Cee) ® Aakash toswus Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, B, Pusa Road, New Dethi-119008, p01 1.47623455 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023 MM : 720 CST-7 ins. Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min Complete Syllabus of NEET jons from (0 There are two sections in each subject, ie, Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 question: Instructions for Paper Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (1) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total Score: Unanswered / unattempted questions willbe given no marks. (i) Use bluerblack ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle, (v)_ Mark should be dark and completely fil the crcl. (¥)_ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only (wil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fuid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet Choose the correct answer: SECTION-A 1, Toa person walking al the rate of 4 ms, the rain appears to fall vertically. When he increases his. speed to 8 mis, it appears to meet him at an angle of 45° with vertical, The speed of rain wrt. ground is (1) 8mis 2) 4V2 mis (@) 4mis (8) 8V2 mis 2, The SI unit of universal gravitational constant (6) is (a) Nk 2) Nmekg @) Nev? kg (4) Unites effciont of volume expansion of mercury is 3 i x 107°C. If the density of mercury at O° jg oe alec. ten its density at 100°C willbe meee eee PHYSICS (1) 133 glee 2) 136 glee (8) 138 glee (4) 12.8 glee Thee point charges are placed at 4 ed at th A.B and Cof a square of ideo a6 ne Coes figure, Electric field at the fourth eornay win the square is "of the “4 a De ie @ Ya(i+j) a (a £9(v2 + z ee Ae, (1) Zero oy (2A Fjost 5. 10, (cod 400 g of ice at 400°C, the final ‘orc is mixed with 20g of steam at 1 temperature of the mixture will be oc (2) 100°C (3) 50°C (4) 40°C The correct mathematical representation of Gauss’s law is (Symbols have their usual meanings) ( few @ §é Gh = ase @ $8 i Sess (4) fea a ‘The variation of elec fl of an EM wave is given by E=80sino(t-2), where all the parameters rein I units and fs the speed of Tight. The tensity ofthe gven wave is (1) 25 Wine (2) 85 Wine (3) 11.2 Wim? (4) 4.5 Wim? For any thermodynamical gaseous system, heat transfer in any process is considered to be a (1) Path function (2) State function (3) May be a path function or state function (4) Neither a path function nor a state function AA body is sliding up along an inclined plane with constant speed as shown in the diagram given below. If us and us are the coefficients of static ‘and kinetic friction respectively then the friction force between the block and inclined will be & XS (1) wsmgcoss (2) pumgsind (3) wumgcos® (4) pamgsing ‘A sample of cast iron exhibits a magnetic field B= 0.1 T. If permeability of iron is 0.05 T m A“ then intensity of magnetising field (H) will be (1) 5m (2) 2Alm (3) 101m (4) 1m “ 12. 13, 14, 15, ‘A block is pulled along an inclined plane a, ‘shown in the diagram given below. If mass of tne block is 2 kg and co-efficient of friction between the block and plane is 0.3, then the work done by friction force when block is displaced by 1m along the plane is y Y A (1) 3V8 J (2) -3y3 J (3) 34 The current passing through a choke coil of self- inductance 10 H is decreasing at the rate of 0.5 Als. The e.m.{. developed across the coll is. (1) 10V (2) 5V (3) 50V (4) 100 V ‘A body is movirig under the action of force ‘F. If speed of the body Is increasing then the angle between the direction of force and velocity can be (1) 45" (2) 90° (3) 120° (4) 145° The equation of current and voltage in an (4-39 ‘AC. circuit is given by i=3sin{ ot) and V = Ssin{ ot») thn the cre is (1) Purely resistive (2) Purely inductive (3) Purely capacitive (4) L-C circuit Consider the following statements for an electric dipole of dipole moment (p) kept in uniform electric field (E). |. Netforce acting on it is zero Ul, Net torque acting on itis zero Ii Potential energy of dipole is -pE Based on above situations, mark the correct option. (1) Statement| alone suagests stable equilibrium (2) Statement alone suggests unstable equilibrium (3) Statement Il alone suggests stable equilibrium (4) Statement | and Il together suggest stable ‘equilibrium (2)tensive Program for NEET-2023 46. In the given circuit, valu CST (Code-h) , le of current tL din (I) flowing | 21. An n-p-n transistor is used in common emitter configuration. The CE amplifier circuit is shown in 10V 30 the figure. Given that an . 7 Vee = 0 V, Ra = 100 kd 1 I Ro=1kQand Vee=2V sv i | a 6V 2 2Re Re a) 3 A (2) 2A Lc @ia (ayia He 8 = 47, Stunt of emf (electromotive force) is From the above information match the entries in column | with entries in columa Il and choose the (1) newton (2) newton per metre cares oplion: ve See coma (3) volt (4) volt per metre Column I Column It 48. Two particles of mass 2 kg and 3 kg are placed a p.| 60 at the diametrically opposite point of a uniform, A. [eseeectatogt eva disc of mass 5 kg and radius 10 om. If centre of B. | Emitter current (in mA) | Q. | 3.0 disc is at origin and masses are placed along © conestr carent Gn ma) | R. | 60 x axis, then position of centre of mass of the Bs | system could be D. | Current gain (B) 8. | 3.05 (1) 1.em,0) 2) (16m, 0) (1) AP), B(Q), CIR), DS) (3) (0,0) (4) Both (1) and (2) (2) A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P) 49. Moment of inertia of a non-uniform. ring of total 3) AR), BQ), C(S), DIP) mass M and radius R, about an axis passing (4) A(S), B(P), C(R), D(Q) through centre of ring and normal to plane of | 22, The nuclear reaction equation for a-decay of ring, will be Rais (1) MR® 3, ‘ (1) %2Ra—>“seRn + $He @ Me ad a (2) 23Ra—> ‘e6Rn + 3He 2 m4 @ (3) %Ra—> “oTh + $He (4) 2MRe (4) ?2§Ra—> seRn+ SHe 20. Which emong the following is inorganic elemental | 23. The poteniel energy of an clessen rn semiconductor? (1) GaAs (2) Anthracene (3) Germanium (4) GaP stationary orbit of the hydrogen atom can be given as, Q ¢ *) ev oe (1) (13.6 n?) eV (3) {axiitv3192077A)ST-7_(Code-A) 24. 