Operating System MCQ – Process Management

1. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Those systems which allow more than one process execution at a time, are called multiprocessing
systems. Uniprocessing means only one processor.
2. In operating system, each process has its own __________
a) address space and global variables
b) open files
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: In Operating Systems, each process has its own address space which contains code, data, stack
and heap segments or sections. Each process also has a list of files which is opened by the process as well as all
pending alarms, signals and various signal handlers.
3. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?
a) fork
b) create
c) new
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: In UNIX, a new process is created by fork() system call. fork() system call returns a process ID
which is generally the process id of the child process created.
advertisement
4. A process can be terminated due to __________
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: A process can be terminated normally by completing its task or because of fatal error or killed by
another process or forcefully killed by a user. When the process completes its task without any error then it exits
normally. The process may exit abnormally because of the occurrence of fatal error while it is running. The
process can be killed or terminated forcefully by another process.
5. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Ready state of the process means process has all necessary resources which are required for
execution of that process when CPU is allocated. Process is ready for execution but waiting for the CPU to be
allocated.
6. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Interprocess Communication (IPC) is a communication mechanism that allows processes to
communicate with each other and synchronise their actions without using the same address space. IPC can be
achieved using shared memory and message passing.
7. A set of processes is deadlock if __________
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Deadlock is a situation which occurs because process A is waiting for one resource and holds
another resource (blocking resource). At the same time another process B demands blocking a resource as it is
already held by a process A, process B is waiting state unless and until process A releases occupied resource.
8. A process stack does not contain __________
a) Function parameters
b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
d) PID of child process

Answer: d
Explanation: Process stack contains Function parameters, Local variables and Return address. It does not
contain the PID of child process.
9. Which system call can be used by a parent process to determine the termination of child process?
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) get

Answer: a
Explanation: wait() system call is used by the parent process to determine termination of child process. The
parent process uses wait() system call and gets the exit status of the child process as well as the pid of the child
process which is terminated.
10. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the __________
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe

Answer: b
Explanation: The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the
Program Counter. After every instruction is executed, the Program Counter is incremented by 1 i.e. address of
the next instruction to be executed. CPU fetches instruction from the address denoted by Program Counter and
execute it.
Scheduling
1. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list called
_____________
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue
Answer: b
3. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as ____________
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
Answer: b
4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
5. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is compared with the
priority of ____________
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process
Answer: b
7. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
Answer: b
8. Process are classified into different groups in ____________
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
Answer: d
9. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
10. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread
c) process
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: User level threads are managed by thread library and the kernel is unaware of them.
1. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________
a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
2. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.
a) time
b) space
c) money
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
3. What are the two steps of a process execution?
a) I/O & OS Burst
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
View Answer
Answer: b
4. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________
a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts
View Answer
Answer: c.
5. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be executed.
a) blocked, short term
b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
View Answer
Answer: c
6. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?
a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
7. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called ____________
a) process switch
b) task switch
c) context switch
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
8. What is Dispatch latency?
a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
9. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
10. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the throughput
b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
11. What is Turnaround time?
a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Answer: d
12. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the turnaround time
b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
Answer: b
13. What is Waiting time?
a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
Answer: b
14. Scheduling is done so as to ____________
a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
15. What is Response time?
a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
1. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________
a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
2. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system ____________
a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
Answer: a
Explanation: All the processes will be able to get completed.
3. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is concerned with
____________
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
4. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________
a) are very appropriate for very large computers
b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Large computers are overloaded with a greater number of processes.
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
Answer: b.
6. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is called
____________
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
Answer: b
7. What is Scheduling?
a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
8. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input event in the
input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes have a short runtime, e.g.
less than 10ms?
a) tQ = 15ms
b) tQ = 40ms
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms
Answer: a
9. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.
a) earliest due date
b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
Answer: c
10. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
a) First come First served
b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
Answer: b
11. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long jobs is
slightly ___________
a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
Answer: b
12. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)
I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest job scheduling. It
may cause starvation as shorter processes may keep coming and a long CPU burst process never gets CPU.
II) Preemption may cause starvation. If priority based scheduling with preemption is used, then a low priority
process may never get CPU.
III) Round Robin Scheduling improves response time as all processes get CPU after a specified time.
1. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?
a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First
c) RR – Round Robin
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
2. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________
a) it is too good an algorithm
b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
3. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________
a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
Answer: a
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each user needs to get a share of the CPU at regular intervals.
4. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds.
Process Burst time
P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms
Answer: a
5. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called ____________
a) Fast SJF scheduling
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next
Answer: d
6. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is ____________
a) the predicted next CPU burst
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst
d) anything the user wants
Answer: a
Explanation: The larger the CPU burst, the lower the priority.
7. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?
a) it schedules in a very complex manner
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
8. What is ‘Aging’?
a) keeping track of cache contents
b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
Answer: d
9. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority processes is ____________
a) Starvation
b) Wait queue
c) Ready queue
d) Aging
Answer: d
10. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)
i) Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
ii) Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
iii) Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) i only
b) i and iii only
c) ii and iii only
d) i, ii and iii
Answer: d
11. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
Answer: b
Deadlock
1. What is a reusable resource?
a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
2. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?
a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
3. A system is in the safe state if ____________
a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a.
4. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
5. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
a) banker’s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn’s algorithm
Answer: a
6. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?
a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
7. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
8. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied necessary resources is called
____________
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging
Answer: b
9. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
10. To avoid deadlock ____________
a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used
Answer: a
1. The number of resources requested by a process ____________
a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
Answer: c
2. The request and release of resources are ___________
a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
Answer: c
3. What are Multithreaded programs?
a) lesser prone to deadlocks
b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiple threads can compete for shared resources.
4. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
5. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________
a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: If another process requests that resource (non – shareable resource), the requesting process must
be delayed until the resource has been released.
6. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________
a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and then request to acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional resources that are being
held by other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional resources
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b.
7. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock
Answer: a.
8. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion ____________
a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A printer cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes.

9. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________

a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: They do not require mutually exclusive access, and hence cannot be involved in a deadlock.
10. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be ensured that
____________
a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources
b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: c – A process may request some resources and use them. Before it can can request any additional
resources, however it must release all the resources that it is currently allocated.
11. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its execution is
____________
a) Low CPU utilization
b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
12. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another resource that cannot
be immediately allocated to it ____________
a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
d) then all resources currently being held are preempted
Answer: d.
13. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to ____________
a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one precedes another in the ordering
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
1. A deadlock can be broken by ____________
a) abort one or more processes to break the circular wait
b) abort all the process in the system
c) preempt all resources from all processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
2. The two ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are ____________
a) Abort all deadlocked processes
b) Abort all processes
c) Abort one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
3. Those processes should be aborted on occurrence of a deadlock, the termination of which?
a) is more time consuming
b) incurs minimum cost
c) safety is not hampered
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
4. The process to be aborted is chosen on the basis of the following factors?
a) priority of the process
b) process is interactive or batch
c) how long the process has computed
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
5. Cost factors for process termination include ____________
a) Number of resources the deadlock process is not holding
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock
c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has thus far consumed during its execution
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
6. If we preempt a resource from a process, the process cannot continue with its normal execution and it must be

a) aborted
b) rolled back
c) terminated
d) queued
Answer: b
7. To _______ to a safe state, the system needs to keep more information about the states of processes.
a) abort the process
b) roll back the process
c) queue the process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
8. If the resources are always preempted from the same process __________ can occur.
a) deadlock
b) system crash
c) aging
d) starvation
Answer: d
9. What is the solution to starvation?
a) the number of rollbacks must be included in the cost factor
b) the number of resources must be included in resource preemption
c) resource preemption be done instead
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
1. The number of resources requested by a process ____________
a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
Answer: c
2. The request and release of resources are ___________
a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special programs
Answer: c.
3. What are Multithreaded programs?
a) lesser prone to deadlocks
b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiple threads can compete for shared resources.
4. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) No preemption
c) Hold and wait
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
5. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________
a) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: If another process requests that resource (non – shareable resource), the requesting process must
be delayed until the resource has been released.
6. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail ____________
a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and then request to acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional resources that are being
held by other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional resources
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
7. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods ____________
a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock
Answer: a
8. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion ____________
a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A printer cannot be simultaneously shared by several processes.
9. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion ____________
a) is required
b) is not required
c) may be or may not be required
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: They do not require mutually exclusive access, and hence cannot be involved in a deadlock.
10. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be ensured that
____________
a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other resources
b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: c – A process may request some resources and use them. Before it can can request any additional
resources, however it must release all the resources that it is currently allocated.
11. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its execution is
____________
a) Low CPU utilization
b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
12. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and requests another resource that cannot
be immediately allocated to it ____________
a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
d) then all resources currently being held are preempted
