Yakeen Plus (2025)

PRACTICE TEST - 03

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 29/09/2024 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Work energy and power, Centre of mass and System of Particles, Rotational Motion
Chemistry : Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry, Chemical Equilibrium Ionic Equilibrium
Biology : (Botany): The Living World
(Zoology): Body Fluids and Circulation

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions are compulsory) and
Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
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 [Practice Test-03 | Yakeen Plus (2025) | 29/09/2024]
Work energy and power, Centre of mass and System of Particles, Rotational Motion

SECTION-(I) PHYSICS
SECTION - A 4. The potential energy of a particle varies with
1. A block of mass 2M is held at rest when the spring distance x as shown in the graph. The force acting
is at its natural length as shown. Now the block is on the particle is zero at.
released suddenly in this position to fall vertically.
Find the maximum elongation in the spring.
(Spring is ideal)

(1) C only
(2) B only
(3) B and C
(4) A and D
2Mg 4Mg
(1) (2)
K K
5. A force F = (3x 2 + 2 x – 7)N acts on a 2 kg body
Mg Mg
(3) (4) as a result of which the body gets displaced from x
K 2K
= 0 to x = 5 m. The work done by the force will
2. A particle is to be moved from point A to C via be:
paths (I), (II) and (III) in conservative force field (1) 35 J
as shown in figure, then which of the following (2) 70 J
options is correct? (3) 115 J
(4) 270 J

6. A body of mass 6 kg under a force which caused

t2
displacement in it given S = , metres where ‘t’
4
(1) Work done by conservative force is same for is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds
all the path. is:
(2) Work done by conservative force is (1) 12 J
minimum for path (II). (2) 9 J
(3) Work done by conservative force is (3) 6 J
maximum for path (I). (4) 3 J
(4) None of the above.

3. Given below are two statements: 7. Match List-I with List-II:

If two springs S1 and S2 of force constants k1 and List-I List-II
k2, respectively, are stretched by the same force, it (A) Gravitational (I) Decreases
is found that more work is done on spring S1 than force
on spring S2. (B) Frictional force (II) Conservative
Statement I: If stretched by the same amount, force
work done on S1, will be more than that on S2.
(C) KE of a dropped (III) Non-
Statement II: k1 < k2.
In the light of the above statements, choose the body conservative
most appropriate answer from the options given force
below: (D) PE of a dropped (IV) Increases
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is body
incorrect. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is below:
correct.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct. (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
incorrect. (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
8. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass 13. The potential energy of a particle in a force field
M by a distance d with constant downward A B
is U = − where A and B are positive
g r 2 r
acceleration . Work done by the cord on the
4 constants and r is the distance of the particle from
block is:
the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the
d
(1) Mg distance of the particle is:
4
B
d (1)
(2) 3Mg 2A
4
2A
d (2)
(3) −3Mg B
4
(4) –Mgd A
(3)
B
9. A 10 kg block placed on a rough horizontal floor B
(4)
is being pulley by a constant force of 50 N. A
Coefficient of kinetic friction between the block
and the floor is 0.4. The total work done by all 14. A particle moves from a point (−2iˆ + 5 ˆj ) m to
forces acting on the block over a displacement of
5 m is: (g = 10 m/s2) ( 4 ˆj + 3kˆ ) m when a force of (4iˆ + 3 ˆj )N is
applied. How much work has been done by the
force?
(1) 8 J
(2) 11 J
(1) 50 J (3) 5 J
(2) 250 J (4) 2 J
(3) 200 J
(4) 450 J 15. When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its
potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by
10. A force of (2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ) N acts on a body for 10 cm, the potential energy stored in it will be:
4 second, produces a displacement of (1) U/5
(3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 5kˆ)m. The power used is: (2) 5U
(1) 9.5 W (3) 10U
(2) 7.5 W (4) 25U
(3) 6.5 W
(4) 4.5 W 16. The position vector of three particles of masses
m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2 kg and m3 = 4 kg are
11. A spring gun of spring constant 90 N/cm is
compressed 12 cm by a ball of mass 16 g. If the r1 = (iˆ + ˆj )m, r2 = (2iˆ + 5 ˆj ) m and r3 = (2iˆ − ˆj ) m
trigger is pulled, the velocity of the ball is: respectively. The position vector of their centre of
(1) 90 ms–1 (2) 9 ms–1 mass is:
(3) 40 ms–1 (4) 60 ms–1 (1) (7iˆ − 13 ˆj ) m

12. Which of the following forces is called a  13iˆ + 17 ˆj 

(2)  m
conservative force?  7 
(1) Frictional force  13iˆ + 7 ˆj 
(2) Air resistance (3)  m
 7 
(3) Electrostatic force
(4) Viscous force (4) (13iˆ + 17 ˆj )m
17. The position of centre of mass of system of 21. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
particles at any moment does not depend on: balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
(1) masses of the particles. mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
(2) forces on the particles. and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from
(3) positions of the particles. the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure.
(4) relative distances between the particles.
Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in
equilibrium:
18. Two identical uniform rods each of mass m and
length l are joined perpendicular to each other. An (g = 10 m/s2)
axis passes through junction and in the plane of
rods. Then M.I. of system about the axis is:

1 1
(1) kg (2) kg
2 3
1 1
(3) kg (4) kg
6 12

1 2 22. Motion of two balls just before and just after

(1) ml
3 collision are shown in diagram, then velocity v1
1
(2) ml 2 will be:
3 2
(3) ml 2
ml 2
(4)
2
(1) 7 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
19. Find out moment of inertia of point masses about
given axis as shown: (3) 12 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

23. Two cylinders, one of which is hollow and other

solid, have same mass and same moment of
inertia about their respective geometrical axis.
The ratio of their radii is:
(1) 4 kg.m2 (1) 1: 2
(2) 8 kg.m2
(3) 12 kg.m2 (2) 1: 3
(4) 16 kg.m2 (3) 3: 3
(4) 1 : 2
20. A thin rod of mass M and length L is bent into a
circular ring. The expression for moment of
inertia of ring about an axis passing through its 24. A ball of mass 𝑚 moving with speed 4 m/sec
diameter is: strikes with a ball of triple mass at rest. If
ML2 coefficient of restitution of collision is 0.5, then
(1) velocities of ball after collision will be:
22
1 3
ML2 (1) ,
(2) 2 2
42
1 3
ML2 (2) − , −
(3) 2 2
82 1 3
(3) − ,
ML2 2 2
(4)
2 (4) –1, 3
25. The angular velocity ω of a particle varies with 30. When two bodies collide elastically, then:
time t as ω = (10t2 + 15)rad/s. The angular (1) kinetic energy of the system alone is
acceleration of the particle at t = 1s is: conserved.
(1) 10 rad/s2
(2) only momentum is conserved.
(2) 20 rad/s2
(3) both energy and momentum are conserved.
(3) 5 rad/s2
(4) Zero (4) neither energy nor momentum is conserved.