25, 26. 2. 29. ‘The root mean square speed of molecules of oxygen gas at 127°C is half of molecules of hydrogen at temperature (1) 100°C. (2) 100K 127 © = (4) 373K ‘A person hear sound waves in the frequency range 20 Hz to 20 kHz. Minimum and maximum wavelengths of sound that is audible to person are respectively (Speed of sound is 360 mis) (1) 18mand 18mm — (2) 20 mand 20 mm (3) 20mmand20m (4) 18 mm and 18 m ‘Awave pulse passing on a string with a speed of 80 cm/s in the negative x-direction has its maxima at x = 4 m at t = 0, Position of this maxima at t= 5 s willbe at (1) x=0m Q)x=-4m (@) x=8m 4) ‘A particle is executing SHM of amplitude 20 cm. Its time period of oscillation is 2x second, Speed of the particle when itis at x = 16 om from meéan position is (1) 196 0ms+ (2) 16 oms* (3) 120ms* (4) 4ems* ‘Two concave mirrors each of focal length 20'cm are placed in front of each other as shown in the figure. An object 'O'is placed in between them. am If image of object formed after reflection coincides with the object itself, then value of d is (1) 20m (2) 40 em (3) 80 em (4) Both (2) and (3) ‘The Young's modulus of a wire of length ‘L’ and band radius ‘? is ‘Y. If length is reduced to > radius 5, then its Young's modulus willbe oy (@) 2 @y (4) 4¥ 4 30, 31. 32 43. 36. Intensive Program for NEET.29; The figure shows a particle of charge q and mas ‘m moving with velocity v along the x-axis enters 2 region of the uniform magnetic field ranging from x = a to x= b. The value of v so that the charge q is deflected by an angle 30° is In a Young's double slit experiment, slits are separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 4150 om away. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 650 nm and 20 nm, is used to ‘obtain interference fringes on the screen. The least distance from the common central maximum to the point where the bright fringes due to both the wavelength coincide is (1) 15.6 mm (2) 1.56 mm (3) 78mm (4) 8.75 mm ifthe momentum of an electron is changed by P, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%. Then the intial momentum of the electron is (1) 2006 (2) 400p Pp ®) 300 (4) 100p In a capillary tube, water rises to a height of ‘3 mm. The height of water that will rise in another capillary tube having one-third radius of the first, will be (1) 1mm (2) 3mm (3) 6mm (4) 9mm The pair of quantities having same dimensional formula is (1) Young's modulus and pressure (2) Angular momentum and eneray (3) Work and energy density (4) Impulse and surface tension ‘The number of significant zeros in the number 0.040200 is. as (3) 2 24 (4)3 (aximiv3t920T7A)SECTIONS) Fa The rms valve oF CUES wy oe 5 36. The Sun's angular diameter is measured to be below for the time duration of 0102s, wil be 4920". The distance (D) of the Sun from the i) Earth is 1.496 « 10"! m. The rac of the Sun is nearly (1) 7* 108m (2) 7* 10m (3) 2* 108m (4) 2* 107m 37. Consider a uniform circular ring of mass Mand adie R. Value of gravitational field on {tS exis ‘wil be maximum at a distance x from centre, iz Ry where 45 a> R ) x=> @)x 2 ay 2 2 8) B 4) 3 ore waxro sox. ovine network of resistance ven a8 show” figure, choose the correct statement ge, A Camot engine is working belwers two ph 20 5 A geroirs of temperature 400 K and ‘600 K. If it SSpsorbs 80 wis from the source, then workedone per second by the engine is ; 29, 40 400 as 2) 129 dis «y Bt oes | 10 80 Dv a) 22 sts as Ms as se, Abody sm uritorm crelar motion In a CFI 12v igus R and having speed ¥. It competence (ay Curent through PQ and STs 18 radi oe in Ts. thon velooty,vectot of é : @k 2Aandh=2A st . particle in 2Z s wil be (sven é body is at ig) Reading of anmeteris A (Ro) a (4) Vo> Va but Vs < Vr y 2 2-4 sx chooee te corect statement fr equipotent 2 2 2 2 surfaces. ogee wad {ty They intersect each ter enya ah andes (2) Tey bocome denser I the region of SONS so. Thor are wo blocks A and B connectod bY @ acne There a ging, es shown In the diagram aver 3 a 3 (3) Work done to move a test charge On them is rater Ma = 2 Kg, Mo = 3 Kg and surface 's peoth. If maximum tension in the sting can De positive constant 40.N then the maximum value of the force F can (4) These surfaces are always parallel planes be A e ‘4h, An eneray of 968 J is spent in increasha the ojo speed of afywheel from 60 rpm to 360 FP The eel aaa sent otra ofthe yen 807 (1) 15N (2) 50N (1) 0.7 kgm? 2) Aka (3) 10N (4) 25N (9) 2.1 kgm? (4) 42 kam? 6) aximnvs192077A)cST-7_{Code-A) ‘45. Which among the truth table are inputs and a resents The fotowing truth tables TePremer” tm Jniversal ‘ogi gate? (A and B Vis the output of logic g2t@) [ape 0 1 0 1 } @) 0 1 1 i ¥, 7 ° 0 ao op|[> = © o> > = ol ° ves an image four times 2s jaced at a distance of 20. cm bbe real, the focal length lo = > ls|[- oo ox =o os|[- > 0 os =o = ofa] [> o = ofa ‘A concave mirror gi large as the object Pl from it. For the image to 46. ‘and P2 are placed with th wo . is Perpend to each other. Unpolariseg fignt fe is incident on Pr ‘A third polaroid Ps is at in between Pi and P2 such that its axis maxes an angle 45° with that of Pr. The intensity Setranemitted light through P= I b bo Ms 4 I ‘ 2 Os OG radiation is incident on @ When ultraviolet surface, no photoel second beam causes ejected, it may consist of (1) Infrared waves (3) Visible light rays 49, Jectrons are emitted. If 2 photoelectrons to be (2) Xrays (4) Radio waves should be (1) 16cm (2) 20cm 60, The magnetic force acting on a charged particle (3) 10em (4) 24m of charge =2 1iC in a magnetic field of 2 T acting scrap ath fas ona plane mirgihen ie} im eeon, when. he particle velocity is A ray of tor UG about an axis which iat ight | (2i43))<108) iis ts angle to the plane of the mirror through 80" the (igh) anal Fen the incident ray and the now! | (1) 8Nin zdrecton feflected ray is 80°. The angle between..the 3 Inetdent ray and the orginal reflected ray was (2) 4Nin zeirection (1) 40° (2) 80" (@) BNin y-tirection (@) 100° or 20° (4) 60" (4) 4 Nin y-direction CHEMISTRY SES TSESTINAU es RE 52 Number of @ and x bonds present - in 51. Statement: No two electrons in an atom can CH,=CH-G—CH,-CN respectively are have the same set of four quantum numbers. Statement: The maximum number of electrons, in the shell with principal quantum number n is ‘equal to n?. In light of above statements, choose the correct answer (1) Both Statements | and II are correct (2) Both Statements | and Il are incorrect (3) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct (4) Statement | is correct but statement Il is incorrect (2) 10 and 2 (4) and 3 reaction sequence (1) At and 4 (3) 12and3 53. Consider the following ‘Major product B is of aA Br Br oe wr t Br (AxilliV31920T7A) 6)Intensive Program for NEET.2023 54. Optically inactive compoun Q >mMpound among the following CH, (1) Ho cH, a a f 1 a) ° 0, 1 oH oH 56. Match the name of the compounds given in list- to the structure given in list List Listll a, |Phenetole w Aspirin w IC Hs je. |Cumene i) }d. |Catechol | () tate Es (1) ati), BG), c(i), dQ) (2) ati), DAW), ei), A) (3) aii), iv), o(), di) (4) ativ) BE, (0), 4) 87. 58. 59. CST-T_(Code-A) Correct order of acidic strength of the given compounds is OH OOH : No, i) qi) “0 ay >> Gi (2) > > Gi) ) iy> > 4) > a> Consider the following reaction sequences, Major product C is Ree kecae a) ey cxeaenrn (2) ° HO-CH-NH-C-NH-NH, ) 9 CH-NH-NH-C-NH, @ ‘Compound which cannot be synthesised by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is A 1 “ @ Aw, NH @60. Consider the following statements @. Maltose reduces Tollens' reagent b. o-D-(+)-glucopyranose and 8-D-(+}glucopy- ranose are epimers. ©. Glucose does not react with NaHSO3 The correct statements are (1) a and b only (2) band c only (3) a bande (4) aandc only 61. Monomers of Buna-S are (1) Isoprene and acrylonitrile (2) Ethylene glycol and Terephthalic acid (3) 1,3-Butadiene and styrene (4) 1,3-Butadiene and acrylonitrile 62. Phenelzine is aan (1) Tranquiizer (2) Antiseptic (3) Antibiotic (4) Antihistaming 63. Maximum number of atoms are present in (1) 279420 (2) 49.9 HaS0s (3) 809NaoH (4) 60g CHsCOOH 64. A gaseous mixture contains equal masses of CO ‘and CO2 gas. If partial pressure of CO gas is 5.5 ‘atm then total pressure of the mixture is (1) 75atm (2) 8atm @) Gatm (4) tat 65. If the enthalpies of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298 K are -890 ki mot, -390 kJ mot! and -285 kJ molt respectively then enthalpy of formation of CHs will be (in kJ mot) (1) 70 (2) 80 (3) -70 (4) -80 66, One mole of NzOu gas at 300 K is Kept ina closed container at taim. It is heated to 600 K, when 20% of NzO« decomposes to NOx(g). The resultant pressure in the container would be (1) 42am (2) 24 atm (8) 20am (4) 1.0 atm 67. Oxidation number of Cr in CrOs is 3 Qs @) +6 @) +10 68. Match List-l with List-l 69. 70. 7. 72. 73, 74, 7. List Lista (Crystal system)! | (Axial angle) a. | Triainic () |a=y=90", p90 ». | Trigonal (il) |= B= 90°, y= 120° Hexagonal (ii) |a = py #90" [a | Monociinic ()la=p=y290° Choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) a(iv), bai), ei), Ai) (2) atv), bét, eft), a¢i (3) ali), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) aii), bi), efiv), aii) If nickel oxide has the formula NiossO1co then ratio of Ni* to Ni®* in the lattice is (1) 1734 (2) 13: 12 (3) 14:4 (4) 11:19 For the minimum boiling azeotrope which of the following is not true? (1) 48mm >0 (2) AGmic> 0 (3) AHnic > 0 (4) AVinix > 0 Minimum boiling point is shown by (Assume 100% dissociation of electrolyte) (1) 0.3 M aqueous Urea (2) 0.2M aqueous CaCle (3) 03 M aqueous NaCl (4) 0.1 Maqueous AICis Mass of calcium deposited when 9.65 A current is passed through the molten CaCk for 100 seconds is (1) 02g (2) 049 @) 29 (4) 49 Unit of rate constant for second order reaction is (1) mol s* Qs (3) mor Ls* (4) mok# L? s+ ‘Which among the following is an example of sol? (1) Celt uid (2) Cheese (3) Butter (4) Froth The IUPAC name and symbol for the element with atomic number 107 is (1) Ununheptium and Uuh (2) Unnitseptium and Uns (8) Ununseptium and Uus (4) Unnilhexium and Unh{tensive Program for NEET.2023, 76, 7. 78, 79, Statements NH and NF: ae Kos molecules. fe . Statomonta: NFS has highs + as Neher dole ‘than NH. : oe In the light of above statements, Select the correct option. (1) Both Statements | and Il are correct. (2) Both Statements | and Il are incorrect. (3) Statement | is correct but statement Il is incorrect. (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement IIs correct. ‘Which among the following methods can remove temporary as well as permanent hardness of water? a. Permut process b._ Synthetic resin method clarks method (1) aandbonly——@) band dori. (@) aendconly abate | The caret order oboling pints show by (1) Nal> NaBr> Naci> NoF (2) NaF > NaCl> NaBr> Nat (8) NaCl> NaBr> NaF > Nel Ce) NaCl> NeF> Nal> NaBr ‘The element which gets affected ‘by. steam ‘among the following is , me @si @) Ge (a) 80 Match the coordination compounds given in Column with the central metal atoms given in Columnn-ll and choose the correct option given bel | coumet | | coum | 2. | Chiorophyi (| Rrodium [Haemoglobin | (i) |Cobat e.