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Electrostatics

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Q.36) Two charges 3 × 10-8C and –2 × 10-2C are located 15 cm apart. At what point on the line joining the
two charges is the electric potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero.
2..Figures show the field lines of a positive and negative point charge respectively.

(a) Give the sign of the work done by the field in moving a small positive charge from Q to P.

(b) Give the sign of the work done by the external agency in moving a small negative charge from B to A.

(c) Does the kinetic energy of a small negative charge increase or decrease in going from B to A?

Q 37) (a) Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting of two charges 7 µC and –2 µC
(and with no external field) placed at (–9 cm, 0, 0) and (9 cm, 0, 0) respectively.
2
(b) Suppose that the same system of charges is now placed in an external electric field E = A (1/r );
A = 9 × 105C m-2. What would the electrostatic energy of the configuration be?

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Q. 38) A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor
but has a thickness (3/4)d, where d is the separation of the plates. How is the capacitance changed
when the slab is inserted between the plates?

Q. 39) A 600pF capacitor is charged by a 200V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is
connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the
process?

Q. 40) Show that the force on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor has a magnitude equal to (½) QE,
where Q is the charge on the capacitor, and E is the magnitude of electric field between the plates.
Explain the origin of the factor ½.

Q. 41) Answer carefully:

(a) Two large conducting spheres carrying charges Q1 and Q2 are brought close to each other. Is the
magnitude of electrostatic force between them exactly given by Q1 Q2/4πε0r2, where r is the
distance between their centers?
3 2
(b) If Coulomb's law involved 1/r dependence (instead of 1/r ), would Gauss's law be still true ?
(c) A small test charge is released at rest at a point in an electrostatic field configuration. Will it travel
along the field line passing through that point?
(d) What is the work done by the field of a nucleus in a complete circular orbit of the electron? What if
the orbit is elliptical?
(e) We know that electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a charged conductor. Is electric
potential also discontinuous there?
(f) What meaning would you give to the capacitance of a single conductor?
(g) Guess a possible reason why water has a much greater dielectric constant (= 80) than say, mica
(= 6).

Q.42) parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. What
happens to the potential difference and the energy of the capacitor, if the plates are moved
further apart using an insulating handle?

Q. 43) A pith ball of mass 0.2 g is hung by insulated thread between the plates of a capacitor of
separation 8cm. Find the potential difference between the plates to cause the thread to
0 -7
incline at an angle 15 with the vertical, if the charge in the pith ball is equal to 10 C.

Q. 44) A uniformly charged rod with linear charge density λ of length L is inserted into a hollow cubical
structure of side 'L' with constant velocity and moves out from the opposite face. Draw the graph
between flux and time.

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Q.45) Two identical metal plates are given positive charges Q1 and Q2, where Q1> Q2. Find the potential
difference between them, if they are now brought together to form a parallel plate capacitor with
capacitance C.

Q.46) 27 small drops of mercury having the same radius collage to form one big drop. Find the ratio of the
capacitance of the big drop to small drop.

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 ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Instructions : In each problem, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding
statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as -
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If both A and B are false.
(e) If A is false but R is true.
Q.1 Assertion (A) - When a body is given a positive charge, there is a slight increase in the
mas of the body.
Reason (R) - During charging of a body, there is an actual transfer of electrons.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.2 Assertion (A) - An electric field produces the same acceleration in electron and proton.
Reason (R) - For a given force, acceleration does not depend upon mass.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.3 Assertion (A) - Two electric lines of force cannot intersect each other.
Reason (R) - The tangent at any point of an electric line of force given the direction of
electric field intensity at that point.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.4 Assertion (A) - When air between two charges is replaced by mica, the force between the
two charges is reduced.
Reason (R) - The electrostatic force between two charges is inversely proportional to the
dielectric constant of the medium between the two charges.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.5 Assertion (A) - A metal ball suspended by an insulating thread in a uniform electric field is
deflected in the direction of the field when high energy X-ray beam falls on the ball.
Reason (R) - X-rays produce negative charge on metal ball.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.6 Assertion (A) - At the mid-point of the line joining the electron and proton, both the electric
field intensity and the electric potential are zero.
Reason (R) - Electric field intensity is a vector and electric potential is a scalar.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.7 Assertion (A) - Two spherical shells carrying the same positive charge may have a
potential difference between them.
Reason (R) - The potential of a conductor depends upon the charge of the conductor.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.8 Assertion (A) - Electrons move away from a region of lower potential to a region of a
higher potential.
Reason (R) - Since an electron has a negative charge.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.9 Assertion (A) - Positive charge always moves from higher potential to lower potential.
Reason (R) - Every system in nature tends to have maximum potential energy.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Parallel Sheet of Charge
Surface charge density is defined as the charge per unit surface area of surface charge
distribution i.e.  = dq/dS
Two large, thin metal places are parallel and close to each other. On their inner faces, the
plates have surface charge density of opposite signs having magnitude of 17.0x10–22 Cm–2
as shown below.
The intensity of electric field at a point is

E=
0
0 = permittivity of free space.

(i) E in the outer region of the first plate is -

–22 –15
(a) 17 x 10 N/C (b) 1.5 x 10 N/C
–10
(c) 1.9 x 10 N/C (d) Zero

(ii) E in the outer region of the second plate is -

–22 –15
(a) 17 x 10 N/C (b) 1.5 x 10 N/C
–10
(c) 1.9 x 10 N/C (d) Zero

(iii) E between the plates is -

–22 –15
(a) 17 x 10 N/C (b) 1.5 x 10 N/C
–10
(c) 1.9 x 10 N/C (d) Zero

(iv) The ratio of E from right side of B at distances 2 cm and 4 cm, respectively is -
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2

(v) In order to estimate the electric field due to a thin finite plane metal, the gaussian
surface considered is -
(a) spherical (b) cylindrical
(c) straight line (d) none of these

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 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

2. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Faraday Cage
A Faraday cage or Faraday shield is an enclosure made of a conducting material. The
fields within a conductor cancel out with any external fields, so the electric field within the
enclosure is zero. These Farday cages act as big hollow conductors., you can put things to
shield them from electrical fields. Any electrical shocks the cage receives, pass
harmlessly around the outside of the cage.

(i) Which of the following material can be used to make a Faraday cage ?
(a) Plastic (b) Glass
(c) Copper (d) Wood

(ii) Example of a real-world Faraday cage is -

(a) car (b) plastic box
(c) lightning rod (d) metal rod

(iii) What is the electrical force inside a Faraday cage, when it is struck by lightening?
(a) The same as the lightning (b) Half that of the lightning
(c) Zero (d) A quarter of the lightning

(iv) An isolated point charge +q is placed inside the Faraday cage. Its surface must have
charge equal to
(a) zero (b) +q
(c) -q (d) +2q

(v) A point charge of 2C is placed at centre of Faraday cage in the shape of cube with
surface of 9 cm edge. The number of electric fields lines passing through the cube
normality will be -
5 2
(a) 1.9 x 10 N-m /C, entering the surface
5 2
(b) 1.9 x 10 N-m /C, leaving the surface
(c) 2.01 x 105 N-m2/C, leaving the surface
5 2
(d) 2.01 x 10 N-m /C, entering the surface

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 Current Electricity

Answer the following questions

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 -1
Q. 13) (a) the electron drift speed is estimated to be only a few mms for currents in the range of a few
amperes ? How then is current established almost the instant a circuit is closed ?
(b) The electron drift arises due to the force experienced by electrons in the electric field inside the
conductor. But force should cause acceleration. Why then do the electrons acquire a steady
average drift speed ?
(c) If the electron drift speed is so small, and the electron's charge is small, how can we still obtain
large amounts of current in a conductor ?
(d) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean that all the 'free'
electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction ?
(e) Are the paths of electrons straight lines between successive collisions (with the positive ions of
the metal) in the (i) absence of electric field, (ii) presence of electric field ?

Q. 14) A heating element using nichrome connected to a 230V supply draws an initial current of 3.2 A
which settles after a few seconds to a steady value of 2.8A. What is the steady temperature of the
heating element if the room temperature is 27.0 0C ? Temperature coefficient of resistance
-4 0 -1
ofnichrome averaged over the temperature range involved is 1.70 X 10 C .

Q. 15) Two wires of equal length, one of aluminium and the other of copper have the same resistance.
Which of the two wires is lighter ? Hence explain why aluminium wires are preferred for overhead
power cables. (AI = 2.63 X 10-8  m, Cu = 1.72 X 10-8 m, Relative density of AI = 2.7, of Cu=8.9)

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Q. 16) Answer the following questions :
(a) A low voltage supply form which one needs high currents must have very low internal resistance.
Why ?
(b) A high tension (HT) supply of, say, 6 kV must have a very large internal resistance. Why ?

