV

32) Ionisation energy of He+ ion will be :-

(1) 54.4 eV
(2) 40.8 eV
(3) 13.6 eV
(4) –54.4 eV

33) If uncertainity in momentum of an e– is three times uncertainity in position. Then what will be
uncertainity in momentum :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Distance between 2nd and 3rd shell of H-atom :-

(1) 1.2 Å
(2) 2.65 Å
(3) 4.30 Å
(4) 1.65 Å

35) Which orbital has zero spherical node :-

(1) 4d
(2) 5f
(3) 2p
(4) 6p

SECTION-B

1) The volume of air required to burn 10 L of C2H2 is :-

(1) 25 L
(2) 50 L
(3) 100 L
(4) 125 L

2) 2A + 2B → 3C
The amount of C formed when 4 moles of A react with 12 mol of B :-

(1) 6 mol
(2) 2 mol
(3) 18 mol
(4) 3 mol

3) How many moles of Ca3(PO4)2 will contain 0.8 mol oxygen atoms :-

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.01
(3) 0.001
(4) 0.00001

4) Which of the following pair of gases contains same number of molecules ?

(1) 32g O2 & 14g N2

(2) 16g O2 & 22g CO2
(3) 28g N2 & 22g CO2
(4) 8g O2 & 32g N2

5) Which of the following is a homogenous mixture ?

(1) Water + Oil

(2) Water + Alcohol
(3) Blood
(4) Water + Sand

6) In the relationship
Molecular formula = (empirical formula)n
The "n" is :-

(1) Zero value

(2) Only positive integer value
(3) Any value
(4) Negative value

7) In a compound the number of C atoms are 2.4 × 106 and O atoms are 4.8 × 106. It's empirical
formula will be :-
(1) CO
(2) CO2
(3) C3H4
(4) C3O2

8) Which of the following set belongs to lowest energy :-

(1) n = 2, ℓ = 0
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 0
(3) n = 4, ℓ = 1
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 2

9) In Cr atom number of electrons with n = 2 are :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

10) How many electrons are in calcium with ℓ = 1 :-

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 24

11) If only mass of neutron is doubled, then percentage change in atomic mass of C12 :-

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 90%

12) X+4 has 10 protons then find no. of protons in X–4 ion :-

(1) 14
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10

13) Bohr theory is applicable to :-

(1) He+2
(2) Na+
(3) Li+2
(4) Mg+2

14) The highest velocity of e– will be for :-

(1) Li+2, n = 3
(2) Be+3, n = 6
(3) He+, n = 8
(4) H, n = 4

15) Which transition will require maximum energy :-

(1) 1 → 2
(2) 1 → 3
(3) 1 → 4
(4) 5 → 1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is not the constituents of cell wall of kingdom plantae ?

(1) Hemicellulose
(2) Pectin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Chitin

2) Central part of the centriole differs with axoneme of cilia and flagella in having :-

(1) Radial spoke

(2) Doublets of microtubule
(3) Singlets of microtubules
(4) Protein hub

3) Outer membrane of nucleus remains continuous with which cell organelle ?

(1) Golgi complex

(2) Lysosome
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Chloroplast

4) The cells which actively take part in protein synthesis, have large size or more number of :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Peroxisomes
(4) Nucleolous

5) Which event is not common between interphase and interkinesis ?

(1) Growth in cell

(2) RNA synthesis
(3) DNA synthesis
(4) Protein synthesis

6) Which of the following cell organelle is not considered as a part of endomembrane system ?

(1) Peroxisome
(2) Lysosome
(3) Vacuole
(4) Golgi complex

7) Which of the following statement is correct about interphase ?