|Wikinson catalyst |i) [iron |a:[ vitamin ie (i) [Magnesium (1) afi), qa), ef), Aa) (2) atv), BA, 40 at 82. 83. 85, a7. i), b(), eli), div) (4) a), biti, eH), dv) ° 81-7 (Code HNO, — SEE SHINO, + (X), (X) is (1) NO (2) N2Os (3) No (4) NO In which one of the following arrangements the ‘ven sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it? (1) PHa< NHs < SbHs: Increasing boiling point (2) AsHs < PHs < NHs : Bond dissociation eneray (3) AsHs < PHs < NH :Bond angle (4) NO, $03, CkOr —:Set containing acidic oxides only Extraction of gold involves leaching with CN ion. Gold is later recovered by (1) 2 (2) Na @« (4) cu Polar molecule having different types of bond lengths is (1) xeFe (3) SF Tolal nutter of lone (2) SFo (4) NFS jr of electrons in CIO; ion (4 24 @7 @s ‘SECTION-B” Given below are two Statements: one is labelled fas. Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as ReasoniR). ‘Assertion (A): Critical temperature of CO2 is (greater than CH. Reason (R); Intermolecular forces in COz is stronger than CH. In light of above statements, choose the most ‘appropriate answer from the options given below (1) (A)is correct but (R) is incorrect. (2) (A)is incorrect but (R) is correct. (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is ‘correct explanation of (A). (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A). If for a reaction 4H = ~10 kJ mot and AS is =10 JK~' then temperature at which the reaction willbe atthe equilibrium is (1k (2) 273K @) 100K (4) 1000GST-7_{Code-A) 88, 89. 90. ot. 92. 93. 95, Which of the following can act as Bronsted base as well as acid? (1) HPO. (2) HPO (3) HPO; (4) HOS Which of the following can not undergo disproportionation? (1) Fe (2) Gk @) Bre (ke EMF of the cell given below at 298 K is ‘Sn(s)|Sn#* (0.01 M)|IH* (0-1 M)|Ha(g) (1 barPt(s) (Given E2,.,,, =-0.14V) (1) ov (2) 0.02 8) 0.14V, (4) 0.28 On every 10°C rise, rate constant of a zero order reaction becomes 2 times. The ratio of rate of reaction at 283 K and at 333 K is, (1) 1:8 (2) 1:16 (3) 1:32 (4) 1:64 Gold sol is most easily coagulated by (1) Ae (2) Cate (3) Sor (4) Por Which among the following does not contain Bond angle of 180°? (1) PCls (2) Heck (3) Coz (4) Hes ‘The incorrect statement among the following about caustic soda is (1) It Is generally prepared by electrolysis of brine solution (2) Itis a white translucent solid (3) Itis readily soluble in water to give a strongly acidic solution (4) It is used in manufacture of soap, paper and artificial sik Ifa particle of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 500 ms~' then the de Broglie wavelength of the particle will be (h = 6.6 x 10° Js) (1) 132%10%m (2) 1.82 10% m (8) 132" 10%m (4) 1.32" 10m (10) 96. 97. 98, 100. Intensive Program for Neer... Consider the following statements ‘Adsorption chromatography is based on 1, fact that different compounds are adsorbeg on an adsorbent to different degrees. a b. Thin layer chromatography is a type of partition chromatography. cc. In paper chromatography the chromatography paper contains water trapped in it, which acts a the stationary phase. The correct statements are (2) band c only (3) aandconly (4) a, bande Consider the following reaction sequence CH, a A Sits? BIMajon) (1) aandb only Incorrect statement about B is (1) Itgives positive iodoform test (2) Ithas enolisable hydrogen atoms (3) It does not reduce Fehiing's solution (4) Itgives HVZ reaction Consider the following statements ‘a. Sodium. butanoate when heated with sodalime gives n-butane as major product. b. Benzoic acid on reaction with NaHCOs gives COz gas. Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction, The correct statements are (1) aand b only (2) band c only (3) aandconly (4) a, band ‘Acetamide on reaction with bromine in presence Cf aqueous alkali gives (1) Ethylamine (2) Methylamine (3) Ethyl bromide (4) Methyl bromide Green chemistry, dry cleaning of clothes by chloroethene is replaced by (1) Liquid NHs (2) Liquid Co (3) H202 (4) CChF2 {AXIm11V31920T7A)SECTION-A 101. Carl Woese placed all eukaryotes in (1) All three domains, lower plants in Eukarya ‘and remaining in other two (2) Two domains, Bacteria and Archaea (3) Two domains, Eukarya and some in Archaea (4) A single domain, Eukarya 402. Select the correct statement. (1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in sporozoans (2) Viroids have RNA with protein coat (3) Fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall (4) Some members of Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes are edible 403. Bacteriophages (1) Lack protein coat (2) Ae bacteria which infect other viruses (3) Usually have double-stranded DNA (4) Are not infectious 404. Which of the following disorders is created by imbalance in chromosomal number? (1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Thalassemia (8) Klinefetter’s syndrome (4) Phenylketonuria 405. When both parents are heterozygous for phenylketonuria, then the probability of having trait for phenylketonuria but apparently unaffected offspring will be mt me @3 ot 406. Select the incorrect match. 