Q. 17) A galvanometer of resistance 40 gives fall scale deflection for 2mA current. It is converted into an
ammeter of range (0-2A). Find the short required. If it is desired that the ammeter so obtained has
the same maximum current as galvanometer, how much is the resistetance required and how
should it be connected to ammeter ?

Q. 18) Plot a graph showing the variation of conductivity  with the temperature T in a metallic
conductor.
Q. 18) Two conducting wires X and Y of same diameter but different materials are joined in series across a
battery. If the number density of electrons in X is twice that in Y, find the ratio of drift velocity of
electrons in the two wires.

Q. 19) A pd of 30V is applied across a colour coded carbon resistor with rings of blue, black and yellow
colours. What is the current to the resistor ?

Q. 20) Two cells each of emf E and internal resistance r1 and r2 are connected in series to an external
resistance R. Can a value of R be selected such that the potential difference of the first cell is O.

Q. 21) A battery has an emf E and internal resistance r. A variable resistance R is connected across the
terminals of the battery. Find the value of R such that (a) the current in the circuit is maximum(b) the
potential difference across the terminal is maximum (c) Plot the graph between V and R.

Q. 22 Can a 30w, 6v bulb be connected supply of 120V ? If not what will have to be done for it ?

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 ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Instructions : In each problem, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding

statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as -
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If both A and B are false.
(e) If A is false but R is true.
Q.1 Assertion (A) - Alloys are used for making standard resistance coils.
Reason (R) - Alloys have high resistivity and low temperature coefficient of resistance.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.2 Assertion (A) - When a wire of length l is stretched to length nl, the resistance is increased
by a factor of n2.
Reason (R) - The stretching of a wire has no effect on the resistivity of the material of wire.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.3 Assertion (A) - The direction of current density is the same as the direction of electric
field.
Reason (R) - The direction of drift velocity of electrons is not determined by the direction of
electric field.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.4 Assertion (A) - A potentiometer of longer length gives more accurate measurement.
Reason (R) - For a given source of emf, the potential gradient for a potentiometer fo longer
length is small.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.5 Assertion (A) - Fuse wire is made up of tin-lead alloy.
Reason (R) - Tin-lead alloy has low melting point and appropriate resistivity.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.6 Assertion (A) - Power consumed by n equal resistors in parallel is n times that of power
consumed in series if V remains the same.
Reason (R) - If the source of emf is ideal, then the internal resistance is zero.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

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 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Electric Pulse

We define average current as Iav = Q

t
dQ
and instantaneous current as I =
dt

Obviously, Q = Idt. Further, electric energy delivered per unit time by a source, i.e. power,

P = E , where E is the energy delivered by the source in time t . In a certain

t
accelerator, electron emerge with energies of 40.0 MeV (1 MeV = 1.60x10–13J). The
electrons do not emerge in steady stream, but in pulses that repeat 250 times per second.
4.00 ms 200 ns

t (s)
This corresponds to a time between each pulse of 4.00 ms in figure. Each pulse lasts for
200 ns and the electrons in the pulse constitute a current of 250mA. The current is zero
between the pulses. While the pulse is ON, the current is constant.
(i) Which of the following relation is correct for conductivity of solid conductor ?
(a) ne
2
(b) 2ne
2

=  = 
m m
(c) 2ne
2
(d) 2ne
2

= 2m  = 
4m
(ii) The charge delivered by the acceleration per pulse is -
–6 –8
(a) 5.0 x 10 C (b) 5.0 x 10 C
–8 –6
(c) 10.0 x 10 C (d) 10.0 x 10 C
(iii) The number of electrons delivered per pulse is -
11 9
(a) 6 x 10 (b) 6 x 10
11 18
(c) 3.13 x 10 (d) 3.13 x 10
(iv) The average current developed by the acceleration is -
(a) 12.5 A (b) 12.5 mA
(c) 12.5 A (d) 1.25 A
(v) The maximum power delivered by the electron beam is
(a) 100 W (b) 10 kW
(c) 1 MW (d) 10 MW

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 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

2. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

EMF of a Cell

An electric cell is a source of energy that maintains a continuous flow of charge in a circuit.
It changes chemical energy into electrical energy. It has two electrodes, positive electrode
(PA) and negative electrode (NB) as shown below.
Electric cell has to do some work in maintaining the current through a circuit. The work
done by the cell in moving unit Positive charge through the whole circuit (including the cell)
is called the electromotive force (emf) of the cell.

(i) When two electrodes (positive and negative) of a cell are immersed in an electrolytic
solution, the charges are exchanged between -
(a) positive electrode and electrolyte only (b) negative electrode and electrolyte only
(c) both electrodes and electrolytes (d) directly between two electrodes
(ii) The current flowing in the cell is

 R+r
(a) I = (b) I =
R+r 
R r
(c) I = (d) I =
 

(iii) The maximum current that can be drawn from a cell is for
(a) R= infinity (b) R = finite non-zer- resistance
(c) R=0 (d) R=r
(iv) When R is infinite, then potential difference V between P and N is
(a)  (b) 2
(c)  (d) 
(v) For the given circuit, if the cell has an emf of 2V and the internal resistance of this cell is
0.1 . It is connected to resistance of 3.9 the voltage across the cell will be -
(a) 1.95 V (b) 1.5 V
(c) 2 V (d) 1.8 V

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 Magnetic Effect of Current and Magnetism
Answer the following questions
Q.1) State two factors on which the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends.

Q.2) Consider the circuit as shown here

where APB & AQB are semi-circles.
What will be the magnetic field at
the centre C of the circular loop ?

Q.3) A current is set up in a long copper pipe. Is there a magnetic field (i) inside (ii) outside the
pipe ?

Q.4) An electron beam is moving vertically upwards. If it passes through a magnetic field which is
directed from South to North in a horizontal plane, then in which direction will the beam be
deflected ?

Q.5) A stream of electrons travelling with speed ‘V’ m/s at right angles to a uniform electric field ‘E is
e = v .
deflected in a circular path of radius ‘r’ prove that P m rE

Q.6) A beam of alpha-particles and of the protons of the same velocity V, enter a uniform magnetic
field at right angles to the field lines. The particles describe circular paths. What’s the ratio of
the radii of these two circles ?

Q.7) A galvanometer having a coil of resistance of 100 ohm gives full scale deflection when a current
of 1 mA is passed through it. Calculate the value of resistacne required to convert it into an
ammeter of the range of zero to ‘1 A.

Q.8) An electron of Kinetic energy 25 Ke V move perpendicular to the direction of a uniform magnetic
field of 0.2 millitesla. Calculate the time peiod of rotation of the electron in the magnetic field.

Q.9) An electron in an atom revolves around the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.53A. Calculate the
equivalent magnetic moment if the frequency of revolution of electron is 6.8x109 MHz.

Q.10) If the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by 20% and, its resistance
also increased by 1.5 times. How will the voltage sensitivity of galvanometer be affected ?
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 2
Q.11) A coil of 100 turns has a cross-sectional area 900 mm . It carries a current of 2A. The plane of
the coil is perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T. Calculate
(i) the magnetic moment of the coil
(ii) torque acting on the coil

Q.12) Explain with reason, in which direction does the current loop KLMN
move when kept near an infinitely long straight wire, carry current i
as shown in figure.

Q.13) An electron being accelerated through 100 v enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.004 T
perpendicular to direction of motion. Calculate the radius of path discussed by electron.
Q.14) A current of 7 A is flowing in a plane circular coil of radius 1 cm having no. of turns 100. The coil
is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 wb/m2. If the coil is free to rotate, which orientation
would correspond to (i) Stable equilibrium (ii) Unstable equilibrium ? Calculate P. E. in two
cases.
Q.15) A voltmeter read 5 V at full scale deflection & is graded according to its resistance/volt at full
scale deflection as 2000 ohm/v. How will you convert it into a voltmeter that reads 15 v at full
scale deflection ?
Q.16) An electric current is flowing due South along a power line. What is the direction of the
magnetic field
Q.17) A moving coil galvanometer, whose coil resistacne is 100 ohm, shows full scale deflection when
1 m V is put a cross it. How can it be converted into a voltmeter of range (0-1 V) ?
Q.18) A long straight wire carries a current of 2 A. An electron travels with a speed of 4x104 m/s
parallel to the wire at a distance of 0.1 m from it in a direction opposite to the electric current.
What force does the magnetic field of the current exert on the moving electron ?
Q.19) A circular segment of radius 10 cm, substends an angle of 600 at its centre. A current of 9 A is
flowing through it. Find the magnitude & direction of magnetic field produced at the centre.