(1) It is the phase present between two successive M-phase

(2) It lasts for less than 10% in duration of cell cycle in human cell
(3) It is also known as mitotic phase
(4) It is metabolically inactive phase

8) Select the incorrect pair about chromosomes :-

(1) Primary constriction - Centromere

(2) Secondary constriction - Non staining area
(3) Telocentric - Terminal centromere
(4) Acrocentric - Central centromere

9) The vesicular membrane bound structures formed by packaging in golgi complex are :-

(1) Lysosome
(2) Ribosome
(3) Centrosome
(4) Mitochondria

10) The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is :-

(1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene

11) Molecular transport across the cell membrane through Na+/K+ pump is called :-
(1) Simple diffusion
(2) Passive transport
(3) Fascilitated diffusion
(4) Active transport

12)

Appearance of chaismata is the feature of :-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diakinesis

13) Cilia and flagella are similar in :-

(1) Size or length

(2) Number per cell
(3) Type of movement
(4) Arrangement of microtubule

14) In metaphase II of meiosis :

Statement I: Chromosomes align at the equator.
Statement II: Microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of
sister chromatids.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

15) Which of the following statement is/are correct with respect to reduction division ?
(A) Diakinesis is marked by appearance of chiasmata
(B) Duplication of centrioles occurs in anaphase-I
(C) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exhibit crossing over (D) Interkinesis is short
lived phase which is followed by prophase-II a much simpler phase than prophase-I

(1) A, B
(2) B, D
(3) A, C
(4) Only D

16) Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton ?

(1) Maintain the shape of cell

(2) Motility
(3) Transport
(4) Mechanical support

17) Match the column-A with B :-

Column-A Column-B

(a) Aleuroplast (I) Photosynthesis

Store
(b) Amyloplast (II)
carbohydrates

(c) Chloroplast (III) Store protein

Provide colour
(d) Chromoplast (IV)
to petals

Select the correct option :-

(1) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
(2) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
(3) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
(4) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I

18) Which of the following cell organelle richly present in secretory cells ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Lysosome

19) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Plasmodesmata connect the cytoplasm of two adjacent plant cells.

(2) Chromosomes are organised form of genetic material in prokaryotic cells.
(3) Cilia are small bristle like structures sprouting out of bacterial cell.
(4) In yeast, the contractile vacuole is important for osmoregulation & excretion.

20) Division of centromere is absent in-

(1) Anaphase of mitosis

(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) All of these

21) Which of the following is not correct for the anaphase in mitosis ?

(1) Centromeres split and chromatids separate.

(2) Daughter chromosomes move to opposite poles.
(3) Reformation of ER and Golgi apparatus.
(4) Number of chromosomes become double in cell.

22) Important site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids is :-

(1) ER
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria

23) Which type of chromosome is present in the anaphase-I of cell cycle ?

(1) 2 chromatids
(2) 1 chromatid
(3) 4 chromatids
(4) 8 chromatids

24) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) In matrix of mitochondria enzymes for calvin cycle present.

(2) Matrix possesses single circular DNA molecule.
(3) Cristae increase the surface are for ATP synthesis
(4) Both membranes of mitochondria have specific own enzymes.

25) The space limitted by the inner membrane of chloroplast is the site of :-

(1) Synthesis of carbohydrates and protein.

(2) Formation of lysosome.
(3) Synthesis of NADH + H+
(4) Electron transport system.

26) Identify the figure and label A, B and C respectively :-

(A) - Nucleoplasm, (B) - Nucleolus,

(1)
(C) - Nuclear pore
(A) - Nucleolus, (B) - Nucleoplasm,
(2)
(C) - DNA
(A) - Nucleoplasm, (B) - Nuclear pore,
(3)
(C) - Nucleolus
(A) - Nucleolus, (B) - Nucleoplasm,
(4)
(C) - Nuclear membrane
27) Which of the following is living enucleated cell :-

(1) Mature companion cells of vascular plant

(2) Mature nerve cell
(3) Mature erythrocytes of human
(4) Mature vessels of vascular plants.