Answer: d
13. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to ____________
a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one precedes another in the ordering
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
 Cryptography
1. In cryptography, what is cipher?
a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
b) encrypted message
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and decryption and encrypted message
d) decrypted message
Answer: a.
2. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by __________
a) sender
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
Answer: b
3. Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography?
a) rsa algorithm
b) diffie-hellman algorithm
c) electronic code book algorithm
d) dsa algorithm
Answer: c
4. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by __________
a) transpositional ciphers
b) substitution ciphers
c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution ciphers
d) quadratic ciphers
Answer: a
5. What is data encryption standard (DES)?
a) block cipher
b) stream cipher
c) bit cipher
d) byte cipher
Answer: a
6. Cryptanalysis is used __________
a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
b) to increase the speed
c) to encrypt the data
d) to make new ciphers
Answer: a
7. Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
b) transport layer security (TLS)
c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)
d) resource reservation protocol
Answer: b
8. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone protocol is provided by _______
a) A5/2 cipher
b) b5/4 cipher
c) b5/6 cipher
d) b5/8 cipher
Answer: a
9. ElGamal encryption system is __________
a) symmetric key encryption algorithm
b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm
c) not an encryption algorithm
d) block cipher method
Answer: b
10. Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary block of data and returns _________
a) fixed size bit string
b) variable size bit string
c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit string
d) variable sized byte string
Answer: a
Symmetric Key
1. If end to end connection is done at a network or IP level, and if there are N hosts, then what is the
number of keys required?
a) N(N-1)/2
b) N
c) N(N+1)/2
d) N/2
Answer: a
2. For 1000 nodes in IP level, how many keys would be required?
a) 499000
b) 499500
c) 500500
d) 500000
Answer: b
3. Communication between end systems is encrypted using a key, often known as
a) temporary key
b) section key
c) line key
d) session key
Answer: d
4. Session keys are transmitted after being encrypted by
a) make-shift keys
b) temporary keys
c) master keys
d) section keys
Answer: c
5. For a network with N nodes, how many master keys are present?
a) N(N-1)/2
b) N
c) N(N+1)/2
d) N/2
Answer: b
6. PDU stands for
a) Protocol data unit
b) Pre data underscore
c) Permuted data unity
d) Protocol data untiy
Answer: a
7. SSM stands for
a) Secure Security Module
b) Session Security Module
c) Service Session Module
d) Session Service Module
Answer: b
8. Which is the last step in establishing a connection between hosts using the SSM?
a) Interaction/ Handshaking between the SSM and the KDC
b) Establishment of the connection
c) Release of connection request packet
d) SSM saves the packet and applies to the KDC for connection permission
Answer: c
Public Key algorithms
1. In public key cryptosystem _____ keys are used for encryption and decryption.
a) Same
b) Different
c) Encryption Keys
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
2. In public key cryptosystem which is kept as public?
a) Encryption keys
b) Decryption keys
c) Encryption & Decryption keys
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
3. In a trapdoor function, the functions are easy to go in
a) One direction
b) Two directions
c) All directions
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
4. Pretty good privacy program is used for
a) Electronic mails
b) File encryption
c) Electronic mails & File encryption
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
5. PGP system uses
a) Private key system
b) Public key system
c) Private & Public key system
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
6. Private key algorithm is used for _____ encryption and public key algorithm is used for _____
encryption.
a) Messages, session key
b) Session key, messages
c) Can be used for both
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
7. Which are called the block ciphers?
a) IDEA
b) CAST
c) Triple-DES
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
8. Which has a key length of 128 bits?
a) IDEA
b) Triple-DES
c) IDEA & Triple-DES
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
9. Which algorithm can be used to sign a message?
a) Public key algorithm
b) Private key algorithm
c) Public & Private key algorithm
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
10. Examples of hash functions are
a) MD5
b) SHA-1
c) MD5 & SHA-1
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
11. A cryptographic hash function has variable output length.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
12. A set of numbers is called as super increasing if
a) Each element is greater than previous element
b) Each element greater than sum of all the previous elements
c) Each element greater than the average of all elements
d) Each element lesser than the sum of all the elements
Answer: b
13. Knapsack problem can be solved by
a) Public key cryptosystem
b) Private key cryptosystem
c) Public & Private key cryptosystem
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
14. Merkle hellman is a symmetric cryptosystem.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
15. In this Merkle Hellman method same key is used for encryption and decryption.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