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Q.20) A current flows in a circular coil of radius r & the magnetic field at its centre in B . At what
distance from the centre on the axis of the coil, the magnetic field will be B/8 ?
Q.21) A current of 1 A is flowing in the sides of an equilateral triangle of side 4.5 x 10-2 m. Find the
magnetic field at the centroid of the triangle.
Q.22) Free electrons always keep on moving in a conductor, but no force acts on them in a magnetic
field unless a current is passed through it. Why ?
Q.23) It is desired to pass only 5% of the current through a galvanometer of resistance 5 ohm. What
shunt resistance should be connected across it ?
-2 2 -6
Q. 24) The magnetic needle has magnetic moment 6.7 × 10 Am and moment of inertia I = 7.5 × 10
kg m2. It performs 10 complete oscillations in 6.70 s. What is the magnitude of the magnetic
field?
Q. 25) A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with an external field of 800 G experiences a torque of
0.016 Nm. (a) What is the magnetic moment of the magnet? (b) What is the work done in moving it
from its most stable to most unstable position? (c) The bar magnet is replaced by a solenoid of cross-
sectional area 2 × 10-4 m2 and 1000 turns, but of the same magnetic moment. Determine the current
flowing through the solenoid.
Q. 26) (a) What happens if a bar magnet is cut into two pieces: (i) transverse to its length, (ii) along its
length?
(b) A magnetised needle in a uniform magnetic field experiences a torque but no net force. An iron nail
near a bar magnet, however, experiences a force of attraction in addition to a torque. Why?
(c) Must every magnetic configuration have a north pole and a south pole? What about the field due to
a toroid?
(d) Two identical looking iron bars A and B are given, one of which is definitely known to be magnetised.
How would one ascertain whether or not both are magnetised? If only one is magnetised, how does
one ascertain which one?
Q.27) (a) Magnetic field lines show the direction (at every point) along which a small magnetised
needle aligns (at the point). Do the magnetic field lines also represent the lines of force on a
moving charged particle at every point?
(b) Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined within the core of a toroid, but not within a straight
solenoid. Why?
(c) If magnetic monopoles existed, how would the Gauss's law of magnetism be modified?

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(d) Does a bar magnet exert a torque on itself due to its own field? Does one element of a current-
carrying wire exert a force on another element of the same wire?
(e) Magnetic field arises due to charges in motion. Can a system have magnetic moments even though
its net charge is zero?
Q. 28) Answer the following questions regarding earth's magnetism:
(a) A vector needs three quantities for its specification. Name the three independent quantities
conventionally used to specify the earth's magnetic field.
(b) The angle of dip at a location in southern India is about 18°. Would you expect a greater or smaller
dip angle in Britain?
(c) If you made a map of magnetic field lines at Melbourne in Australia, would the lines seem to go
into the ground or come out of the ground?
(d) In which direction would a compass free to move in the vertical plane point to, if located right on
the geomagnetic north or south pole?
(e) The earth's field, it is claimed, roughly approximates the field due to a dipole of magnetic moment
8 × 1022 J T-1 located at its centre. Check the order of magnitude of this number in some way.
(f) Geologists claim that besides the main magnetic N-S poles, there are several local poles on the
earth's surface oriented in different directions. How is such a thing possible at all?

Q. 29) Answer the following questions :

(a) Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same magnetising field)
when cooled?
(b) Why is diamagnetism, in contrast, almost independent of temperature?
(c) If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly) greater or (slightly) less
than when the core is empty?
(d) Is the permeability of a ferromagnetic material independent of the magnetic field? If not, is it more
for lower or higher fields?
(e) Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every point. Why?
(f) Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of
magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet?

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 ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Instructions : In each problem, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding
statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as -
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If both A and B are false.
(e) If A is false but R is true.
Q.1 Assertion (A) - A charged particle moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field
neither gains kinetic energy not loses kinetic energy.
Reason (R) - Magnetic field performs zero work on the charged particle.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.2 Assertion (A) - A tangent galvanometer does not work in the polar region.
Reason (R) - The earth's magnetic field at the poles is vertical.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.3 Assertion (A) - The magnetic needle used in a tangent galvanometer is short.
Reason (R) - The magnetic field due to circular current-carying coil is uniform over only a
very small region.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.4 Assertion (A) - A current carrying coil in a magnetic field is in stable equilibrium when M is
perpendicular to B.
Reason (R) - M of a current carrying coil is in the plane of the coil.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.5 Assertion (A) - The ratio of magnetic length and geometrical length of a bar magnet is
nearly 0.84.
Reason (R) - The two poles appear at points which are slightly inside the two ends.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Q.6 Assertion (A) - According to Gauss's law for magnetism, B.dS = 0

Reason (R) - The magnetic field due to circular current-carying coil is uniform over only a
very small region.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.7 Assertion (A) - When a compass needle, which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane,
is taken to a geomagnetic pole, it will stay in any position.
Reason (R) - The horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field at the geomagnetic pole
is zero.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

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 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Moving Coil Galvanometer

Moving coil galvanometer operates on Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC)

mechanism and was designed by the scientist D'arsonval. Moving coil galvanometers are
of two types -
(i) Suspended coil
(ii) Pivoted coil type or tangent galvanometer
Its working is based on the fact that when a current
carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences
a torque. This torque tends to rotate the coil about its
axis of suspension in such a way that the magnetic flux
passing through the coil is maximum.
(i) A moving cell galvanometer is an instrument which
(a) is used to measure emf
(b) is used to measure potential difference
(c) is used to measure resistance
(d) is a deflection instrument which gives a deflection when a current flows through its
coil
(ii) To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer
(a) number of turns of coil is kept small
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe
(c) poles are of very strong magnets
(d) poles are cylindrically cut
(iii) The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is -
(a) directly proportional to torsional constant of spring
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the current in the coil
(iv) In a moving coil galvanometer, having a coil of N-turns of area A and carrying current I
is placed in a radial field of strength B. The torque acting on the coil -
2 2 2
(a) NA B I (b) NABI
2
(c) N ABI (d) NABI
(v) To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer, we should decrease-
(a) strength of magnet (b) torsional constant of spring
(c) number of turns is coil (d) area of coil

XII/Comate/23
 Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
Answer the following questions
Q. 1) State Lenz’s law. Explain that it obeys law of conservation of energy.
Q. 2) What are eddy currents ? Explain its two uses.
Q. 3) Explain the phenomenon of Self Induction. Define self inductance. Derive self inductance of long
solenoid.
Q. 4) Define mutual induction, coefficient of mutual induction. Derive an expression for mutual
inductance of two long solenoid.
Q. 5) Magnetic flux of 5mWb is linked with a coil when a current of 1 m A flows. What is self
inductance of coil.
Q. 6) Find the change in current in an inductor of 10 H in which the emf induced is 300 V in 10-2 Sec.
Also find the change in magnetic flux.
Q. 7) A 10 H inductor carries a steady current of 2 A. How can a 100 V self induced emf be made to
appear into inductor.
Q. 8) A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside the solenoid
normal to its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2.0 A to 4.0 A in
0.15, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil ?
Q.9) Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.15 sec. If an average emf of 200 v induced , give
an estimate of the self inductance of the current.
Q.10) A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil changes from
0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil ?
Q.11) A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 km/h what is the voltage difference
developed between the ends of the wing having a span of 25m, if the Earth’s magnetic field at
the location has a magnitude of 5x10-4 T & the dip angle is 300 ?
Q.12) A charged 30 mF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH inductor. what is the angular frequency of
free oscillations of the circuit ?
Q.13) A 100 m F capacitor in series with a 4 resistance is connected to a 110 v, 60 Hz supply.
(a) What is the maximum current in the circuit.
(b) What is the time lag between the current maximum and the voltage maximum ?

Q.14) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step down transformer with its
primary windings having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the secondary in
order to get output power at 230 V ?
Q.15) The electrical mains in a house is marked 220 V, 50 Hz. Write down the equation of
instantaneous voltage.

XII/Comate/24
Q.16) At what frequency would 0.1 H inductor and 10 m F capacitor have reactance of 500  ?
Q.17) A coil takes a current of 2A and 200 watt power from A.C. source of 220v, 50 Hz. Calculate the
resistance and inductance of coil.
Q. 18) A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0
-1 -4
ms , at right angles to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field, 0.30×10 Wb
m-2.
(a) What is the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire?
(b) What is the direction of the emf?
(c) Which end of the wire is at the higher electrical potential?