26. The angular acceleration of flywheel having 31. A body of mass ‘M’ collides against a wall with a
moment of inertia 100 kg m2, when a torque of velocity v and retraces its path with the same
10 Nm is applied on the flywheel is: speed. The change in momentum is: (take initial
(1) 10 rad/s2
direction of velocity as positive)
(2) π rad/s2
(1) Zero
(3) 0.1 rad/s2
(4) 0.1 π rad/s2 (2) 2Mv
(3) Mv
27. A ball of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity (4) – 2 Mv
10 m/s strikes with a ball of mass 3 kg at rest &
moves as a combined mass, then their common 32. A gun fires a bullet of mass 50 gm with a speed of
velocity will be: 30 m sec–1. Because of this the gun is pushed back
10 20
(1) m/s (2) m/s with a speed of 1 m sec–1. The mass of the gun is:
3 3
(1) 15 kg
(3) 4 m/s (4) 5 m/s
(2) 30 kg
28. Two bodies with masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are (3) 1.5 kg
joined by a string passing over fixed pulley. (4) 20 kg
Assume masses of the pulley and thread
negligible. Then the acceleration of the centre of 33. Centre of mass of the given system of particles
mass. will be at:
 m − m2 
(1)  1 g
 m1 + m2 
2
 m − m2 
(2)  1  g
 m1 + m2 
m1 g (1) OD
(3)
m1 + m2 (2) OC
m2 g (3) OB
(4)
m1 + m2 (4) AO

29. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant 34. Two objects of masses 200 gm and 500 gm
velocity u hits another stationary sphere of the possess velocities 10iˆ m/s and ( 3iˆ 5 ˆj ) m/s
same mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution,
then the ratio of the velocity of two spheres after respectively. The velocity of their centre of mass
collision will be: in m/s is:
1− e (1) 5iˆ 25 ˆj
(1)
1+ e
5ˆ
1+ e (2) i 25 ˆj
(2) 7
1− e
25 ˆ
e +1 (3) 5iˆ j
(3) 7
e −1
e −1 5ˆ
(4) (4) 25iˆ j
e +1 7
35. Moment of inertia of combination of two discs of 39. Particles of masses m, 2 m, 3 m, ....., nm grams are
same mass M and same radius R kept in contact placed on the same line at distance l, 2l, 3l, ....., nl
about the tangent passing through point of contact m from a fixed point. The distance of the centre of
and in the plane of discs, as shown is: mass of the particles from the fixed point in
meters is:

(1)
( 2n + 1) l
3

(2)
( n + 1) l
2
MR 5 2
(1) (2) MR 2
4 4
(3)
( 2n + 1) l
2
MR 5 6
(3) (4) MR 2
2 2
(4)
( n + 1) l
3
SECTION - B
36. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular 40. A body of mass 5 kg explodes at rest into three
wire of mass m and radius r, about an axis passing fragments with masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The
through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its fragments with equal masses fly in mutually
plane is: perpendicular directions with speeds of 21 m/s.
mr 2 The speed of the heaviest fragment will be:
(1)
2 (1) 11.5 m/s
(2) mr 2 (2) 14.0 m/s
 4  (3) 7.0 m/s
(3) mr 2 1 − 2  (4) 9.89 m/s
  
 4 
(4) mr 2 1 + 2  41. Radius of gyration of a rod of Mass M and length
  
l is l/2 then distance of axis of rotation from centre
of rod is:
37. A square plate has a moment of inertia I0 about an
(1) l/4
axis lying in its plane, passing through its centre
and making an angle  with one of the sides. (2) l/6
Which graph represents the variation of I with ? (3) l 6
(4) l / 6

(1) (2)
42. Three masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg are lying at the
corners of an equilateral triangle of side . The
(X) coordinate of center of mass is:
(3) (4) Y
4 kg

 
38. A person of mass m is standing on one end of a
plank of mass M and length L and floating in X
2 kg  3 kg
water. The person moves from one end to another
and stops. The displacement of the plank is:
7
(1)
Lm 12
(1) 5
(m M ) (2)
(2) Lm(M + m) 9
(m M ) 7 2
(3) L (3)
m 9
LM 5
(4) (4)
(m M ) 9
43. A square plate of edge a and a circular disc of 47. A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m2
diameter a are placed touching each other at the attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of
midpoint of an edge of the plate as shown in
the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod
figure. Locate the centre of mass of the
combination, assuming same mass per unit area and passing through the centre of mass is:
for the two plates from point O. m1m2 2
(1) l
O m1 + m2
m1 + m2 2
(2) l
a a m1m2
4a
(1) (3) ( m1 + m2 ) l 2
+4
a (4) m1m2 l 2
(2)
+4
4
(3) 48. The ABC is a triangular plate of uniform
+3
(4) None of these thickness. The sides are in the ratio shown in the
figure. IAB, IBC and ICA are the moments of inertia
44. Masses 8, 2, 4, 2 kg are placed at the corners A, B, of the plate about AB, BC and CA respectively.
C, D respectively of a square ABCD of diagonal
80 cm. The distance of centre of mass from A will Which one of the following relations is correct?
be:
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 60 cm

45. Two rods each of mass m and length L are placed

along X and Y axis as shown in figure.
Coordinates of the centre of mass of the (1) IAB + IBC = ICA
combination is:
(2) ICA is maximum
(3) IAB > IBC
(4) IBC > IAB

49. What is the torque of the force

F = 2iˆ − 3 ˆj + 4kˆ N acting at the point

L L r = 3iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ m about origin?