Computer Architecture
1. What is computer architecture?
a) set of categories and methods that specify the functioning, organisation, and implementation of
computer systems
b) set of principles and methods that specify the functioning, organisation, and implementation of
computer systems
c) set of functions and methods that specify the functioning, organisation, and implementation of computer
systems
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

2. What is computer organization?

a) structure and behaviour of a computer system as observed by the user
b) structure of a computer system as observed by the developer
c) structure and behaviour of a computer system as observed by the developer
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

3. Which of the following is a type of computer architecture?

a) Microarchitecture
b) Harvard Architecture
c) Von-Neumann Architecture
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

4. Which of the following is a type of architecture used in the computers nowadays?

a) Microarchitecture
b) Harvard Architecture
c) Von-Neumann Architecture
d) System Design
Answer: c

5. Which of the following is the subcategories of computer architecture?

a) Microarchitecture
b) Instruction set architecture
c) Systems design
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

6. Which of the architecture is power efficient?

a) RISC
b) ISA
c) IANA
d) CISC
Answer: a

7. What does CSA stands for?

a) Computer Service Architecture
b) Computer Speed Addition
c) Carry Save Addition
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b.

8. If an exception is raised and the succeeding instructions are executed completely, then the processor is
said to have ______
a) Generation word
b) Exception handling
c) Imprecise exceptions
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

9. To reduce the memory access time we generally make use of ______

a) SDRAM’s
b) Heaps
c) Cache’s
d) Higher capacity RAM’s
Answer: c

10. The IA-32 system follows which of the following design?

a) CISC
b) SIMD
c) RISC
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

11. Which of the following architecture is suitable for a wide range of data types?
a) IA-32
b) ARM
c) ASUS firebird
d) 68000
Answer: a

12. In IA-32 architecture along with the general flags, which of the following conditional flags are
provided?
a) TF
b) IOPL
c) IF
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

13. The VLIW architecture follows _____ approach to achieve parallelism.

a) SISD
b) MIMD
c) MISD
d) SIMD
Answer: b

14. What does VLIW stands for?

a) Very Long Instruction Width
b) Very Large Instruction Word
c) Very Long Instruction Width
d) Very Long Instruction Word
Answer: d

15. In CISC architecture most of the complex instructions are stored in _____
a) CMOS
b) Register
c) Transistors
d) Diodes
Answer: c

16. Both the CISC and RISC architectures have been developed to reduce the ______
a) Time delay
b) Semantic gap
c) Cost
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b

17. ________ are the different type/s of generating control signals.

a) Hardwired
b) Micro-instruction
c) Micro-programmed
d) Both Micro-programmed and Hardwired
Answer: d

18. If the instruction Add R1, R2, R3 is executed in a system which is pipelined, then the value of S is
(Where S is term of the Basic performance equation).
a) 2
b) ~1
c) ~7
d) 2
Answer: b

19. The small extremely fast, RAM’s all called as ________

a) Heaps
b) Accumulators
c) Stacks
d) Cache
Answer: d

20. For a given FINITE number of instructions to be executed, which architecture of the processor
provides for a faster execution?
a) ANSA
b) Super-scalar
c) ISA
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b

Arithmetic operation
1. The ‘heart’ of the processor which performs many different operations _____________
a) Arithmetic and logic unit
b) Motherboard
c) Control Unit
d) Memory
Answer: a

2. ALU is the place where the actual executions of instructions take place during the processing operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

3. Which of the following is not a bitwise operator?

a) |
b) ^
c) .
d) <<
Answer: c

4. The sign magnitude representation of -1 is __________

a) 0001
b) 1110
c) 1000
d) 1001
Answer: d.