Q. 19) A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 km/h. What is the voltage difference
developed between the ends of the wing having a span of 25 m, if the Earth's magnetic field
at the location has a magnitude of 5 × 10-4 T and the dip angle is 30°.
Q. 20) An air-cored solenoid with length 30 cm, area of cross-section 25 cm2 and number of turns
-3
500, carries a current of 2.5 A. The current is suddenly switched off in a brief time of 10 s.
How much is the average back emf induced across the ends of the open switch in the circuit?
Ignore the variation in magnetic field near the ends of the solenoid.
Q. 21) (a) Obtain an expression for the mutual inductance between a long straight wire and a square
loop of side a as shown in Fig.
i
x a
a a v
a

(b) Now assume that the straight wire carries a current of 50 A and the loop is moved to the
right with a constant velocity, v = 10 m/s. Calculate the induced emf in the loop at the instant
when x = 0.2 m. Take a = 0.1 m and assume that the loop has a large resistance.

XII/Comate/25
 ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Instructions : In each problem, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding

statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as -
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If both A and B are false.
(e) If A is false but R is true.
Q.1 Assertion (A) - It is easier to move a magnet towards a coil of 10 turns as compared to a
coil of 20 turns.
Reason (R) - When the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field, the
magnetic flux linked with the coil is maximum.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.2 Assertion (A) - The self-inductance of a coil is increased by a factor of four if the number
of turns of the coil is doubled.
Reason (R) - The self-inductance of a coil is proportional to the square of the number of
turns of the coil.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.3 Assertion (A) - Magnetic flux produces induced current.
Reason (R) - = LI.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.4 Assertion (A) - When the plane of a rotating coil is parallel to the magnetic field, the
magnetic flux linked with the coil is minimum but the induced emf is maximum.
= NBA cos  = NBA cos 90 = 0.
0
Reason (R) -
d d
E= – dt ( ) = – dt (NBA cos sin  sin 90 = 
0

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Q.5 Assertion (A) - An induced emf is developed in the axle of a moving train.
Reason (R) - The vertical component of earth's magnetic field, the length of the axle and
the velocity vector are all mutually perpendicular.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.6 Assertion (A) - An induced emf is developed when a conductor falls freely in N-S
direction.
Reason (R) - When a conductor falls freely in N-S direction, l and BH are perpendicular.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

XII/Comate/26
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

The Transformer

Transformer is a device, which is used to increase or decrease the alternating voltage.

The transformers are of the following types -
1. Step-up transformer
2. Step-down transformer

Transformer is based upon the principle of mutual induction. It consists of two coils,
primary coil (p) and secondary coil (s), insulated from each other wounded on soft iron
core. Often the primary coil is the input coil and secondary coil is the output coil. These soft
iron cores are laminated to minimise eddy current loss.
(i) What is not possible in a transformer ?
(a) Eddy current (b) Direct current
(c) Alternating current (d) Induced current
(ii) Which quantities do not change during transformer operation?
(a) Power (b) Frequency
(c) Voltage (d) Both (a) and (b)
(iii) A transformer has 150 turns in its primary and 1000 in secondary. If the primary is
connected to 440 V DC supply, what will be the induced voltage in the secondary side ?
(a) 10V (b) 3V
(c) 5V (d) Zero
(iv) The ratio of secondary to primary turns in an ideal transformer is 4:5. If power input is P,
then the ratio of power output to power input is -
(a) 4:9 (b) 9:4
(c) 5:4 (d) 1:1
(v) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300V to a step-down transformer with
its primary windings having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the
secondary in order to get output power at 230V?
(a) 600 (b) 550
(c) 400 (d) 375

XII/Comate/27
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

2. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Electrical Resonance

Electrical resonance is said to take place in a series L-C-R circuit when the circuit allows
maximum current for a given frequency of the source of alternating supply for which
capacitive reactance becomes equal to the inductive reactance. Impedance of this L-C-R
circuit is maximum. Resonant circuits are used to respond selectivity to signals of a given
frequency while discriminating against signals of different frequencies. If the response of
the circuit is more narrowly peaked around the chosen frequency, we say that the circuit
has higher "selectivity or sharpness". This sharpness is measures with the help of
Q-factor.
(i) Bandwidth of the resonant L-C-R circuit is -
(a) R/L (b) R/2L
(c) 2R/L (d) 4R/L
(ii) To reduce the resonant frequency in an L-C-R series circuit with a generator -
(a) the generator frequency should be reduced
(b) another capacitor should be added in parallel to the first
(c) the iron core of the inductor should be removed
(d) dielectric in the capacitor should be removed
(iii) In a series L-C-R circuit, the capacitance C is changed to 4C. To keep the resonant
frequency same, the inductance must be changed by
(a) 2L (b) L/2
(c) 4L (d) L/4
(iv) In non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature of circuit for frequencies higher than the
resonant frequency ?
(a) Resistive (b) Capacitive
(c) Inductive (d) None of these
(v) Figure shows a series L-C-R circuit, connected to a variable frequency 200V source.
C=80F and R=40. The source frequency which drives the circuit at resonance is -

(a) 25 Hz (b) 25/ Hz

(c) 50 Hz (d) 50/ Hz

XII/Comate/28
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

3. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Eddy Current

Coil is wound over metallic core is helpful in reducing eddy currents in the metallic cores of
transformers, electric motors, induction furnaces and other such devices (as shown
below). Eddy current are undesirable since they heat up the core and dissipate electrical
energy in the form of heat. These currents are minimised by using laminations of metal to
make a metal core.

(i) How are eddy currents minimised to make a metal core of transformer on which coils
are wound?
(a) By using laminations of metal (b) By using solid metallic core
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(ii) To plane of the laminations must be arranged parallel to the magnetic field, so that they
cut across the -
(a) keep on sliding (b) keep on rotating
(c) cut across the induced eddy currents (d) both (a) and (b)
(iii) Induction furnace is used to produce -
(a) low temperature to melt the metal (b) high temperature to melt the metal
0
(c) constant low temperature 20 C (d) high pressure
(iv) Induction furnace can be utilised to prepare -
(a) alloys, by melting the constituent metals
(b) metal, by mixing electrons, protons and neutrons
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(v) When a high frequency alternating current is passed through a coil which surrounds
the metal to be melted. Then
(a) the metal freezes (b) coil rotates with frequency 
(c) the metal melts (d) none of the above

XII/Comate/29
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

4. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Induced Current

The steady current in the coil C2 as show below produces a steady magnetic field. As coil
C2 is moved towards the coil C1, the galvanometer shows
a deflection. This indicates that electric current is induced
in coil C1. When C2 is moved away, the galvanometer
shows a deflection again, but this time in the opposite
direction. This deflection is based upon the Faraday's law
of electromagnetic induction.

(i) The change in magnetic flux -

(a) decreases the radius of the coil C1 to half the initial radius
(b) induces emf in the coil C1
(c) increases the radius of coil C1 to double the initial radius
(d) none of the above
(ii) Which of the above statements are correct? Choose the correct option.
I. The steady current in the coil C2 produces a steady magnetic field.
II. If coil C2 is moved towards the coil C1, the galvanometer shows a deflection
(a) only I (b) Only II
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(iii) What will be the direction of deflection of galvanometer, when is C2 moved away?
(a) same direction (b) opposite direction
(c) No deflection (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(iv) For duration of deflection in G, i.e. current flow in coil C1, which of the following is
correct?
(a) The deflection lasts as song as C2 is in motion
(b) The deflection lasts till 1 min after motion of C2 stops
(c) The deflection lass till 1 h after motion of C2 stops
(d) The deflection lasts forever
(v) When the coil C2 is held fixed and C1 is moved, then
(a) same effects are observed, i.e. current is induced in coil C1
(b) no current is induced in coil C1
(c) number fo magnetic field lines through C1 do not change
(d) current in coil C2 increases drastically

XII/Comate/30
 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
Answer the following questions
Q. 1 In a plane electromagnetic wave the phase difference between electric and magnetic field
vectors is :
(a) zero (b) /4 (c) /2 (d) 
Q. 2 The dimensions of 1/00 are :
-1 -1 -2 2 2 -2
(a) [L T ] (b) [L T] (c) [L T ] (d) [L T ]
Q. 3 Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves ?
(a) Cosmic rays (b) Gamma rays (c) -rays (d) X-rays
Q. 4 Heat radiations are :
(a) -rays (b) microwaves (c) infrared radiations (d) radiowaves
Q. 5 The part of the electromagnetic spectrum having the most penetrating power is ____________.
Q. 6 The part of the electromagnetic spectrum which is used to operate RADAR is ______________ .
Q. 7 Arrange the following in descending order of wavelength :
X-rays, Radio waves, Blue light, Infrared light
Q. 8 Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in ascending order of their frequencies :
(a) Microwaves (b) Radio waves (c) X-rays (d) Gamma rays
Write two uses also.