28) Select the incorrect option :-

(1) (A) Centromere at middle

(2) (C) Centromere close to its end
(3) (B) Centromere quite away from middle
(4) (D) Telocentric position

29) Assertion : Metaphase is the stage at which morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied.
Reason : At metaphase, Condensation of chromosomes is completed.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Assertion (A) :- Potato tuber has amyloplasts.

Reason (R) :- Amyloplasts is a type of leucoplast which stores food as starch.
Select the correct option :

(1) A & R both true, R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A & R both true, R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

31) Choose the correct statements regarding cell cycle.

I. M-phase is also called the resting phase because DNA replication does not occur during this
phase.
II. Interphase is the time during which the cell is preparing for division.
III. The interphase is divided into four prominent phases, i.e. G0, G1, S and G2-phase.
IV. Interphase represents the phase between the two successive M-phases.
The option with correct statement is :-

(1) I and IV
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) II and IV

32) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about meiosis ?

I. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them.
II. Two diploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II.
III. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II,
but only a single cycle of DNA replication.
IV. Meiosis-I is initiated after the parental chromosome replication, which produces identical sister
chromatids at the S-phase.

(1) I and III

(2) Only II
(3) II and III
(4) I, II, III and IV

33) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

A. Terminalisation 1. Metaphase-I

B. Histone synthesis 2. Anaphase-I

C. Disjunction 3. Diakinesis

D. Post Interkinesis 4. Meiosis-II

Double
E. 5. S-phase
equatorial plate

Codes :
A B C D E

(1) 5 2 1 3 4

(2) 3 5 4 2 1

(3) 2 5 4 1 3

(4) 3 5 2 4 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Assertion (A) :- Cell growth is a continuous process in terms of cytoplasmic increase.
Reason (R) :- DNA synthesis occurs only during two specific stages in the cell cycle.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

35) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order of their
size. Choose the correct option among the followings.
I. Mycoplasma
II. Ostrich eggs
III. Human RBC
IV. Bacteria

(1) I, IV, III, II

(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) II, I III, IV
(4) III, II, I, IV

SECTION-B

1) Choose the incorrect pair.

Best material to
(1) study cell membrane RBC of human
structure

Arrangement of
(2) lipids in cell Bilayer
membrane

Abundant lipid in
(3) Phospholipid
cell membrane

Cell membrane Carbohydrates +

(4)
composition lipids only
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) According to the modern concept, cell membrane is :-

(1) Solid
(2) Quasifluid
(3) Fluid
(4) Solidified sheath

3) Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane ?

(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Nuclei
(4) Mitochondria

4) Which of the following statements is correct about chloroplast ?

(1) They are single membranous structures.

(2) They contain ds circular DNA.
(3) The ribosomes present in stroma of chloroplast are 80S.
(4) Inner membrane is relatively more permeable.

5) Which of the following statements is false ?

(1) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other.

(2) Centrioles form the basal body of spindle fibres only.
(3) Each centriole has an organisation like that of a cartwheel.
(4) Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical centrioles.

6) The cells that lack nucleus are :-

(1) Erythrocytes of many mammals

(2) Seive tube cells of vascular plants
(3) Lymphocyte of mammals
(4) Both (1) & (2)

7) The chromosomes are divided into how many types of the basis of position of centromere ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Eight
(4) Sixteen

8) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) A single human cell has 2 m long thread of DNA.

(2) Part of chromosomes after secondary constriction is called telomere.
(3) Centromere forms primary constriction.
(4) Chromatin consists of DNA, RNA, histones and non-histones.

9) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

Protein
A. Lysosomes 1.
synthesis

Hydrolytic
B. Ribosomes 2.
activity

Smooth endoplasmic Steroid

C. 3.
reticulum synthesis
 Formation of
D. Centriole 4.
spindle

Codes :
A B C D
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 1 3 4 2
(3) 1 4 3 2
(4) 4 3 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Cytoplasmic division occurs via cell plate formation in :-

(1) Animal cells

(2) Plant cells
(3) Bacterial cells
(4) Mammalian cells

11) The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope in a cell cycle marks the :-

(1) Start of prophase of mitosis

(2) Start of metaphase of mitosis
(3) End of anaphase of mitosis
(4) Start of telophase of mitosis

12) The process of crossing over occurs between :-

(1) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosome

(2) Non-sister chromatids of of homologous chromosome
(3) Sister chromatids of non homologous chromosome
(4) Non-sister chromatids of non homologous chromosome

13) Assertion (A) :- Meiotic division occurs in sexually reproducing organisms.

Reason (R) :- Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of
each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

14) Match the following columns.

 Column-I Column-II

Disintegration of
A. 1. Anaphase
nuclear membrane

Appearance of
B. 2. Prophase
nucleolus

Division of
C. 3. Telophase
centromere

D. Replication of DNA 4. S-phase

Codes :
A B C D
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 3 2 1 4
(4) 3 2 4 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Identify the incorrect statement about meiosis.

(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(2) Four haploid cells are formed
(3) At the end of meiosis, the number of chromosomes is reduced to half
(4) Two cycles of DNA replication occurs

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Segments with a serial repetition of atleast some organs. This phenomena is called :-

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metamerism
(3) Metagenesis
(4) Metachrosis

2) The statement not applicable for sponges is :-

(1) They have calcareous spicules

(2) They all have radial symmetry
(3) Cellular level of organisation
(4) Sexual reproduction occurs by gametes.

3) Metamorphosis in life is shown by :-

(1) Chelone
(2) Struthio
(3) Rana
(4) Delphinus

4) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
(2) Over one-third of all named species on Earth are Arthropods.
(3) Platyhelminthes are mostly endoparasites found in animals including human beings.
(4) Respiration in Amphibians is by gills, lungs & skin.

5) For subphylum vertebrata, how many of following statements are not incorrect ?
(a) Possess notochord during embryonic period.
(b) Heart is muscular and dorsal.
(c) Unpaired appendages (fins or limbs)
(d) Kidneys for excretion & osmoregulation.

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

6) Cycloid scales are absent in :-

(1) Catla
(2) Labeo
(3) Clarius
(4) Pristis

7) From the given list in reference to their exo-skeleton, how many are correctly matched ?
(a) Arthropods - chitin
(b) Reptiles - Epidermal scales
(c) Mollusca - Calcareous shell
(d) Coelenterata - Corals
(e) Mammals - Hairs

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 3
8) Notochord extends from head to tail region and persists throughout their life in :-

(1) Ascidia
(2) Salpa
(3) Doliolum
(4) Amphioxus

9) File like rasping organ called radula is present in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which aquatic phylum shows internal fertilisation ?

(1) Porifera
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Coelenterata
(4) Hemichordata

11) The phylum porifera possess water ____(a)____ system while phylum echinodermata possess
water ___(b)___ system.

(1) b - canal, a- vascular

(2) a - canal, b- canal
(3) b - vascular, a - vascular
(4) b- vascular, a - canal

12) Which of the following are not vectors ?

(a) Laccifer (b) Culex
(c) Limulus (d) Aedes
(e) Anopheles (f) Apis

(1) b, d, e
(2) b, e, f
(3) a, c, f
(4) c, d, e

13) Find out the correctly matched :-

Column-I Column-II

(1) Aplysia Cuttle fish

(2) Fasciola Hook worm

(3) Physalia Portugese Man of war

(4) Antedon Brittle star

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Planaria possess high capacity of :-

(1) Metagenesis
(2) Metamorphosis
(3) Regeneration
(4) Bioluminescence

15) How many of the following share exclusively marine habitat ?