5. IEEE stands for ___________

a) Instantaneous Electrical Engineering
b) Institute of Emerging Electrical Engineers
c) Institute of Emerging Electronic Engineers
d) Institute of Electrical and electronics engineers
Answer: d

6. The ALU gives the output of the operations and the output is stored in the ________
a) Memory Devices
b) Registers
c) Flags
d) Output Unit
Answer: b
7. The process of division on memory spaces is called ______________
a) Paging
b) Segmentation
c) Bifurcation
d) Dynamic Division
Answer: b
8. Number of bits in ALU is _________
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 2
Answer: c
9. Which flag indicates the number of 1 bit that results from an operation?
a) Zero
b) Parity
c) Auxiliary
d) Carry
Answer: b
10. The bitwise complement of 0 is ___________
a) 00000001
b) 10000000
c) 11111111
d) 11111110
Answer: c

Pipe-lines

1. ______ have been developed specifically for pipelined systems.

a) Utility software
b) Speed up utilities
c) Optimizing compilers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
2. The pipelining process is also called as ______
a) Superscalar operation
b) Assembly line operation
c) Von Neumann cycle
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
3. The fetch and execution cycles are interleaved with the help of ________
a) Modification in processor architecture
b) Clock
c) Special unit
d) Control unit
Answer: b
4. Each stage in pipelining should be completed within ___________ cycle.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
5. In pipelining the task which requires the least time is performed first.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. If a unit completes its task before the allotted time period, then _______
a) It’ll perform some other task in the remaining time
b) Its time gets reallocated to a different task
c) It’ll remain idle for the remaining time
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
7. To increase the speed of memory access in pipelining, we make use of _______
a) Special memory locations
b) Special purpose registers
c) Cache
d) Buffers
Answer: c
8. The periods of time when the unit is idle is called as _____
a) Stalls
b) Bubbles
c) Hazards
d) Both Stalls and Bubbles
Answer: d
9. The contention for the usage of a hardware device is called ______
a) Structural hazard
b) Stalk
c) Deadlock
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
10. The situation wherein the data of operands are not available is called ______
a) Data hazard
b) Stock
c) Deadlock
d) Structural hazard
Answer: a
Cache
1. What is the high speed memory between the main memory and the CPU called?
a) Register Memory
b) Cache Memory
c) Storage Memory
d) Virtual Memory
Answer: b
2. Cache Memory is implemented using the DRAM chips.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. Whenever the data is found in the cache memory it is called as _________
a) HIT
b) MISS
c) FOUND
d) ERROR
Answer: a
4. LRU stands for ___________
a) Low Rate Usage
b) Least Rate Usage
c) Least Recently Used
d) Low Required Usage
Answer: c
5. When the data at a location in cache is different from the data located in the main memory, the cache is
called _____________
a) Unique
b) Inconsistent
c) Variable
d) Fault
Answer: b
6. Which of the following is not a write policy to avoid Cache Coherence?
a) Write through
b) Write within
c) Write back
d) Buffered write
Answer: b
7. Which of the following is an efficient method of cache updating?
a) Snoopy writes
b) Write through
c) Write within
d) Buffered write
Answer: a
8. In ____________ mapping, the data can be mapped anywhere in the Cache Memory.
a) Associative
b) Direct
c) Set Associative
d) Indirect
Answer: a
9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format is ____
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
Answer: a
10. The transfer between CPU and Cache is ______________
a) Block transfer
b) Word transfer
c) Set transfer
d) Associative transfer
Answer: b
TCP/IP model
1. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
a) Application
b) Host to host
c) Internet
d) Network Access
Answer: b
2. You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet
mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?
a) SMTP
b) SNMP
c) DHCP
d) ARP
Answer: c
3. The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the DoD model is
equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model?
a) Application
b) Host to Host
c) Internet
d) Network Access
Answer: c
4. Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?
a) FTP
b) SMTP
c) Telnet
d) DNS
Answer: d
5. Length of Port address in TCP/IP is _________
a) 4bit long
b) 16bit long
c) 32bit long
d) 8 bit long
Answer: b
6. TCP/IP layer is equivalent to combined Session, Presentation and _________
a) Network layer
b) Application layer
c) Transport layer