Q. 9 EMW travel in a medium at a speed of 2x108 m/s, the relative permeability of the medium is
1.0. Calculate the relative permittivity ?

Q.10 Name the e.m. waves in the wavelength range 10 nm to 10-3 nm. How are these waves
generated? Write their two uses.

10
Q. 11 In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 10
–1
Hz and amplitude 48 V m .
(a) What is the wavelength of the wave?
(b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field?
(c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average energy density of the B field.
[c = 3 × 108 m s–1.]

Q. 12 Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is

XII/Comate/31
 E = {(3.1 N/C) cos [(1.8 rad/m) y + (5.4 × 106 rad/s)t]}
(a) What is the direction of propagation?
(b) What is the wavelength λ ?
(c) What is the frequency ν ?
(d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave?
(e) Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.

Q. 13 Answer the following questions:

(a) Long distance radio broadcasts use short-wave bands. Why?
(b) It is necessary to use satellites for long distance TV transmission. Why?
(c) Optical and radiotelescopes are built on the ground but X-ray astronomy is possible only from
satellites orbiting the earth. Why?
(d) The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why?
(e) If the earth did not have an atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or lower
than what it is now?
(f) Some scientists have predicted that a global nuclear war on the earth would be followed by a severe
'nuclear winter' with a devastating effect on life on earth. What might be the basis of this prediction?

XII/Comate/32
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Oscillating Charge

An oscillating charge is an example of accelerating charge. It produces an oscillating

electric field in space, which produces an oscillating electric fields and so on. The
oscillating electric and magnetic fields regenerate each other as a wave which propagates
through space.

(i) Electromagnetic waves can be deflected by

(a) only electric field
(b) only magnetic field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
(ii) Total energy density of electromagnetic waves in vacuum is given by the relation

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(iii) The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends upon the source of radiation
(a) increases as we move from -rays to radio waves
(b) decreases as we move from -rays to radio waves
(c) is same for all of them
(d) none of the above
(iv) Solar radiation is -
(a) transverse electromagnetic wave
(b) longitudinal electromagnetic wave
(c) stationary wave
(d) none of the above
(v) A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the x-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, E=6.3 J-V/m. What is B at the point?
–8 8
(a) 2.1 x 10 kT (b) 2.1 x 10 kT
(c) 3.5 x 106 kT (d) 3.0 x 105 kT

XII/Comate/33
 RAY OPTICS AND WAVE OPTICS
Answer the following questions
Q. 1 Refractive index of a transparent material is –
(a) same for all colours (b) maximum for violet colour
(c) minimum for violet colour (d) maximum for red colour
Q. 2 The critical angle will be largest when light goes from –
(a) water to air (b) glass to air (c) glass to water (d) diamond to air
Q. 3 A symmetric double convex lens of power 4D is cut in two halves by a plane containing the principal
axis. The power of each half is –
(a) 2D (b) 4 D (c) 8 D (d) Zero
Q. 4 A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and a diverging lens in water (n = 1.33). The refractive index
of the material of the lens is –
(a) 1 (b) 1.33 (c) > 1 and < 1.33 (d) > 1.33
Q. 5 A metal coin is at bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid of refractive index = 4/3 to height of 6cm. To an
observer looking from above the surface of liquid, coin will appear at a depth -
(a) 1.5 cm (b) 6.75 cm (c) 4.5 cm (d) 7.5 cm
Q. 6 Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light –
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarisation (iv) Photoelectric
effect
Q. 7 If two waves represented by y1 = 4 Sin
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3.5
Q. 8 Two waves of intensities I and 4I superpose, then the maximum and minimum intensities produced
are :
(a) 5I and 3I (b) 9I and I (c) 9I and 3I (d) 5 I and I
Q. 9 A beam of light of 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1mm wide and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either
side of the central bright fringe is –
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2mm (c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm
Q. 10 Relation between critical angle and refractive index is ________________ .
Q. 11 Blue colour of sky is due to phenomenon of ______________ of sunlight.
Q. 12 Phenomenon of polarisation is ______________ to plane of vibration.
Q. 13 Phenomenon of bending of light around corners of a small obstacle and spreading into region of
geometrical shadow is called _________________ of light.
Q. 14 A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere with centre C as shown in the figure. The ray emerges from
the sphere parallel to the line AB. Find the angle of refraction at A if the refractive index of the

XII/Comate/34
 material of the sphere is -

Q. 15 Find the position of the image formed of the object f=10cm f= -10cm f= 30cm

0 by the lens combination given in the figure.

Q. 16 One face of a prism with a refracting angle of 300 is coated with silver. A ray incident on another face
at an angle of 450 is refracted and reflected from the silver water face and retract its path. Find the
refractive index of the material of the prism.
Q. 17 Draw the ray diagram for the formation of image on an object by a convex mirror and use it to derive
the mirror formula.
Q. 18 A ray incident on medium A. Find µ for medium C so
that ray through this medium is parallel to incident ray.

Q. 19 Find an expression for intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet is rotated between two
crossed polaroid's. In which position of the polaroid sheet will the transmitted intensity be
maximum ?

Q. 20 The intensity at the central maxima O in a Young's double slit P

experiment is I0. If the distance OP equals one-third of fringes S1 Y

width of the pattern, then show that the intensity at point P d

I O
would be 0
4 S2

XII/Comate/35
Q. 21 A slit of width e is placed in front of a lens of focal length 0.5m and is illuminated normally with light of
-7
wavelength 5.89 X 10 m. The first diffraction minima on either side of the central diffraction
maximum are separated by 2 x 10-3m. Find the width e of the slit.

0
Q. 22 Two Nichol prisms are placed cross to each other. Now one of them is rotated through 60 . What
percentage of incident unpolarised light will pass through the system.
Q. 23 Three rays (1,2,3) of different colours fall normally on one of the sides of an isosceles right-angled
prism as shown in figure. The refractive indices of prism for these rays are 1.39, 1.47 and 1.52
respectively. Find which of these rays get internally reflated and which get only reflated from AC.
Trace the paths of rays.

Q. 24 A Convex lens of focal length 20cm is placed coaxially with a convex mirror of radius of curvative
20cm. The two are kept 15 cm apart. A point object is placed 40cm infront of the convex lens. Find
the position of the image formed by this combination. Draw the ray diagram also.

Q. 25 Two convex lenses A and B of an astronomical telescope having focal lengths 5cm and 20cm
respectively as shown in fig.
(i) Which one of the two lenses you will select to use as the objective lens and why ?
(ii) What will be the change in the distance between the lens to have the telescope in normal
adjustment ?
(iii) Calculate the magnifying power of the telescope in the normal adjustment.

Q. 27 A compound microscope uses an objective lens of focal length 4cm and eye lens of focal length 10cm.
An object is placed 6cm from the objective lens.
a) Calculate the magnifying power of the compound microscope if the final image is formed at the
near point.
b) Calculate the length of the compound microscope.

XII/Comate/36
Q. 28 Define resolving power of a compound microscope. How does the resolving power of a compound
microscope change when (i) refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens
increases ? (ii) Wavelength of the radiation used in increased?

Q. 29 A double convex lens of glass of refractive index 1.6 has its both surfaces of equal radii of curvature of
30cm each. An object of height 5cm is placed at a distance of 12.5cm from the lens. Calculate the size of
image formed ?

Q. 30 (a) Write three distinct advantages of a reflecting type telescope over a refracting type telescope.
(b) A convex lens of focal length 10cm is placed coaxially 5cm away from a concave lens of focal length
10cm. If an object is placed 30cm in front of convex lens, find the position of final image formed by the
combined system.

Q. 31 Two slit in Young's double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 1:16. Deduce the ratio of maximum
intensity to minimum intensity obtained in the interference pattern. Also obtain the amplitude ratio
of waves emitted from the slits.

Q. 32 In Young's double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wave length , the intensity of light at
a point on the screen where path difference is , is K unit. Find out the intensity of light at a point
where path difference is /3.