(1)  , 
2 2 (1) −6iˆ + 6 ˆj − 12kˆ
L L
(2)  ,  (2) −17iˆ + 6 ˆj + 13kˆ
4 2
L L (3) 6iˆ − 6 ˆj + 12kˆ
(3)  , 
2 4 (4) 17iˆ − 6 ˆj − 13kˆ
L L
(4)  , 
4 4
50. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
46. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal 3 ˆj N acts on a particle whose position vector is
kinetic energies. If p1 and p2 are their respective 2kˆ m.
momentum, then ratio p1 : p2 is equal to:
(1) 6 ˆj Nm
(1) m1 : m2
(2) m2 : m1 (2) −6iˆ Nm

(3) m1 : m2 (3) 6kˆ Nm

(4) m12 : m22 (4) 6iˆ Nm
 [Practice Test-03 | Yakeen Plus (2025) | 29/09/2024]
Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry, Chemical Equilibrium Ionic Equilibrium

SECTION-(II) CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 58. The pKa of formic acid is 3.75. The pH of a solution
51. For the given exothermic reaction, containing 0.01 M formic acid and 0.01 M sodium
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) + 2kcal, formate is:
(1) 3.80 (2) 5.00
the favourable conditions are: (3) 3.75 (4) 4.25
(1) low temperature, low pressure and catalyst.
(2) low temperature, high pressure and catalyst. 59. An ideal gas is expanded isothermally from 10 L to
(3) high temperature, low pressure and catalyst. 20 L at constant pressure of 2.0 atm. What is the
(4) high temperature, high pressure and catalyst. change in internal energy of system?
(1) –30 L-atm (2) +30 L-atm
52. For the reaction, (3) –60 L-atm (4) 0 L-atm
A(g) → 2C(g) + D(g), the correct relation between
H and U is: 60. Match List-I (hypothetical reactions) with List-II
(1) H = U (2) H > U Kp
(3) H < U (4) H ≤ U (ratio for the given reactions) and select the
Kc
53. A solution of NaOH contains 0.04 g of NaOH per correct answer using the code given below in the
litre. Its pOH is: lists:
(1) 10 (2) 9 List-I List-II
(3) 3 (4) 12 (A) A2(g) + 3B2(g)  (I) (RT)–2

54. The following gaseous equilibrium are given 2AB3(g)

N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 ………k1 (B) A2(g) + B2(g)  (II) (RT)0
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO ………k2 2AB(g)
H2 + 1/2O2 ⇌ H2O ………k3 (C) A (g) + 1.5B2(g)  (III) 1
The equilibrium constant of the reaction ( RT ) 2
2NH3(g) + 5/2 O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + 3H2O(g), in AB3(g)
(D) AB2(g)  (IV) 3
terms of k1, k2 and k3 is:
( RT )− 2
k1k 2 k1k 32 AB(g) + 0.5B2(g)
(1) (2)
k3 k2 Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
k 2 k 33 (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) (4) k1k 2 k3
k1 (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
55. 15 moles of an ideal gas expands spontaneously (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
into vacuum. The work done by the gas is:
(1) Zero (2) 10 J 61. Among the following, standard enthalpy of
(3) 20 J (4) 15 J formation is zero for:
(1) C (diamond) (2) Br2(l)
56. In a vessel containing SO3, SO2 and O2 at (3) H2(l) (4) CO2 (g)
equilibrium, some helium gas is introduced so that
the total pressure increases while temperature and 62. If the value of an equilibrium constant for a
volume remains constant. According to Le- particular reaction is 1.6 × 1012, then at equilibrium
Chatelier principle, the dissociation of SO3: the system will contain:
(1) increases. (1) mostly reactants.
(2) decreases. (2) mostly products.
(3) remain unaltered. (3) similar amounts of reactants and products.
(4) change is unpredictable. (4) all reactants.