107. Growth in plants differs from that of animals as (1) occurs only upto a certain age (2) It'shows increase in mass (@) It shows increase in number of cells, (4) It occurs continuously throughout their life span 108. Principles and criteria for giving scientific names of plants are provided it (1) IcNcP (2) IcBN (8) ICNB (4) Icven 409. Which of the following options is an incorrect match? (1) Complex! + NADH dehydrogenase complex (2) Complex ll > Succinate dehydrogenase complex (8) Complex Ill -> Cytochrome oxidase complex (4) Complex V = ATP synthase 4110. Select the incorrectly matched pai Variety Resistance to disease (1) Him Hill bunt (2) Pusa Komal — Bacterial blight (3)-Pusa Sadabahar — Chilli mosaic virus (4) Pusa Swarnim —— Black rot and cur! 414. The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is (1) Primary productivity (2) Secondary productivity (3) Primary production (4) Gross primary productivity 4142. The salt concentration (measured as salinity in paris per thousand), is less than 5 in (1) Female birds -_ Homogametlc (1) Inland waters (2) Male grasshopper - Heterogametic (2) Oceans (3) Female Drosophila - Homogametic (9) Sea (4) Malehumans --—_Heterogametic (4) Hypersaline lagoons «ty axtnv 37920774)113, 114, 118, 116. 117. 118, 119, 120. a EN, Sr Parenchyma does not (1) Perform photosynthesis, (2) Have thin walls composed of cellulose (3) Constitute dead mechanical tissue (4) Have small intercellular spaces Select the non-living element of the phloem (1) Companion cells (2) Phloem fibres (8) Phloem parenchyma (4) Sieve tube element ‘Select the incorrect match w.rt. different shapes: of cells (1) White blood cells (2) Nerve celts (8) Red blood cells Amoeboid. Branched and long Round and biconcave Spindle shaped ‘Who was the first one to explain that cells divided ‘and new cells are formed from pre-existing ells? (1) Rudolf Virchow (2) Matthias Schleiden (8) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (4) Theodore Schwann (4) Mesophyil cells Which among the following is absent in higher plant cells? (1) Coll wait (2) Large central vacuole (@) Plastids (4) Contrioles Select the plant in which their flowers show radial, symmetry and choose the correct option. A. Gulmohur B. Mustard C. Cassia D. Datura (1) Allexcept C (2) Only A, B and C (@) BandD (4) Cand D Epitepalous condition is found in (1) Petunia (2) Asparagus (8) Belladonna (4) Sesbania Assertion: The process of loading of sucrose at the source produces hypertonic condition in the phloem. Reason: Water in the adjacent xylem moves into the phloem by osmosis. (1) Both assertion and reason are true an yy reason is the correct explanation of assert, (2) Both assertion and reason are trio ti reason is not the corract explanation o assertion (3) Assertion is true but reason is false (4) Both assertion and reason are false Which of the following pairs represents tho product of reductive amination? (1) NHj and glutamate 121, (2) NADPH and a-ketoglutaric acid (8) arketoglutaric acid and glutamate (4) Glutamate and NADP 122. Match column | with column Il and select the correct option. Column Column ja. [Gophase |) | Golgi bodies dupication . [Grphase _|(i) [Gets become non- proliferative fe [Gzphase |i |DNAreplicaton 4.8 phase |()/ Interval between mitosis and ination of ONA replication | o (2) ati BG) tiv) i) (3) ati) bv) et) i) BC) oi) i) What is the period of cell cycle in yeast? (1) 20 minutes (2) 50 minutes (3) 60 minutes (4) 90 minutes Select the odd one w.r.t. pteridophytes. (1) In Selaginetta, microphyils are present. (2) They all are used for trans-shipment of living material. (3) Dominant phase of plant is a sporophyte. (4) Antherozoids are flagellated. 123. 124, 4125. A natural system of classification for angiosperms was given by (1) Aristotle and Linnaeus (2) Engler and Prantl (8) Bentham and Hooker (4) Hutchinson 426. Avena curvature test is @ bioassay to examine the activity of (1) Oytokinins (2) Gibberelin (3) Auxins (4) Ethylene 2) {AxIIVS192077A)Intensive Program for NEET.2023 127. Which of the followin ee 19 is a vegetative propagule (1) Offset (2) Rhizome (3) Runner (4) Sucker 128. How tow many Of the following plants cause pollen (0) Parthenium (i) Amaranthus (ii) Chenopodium — (iv) Vallsneria (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 128. Production of products valuable to humans by microorganisms require growing them in very large vessels called (1) Incinerators (2) Fermenters (3) Sedimentation tank (4) Aerobic tank 130. The leaf pigment in angiosperms that shows ‘maximum absorption of ight is (1) Chlorophyll ain the wavelength 500 — 600 nm (2) Chlorophyll b in the wavelength 400 — 500-nm (3) Chlorophyll ain the wavelength 600 = 700 nm (4) Chlorophyll bin the wavelength 600 ~'700:nmi 4131. Chargaff's rule is always true for DNA present in, all, except (1) 4 * 174 bacteriophage (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae (8) Escherichia coli (4) Lambda bacteriophage 1132, In human being, the satelite DNA (a) Normally does not code for any protein (b) Has repetitive units (c) Forms a small fraction of human genome (a) Shows high degree of polymorphism The correct one(s) is/are (1) Only (b) (2) Only (a) and (4) (3) Only (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (d) 4133. During DNA replication, the discontinuous fragments are synthesized in (A) direction on the template strand with polarity (6) Select the correet option to fill in the blanks A C8T-7_(Code-A) 134, All of the following are said to be broadly utiitarian ecosystem services, except (1) Oxygen (2) Polination (3) Construction material (4) Aesthetic pleasure 185, Which one of the following is not a correct statement? (1) Smokestacks of thermal power plants release harmless gases with other gases. (2) In electrostatic