Q. 33 Two wavelengths of sodium light 590 nm and 596nm are used, in turn to study the diffraction taking
place at single slit of aperture 2 X 10-4m. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5m.
Calculate the separation between the positions of the first maxima of the diffraction pattern
obtained in the two cases.

XII/Comate/37
 ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Instructions : In each problem, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding

statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as -
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If both A and B are false.
(e) If A is false but R is true.
Q.1 Assertion (A) - When a convex lens is shifted from air to water, it's power decreases.
Reason (R) - Focal length of a convex lens increases in water.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.2 Assertion (A) - Endoscopy involves use of optical fibres to study internal organs.
Reason (R) - Optical fibres are based on phenomenon of total internal reflection.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.3 Assertion (A) - An air bubble in water shines brightly due to the phenomenon of
refraction.
Reason (R) - Refraction of light is the phenomenon of change in the speed of light as it
travels from one medium to another.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.4 Assertion (A) - The sun is visible to us before actual sunrise and after actual sunset.
Reason (R) - The density of air is small near the surface of earth as compared to higher
altitudes.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.5 Assertion (A) - In Young's doble slit experiment, the interference pattern disappears
when one of the slits is closed.
Reason (R) - Interference occurs due to the superposition of light wave from two coherent
sources.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.6 Assertion (A) - Average energy in the interference pattern is the same as it would be if
there were no interference.
Reason (R) - Interference is the only rare phenomenon in which law of conservation of
energy does not hold good.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

XII/Comate/38
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

The Wavefront
In 1678, a Dutch scientist, Christian Huygens' propounded the wave theory of light.
According to him, wave theory introduced the concepts of wavefront. Light travels in the
form of waves.
A wavefront is the locus of points (wavelets) having the same phase (a surface of constant
phase) of oscillations. A wavelet is the point of disturbance due to propagation of light.
wavefront may also be defined as the hypothetical surface on which the light waves are in
the same phase.
(i) Huygens' original theory of light assumed that, light propagates in the form of -
(a) minute elastic particles
(b) transverse electromagnetic wave
(c) transverse mechanical wave
(d) longitudinal mechanical wave
(ii) A wave normal
(a) is parallel to a surface at the point of incidence of a wavefront
(b) is the line joining the source of light and an observer
(c) gives the direction of propagation of a wavefront at a given point
(d) is the envelops that is tangential to the secondary wavelets
(iii) Ray diverging from a point source form a wavefront propagates through a medium by -
(a) pushing medium particles
(b) propagating through medium with speed of light
(c) carrying particles of same phase along with it
(d) creating secondary wavelets which forms a new wavefront
(iv) According to Huygens' principle a wavefront propagates through a medium by-
(a) pushing medium particles
(b) propagating through medium with speed of light
(c) carrying particles of same phase along with it
(d) creating secondary wavelets which forms a new wavefront
(v) In case of reflection of a wavefront from a reflecting surface,

I. points A and E are in same phase.

II. points A and C are in same phase.
III. points A and B are in same phase.
IV. point C and E are in same phase.
Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Both I and II (b) Both II and III
(c) Both III and IV (d) Both I and IV

XII/Comate/39
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS
2. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.
Diffraction of Light
The phenomenon of bending of light around the sharp corners and the spreading of light
within the geometrical shadow of the opaque obstacles is
called diffraction of light. The light thus deviates from its
linear path. The deviation becomes much more
pronounced, when the dimensions of the aperture or the
obstacle are comparable to the wavelength of light.
(i) Light seems to propagate in rectilinear path because -
(a) its speed is very large
(b) its wavelength is very small
(c) reflected from the upper surface of atmosphere
(d) it is not observed by atmosphere
(ii) In diffraction from a single slit the angular width of central maxima does not depends on
(a) of light used (b) width of slit
(c) distance of slits from the screen D (d) ratio of  and slit width
(iii) In a single slit diffraction of light of wavelengths  is used and slit of width e, the size of
the central maxima on a scree at a distance b is -
(a) 2b + e
(b) 2b/e

2b + e
(c) e

(d) 2b - e
e

(iv) What should be the slit width to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the
central maxima of the single slit pattern of slit width 0.4 mm?
(a) 0.4 mm (b) 0.2 mm
(c) 0.6 mm (d) 0.8 mm

(v) In a single diffraction pattern observed on a screen placed at D more distance from the
slit of width d metre, the ratio of the width of the central maxima to the width of other
secondary maxima is
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2
(c) 1:2 (d) 3:1

XII/Comate/40
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

3. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Refraction of Light
Refraction involves change in the path fo light due to change in the medium.

When a beam of light encounters another transparent medium, a part of light gets
reflected back into the first medium while the rest enters the other. The direction of
propagation fo an obliquely incident ray of light, that enters the other medium, changes at
the interface of two media. This phenomenon is called refraction of light.
(i) Which oft he following quantity remains unchanged after refraction?
(a) Speed of light (b) Intensity of light
(c) Wavelength of light (d) Frequency of light
(ii) A ray of light strikes an air-glass interface at an angle of incidence (i=600) and gets
refracted at an angle of refraction r. On increasing the angle of incidence (i>600), the
angle of refraction r.
(a) decreases (b) remains same
0
(c) is equal to 60 (d) increases
(iii) When an object lying in a denser medium is observed from rarer medium, then real
depth of object is -
(a) more than that observer (b) less than that observer
(c) equals to observed depth (d) depends on angle of vision
(iv) For the same angle of incidence, the angle of refraction in media P, Q and R are 350,
0 0
25 and 15 , respectively. Which of the following relation hold true for the velocity of
light in medium P, Q and R?
(a) VP < VQ < VR (b) VP < VR < VQ
(c) VP > VQ > VR (d) VP > VR > VQ
(v) A light ray enters from medium A and medium B is shown in figure. The refractive index
of medium B relative to A will be -

Medium B

(a) greater than unity Medium A (b) less than unity

(c) equal to unity (d) zero

XII/Comate/41
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

4. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Refraction through Prism

A prism is a portion of a transparent medium bounded by two
plane faces inclined to each other at a suitable angle. In the
given figure, ABDE and DFAC are the two refracting faces, A
is the angle of prism, which is the angle of inclination between
the two refracting surfaces.

Practically it is found that when light is incident on one of this

refracting surface, then the angle of incidences is increased
gradually, then after emerging from the other face, the angle of
deviation first decreases, attains a minimum value (m) and
then again starts increasing. At m' angle of emergence is equal to angle of incidence.
(i) The angle of a prism is 600. The angle of refraction for a ray passing through a prism,
which incident at 300 in minimum deviation position is -
(a) 300 (b) 450
0 0
(c) 60 (d) 75
0
(ii) The angle of a prism is 60 and the angle fo minimum deviation for a ray of light refracted
0
through it is 60 . Then, the refractive index of the material of the prism is -
(a) 2 (b) 2
(c) 3/2 (d) 3
(iii) White light is incident on one face of refracting phase equilateral prism kept in air and
emerges out at another face. The deviation produced by the prism is -
(a) the greatest for the violet colour and least for the red colour
(b) the greatest for the red colour and least for the violet colour
(c) the same for all constituent colours
(d) less for the green colour than that for the yellow colour.
0
(iv) A prism with refractive index n = 1.57 gives a deviation of 5.5 . The prism angle is -
0 0
(a) 9.65 (b) 7.74
0 0
(c) 5.5 (d) 8.50
(v) A plot of angle of deviation D versus angle of incidence for a triangular prism is shown
below.

The angle of incidence for which the light ray travels parallel to the base is -
0 0
(a) 30 (b) 60
0
(c) 45 (d) Data insufficient

XII/Comate/42
 DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATION
Answer the following questions
Q.1 A particle is dropped from a height H. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function of
height is proportional to -
1/2 2 -1/2
(a) H (b) H (c) H (d) H
Q. 2 The unit of Planck's constant are same as of :
(a) work (b) force (c) linear momentum (d) angular momentum
Q. 3 Highest-energy photoelectrons will be produced by :
(a) visible light (b) X-rays (c) ultraviolet light (d) -rays
Q. 4 In photoelectric effect on metals, an increase in he frequency of incident radiation increases :
(a) work function of the metal (b) threshold frequency
(c) velocity of emitted electrons (d) rate of emission
Q. 5 Which one of the following particles moving with teh same velocity has longest waves associated
with it ?
(a) Proton (b) Neutron (c) -particle (d) -particle
Q. 6 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the frequency of incident radiation is __________ than
threshold frequency.
Q. 7 The slope of frequency-retarding potential graph gives the value of _______________ .
Q. 8 A cricket ball of mass m is moving with energy E. de-Broglie wavelength associated with it has the
value _______________ .
Q. 9 If there is an increase in linear dimensions of an object, the de-Broglie wavelength associated with
the particle ______________.
A.10 A proton and an alpha particle have been accelerated through the same potential difference.
Compute the ratio of their de-Broglie wave lengths.