57. Which of the following is incorrect regarding 63. The reaction, 2A(s) + 3B(g) → A2B3(s) is
Gibb’s energy? exothermic in nature. The reaction would be:
(1) It is a state function. (1) spontaneous at all temperatures.
(2) It is an extensive property. (2) spontaneous at low temperature.
(3) Its value is negative for a spontaneous process. (3) spontaneous at high temperature.
(4) It is an intensive property. (4) non spontaneous at all temperatures.
64. The enthalpy of reaction for: 71. 1.2 moles of an ideal gas expands isothermally and
1 reversibly at 25°C from a volume of 20 L to 40 L.
2C(graphite) + 3H2(g) + O2(g) → C2H5OH(l) is
2 What is the change in entropy of the gas?
–A kJ. What is the enthalpy of formation of (1) 1.2 R
C2H5OH (l)? (2) 1.2 R ln2
(1) –A kJ mol−1
(3) 2.303 R ln2
(2) –2A mol−1
(3) +A kJ mol−1 (4) −R ln2
(4) −4A kJ mol−1
72. What causes the change in the value of equilibrium
constant of any equilibria?
65. The equilibrium constant (Kp) for the reaction
PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is 16. If the volume of (1) Adding of inert gas at constant pressure
the container is reduced to one-half of its original (2) Increasing the pressure
volume, the value of Kp for the reaction at the same (3) Adding of inert gas at constant volume
temperature will be: (4) Decreasing the temperature
(1) 32 (2) 64
(3) 16 (4) 4 73. In which of the following reactions entropy
increases?
66. A system does 200 J of work and at the same time A. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
absorbs 100 J of heat. The magnitude of the change
in internal energy is: B. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
(1) 370 J (2) 210 J 1
C. H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l)
(3) 100 J (4) 60 J 2
The correct options is/are:
67. At 90°C pure water has [H3O+] = 10–6 M. What is (1) A only
the value of Kw at this temperature?
(2) B only
(1) 10–6 (2) 10–12
(3) 10–13 (4) 10–14 (3) A and B only
(4) A, B and C only
68. H and S for a reaction are 4500 J mol–1 and
4.5 J K–1 mol–1 respectively. The reaction will be 74. The dissociation constant of monobasic acids A, B
spontaneous: and C are 10–4, 10–6 and 10–10 respectively. The
(1) above 1000 K. concentration of each monobasic acid is 0.1 M.
(2) at 900 K. Which of the following has been arranged in
(3) below 1000 K. increasing order of pH?
(4) below 900 K. (1) C < B < A
(2) A < B < C
69. Consider the reaction, (3) B < C < A
2X(s) + Y(g) → 2Z(g) + 700 kJ
(4) B < A < C
The signs of ΔH, ΔS and ΔG respectively are:
(1) H = –ve, S = –ve, G = –ve 75. If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12, the
(2) H = –ve, S = +ve, G = +ve value of its Ksp will be:
(3) H = –ve, S = –ve, G = +ve
(1) 5.00  10−7 (2) 4.00  10−6
(4) H = –ve, S = +ve, G = –ve
(3) 4.00  10−7 (4) 5.00  10−6
70. The initial pressure of A is 100 torr. The total
pressure of the system becomes 150 torr when the
76. CH of carbon to CO2 is –400 kJ mol–1 then how
equilibrium, A(g)  B(g) + C(g) is attained at
much heat will be evolved upon formation of
constant temperature. The value of Kp of this 17.6 g CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas?
reaction is:
(1) 200 kJ
(1) 15
(2) 10 (2) 600 kJ
(3) 25 (3) 540 kJ
(4) 50 (4) 160 kJ
77. Given below are two statements: 83. A+B C + 2D equilibrium constant = K1,
Statement I: The acid-base pair that differs only A+E C + F equilibrium constant = K2.
by one proton is called a conjugate acid-base pair.
Then equilibrium constant for the reaction
Statement II: OH– is called the conjugate base of
an acid H2O. 2D + E B + F will be:
In the light of the above statements, choose the K2
most appropriate answer from the options given (1)
K1
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is K1
(2)
incorrect. K2
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (3) K1 + K2
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) K1 × K2
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
84. What would happen to a reversible reaction
A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g) at equilibrium when an inert
78. If the enthalpy of formation of ammonia is –A kJ
gas is added while the pressure remains unchanged?
mol–1, the enthalpy change for the reaction,
2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) is: (1) More of the product will be formed.
(1) 2A kJ mol–1 (2) Less of the product will be formed.
(2) 4A kJ mol–1 (3) More of the reactants will be formed.
(3) 8A kJ mol–1 (4) It remains unaffected.
1
(4) A kJ mol–1
2 85. The temperature of an ideal gas increases in an:
(1) adiabatic expansion.
79. A catalyst:
(2) isothermal expansion.
(1) increases the equilibrium concentration of
reactants. (3) adiabatic compression.
(2) decreases the equilibrium concentration of (4) isothermal compression.
reactants.
(3) does not affect equilibrium composition of SECTION - B
reactants or products.
86. In the combustion of 0.4 g of CH4, 0.25 kCal of
(4) affects equilibrium composition of reactants
or products. heat is liberated. The heat of combustion of CH4 is:
(1) –20 kCal
80. The highest pH value is of: (2) 10 kCal
(1) 0.1 M NaCl (3) –2.5 kCal
(2) 0.1 M NH4Cl (4) –5 kCal
(3) 0.1 M CH3COONa
(4) 0.1 M CH3COONH4
87. The conjugate acid of HPO 32 − is:
81. In which of the following equilibrium equation, (1) H3PO4
Kp > Kc? (2) H3PO3
(1) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
(3) H2PO 3−
(2) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g)
(3) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI (g) (4) PO 34−
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
88. The Ka for a weak acid HX is 10–6, then the
82. In an adiabatic process which of the following is ionisation constant of X– will be:
true: (1) 10–6
(1) q = +w
(2) 10–8
(2) –ΔΕ = –w
(3) PΔV = 0 (3) 10–14
(4) q = ΔΕ (4) 10–4
89. The heat of combustion of C2H4, C2H6 and H2 are 95. For the given reaction:
–1409.5 kJ, –1558.3 kJ and –285.6 kJ. The heat of CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g) + H2O(g); H = 40 kJ
hydrogenation of ethene is: The H is specifically called:
(1) –136.8 kJ (1) heat of formation of CO.
(2) heat of combustion.
(2) –13.68 kJ
(3) heat of reaction.
(3) 273.6 kJ (4) heat of hydrogenation of C = O bond.
(4) 1.368 kJ
96. If 100 mL of pH = 3 and 400 mL of pH = 3 is
90. For 10–3 M CH3COOH solution if Ka = 10–5 then mixed, what will be the pH of the mixture?
(1) 3.2 (2) 3.0
pH is:
(3) 3.5 (4) 2.8
(1) 12
(2) 14 97. Given below are two statements:
(3) 4 Statement I: HCl acid will apply common ion
(4) 1 effect on the ionization of HCN.
Statement II: Degree of ionization of HCN is
increased in presence of HCl.
91. Which of the following conditions will always lead In the light of the above statements, choose the
to a non-spontaneous change? most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) H and S both are positive below:
(2) H is negative and S is positive (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) H and S both are negative incorrect.
(4) H is positive and S is negative (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
92. The pH of a 0.02 M ammonia solution which is 5% (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
ionised will be: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
(1) 2
(2) 11
98. Evaluate Kp for the reaction: H2 + I2 2HI. If
(3) 5 2 moles each of H2 and I2 are taken initially. The
(4) 7 equilibrium moles of HI are 2.
(1) 2.5
93. Heat evolved in the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl is (2) 4
(3) 0.25
–182 kJ. Bond energies of H—H and Cl—Cl are
(4) 1.0
430 and 242 kJ mol–1 respectively. The H–Cl bond
energy is: 99. If Ka of HCN is 4 × 10–10 having concentration
–1
(1) 245 kJ mol 2.5 × 10–1 M, then pH of HCN (aq) is:
(2) 427 kJ mol–1 (1) 4.2
(3) 336 kJ mol–1 (2) 4.7
(3) 0.47
(4) 154 kJ mol–1
(4) 5.0