Ctenophora, Echinodermata, Hemichordata, Urochordata, Chondrichthyes

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

16) Jelly fish belongs to phylum :-

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Porifera
(4) Arthropoda

17) Find out a non parasitic form in the given options :-

(1) Taenia
(2) Ascaris
(3) Nereis
(4) Fasciola

18) Open circulatory system is not present in :-

(1) Tunicates
(2) Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Annelida

19)

Myxine is a not a true fish because of :-

(1) Presence of gills

(2) Absence of operculum on gill aperture
(3) Absence of paired fins & true jaws.
(4) Notochord is persistent throughout life.

20) Correct set of poisonous snakes is :-

(1) Python, Eryx, Naja

(2) Python, Krait, Rat snake
(3) Rat snake, Naja, Viper
(4) Naja, Krait, Viper

21) Which one assists in locomotion ?

(a) Parapodia - Nereis
(b) Suckers - Taenia
(c) Tubefeet - Asterias
(d) Ciliary combplates - Pleurobrachia

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, c, d

22) Statement-I :- In frog, partial digestion occurs in stomach by HCl.

Statement-II :- Alimentary canal of frog opens into bidders canal with final opening in cloaca.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

23) In frog, during aestivation, gaseous exchange takes place by :-

(1) Lungs
(2) Buccal cavity
(3) Skin
(4) Gills

24) How many vasa-efferentia arise from testes of male frog ?

(1) 25-30
(2) 10-12
(3) 10-pairs
(4) 3-4

25) Which of the following is incorrect about frog ?

(1) Cold blooded

(2) Vocal-sac in male
(3) Bidders canal in female
(4) Cutaneous respiration

26) Ground substance of connective tissue accumulate between cells is formed by :-

(1) Collagen protein

(2) Elastin protein
(3) Hyaluronic acid (modified polysaccharide)
(4) Keratin protein

27) Which is correct about areolar connective tissue ?

(1) Cells and fibres are loosely arranged.

(2) Act as support frame work for epithelium
(3) It is present beneath skin.
(4) All of the above

28) What is the function of nervous-tissue ?

(1) Covering and protection

(2) To connect structures
(3) Contraction and relaxation
(4) Generate and conduct impulse
29) Nucleus of a epithelium found in large intestine is located at _____A_____ of cell.

(1) A = Apex
(2) A = Middle
(3) A = Base
(4) A = Nucleus absent

30) Which of the following is an exocrine gland ?

(1) Mammary gland

(2) Thyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Pituitary gland

31) Maximum amount of matrix is produced by :-

(1) Mast cells

(2) Fibroblast cells
(3) Macrophages
(4) Lymphocytes

32) Tendon is :-

(1) A structure which connect bone to bone.

(2) A structure which connect muscle to bone.
(3) A structure which store fat.
(4) A structure for weight bearing

33) Which of the following is incorrect about bone ?

(1) Hard and non-pliable ground substance

(2) Rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(3) Present in the tip of nose
(4) Osteocyte ae present in lacunae

34) Assertion : Main functions of simple cuboidal epithelium are secretion and absorption.
Reason : The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles in a specific direction.

(1) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) is correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) incorrect
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

35) Dense connective tissue is :-

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Ligament
(4) Areolar tissue

SECTION-B

1) From the list of given characters, which of them represent Chondricthyes & Osteicthyes ?
(a) Placoid scales
(b) Operculum present
(c) Air bladder present
(d) Mostly viviparous
(e) External fertilisation
(f) Notochord persistent throughout life.

Chondricthyes Osteicthyes

(1) a, b, d c, e, f

(2) a, d, f b, c, e

(3) b, c, d a, e, f

(4) b, c, e a, d, f
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Digestive system is absent in :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

3) Statement-1 :- The skin of Aves is unique in possessing hairs.

Statement-2 :- Most unique mammalian character is presence of mammary glands.

(1) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

(2) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(4) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

4) Which one of the following statements about all the four of Fasciola, Earthworm, Psittacula and
Camelus is correct ?

(1) Camelus is poikilothermic while the remaining are homeothermic.

(2) All are free living organisms.
(3) All possess closed circulatory system.
(4) All are bilaterally symmetry.