Q. 12 Sketch the graphs showing variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident radiations for two
photo sensitive material A and B having threshold frequencies VA>VB.

(i) In which case, is the stopping potential more and why ?

(ii) Does the slope of the graph depend on the nature of the material used. Explain.

Q. 13 The ratio between the de-Broglie wave lengths associated with protons, accelerated through a
potential, accelerated through a potential of 512V and -particles, accelerated through a potential of
X volt is found to be one. Find the value of X.

XII/Comate/43
Q.14 An electromagnetic wave of wavelength  is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible
work function. If the photo-electrons emitted from this surface have the De Broglie wavelength
1, prove that  = ) )
2mc 2
h
1

Q.15 The work function for ceasium is 1.8 eV. light of 5000A is incident on it. Calculate.
(a) Threshold frequency and threshold wave length.
(b) Maximum velocity of the emitted electron.

Q. 16 The work function for a certain metal is 4.2eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for
incident radiation of waveleght 330 mm?

Q. 17 A proton and a deuteron are accelerated through the same accelerating potential. Which one of the
two has -
(i) greater value of de-Brolie wavelength associated with it and
(ii) less momentum ?

Q.18 The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. will this metal give photo electric emission for
incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm ?

Q.19 Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by an argon laser which is used in the photo electric effect.
When light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the stopping cut-off potential of photo
electrons is 0.38 V. Find the work function of the material from which the emitter is made.
Q.20 Calculate the momentum and de Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated through a
potential difference of 56 V.

XII/Comate/44
 ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Instructions : In each problem, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding

statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as -
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If both A and B are false.
(e) If A is false but R is true.
Q.1 Assertion (A) - Potassium metal emits electrons when visible light falls on it.
Reason (R) - Potassium has low work function.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.2 Assertion (A) - A photocell ma be regarded as an electric eye.
Reason (R) - Human eye is based on photoelectric effect in a small measure.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.3 Assertion (A) - the threshold frequency of photoelectric effect supports the particle nature
of light.
Reason (R) - If frequency of incident light is less than the threshold frequency, electrons
are not emitted from metal surface.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.4 Assertion (A) - In the process of photoelectric emission, all the emitted photo electrons
have the same kinetic energy.
Reason (R) - In photoelectric effect, a photon transfers the whole of its energy to the
electron.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.5 Assertion (A) - We generally comes across stationary photons.
Reason (R) - The rest mass of a photon is zero.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.6 Assertion (A) - Cathode rays are made up of electromagnetic waves.
Reason (R) - Cathode rays are made up of electric and magnetic fields.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.7 Assertion (A) - An electron microscope is based on de Broglie hypothesis.
Reason (R) - The resolving power of an electron microscope is higher than that of an
ordinary microscope.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

XII/Comate/45
 ATOMS AND NUCLEI
Answer the following questions
Q. 1 The ratio between Bohr radii is –

(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:4:6 (c) 1:4:9 (d) 1:3:5

Q. 2 When a radioactive nucleus emits -particle the mass number of the atom :

(a) increases by one (b) remains the same

(c) decreases by one (d) decreases by four

Q. 3 Binding energy per nucleon of a stable nucleus is –

(a) 8eV (b) 8KeV (c) 8 MeV (d) 8 GeV

11 11 +
Q. 4 In the nuclear reaction, 6C → 5B + X +e what does X stand for ?

(a) Electron (b) Proton (c) Neutron (d) Neutrino

Q. 5 Total energy of an electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. Its total energy, when

hydrogen atom is in the first exited state, is :

(a) + 13.6 eV (b) + 3.4 eV (c) -3.4eV (d) -54.4eV

Q. 6 At distance of closest approach, K. E of - particle is ______________.

Q. 7 Angular momentum and energy of an electron in an atom is _______________.

Q. 8 Neutrino is a particle, which is charge less and has spin ___________________.

Q. 9 ______________ energy of a nucleus is the energy with which nucleons are bound in the nucleus.

Q. 10 Which one is unstable among neutron, proton, electron and - particle.

Q. 11 A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to excite a gaseous hydrogen atom at room temperature. Calculate the

wavelengths and the corresponding series of the lines emitted.

XII/Comate/46
Q. 12 Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei 56 Fe and 209 Bi in units of MeV from the following data.
26 83

26 ( ( ( (
M(p) = 1.007825 u, Mn = 1.008665 u, M 56 Fe = 55.934939 u, M 209 Bi = 208.980388 u, 1 u = 931.5
83
MeV. Which nucleus has greater binding energy per nucleon ?

Q. 13 A 12.5eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Up to which

energy level the hydrogen atom would be excited? Calculate the wave lengths of the first member

of Lyman and first member of Balmer series.

Q. 14 Calculate the energy release in MeV in the deuterium – tritium fusion reaction.
2 3 4
1 H + 1H He + n
2

2 3
m(1H ) = 2.014102u m(1H ) = 3.0160494
m(2He4) = 4.0026034 mn = 1.008665u

Q. 15 An electron jumps from fourth to first orbit in an atom. How many maximum number of spectral

lines can be emitted by the atom ? To which series these lines correspond ?

Q. 16 Find the wavelength of the electron orbiting in the first excited state in hydrogen atom.

Q. 17 Calculate the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom. In which region (infrared,

visible, ultraviolet) of hydrogen spectrum does this wavelength lie ?

XII/Comate/47
 ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Instructions : In each problem, a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding

statement of reason (R) is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as -
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If both A and B are false.
(e) If A is false but R is true.
Q.1 Assertion (A) - Outside the nucleus, neutron is an unstable particle. Its half-life is nearly
12 minutes.
Reason (R) - Outside the nucleus, deuterons are not available.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.2 Assertion (A) - An neutron and a proton kept together can form a deuteron only if their
spins are parallel to each other.
Reason (R) - Nuclear forces are spin-dependent.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q.3 Assertion (A) - The positive value of packing fraction implies a large value of binding
energy.
Reason (R) - The divergence of the nuclear mass from the nearest whole number per
nucleon is called packing fraction.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

XII/Comate/48
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Excited State of Atom

At room temperature, most of the H-atoms are in ground state. When an atom receives
some energy (i.e. by electron collisions), the atom may
acquire sufficient energy to raise electron to higher
energy state. In this condition, the atom is said to be in
excited state. From the excited state, the electron can
fall bak to a state of lower energy, emitting a photon
equal to the energy differences of the orbit.

+ +
In a mixture of H–He gas (He is single ionized He atom)
H-atoms and He+ ions are excited to their respective first
excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total
+
excitation energy to He ions (by collisions).
(i) The quantum number n of the state finally populated
+
in He ions is -
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
+
(ii) The wavelength of light emitted in the visible region by He ions after collisions with H-
atoms is -
–7 –7
(a) 6.5 x 10 m (b) 5.6 x 10 m
(c) 4.8 x 10–7 m (d) 4.0 x 10–7 m
(iii) The ratio of kinetic energy of the electrons for the H-atoms to that of He+ ion for n=2 is
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
(c) 1 (d) 2
(iv) The radius of the ground state orbit of H-atom is -

(a) 0 (b) h2 0

hme 2
me2
(c) me (d) 2h 0
2

2
h me
(v) Angular momentum of an electron in H-atom in first excited state is -
(a) h /  (b) h / 2 (c) 2h (d) h

XII/Comate/49
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS
2. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Disappeared Mass
In the year 1939, German scientist Otto Hahn and Strassmann discovered that when an
uranium isotype was bombarded with a neutron, it breaks into two intermediate mass
fragment. It was observed that, the sum of the masses of new fragments formed were less
than the mass of the original nuclei. This difference in the mass appeared as the energy
released in th process.
Thus, the phenomenon of spitting of a heavy nucleus (usually A>230) into two or more
lighter nuclei by the bombardment of proton, neutron,  particle, etc with liberation of
energy is called nuclear fission.
Fission reaction resulting from the absorption of neutron is known as induced fission.