precipitators, electrons from corona discharge, attach to dust particles (8) In scrubber, the exhaust is passed through negatively charged electrodes (4) Catalytic converter in automobiles becomes inactive when leaded petrol is used SECTION-B 436. Which of the following is incorrect function of auxins? (1) They induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes (2) They are widely used as herbicides 3) They promote apical dominance (4) They inhibit cell growth 437. Match the. following columns and select the correct option. Column | Column | | Povembryony | () | Stawbery | | False trut | @) | Mango | c. | Tapetum (iii) | Beet @:| Perispermic seed | (w) | Multinucleated | (1) ai, D¢ip, c(), div) (2) ati), BUD, ct). Ai) (3) ai), BG), i), tiv) (4) aC, BA, ef). a) 438. Which of the following is not a nitrogen fixing ‘organism? (1) Bacterium symbiotically found in root of Alnus (2) Rhizobium found in roots of legumes and B. (3) Free lving Azotobacter “ ® (4) Fungi found in roots of Pinus ()eoe 88 129. In which of the flowing, sexual reproduction Qso7 48 cecurs without involvement of sex organs Q eos 548 (1) Attemaria (2) Agaricus 553 S38 (3) Peniciium (4) Trichoderma (13) (axIva182077A)GST-7_(Code-a) 140. Read the following statements and select the correct option, Assertion (A): Haemophilia shows its transmission ‘rom normal cartier female to male progeny Reason (R): Itis an X-linked recessive trait. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct ‘explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A) (3) Only (A) is true and (R) is false (4) Only (R) is true and (A) is false 141, Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Thermoregulation is energetically ‘expensive for small animals, Statement B: Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area, (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect. 142, The correct sequence of stages in hydrosere is (1) Phytoplankton > Submerged plant stage > Submerged free floating stage» Marsh meadow stage + Reed-swamp stage > Scrub stage —» Forest (2) Phytoplankton ~> Submerged plant stage “> Submerged free floating stage —» Reed swamp stage —> Marsh meatiow stage > Scrub stage — Forest (3) Phytoplankton -» Submerged free, floating stage > Submerged plant stage —> Marsh meadow stage > Reed swamp stage > ‘Scrub stage — Forest (4) Phytoplankton > Submerged free floating stage —> Submerged plant stage -> Marsh meadow stage -> Scrub stage + Reed ‘swamp stage —> Forest 4143. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during secondary growth takes place in cells of (1) Endodermis (2) Phioem (3) Cortex. (4) Pericycle 444. In which type of placentation, the ovules develop fon the inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral part? (1) Marginal (2) Parietal @) Axle (4) Basal Intensive Program for NEET.2, 4145. Consider the following statements and state the, as true(T) or false(F) and choose the corres, option. ‘A. RER is observed in the cells actively involves in protein synthesis and secretion B. Golgi apparatus consists of many fat, disc- shaped sacs or cristae. . In both plants and animals the vacuole can ‘occupy upto 90% of volume of the cell. (1) ACT), BIT), CF) (2) ACF), BYF), C(T) (3) A(T), BIF),C(F) (4) A(T), B(F), C(T) 146. Which of the following alga shows isogamy? (1) Eudorina (@) Fucus (8) Volvox (4) Ulothrix 147. All of the following processes are passive in nature, except: (1) Imbibiton of water (2) Osmosis (3) Faciltated diffusion of ions (4), Uptake of ions by ATP consumption 148. The transcription units in fac operon are (1) Interrupted with many non-coding sequences called introns (2) Both potycistronic and monocistronic (8) Only polycistronic (4) Active only in the presence of glucose 149. Select the incorrect match from the following. (1) Nile Perch = Led to extinction of Cichlid fish in Lake Victoria (2) Steller's sea cow — Became extinct due to over-exploitation (3) Eichhornia = Cause environmental damage in our aquatic ecosystem (4) Clarias gariopinus - Became extinct due to extinction of our indigenous cat fishes 450. A citizen group called Friends of the Arcata ‘Marsh (FOAM) is responsible for (1) Recycling of e-waste in environmentsriendly manner (2) Remedies for plastic waste (3) Integrated waste water treatment (4) Improving techniques of organic farming (1a) (eauvst920T74)tensive Program for NEET-2023 151 152, 153. 154, 165. CST-7_(Code-A) SECTION:A All of the following animals are characterised by ‘moist skin and presence of cloaca, except (1) Hyla (3) Salamandra (2) Buto (4) Pteropus Hisardale is a new breed of "X’ developed in Punjab by crossing 'Y’ and ‘2’. Select the option that correctly identifies X, Y and Z respectively. (1) Sheep, Bikaneri ewes, Merino rams (2) Goat, Merino ewes, Bikaneri rams (3) Camel, Bikaneri ewes, Merino rams (4) Donkey, Merino ewes, Bikaneri rams Joint between which of the following bones allow limited movement? =~ (1) Flat skull bones ° (2) Adjacent vertebrae (8) Atlas and axis (4) Carpal and metacarpal Choose the incorrect statement wrt. the proteins present in skeletal muscles. (1) Both actin and myosin filaments are arranges as rod-ike structures perpendicular, to. each other. : (2) A complex protein troponin is distibuted at regular intervals on the tropomyosin. (3) Tropomyosin runs close to the F-actin throughout its length. (4) The isotropic band is composed of actin filaments. Select the correct option to complete the analogy. Utraftration : Urinary bladder (1) Proximal convoluted tubule Storage of urine : (2) Malpighian corpuscle (3) Henle's loop (4) Column of Bertini (15) 186, 197. 