5) Presence of air cavities in bone helps columba for _____.

(1) Flying
(2) Swimming
(3) Leaping
(4) Walking

6) Which of the following set corresponds to similar function in different phylums ?

(1) Nephridia, Proboscis gland, Tracheal system

(2) Lungs, Book lungs, Nephridia
(3) Flame cells, Malpighian tubules, Kidney
(4) Ctenidia, Lungs, Kidney
7) Identify a, b, c, d

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Free
(1) Sexual Sessile Asexual
swimming

Free
(2) Sessile Asexual Sexual
swimming

Free
(3) Sessile Sexual Asexual
swimming

Free
(4) Asexual Sessile Sexual
swimming
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Assertion :- Aves and mammals are homeothermal animals.

Reason :- Aves and mammals are able to maintain a constant body temperature.

(1) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

(2) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.

9) Identify the incorrect match :-

(1) Porifera, ostia, choanocytes, indirect development, sycon

(2) Coelenterata, Cnidoblasts, Gastrovascular cavity, Triploblastic, Adamsia
(3) Ctenophora, Combplates, Diploblastic, indirect development, Ctenoplana
(4) Platyhelminthes, Flame cells, Parasite, Digestive tract absent, Tapeworm

10) Which of the following is correct for circulatory system of heart of frog ?

(1) 3-chambered heart, open circulation, sinus-venosus

(2) 3-chambered heart, close-circulation, 2-ventricles
(3) 3-chambered heart, open-circulation, 2-Atria
(4) 3-chambered heart, close-circulation, sinus-venosus
11) Assertion (A) :- Maximum reabsorption is done in P.C.T. of nephron.
Reason (R) :- Brush-border simple cuboidal epithelium is present in P.C.T. of nephron.

(1) Both (A) & (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) is correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) Assertion is correct but Reason is false.

12) Which of the following is related with Adhering junctions ?

(1) Allow leakage of substances

(2) Prevent leakage of substances
(3) Perform cementing
(4) Rapid transfer of ions

13) Which of the following tissue serve as support framework for epithelium ?

(1) Adipose connective-tissue

(2) Areolar connective-tissue
(3) Skeletal connective-tissue
(4) Fluid connective-tissue

14) Which of the following is a fluid connective tissue ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Blood
(4) Ligaments

15) Which of the following is correct statement ?

A. Tight junctions help to allow substances from leaking.
B. Main function of compound epithelium is protection against chemical and mechanical stress.
C. Exocrine glands do not have duct and release mucus.
D. Epithelial cells are compactly packed with large intercellular matrix.

(1) B and C
(2) C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) Only B
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 2 1 4 1 4 1 3 2 1 2 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 4 3 4 2 1 1 4 4 4 1 1 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 1 2 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 4 4 2 3 2 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 1 1 3 1 2 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 4 2 1 4 3 1 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 4 3 4 3 1 1 4 1 2 4 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 1 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 4 1 4 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 1 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 4 4 1 4 3 3 3 1 1 3 4 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 1 4 1 3 2 3 2 4 1 3 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

sin 1° = 1 ×

cos 2° = 1

2) = Area
= 5 + 30 + 5 = 40

3)

x = –t2 + 4t + 4

= –2t + 4 = 0 ⇒ t = 2 sec.

= –2 < 0
xmax = – (2)2 + 4(2) + 4
=8

4)

.....(i)

5)

y = sinx
slope = = cosx

at x = ⇒ slope = 0
at x = 0 ⇒ slope = 1

7)
(e2 is constant)

8)
Rmax = A + B
Rmin = |A – B|
4 ≤ R ≤ 26

9) Resultant force = =

10) Use right hand thumb rule.