94. The work done by a system is 8 J when 40 J heat is

100. The solubility product of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are
supplied to it. The change in internal energy of the
10–37, 10–44 and 10–54 respectively. The solubility of
system during the process:
these sulphides will be in the order:
(1) 32 J (1) HgS > Ag2S > CuS
(2) 40 J (2) Ag2S > HgS > CuS
(3) 48 J (3) CuS > Ag2S > HgS
(4) –32 J (4) Ag2S > CuS > HgS
 [Practice Test-03 | Yakeen Plus (2025) | 29/09/2024]
The Living World

SECTION-(III) BOTANY
SECTION - A 107. How many statement(s) is/are correct?
101. Order Polymoniales includes the families. A. Reproduction is not defining property because
A. Poaceae it occurs in sterile human couple.
B. Solanaceae B. Reproduction is defining characteristics of
C. Convolvulaceae living organism.
D. Anacardiaceae C. Self-consciousness is seen only in human.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the D. Consciousness is defining property of living
options given below: organism.
(1) A and B only E. Metabolism is defining property of all living
(2) A and C only organism without exception.
(3) B and D only (1) One (2) Two
(4) B and C only (3) Three (4) Five

102. The number and different types of organisms 108. Choose the incorrect statement from the
present on earth is refers to: following.
(1) population. (1) The genus Panthera differs from another
(2) variety. genus Felis which includes cats.
(3) biodiversity. (2) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon are placed under
(4) taxa. a common group called Mammalia.
(3) Tiger, cat and dog are place in a common
103. Identify the incorrect statement for binomial group called Mammalia.
nomenclature system. (4) Insecta is placed under phylum Chordata.
(1) Biological names are either derived from
Latin language or Latinised. 109. In case of plants, classes with a few similar
(2) Biological names are printed in italics. characters are assigned to a higher category called
(3) Name of the author is written at the start of the ________.
biological name. (1) Class (2) Division
(4) Each organism is given only one biological (3) Order (4) Family
name consisting of two parts.
110. Species sapiens belongs to which of the given
104. Systematics: higher taxonomic categories?
(1) is derived from a greek word. (1) Anacardiaceae. (2) Muscidae.
(2) does not include classification of organisms. (3) Chordata. (4) Poaceae.
(3) considers taxonomy along with evolutionary
relationships. 111. The scientific names for plants and animals are
(4) does not deal with diversity of organisms. provided by _____ and _____ respectively.
(1) ICZN, ICBN (2) ICNB, ICZN
105. The number of species that are known and (3) ICBN, ICZN (4) ICNZ,ICNB
described ranges between:
(1) 7 - 8 million. 112. Read the following and identify the number of
(2) 1.7 - 1.8 million. correct statement(s) related to biological
(3) 2 - 3 million. classification of Mango.
(4) 2.7 - 3.8 million. A. It belong to the genus Mangifera.
B. It belong to the class Angiospermae.
106. The families like Felidae and Canidae are included C. It belong to the order Anacardiaceae.
in the same taxonomic category named: D. It belong to the division Monocotyledonae.
(1) carnivora. (2) polymoniales. (1) One (2) Two
(3) primata. (4) diptera. (3) Three (4) Four
113. Considering the hierarchial arrangement of 118. How many statement(s) is/are correct?
taxonomies, order lies between: A. Growth is reversible in living and irreversible
(1) genus and species. in non living.
(2) genus and family. B. Growth is defining property of organism.
(3) family and class. C. Cellular organisation of the body is the
(4) class and phylum. defining feature of life forms.
D. Growth and reproduction is synonym in
multicellular organism.
114. All the following species belong to same genus,
E. Growth and reproduction is exclusive
except:
property in unicellular organism.
(1) tuberosum.
(1) One
(2) aestivum.
(2) Two
(3) melongena.
(3) Three
(4) nigrum.
(4) Five

115. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 119. As we go from kingdom to species in a taxonomic
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: hierarchy, the number of common characteristics:
Assertion A: There is a need to standardise the (1) goes on decreasing.
naming of living organisms such that a particular (2) may increase or decrease.
organism is known by the same name all over the (3) remains same.
world. (4) goes on increasing.
Reason R: The local names of living organisms
vary from place to place even within a country. 120. Read the following and choose the set of correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the statements.
correct answer from the options given below: A. All taxonomic categories together constitute
(1) A is true but R is false. the taxonomic hierarchy.
(2) A is false but R is true. B. Each taxonomic category represents a rank
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct and is commonly termed as taxon.
explanation of A. C. Biologist follow universally accepted
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct principles to provide scientific names to
explanation of A. known organisms.
D. All organisms, including those in the plant and
animal kingdoms have species as the highest
116. In which organisms, reproduction is synonymous
category.
with growth?
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(1) Bacteria
options given below:
(2) Unicellular algae
(1) A, C and D only
(3) Amoeba
(2) A, B and C only
(4) All of these
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, B, C and D
117. Naming is only possible when the organism is
described correctly and we know to what organism 121. Identify the odd one out w.r.t. Panthera leo.
the name is attached to. This is:
(1) Common name of leopard.
(1) characterisation. (2) Panthera represents generic name.
(2) identification. (3) leo represents specific epithet.
(3) nomenclature. (4) Panthera represents higher level of taxon than
(4) classification. leo.
122. Match List-I with List-II: 125. Based on common features like presence of
List-I List-II notochord and dorsal hollow neural system
(A) Triticum aestivum (I) Housefly organisms are included in phylum:
(1) Solanaceae. (2) Mammalia.
(B) Solanum (II) Tiger
(3) Chordata. (4) Arthropoda.
melongena
(C) Musca domestica (III) Wheat
126. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(D) Panthera tigris (IV) Brinjal Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Choose the correct answer from the options given Assertion A: Lower the taxa, more are the
below: characteristics that the members within the taxon
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II share.
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II Reason R: Higher the category, lesser is the
difficulty of determining the relationship to other
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
taxa at the same level.
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
123. Read the following and choose the set of correct
(1) A is true but R is false.
statements.
(2) A is false but R is true.
A. To form a taxonomic category, the basic (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
requirement is the knowledge of characters of explanation of A.
an individual or group of organisms. (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
B. The living world has variety of organism. explanation of A.
C. Classification is the process by which
anything is grouped into convenient 127. Match List-I with List-II:
categories. List-I List-II
D. Binomial nomenclature is given by Carolus (A) Family (I) Diptera
Linnaeus. (B) Order (II) Arthropoda
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(C) Class (III) Hominidae
options given below:
(1) A, C and D only (D) Phylum (IV) Monocotyledonae
(2) A, B and C only Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) A, B and D only below:
(4) A, B, C and D (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
124. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Assertion A: The taxonomic groups are distinct
biological entities and not merely morphological 128. Read the following statements.
aggregates. A. Naming of an organism is not possible without
identification.
Reason R: Taxonomical studies of all known
B. Each rank or taxon, represents a unit of
organisms have led to the development of
classification.
categories.
C. Genera are aggregates of closely related
In the light of the above statements, choose the
species.
correct answer from the options given below:
D. Family has a group of related genera with a
(1) A is true but R is false.
greater number of similarities as compared to
(2) A is false but R is true. genus and species.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct E. Carnivora includes tiger, cat, dog.
explanation of A. How many is/are correct?
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (1) One (2) Two
explanation of A. (3) Four (4) Five
129. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 134. Lion, leopard and tiger are species of the genus:
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (1) Felis.
Assertion A: Families are characterised on basis of (2) Panthera.
both vegetative and reproductive features of plants
(3) Canis.
species.
(4) Musca.
Reason R: The categories like species, genus and
families are based on a number of similar
characters. 135. Which of the following is not a component of
In the light of the above statements, choose the binomial name?
correct answer from the options given below: (1) Family name
(1) A is true but R is false. (2) Generic name
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Specific epithet
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Name of author
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct SECTION - B
explanation of A.
136. The Muscidae is equivalent to _____ of mango.
130. The scientific nomenclature representing the Complete the statement by selecting correct option
species of wheat is: to fill up the blank.
(1) Triticum. (1) Sapindales
(2) Aestivum. (2) Anacardiaceae
(3) aestivum.
(3) Dicotyledonae
(4) Triticum aestivum.
(4) Poales
131. Basis of taxonomy are:
(1) characterisation and classification only. 137. Scientific name of man in Homo sapiens Linn in
(2) characterisation, identification and the above name Linn refers to:
classification only. (1) genus of man.
(3) characterisation, classification and (2) species of man.
nomenclature only.
(3) a scientist who changed the name proposed by
(4) characterisation, identification,
Linnaeus and proposed present name.
classification and nomenclature.
(4) a scientist who for the first time described
132. How many of the following taxa represents man.
hierarchy above family?
Canidae, Polymoniales, Diptera, Poales, 138. Identify I, II and III and choose correct answer:
Anacardiaceae
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

133. Find the incorrect one.

(1) An organism represents/occupies a place or
position in the system of classification.
(2) The local names of plants and animals vary
from place to place, even within a country. I II III
(3) If we were to visit a dense forest, we would (1) Angiospermae Sapindales Solanaceae
probably see a much greater number and kinds
(2) Angiospermae Polymoniales Solanaceae
of living organisms in it.
(3) Angiospermae Polymoniales Anacardiaceae
(4) Biological names can be written in any
(4) Angiospermae Sapindales Anacardiaceae
language.
139. Three genera Datura, Petunia and Solanum share 144. Gorilla and monkey belong to same:
common vegetative and reproductive characteristics. (1) species. (2) genus.
On this basis they are placed in same: (3) division. (4) order.
(1) order. (2) family.
(3) class. (4) division. 145. Identify the incorrect statement(s).
A. Biological names are not assigned for bacteria.
140. Out of the following taxa which one represent the B. Category denotes rank.
C. Insects represent a group of organisms sharing
highest rank in taxonomic hierarchy?
common features like four pairs of jointed
(1) Poales
legs.
(2) Anacardiaceae
D. Each genus may have one or more than one
(3) Monocotyledonae
specific epithets representing different organisms.
(4) Polymoniales
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
141. Match List-I with List-II: (1) A only
List-II (2) B, C and D only
List-I
(Taxonomic category (3) A and C only
(Common Name)
order) (4) A and D only
(A) Wheat (I) Primata
(B) Lion (II) Diptera 146. All plants are included in:
(C) Housefly (III) Carnivora (1) Division - Angiospermae
(D) Man (IV) Poales (2) Class - Monocotyledonae
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Family - Poaceae
(4) Kingdom - Plantae
below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
147. Which one of the following is not a category?
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) Class
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) Animalia
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) Phylum
(4) Kingdom
142. Genus Solanum includes:
A. potato. B. brinjal. 148. Select the correct option w.r.t. scientific name of
C. Datura. D. Petunia. man when it is handwritten.
(1) A and C only (2) A and B only (1) Homo sapiens
(3) A and D only (4) A, B, C and D (2) Homo Sapiens
(3) Homo sapiens
143. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (4) Homo sapiens
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Species is a group of individuals with 149. Which of the following represents a Phylum?
fundamental similarities. (1) Chordata
Reason R: indica, leo, tuberosum represent such (2) Carnivora
group of individuals. (3) Angiospermae
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) All of these
correct answer from the options given below:
150. In taxonomic hierarchy of animals, classes with a
(1) A is true but R is false.
few similar characters are assigned to a higher
(2) A is false but R is true.
category called:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) Phylum.
explanation of A. (2) Order.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (3) Family.
explanation of A. (4) Division.
 [Practice Test-03 | Yakeen Plus (2025) | 29/09/2024]
Body Fluids and Circulation