158, 189. 160, 161 Al of the following are the bases of differences between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons, except (1) Length of Henle's loop (2) Theie number and distribution in the human kidneys (3) Presence of Malpighian body, PCT and DCT (4) Presence of vasa recta Cold blooded animals having two-chambered heart and usually external fertlisation belongs to the taxon (1) Reptilia (2) Amphibia (3) Osteichthyes. (4) Chondrichthyes Pavo belongs to the class Aves whereas Periplaneta belongs to the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. The comiion feature among two of them is. (1) Tendency to regulate body temperature (2) Presénce of crop and gizzard 18) Presence of mesoderm in pouches forming pseudocoelom (4) Exoskeleton made up of polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine Consider the following features:- 4. Crawling mode of locomotion b: Four-chambered heart ‘c. Internal fertilisation ‘The mentioned features are associated with (1) Crocodilus (2) Columba (3) Canis (4) Calotes ifthe menstrual cycle of a human female is of 32 days then the duration of luteal phase will be of (1) 14 days (2) 17 days (3) 21 days (4) 7 days The hypothalamic hormone | 'X' acts | on adonohypophysis to release "Y" that stimulates the release of androgens from Select the option that correctly identifies X, Y and Z respecively. (1) GnRH, LH, Leydig cols (2) GnRH, FSH, Sertoli cells {@) Somatostatin, Gonadotropins, Iterstital cols (4) Somatostatin, GH, Intersttial cells axImIV31920T7A)CST-7_(Code-A) 162. The co-factor responsible for the catalytic activity of carboxypeptidase is, (ty cu (2) 2ne (3) Ca (4) Mg? 163. _A_ and _B_are-substtuted purines while _C_ is @ substituted pyrimidine present only in RNA. ‘A.B and C inthe above statement represent (1) Guanosine, adenine, uracil (2) Adenine, guanine, thymine (3) Adenosine, guanine, thymine (4) Adenine, guanine, uracil 464, All of the following are aromatic amino acids except (1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan (3) Glutamate (4) Phenylalanine 465. The receptors for charas and ganja are present principally in which partisystem ofthe Body? (1) Peripheral nervous system (2) Brain (8) Autonomous neural system (4) Exeretory system 4168. Which one ofthe folowing can lead to neoplastic transformation? (1) Inactivation of proto-oncogenes (2) DNA damage by nondgnizna. gamma radiations é (6) DNA damage by loizing UV radiations (4) DNA damage by noronizing UV radiations 4167. The junctions which help to stop substances from leaking across an animal issue are (1) Adhering junctions (2) Gap junctions (2) Tightjunctons (4) Hemidesmosomes. 4168, Soloct he incorrect statement w.. cockroach. (1) Blood vascular system of cockroach 1s an ‘open type. (2) Malpighian tubules help in removal of excretory product ito the haemolymph: (8) Each compound eye consists of 2000 hexagonal ommatiia (8) Cockroaches are dioecious and both sexes have well developed reproductive organs (18) Intensive Program for NET... 469. Read the given statements and select wy correct option. Statement-A: Utiization of Oz by the cells for ‘anabolic reactions and resultant release of CO; is termed as cellular respiration. Statement-8: Mammals employ negative pressure breathing ‘.e., pulling rather than pushing air into theirlungs. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct, (4) Only statement B is correct, 470. The muscular activities of different parts of the alimentary canal can be moderated by (1) Hormonal contro only (2) Neural mechanisms, both local and through Ns. (@) Neural mechanisms, and local hormones produced by organised endocrine bodies (4) Sééretion oF gastric and intestinal sub- ‘mucosa only 47Az In humans, electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed by (1) Facilitated transport (2) Active transport (@)'Simple diffusion (4) Passive transport with the help of carrier proteins 4172:In humans, how many ofthe cells given below in the box will have granules in their cytoplasm and also have a nucleus? leutrophils, Eosinophils, ‘Basophils, Monocytes, N Lymphocytes (1) Five (2) Four (3) Two (4) Three 473, Select the correct match w.rt. ECG. (a) [End of T-wave [-| End of systole (2)| Duration of || Equals to heartbeat rate of eardiac cycle | |an individual [@ [ORS complex |-|Depetarisation ofthe atrium (a|T wave __|-|Retum of avium from excited to normal state Taxinivai920T7A)sonsive Program for NEET-2023, 474. 1n the case of cloning vector pBR322, one antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting the whereas the other antibiotic resistance gene gets inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA and helps in selection of. Select the option that correctly fils the blanks respectively. (1) Recombinants, non-recombinants (2) Transformants, recombinants (3) Recombinants, transformants (4) Recombinants, non-transformants 175. Which of the following is @ .common feature between exonucleases and endonucleases? (1) Functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence and make cuts at specific positions within the DNA (2) Belong to larger class of enzymes called transferases (@) Belong to class Ill of enzymes (4) Cut each of the two strands of doubléjhelngat specific points in their sugar-phosphaté-base backbones within DNA 4176, Taq polymerase is used in which step of PCR? (1) Denaturation (2) Separation of strands (3) Annealing (4) Extension 477. When change in gene frequency occ by chance, its called (1) Gene flow (2) Genetic recombination (@) Genetic art (4) Gene migration 478. Select the correct pair wart. origin from Psilophyton. (1) Conifers and gnetales (2) Cycads and Zosterophyltum (@) Bryophytes and seed ferns (4) Fems and bryophytes 181 182. 