11)
⇒

12)

13)

v
14)

15) For a particle remains at rest, the net force will be zero.
∴
∴ a = –8, b = –1 and c = 0
∴ (a + b + c) = (–8 – 1 + 0) = –9

16) Area of v-t graph distance

=4×2+ ×1×4+ × 1 × 4 = 12 m

<v> =

17)

South-West = ; = 12 m upward = 12 , = 1 m East = 1

, = 13m

18)

Let initial velocity of ballon is v0 and acceleration is 'a' then velocity at height h

Velocity of stone at ground

vs2 = v2 + 2gh = v02 + 2ah + 2gh
it will be indepnedent from height if (a = –g)

19)

Displacement = 0

Average velocity = =0

Average speed =

20)
average acceleration =

21)

22)

Slope of (x – t) graph in (A) shows constant velocity.

23)

Displacement = Area under v–t graph (t = 1 to 6s)

= ⇒ –3m
s = x2 – x1
⇒ –3 = x – 2 ⇒ x = –1m

24) H1 = H2

u1sinθ1 = u2sinθ2
Hence T1 = T2

25)

a=

T1 = 10 × 2 = 20N

T2 = 15 × 2
T2 = 30 N
Net force on B = 5 × 2 = 10N
 26)

Let the system moves with an acceleration a as shown in the figure.

3mg – T = 3ma
T – mg = ma
On solving
a = g/2

27)

50 – N = 5 × 2 ⇒ N = 40 Newton

28) Magnitude of acceleration will be least when net force is least, which possible when two
vector have angle 180° between them

29) To jump, force has to be larger than weight.

30) Acceleration of system

∴
For block A : T1 = 5a = 5N
For block B : T2 – T1 = 4a ⇒T2=9N

Clamp force

31)

Slope =

32) FBD of B wrt A. [B is at rest wrt A]

33) According to law of inertia (Newton's first law), when cloth is pulled from a table, the cloth
come in state of motion but dishes remains stationary due to inertia. Therefore when we pull
the cloth suddenly from table the dishes remains stationary.

35)

H=

36)

m = tan45° = 1
c = –2
v=t–2

37)

39)
(A) 0 = u – 10 × 3
⇒ u = 30

(B)
(C) 5 + 5 = 10 m
(D) 3 + 3 = 6 second

40)
As block A will be in rest hence
friction force = 20 N

41)

V = (t2 – 2t + 1)
At t = 3 sec, V = 4 m/s

a= = 2t – 2
at t = 2 sec, a = 2 m/s2
when V = 0 ⇒ (t2 – 2t + 1) = 0
⇒ t = 1 sec

aav = = = –1

42)

43) Area under (a – t) curve gives change in velocity.

44)

45) Position vector of particle-1 at time 't'

=
Position vector of particle-2 at time
't' →
For collision, their position vectors should become equal at some time 't'

t
So unit vectors of and should be same.
46)
T = m3g ......(i)
2T = m2g ......(ii)
T = m1g sin 30° ......(iii)

47) For equilibrium

friction ≥ mg
µF ≥ 100
F ≥ 1000 N

48)

FBD of A, B and C immediately after cutting spring

aA = 3g ↓

49) Mg + F – T = Ma ....(1)
T + F – Mg = Ma ....(2)
After solving

a=
put value of a in eq (1)
T = Mg

50)
 Let time of journey is t

average velocity = m/sec

average speed = m/sec

ratio of average velocity to average speed is =

CHEMISTRY

51)

Apply stoichiometry.

52)

mass % =

54)

Molarity =

55)

no. of moles =

60)

n= = mol
neutrons in 1 CH4 molecule = 6

Total neutrons = × NA × 6 = 1.2 NA

62)

1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g

65)

1 atm = 760 mm Hg
69)

75)

Average atomic mass =

76)

77)

78)

79)

r ∝ n2

80)

E4 = –0.85 eV in H-atom.

81)

PE = 2TE

84)

rn = 0.529 Å

85)

Spherical nodes = n – ℓ – 1

86)

C2H2 + O2 → 2CO2 + H2O

Volume of air = 5 × volume of O2
 87)

Limiting reagent concept.