92 U 235 + 0n1 92 U 236 56 Ba144 + 36 Kr 89 + 3 0n1 + Q

Unstable nucleus
(i) Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them
(a) increases with mass number at high mass numbers
(b) decreases with mass number at high mass numbers
(c) increase with mass number at low mass number
(d) decreases with mass number at low mass number.
(ii) For sustaining the nuclear fission chain reaction in a sample (of small size) of 23592 U , it is
desirable to slow down fast neutrons by -
(a) friction (b) elastic damping / scattering
(c) absorption (d) none of the above
(iii) Which of the following is/are fission reaction (s) ?
I. 01 n + 23592 U 92 U
236
51 Sb + 41 Nb + 4 0 n
133 99 1

II. 01 n + 92 U 54 Xe + 38 Sr + 2 0 n +
235 140 94 1

III. 12 H + 12 H 2 He + 0 n
3 1

(a) Both II and III (b) Both I and III

(c) only II (d) Both I and II
(iv) If a nucleus with mass number A = 240 with Ebn = 7.6 MeV breaks into two fragments of
A = 120 and Ebn = 8.5 MeV, then released energy is around -
(a) 216 MeV (b) 200 MeV
(c) 100 MeV (d) cannot be estimated from given data
(v) In any fission process, ratio of mass of daughter nucleus to mass of parent nucleus is -
(a) less than 1 (b) greater than 1
(c) equal to 1 (d)depends on the mass of parent nucleus

XII/Comate/50
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

3. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

 Particle Scattering Experiment
In this experiment, H. Geiger and E. Marsden took radioactive source ( 21483 Bi ) for
particles. A collimated beam of particles of energy 5.5 MeV was allowed to fall on
2.1x10–7 m thick gold foil. The particles were observed through a rotatable detector
consisting of a zinc sulphide screen & microscope and it was found that particles got
scattered. These scattered particles produced scintillations on the zinc sulphide
screen. Observations of this experiment are as follows.
I. Many of the particles pass through the foil without deflection.
II. Only about 0.14% of the incident particles scattered by more than 10.
III. Only about one particles in every 8000 particles deflected by more than 900.
Based on these observation, they were able to proposed a nuclear model of atom are
called planetary model, in which entire positive charge and most of the mas of atom is
concentrated in a small volume called the nucleus with electron revolving around the
nucleus as planets revolve around the sun.
(i) Rutherford's atomic model can be visualised as -

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
–8
(ii) Gold foil used in Geiger-Marsden experiment is about 10 m thick. This ensures
(a) gold foil's gravitational pull is small or possible
(b) gold foil is deflected when particle stream is not incident centrally over it
(c) gold foil provides no resistance to passage of particles
(d) most particle will not suffer more than 10 scattering during passage through gold foil
(iii) In Geiger-Marsden experiment, detection of particles scattered at a particular angle
is done by -
(a) counting flashes produced by particles on a ZnS coated screen
(b) counting sports produced on a photographic film
(c) using a galvanometer detector
(d) using a Geiger-counter
(iv) Atoms consist of a positively charged nucleus is obviously from the following
observation of Geiger-Marsden experiment -
(a) most of particles pass straight through the gold foi
(b) many of particles are scattered through the acute angles
(c) very large number of particles are deflected by large angles
(d) none of the above
(v) The fact that only a small fraction of the number of incident particles rebound back in
Rutherford scattering indicates that -
(a) number of particles undergoing head-on-collision is small
(b) mass of the atom is concentrated in a small volume
(c) mass of the atom is concentrated in a large volume
(d) both (a) and (b)
XII/Comate/51
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS
4. Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Hydrogen Spectrum
Hydrogen spectrum consists of discrete bright lines in a dark background and it is
specifically known as hydrogen emission spectrum. There is one more type fo hydrogen
spectrum that exists where we get dark line on the bright background, it is known as
absorption spectrum.
Balmer found on empirical formula by the observation of a small part of this spectrum and
it is represented by -
1

1
2( 1
(
= R 2 – 2 , where n=3, 4, 5...
n
For Lyman series, the emission is from first state to nth state, for Paschen series, it is from
third state to nth state, for Brackett series, it is from fourth state to nth state and for P fund
series, it is from fifth state to nth state.
(i) Number is spectral lines in hydrogen atom is -
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 15 (d) 
(ii) Which series of hydrogen spectrum corresponds to ultraviolet region?
(a) Balmer series (b) Brackett series
(c) Paschen series (d) Lyman series
(iii)The figure shows energy levels of an atom with six transitions of wave length 1, 2,3,
4,5 and 6. The following wavelength also occur in absorption spectrum.
(a) 1, 2,3
(b) 4,5,6
(c) 1,4,6
(d) 1,2,3,4,5,6
(iv) The ratio of the wavelength for 2 1 transition in Li++, He+ and H is -
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 4 : 9
(c) 4 : 9 : 36
(d) 3 : 2 :13
(v) When an electron jumps from the orbit n=2 to n=4, then wavelength of the radiations
absorbed will be (R is Rydberg's constant).
(a) l16/3R
(b) 16/5R
(c) 5R/16
(d) 3R/16

XII/Comate/52
 Electronic Devices
Answer the following questions
Q. 1 The potential parries of a p-n junction depends on –
(i) Type of semiconductor material (ii) amount of doping (iii) temperature
Which of the following is correct ?
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) ii) only (c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q. 2 np and ne be the number of holes and number of electrons respectively in pure Ge, then :
(a) If np= ne (b) np < ne (c) np > ne (d) np= 0
Q. 3 If the hole concentration in a semiconductor is greater than the electron concentration, the
semiconductor is :
(a) n-type (b) p-type (c) intrinsic (d) an insulator
Q. 4 A junction diode can be used for :
(a) modulation (b) detection (c) rectification (d) amplification
Q. 5 For detecting light intensity, we use :
(a) photodiode in reverse bias (b) photodiode in forwards bias
(c) LED in reverse bias (d) LED in forward bias
Q. 6 Resistance of a semiconductor ________________ with increase of temperature.
Q. 7 In depletion layer, there are no charge carriers but there are ________________.
16 -3
Q.8 The pure silicon has intrinsic concentration of 1.5 x 10 m . Doping increases the hole
22 -3
concentration to 4.5 x 10 m . Calculate the new electron concentration.

Q.9 Which of the diodes are forward biased and which are reverse biased ?

Q. 10 Explain the use of Zener diode as a DC voltage regulator with the help of a circuit diagram.

XII/Comate/53
Q. 11 In the following diagram, which bulb
(i) out of B1 and B2 will glow and why ?

(ii) Draw a diagram of an illuminated p-n junction solar cell.

Q. 12 Three photo diodes D1, D2 & D3 having band gaps of 2.5 eV, 2eV and 3eV respectively. Which of
them will not be able to detect light of wave length 600 nm?

16 -3
Q. 13 Pure Si at 300 K has equal electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 x 10 m . Doping by
indium increases nh to 4.5 x 1022 m-3. Calculate ne in the doped Si.

Q. 14 Draw and explain the output waveform across the load resistor R, if the input waveform is as shown in

the given figure.

XII/Comate/54
 CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS

Read the following passage and answer any four questions.

Photocell
Photocell is a device which converts light energy into electrical energy. It is also called an
electric eye.
A photocell consists of a semi-cylindrical photosensitive
metal plate C (emitter) and a wire loop A (collector)
supported in an evacuated glass or quartz bulb. When
light of suitable wavelength falls on the emitter C,
photoelectrons are emitted.

Thus, the photoelectric current sets up in the

photoelectric cell corresponding to incident light, it
provides the information about the objects as has been seen by our eye in the presence of
light.
(i) All photons present in a light beam of single frequency incident on the emitter C have -
(a) same frequency but different momentum
(b) same momentum but different frequency
(c) different frequency and momentum
(d) same frequency and momentum
(ii) Photocell is based on photoelectric effect that gave evidence that light in interaction
with matter ,
(a) is converted into particles
(b) is converted into particles of same energy
(c) is converted into mass following E=mc2
(d) behaves as if it was made of packets of energy, each of energy hv.
(iii)When intensity of a light beam incident on emitter C is increased, then
(a) energy fo photons present increases
(b) momentum of photons present increases
(c) wavelength of photons present increases
(d) number of photons crossing a unit area per second increases
(iv) A photocell cannot be used -
(a) for reproduction of sound in motion pictures
(b) in a burglar alarms
(c) as a fire alarm
(d) to illuminate a room
14
(v) Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 x 10 Hz is incident on photocell that is used in
metro stations. The energy of a photon in the light beam is -
15 –19
(a) 6.0 x 10 J (b) 3.98 x 10 J
–14 –14
(c) 2.54 x 10 J (d) 5.16 x 10 J

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 Competition Corner
Attempt all the questions

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Q37.

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