SECTION-(IV) ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A 158. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. four chambered
151. Inactive fibrinogen are converted into active fibrin heart.
in the plasma by the enzyme (1) Crocodiles (2) Birds
(1) carbonic anhydrase. (3) Mammals (4) Fish
(2) thrombokinase.
(3) thrombin.
(4) succinic dehydrogenase. 159. All the following statements are true for lymph
except:
152. The ventricular contraction starts shortly: (1) It has the same mineral distribution as that in
(1) after Q wave. plasma.
(2) before Q wave.
(2) Exchange of nutrients and gases between the
(3) after R wave.
(4) before R wave. blood and the cells always occur through this
fluid.
153. A special coronary system of blood vessels is (3) It is a colourless fluid containing specialised
present in our body exclusively for the circulation lymphocytes which provide immunity.
of blood to and from the:
(4) Fats are absorbed through lymph in the
(1) pulmonary arteries.
(2) cardiac musculature. lacteals present in the stomach villi.
(3) hepatic vein.
(4) wall of blood vessels. 160. Match List-I and List-II.
List-I List-II
154. All of the following together make about 6-8 per (A) Leucocytes (I) 6-8 percent of
cent of blood plasma except; whole leucocyte
(1) Albumin. (2) Globulin. (B) Average heart beat (II) 6000-8000 mm–3
(3) Fibrinogen. (4) Water. (C) Neutrophils (III) 60-65 percent of
whole leucocyte
155. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by (D) Monocytes (IV) 72 times/minute
administering __X__ to the mother immediately Choose the correct answer from the options given
after the delivery of the ___Y__ below:
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
(1) X-anti-Rh antibodies; Y-first child. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) X-anti-Rh antigen; Y-first child. (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) X-anti-B antibodies; Y-second child. (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) X-anti-A antibodies; Y- second child. (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

156. During cardiac cycle the flow of blood into the 161. Which of the following feature is common in both
ventricles increases by about 30 per cent during:
fish and humans?
(1) atrial systole. (2) ventricular systole.
(3) joint diastole. (4) atrial diastole. (1) Presence of pulmonary circulation.
(2) Numbers of chambers of heart.
157. Given below are two statements: (3) Heart pumps only deoxygenated blood.
Statement I: Lymphatic system collects the lymph (4) Presence of closed circulatory system.
and drains it back to the major veins.
Statement II: Open circulatory system is 162. The correct route of origin and conduction of
considered to be more advantageous.
impulse in the heart can be represented by:
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given (1) AV node → Purkinje fibre → Bundle of His
below: → SA node
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) Purkinje fibre → AV node → Bundle of His -
incorrect. → SA node
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibre →
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Bundle of His
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His →
incorrect. Purkinje fibre
163. Match List-I and List-II. 170. In an individual left ventricle pumps out
List-I List-II approximately 80 mL of blood during each cardiac
(A) Clenched fist (I) Deoxygenated blood cycle with heartbeat 75 beats per minute then
(B) Pulmonary artery (II) Oxygenated blood calculate the cardiac output.
(C) Aorta (III) Essential for blood
clotting. (1) 6000 mL
(D) Calcium ions (IV) Size of heart (2) 600 mL
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) 5000 mL
below: (4) 5040 mL
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
171. Read the following statements (A-D) and select the
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I incorrect statements.
A. A special neural centre in the medulla
164. Reduced count of which of the following formed oblangata can moderate the cardiac function.
elements leads to clotting disorders? B. Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves
(1) Lymphocytes. (2) Thrombocytes. can decrease the rate of heart beat.
(3) Monocytes. (4) Erythrocytes.
C. Parasympathetic neural signals increase the
165. The blood from the intestine is carried to the liver rate of heart beat.
by ___X___ prior to its return to the heart. D. Heart is situated in the thoracic cavity in
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. between the two lungs.
(1) hepatic artery. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(2) hepatic portal vein. options given below:
(3) renal vein. (1) A, B, and D only
(4) renal artery.
(2) B, C, and D only
166. During which phase of cardiac cycle maximum (3) B and C only
filling of ventricle takes place? (4) A, B, C and D
(1) Ventricular systole.
(2) Joint diastole. 172. In human heart, the atrium and ventricle of same
(3) Atrial systole. side are separated by;
(4) Ventricular diastole.
(1) thin fibrous atrio-ventricular septum.
167. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t vein. (2) thick muscular atrio-ventricular septum.
(1) The wall of vein consists of three layers. (3) thick fibrous atrio-ventricular septum.
(2) Tunica intima is made up of squamous (4) thin muscular atrio-ventricular septum.
endothelium.
(3) Tunica media is made up of smooth muscle 173. Read the following statements (A-E) and select the
and elastic fibres.
incorrect statement.
(4) The tunica media is comparatively thick in the
veins than arteries. A. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the
mammals and are biconvex in shape.
168. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t angina pectoris. B. A healthy individual has 70-75 gms of
(1) It occurs when no oxygen reach to the heart haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.
muscle. C. The colour of RBCs is red due to presence of
(2) It can occur in man and woman of any age.
haemoglobin.
(3) It is less common in elderly.
(4) It occurs due to condition that effect blood D. Annelids have closed circulating system.
flow. E. Granulocyte include lymphocyte, neutrophils
and basophils.
169. Protein makes 6-8 percent of plasma which is less Choose the most appropriate answer from the
to per cent of __X_____ of total leucocyte. options given below:
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. (1) A, B, D and E only
(1) eosinophils
(2) B, C, D and E only
(2) basophils
(3) monocytes (3) A, B and C only
(4) lymphocytes (4) A, B and E only
174. The valve which guards the opening between the 178. An individual with anti –B antibodies in his plasma
right atrium and the right ventricle is made up of: can donate blood to all of the following except:
(1) A person with no antibodies against blood
(1) three fibrous flaps. antigen in his plasma.
(2) three muscular flaps. (2) A person with both A and B antigen on his
(3) two muscular flaps. plasma RBCs.
(3) A person with A antigen on his RBCs.
(4) two fibrous flaps. (4) A person with both anti-A and anti-B
antibodies in his plasma.
175. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
179. Which of the following does not contain clotting
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: factors?
Assertion A: Human heart is myogenic. (1) Serum (2) Plasma
Reason R: Normal activities of the heart are (3) Lymph (4) Blood
regulated intrinsically by specialised nodal tissue. 180. Which of the following is the leucocyte that destroy
In the light of the above statements, choose the foreign organisms entering the body?
correct answer from the options given below: (1) Eosinophils (2) Monocytes
(3) Basophils (4) Thrombocytes
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true. 181. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: In amphibians and reptiles the left
explanation of A. atrium receives oxygenated blood and right atrium
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct receives deoxygenated blood.
explanation of A. Reason R: The oxygenated blood get mixed up
with deoxygenated blood in double ventricle in
amphibians and reptiles.
176. Which of the following is correct about complete In the light of the above statements, choose the
double circulation? correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false.
(1) There are two separate circulatory pathways.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(2) There is no mixing of oxygenated and (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
deoxygenated blood. explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) The left atrium receive oxygenated blood and
explanation of A.
the right atrium receive deoxygenated blood.
(4) All of these 182. Humans have four type of blood group due to;
(1) specific type of haemoglobin in RBCs.
(2) specific type of antigens on the surface of
177. The diagram given below shows a section of a RBCs.
human heart with labelled I, II, III and IV. (3) specific type of antigens on the surface of
Select the correct option which gives correct WBCs.
(4) specific type of antibodies on the surface of
identification. RBCs.