89)

no. of moles ∝ no. of molecules

91)

n is a positive integer.

92)

Empirical formula is simples ratio of number of atoms.

93)

(n + ℓ) rule

94)

Cr ⇒ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

e– with n = 2 are (8)

95)

Ca ⇒ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2

ℓ = 1 ⇒ (12)

97)

No. of protons = Z

98)

Single e– species.

99)

BOTANY

101) NCERT, Pg. # 94

102) NCERT, Pg. # 100

103) NCERT, Pg. # 100

104) NCERT, Pg. # 100

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121, 127

106) NCERT, Pg. # 95

107) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 121, para-2 ; line-2,3

108) NCERT, Pg. # 101

109) NCERT, Pg. # 96

110) NCERT XI Page # 126, Para-3

111) NCERT, Pg. # 94

112)

NCERT, Page-126, Para-3

113) NCERT, Pg. # 99

114)

NCERT XI # 127, Para-5

115) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 126, 127

116) NCERT, Pg. # 98

117) NCERT, Pg. # 97

118) NCERT, Pg. # 96

119) NCERT, Pg. # 91, 94

120)

NCERT XI Pg # 127

121) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 123, 124

122) NCERT, Pg. # 96

123) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 127

124) NCERT, Pg. # 97

125) NCERT, Pg. # 98

126) NCERT, Pg. # 100

127) NCERT, Pg. # 100

128) NCERT, Pg. # 101

129) NCERT Pg # 123

130) NCERT, Pg. # 97

131)

NCERT Pg. # 121, 122

132)

NCERT Pg. # 126, 127

133)

NCERT Pg. # 126, 127

134)

NCERT Pg. # 121

135)

NCERT Pg. # 89, 90

136)

NCERT Pg. # 93, 94

137)

NCERT Pg. # 93

138)

NCERT Pg. # 96

139)

NCERT Pg. # 98

140)

NCERT Pg. # 99, 100

141)

NCERT Pg. # 100

142)

NCERT Pg. # 101

143)

NCERT Pg. # 101

144)

NCERT Pg. # 96, 98, 99

145)

NCERT Pg. # 124

146)
 NCERT Pg. # 123

147)

NCERT Pg. # 126

148)

NCERT Pg. # 128

149)

NCERT Pg. # 121, 122, 123

150)

NCERT Pg. # 125, 126

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT, Pg. # 39, 4.1.5

152) NCERT, Pg. # 40, 4.2.1

153) NCERT, Pg. # 48, 4.2.11.4

154) NCERT, Pg. # 44, 4.2.7

155) NCERT, Pg. # 46, 4.2.11

156) NCERT, Pg. # 48, 4.2.11.3

158) NCERT, Pg. # 46, 4.2.11

160) NCERT, Pg. # 40, 4.2.1

162) NCERT, Pg. # 44, 4.2.7

164) NCERT, Pg. # 42, 4.2.4

169) NCERT, Pg. # 47, 4.2.11.1

170)

(n+ℓ) rule

172) New XI, NCERT, Pg. # 82

173) New XI, NCERT, Pg. # 82

174) New XI, NCERT, Pg. # 83

175) New XI, NCERT, Pg. # 83

176)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 103

177)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 103

178)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 105, 106

179)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 101

180)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 102

181)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 103, Fig. 7.4

182)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 103

183)
Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 104

184)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 101

185)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 103

186) NCERT, Pg. # 47,48, 4.2.11.2, 4.2.11.3

187) NCERT, Pg. # 42, 4.2.4

188) NCERT, Pg. # 50, 4.2.11.7

190) NCERT, Pg. # 49, 4.2.11.5

192) NCERT, Pg. # 41, 4.2.2

193) NCERT, Pg. # 49, 4.2.11.6

195) New XI, NCERT, Pg. # 82

196)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 101

197)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 102

198)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 103

199)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 104

200)
Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 102