d) Physical layer
Answer: b
7. How many levels of addressing is provided in TCP/IP protocol?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
8. Virtual terminal protocol is an example of _________
a) Network layer
b) Application layer
c) Transport layer
d) Physical layer
Answer: b
9. TCP/IP is related to __________
a) ARPANET
b) OSI
c) DECNET
d) ALOHA
Answer: a
10. A device operating at network layer is called __________
a) Router
b) Equalizer
c) Bridge
d) Repeater Answer: a
11. A device operating at physical layer is called __________
a) Router
b) Equalizer
c) Bridge
d) Repeater Answer: d
Layer
1. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) bytes
Answer: c
2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) error control
Answer: d
3. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________
a) only network address
b) only host address
c) network address & host address
d) network address & MAC address
Answer: c
4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address
Answer: b
5. Which of the following routing algorithms can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
6. Which of the following is not correct in relation to multi-destination routing?
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) there are multiple receivers
Answer: c
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called ________
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) special tree
Answer: a
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) routing information protocol
Answer: d
9. The network layer protocol for internet is __________
a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) file transfer protocol
Answer: b
10. ICMP is primarily used for __________
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) routing
Answer: a
Functions
1. The coefficients of the polynomials P (S) and Q (S) in the network function N (S) are ________ for
passive network.
a) real and positive
b) real and negative
c) complex and positive
d) complex and negative
Answer: a
2. The scale factor is denoted by the letter?
a) G
b) H
c) I
d) J
Answer: b
3. The zeros in the transfer function are denoted by?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: d
4. The poles in the transfer function are denoted by?
a) x
b) y
c) z
d) w
Answer: a
5. The network function N (S) becomes _________ when s is equal to anyone of the zeros.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) ∞
Answer: c
6. The N (S) becomes ________ when s is equal to any of the poles.
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
Answer: a
7. If the poles or zeros are not repeated, then the function is said to be having __________ poles or
________ zeros.
a) simple, multiple
b) multiple, simple
c) simple, simple
d) multiple, multiple
Answer: c
8. If the poles or zeros are repeated, then the function is said to be having __________ poles or
________ zeros.
a) multiple, multiple
b) simple, simple
c) multiple, simple
d) simple, multiple
Answer: a
9. If the number of zeros (n) are greater than the number of poles (m), then there will be _________
number of zeros at s = ∞.
a) n
b) m
c) n-m
d) n+m
Answer: c
10. If the number of poles (m) are greater than the number of zeros (n), then there will be _________
number of zeros at s = ∞.
a) m+n
b) m-n
c) m
d) n
Answer: b
Protocols
1. Several protocols for upper layers in bluetooth use _________
a) UDP
b) HSP
c) ITC
d) L2CAP
Answer: d
2. Protocols are set of rules to govern _________
a) Communication
b) Standard
c) Metropolitan communication
d) Bandwidth
Answer: a
3. An internet is a __________
a) Collection of WANS
b) Network of networks
c) Collection of LANS
d) Collection of identical LANS and WANS
Answer: b
4. Checksum is used in Internet by several protocols although not at the _________
a) Session layer
b) Transport layer
c) Network layer
d) Data link layer
Answer: d
5. In version field of IPv4 header, when machine is using some other version of IPv4 then datagram is
__________
a) Discarded
b) Accepted
c) Interpreted
d) Interpreted incorrectly
Answer: a
6. Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data coming from another ________
a) Station
b) Link
c) Node
d) Protocol
Answer: d
7. Header of datagram in IPv4 has _________
a) 0 to 20 bytes
b) 20 to 40 bytes
c) 20 to 60 bytes
d) 20 to 80 bytes
Answer: c
8. In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________
a) Fixed length
b) Variable length
c) Global length
d) Zero length
Answer: b
9. In IPv4, service type of service in header field, first 3 bits are called ______
a) Type of service
b) Code bits
c) Sync bits
d) Precedence bits
Answer: d
10. Which is a link layer protocol?
a) ARP
b) TCP
c) UDP
d) HTTP
Answer: b.
11. Which protocol is commonly used to retrieve email from a mail server?
a) FTP
b) IMAP
c) HTML
d) TELNET
Answer: b