184, 183. ST-7_(Code-A) 180. For which of the following functions, association areas of human brain are not responsible? (1) Memory (2) Intersensory associations (8) Motivation (4) Communication Cause of defective development and maturation of the growing baby leading to stunted growth, mental retardation and low 1.0. is (1) Hyperthyroidism during pregnancy (2) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy (9) Hypercalcemia during pregnancy (4) Hypocaloaemia during pregnancy Clvation of Bt-cotton has been much in news. The prefix "Bt" means (1) “Bigger thread” variety of cotton with better tenélle strength (2) Prepared by ‘biotechnology’ using restriction enzymes and ligases (3) Garying an endotoxin gene from “Bacillus thuringiensis" (4) “Bariumtreated” cotton seeds Amniocentesis is (1) Withdrawal of allantoic fluid from pregnant ‘woman (2) Culturing of cells and study of chromosomes from amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal abnormalities (3) Analysis of chemical composition of coelomic ‘of pregnant woman (4) An in-vivo diagnostic method In case of a couple, the male is having a very low ‘sperm count. Which technique will be suitable for conception? (1) intra-uterine transfer (2) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (4) Avtifical insemination 179. Theory ofinhertance of acquired characters was | 185. The ai that remains in the ngs oven afier a given by forced exhalation equals tothe (1) Darwin (2) Hugo deVries (1) ve=Ic. (2) TLc-FRC (8) Lamarck (4) Atfred Wallace (@) FRC-ERV (ay EC-1V a7) (axVETSZOT7A)csT7_(Code-A) SECTION-B 186. A stfucture in the forebrain is identified as a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling. Select the correct name of that structure from the following, (2) Thatamus (4) Amygdala (1) Hippocampus (3) Hypothalamus 187. Solect the incorrect match. (1) Vasopressin. ~ Stimulates reabsorption of water and electrolytes by ocr (2) Melatonin — Influences menstrual cycle @) MSH ~ Regulates pigmentation of the skin (4) Somatostatin — Stimulates the release of growth hormone from pituitary 188. Golden rice is advised to take in diet for individuals suffering from (1) Rickets (2) Anemia (3) Night blindness (4) Colour blindness 189, Which of the given contraceptives provides privacy to the user as well as protect the user from contracting STIs? (1) Progestasert (2) Cervical caps (8) Vaults (4) Condoms 190. Assertion (A): To take up FONA, bacterial cells are treated with a specific concentration of a divalent cation such as calcium. Reason (R): DNA is hydrophobic molecule, it ‘cannot pass through cell membranes. In the light of above statements, select the correct option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) {@) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) Is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false 191 192 193. 194. 195, (ais false but (R) is tue ‘within the host cells. {1) Selectable marker (2) Origin of replication 8) rp (4) Cloning sites Consider the following features (a) Some say that most of them evolved into birds. (b) Dominant in Jurassic period ‘The above features are applicable to (2) Therapsids (4) Crocodiles (1) Dinosaurs: (3) Tuataras Select the incorrect option for a straw coloured viscous fluid present in blood. (1) Itconstitutes nearly 55% of the blood (2) 90-92% of itis water (3) Proteins contribute 6-8% of it. (4) Clotting factors are absent in it. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) HIV contains RNA genome with reverse transcriptase, (2) Macrophages act like an HIV factory. (3) HIV affects mainly cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. (4) The affected person starts suffering from opportunistic infections. Consider the given graph and choose the incorrect statement. eneroy Potent SS. Brosuet ®) SGIeS Tea 1 0 emery level of ‘S' is at a higher level than a ‘gy level of 'P', the reaction is an fe ean reacon When ‘s' through oe transformed into ‘P’, it must go (3) 5 he value of A" is always greater than 8° (4) In abs Pris mac? Of enzyme, the transition of ‘Sto more (1a) *syRo S ’Q ntensive Program for NEET-2023 196. Match column | with column Il and select the correct option. 9 = Column | Column Il a.| Presence of placoid |() | Flying fish and [scales fighting fish . | Presence of ctenoid | (ii) | Bufo and Rana scales c.| Moist skin without | (iiy| Saw fish and dog scales isn |] Dry and comiiea [wy |Homcactyas ana Vain Chameleon (1) ali), BG), i, dGiv) (2) ali, BAD, ei), etivy (3) ati), b(). eFv), dQ). (4) ativ), BAD, cli), i) 197. Consider the following statements and select the correct option. Statement-A: Each ovary is connected to pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments. Statement-B: Presence or absence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity a 1) Both Statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Only statement Ais correct (4) Only statement 8 is correct 198. All of the following are coelomates exhibiting three germ cell layers except (1) Aplysia (2) Aurelia (3) Aptenoaytes (4) Anopheles 199, Select the odd one w.rt. pre-ferisation events (1) Spermatogenesis (2) Insemination (3) Oogenesis, (4) Implantation 200. Select the incorrect statement wrt. polar bodies, (1) Non-functional product of gametogenesis in females (2) First polar body is the result of meiosis-I in joogonium. (3) Second polar body is the result of meiosis-II in secondary oocyte. (4) Both polar bodies are haploid in nature, a