183. Purkinje fibres arise from:

(1) middle of ventricle.
(2) anterior part of atria.
(3) apex of ventricle.
(4) dorsal part of atria.

184. Which of the following option is correct about

first heart sound?
(1) I-Sino-atrial node present in the right (1) Lub during about the closure of
atrioventricular valve.
lower corner of the left atrium. (2) Dub during the closure of semilunar valve.
(2) II-Atrio-ventricular node present in the upper (3) Dub during the closure of atrioventricular
left corner of the left atrium. valve.
(4) Lub during the closure of semilunar valve.
(3) III-Bundle of His transmits action potential to
the ventricles. 185. How many double circulation are normally
completed by human heart in one minute?
(4) IV-Thin -walled, the inter-ventricular septum,
(1) 15 (2) 60
separates the left and the right ventricles. (3) 72 (4) 8
 SECTION - B 191. The given below shows a diagrammatic
186. Choose the odd one out w.r.t the presence of presentation of a standard ECG.
nucleus. Select the correct option which gives correct
(1) Erythrocytes. (2) Lymphocytes. explanation.
(3) Monocytes. (4) Neutrophils.

187. Identify the given below diagram and select the

correct option.

(1) By counting the number of P wave one can

determine the heart beat rate of an individual.
(1) Eosinophils resist infections and are also
(2) The T-wave represents the repolarisation of
associated with allergic
the auricles.
reactions. (3) P-wave represents the depolarisation of the
(2) Thrombocytes phagocytic in nature. ventricle.
(3) Monocytes helps in clotting of blood. (4) Any deviation in the shape of standard ECG
(4) RBCs Secrete histamine, serotonin indicates a possible abnormality.
and heparin.
192. Normal blood pressure of a healthy individual is
188. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as ____ X ___.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
Assertion A: Heart failure is sometimes called (1) 140/90 mm Hg (2) 120/80 mm Hg
congestive heart failure. (3) 80/120 mm Hg (4) 90/40 mm Hg
Reason R: Congestion of the lungs is one of the
main symptoms of heart failure. 193. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: The human body has the ability to
In the light of the above statements, choose the
alter the stroke volume as well as the heart rate and
correct answer from the options given below:
thereby the cardiac output.
(1) A is true but R is false. Statement II: The cardiac output of an athlete will
(2) A is false but R is true. be much higher than that of an ordinary man.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct In the light of the above statements, choose the
explanation of A. most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct below:
explanation of A. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
189. Semilunar valve closes when; (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) atrial pressure rises. correct.
(2) atrial pressure fall. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) ventricular pressure falls. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) ventricular pressure rises. incorrect.

190. Read the following statements (A-E) and select the 194. Match List-I and List-II.
incorrect option. List-I List-II
A. The Rh antigen is present in nearly 80 per cent (A) Hypertension (I) Acute chest pain
of humans on the surface of WBCs. (B) Atherosclerosis (II) Heart stops beating
B. ABO group should also be matched before (C) Angina (III) Affects vital organs
blood transfusions. pectoris
(D) Cardiac arrest (IV) Lumen of arteries
C. Electro-cardiograph is the graphical
become narrower
representation of the electrical activity of the
Choose the correct answer from the options given
heart during a cardiac cycle.
below:
D. Lymphocytes is a granulocyte WBCs. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
E. Systemic circulation provides nutrients, O2 (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
and other essential substances to the tissues. (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
options given below:
(1) A, B, D and E only
195. The total duration of cardiac cycle is:
(2) B, C, D and E only
(3) A, B, C and E only (1) 0.7 seconds. (2) 0.8 seconds
(4) A, C and D only (3) 0.5 seconds. (4) 0.4 seconds.
196. Different types of heart and blood circulation 198. Given below are two statements:
pattern are seen in different animals. Which of the Statement I: Chordae tendinae is present in only
left ventricle of human heart.
following is incorrect w.r.t animal, type of heart Statement II: Mitral valve guards the opening
and type of circulation? between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
(1) Fishes have a 2-chambered heart with an In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
atrium and a ventricle and exhibit single below:
circulation. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(2) Crocodiles have a 3-chambered and exhibit
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
incomplete double circulation. correct.
(3) Birds have 4-chambered heart and exhibit (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
complete double circulation.
incorrect.
(4) Mammals have two atria and two ventricles
and they exhibit complete double 199. To obtain a standard ECG a patient is connected to
the machine with;
circulation.
(1) three electrical leads one to each wrist and to
the right ankle.
197. Complete the analogy w.r.t normal count present in (2) two electrical leads one to ankle and to the left
wrist.
blood per mm3 (3) three electrical leads one to each wrist and to
Thrombocytes: 1, 500, 00-3, 500, 00 :: Erythrocytes : ___. the left ankle.
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. (4) two electrical leads one to left wrist and to the
right ankle.
(1) 5.5 billions
(2) 5.5 millions 200. Blood protein which primarily helps in maintaining
(3) 4.5 billions the osmotic balance is:
(1) globulins. (2) albumin.
(4) 4 millions (3) fibrinogen. (4) prothrombin.

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