1.

The phenomenon known as “Early Effect” in a bipolar transistor

refers to a reduction of the effective base-width caused by
(A) Electron-hole recombination at the base
(B) Increase in magnitude of the collector voltage
(C) The forward biasing of emitter-base junction
(D) The early removal of stored base charge during
saturation-to-cutoff switching
(E) Answer not known

2. The value of drain current for an N-channel JFET with

IDSS = 40 mA, Vp = –10V and VGS = –5V, is
(A) 40 mA (B) 10 mA
(C) 160 mA (D) 20 mA
(E) Answer not known

3. In a transistor connection, the collector resistance RC = 1k Ω ,

Gain β = 50, supply voltage = 3V and VCE = IV. The base current is
1 1
(A) mA (B) mA
25 50
2 1
(C) mA (D) mA
25 10
(E) Answer not known

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4. In the switching circuit shown below, the minimum value of base
current IB required to saturate the transistor is –––––––––. Assume
β = 200 , and VCE(sat ) = 0.3V .

(A) 20.5 μ A (B) 21.5 μ A

(C) 22.5 μ A (D) 23.5 μ A
(E) Answer not known

5. Which of the following statements are true about BJT and FET?
(1) BJT is a current controlled device whereas FET is a voltage
controlled device
(2) BJT amplifier has low gain bandwidth product compared with
FET amplifier
(3) Voltage gain of FET amplifier is low compared with BJT
amplifier
(4) Noise due to temperature effect is more in FET compared with
BJT
(A) (1) only
(B) (1) and (2) are correct
(C) (1) and (3) are correct
(D) (1) and (4) are correct
(E) Answer not known

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6. Consider the following statements :
(1) FET is an unipolar device
(2) FET is current controlled and BJT is voltage controlled
(3) FET is less noisy than BJT
(4) FETs are less temperature stable compared to BJT
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (1) and (3)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (3) and (4)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) Answer not known

7. A BJT common emitter circuit having a collector resistance 6.8 k Ω

and a power supply is 10V. If the transistor operates VCE = 3.2V .
What is the value of IC?
(A) 2 mA (B) 0.1 mA
(C) 1 mA (D) 0.2 mA
(E) Answer not known

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8. An N channel enhancement mode MOSFET has a threshold voltage
of VTH = 1.2V and an applied gate to source voltage of VGS = 2V .
Determine the region of operation when VDS = 0.4V . Assume
VDS (SAT) = 0.8V .
(A) Non-saturation
(B) Saturation
(C) Cut off
(D) Forward saturation
(E) Answer not known

9. A zener diode, when used in voltage stabilization circuits, is biased

in the
(A) Reverse breakdown region
(B) Reverse bias region below breakdown voltage
(C) Forward bias region
(D) Forward bias constant current mode
(E) Answer not known

10. In PN junction, the reverse saturation current is of the order of

––––––––– for silicon and ––––––––– for germanium.
(A) Nano Amperes (nA) and micro amperes ( μA )
(B) Micro Amperes ( μA ) and nano Amperes (nA)
(C) Nano Amperes (nA) and Nano Amperes (nA)
(D) Micro Amperes (mA) and nano Amperes (nA)
(E) Answer not known

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11. The phenomenon of penetrating the charge carriers directly through
the potential barrier instead of climbing over it called
(A) Doping (B) Tunneling
(C) Conducting (D) Diffusion
(E) Answer not known

12. For normal operation, A varactor diode is always operated in

(A) Forward bias
(B) Reverse bias
(C) Both bias
(D) Forward bias with no condition
(E) Answer not known

13. In PN junction diode, the depletion layer capacitance CT

(A) Increases with increase in reverse bias
(B) Decreases with increase in reverse bias
(C) Constant with increase in forward bias
(D) Decreases with increase in forward bias
(E) Answer not known

14. In PN junction, reverse saturation current ( I o ) is 5nA at 25ºC,

then at 45ºC
(A) 30 nA (B) 20 nA
(C) 15 nA (D) 10 nA
(E) Answer not known

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15. For rectification of very high frequencies i.e. above 300 MHZ
signals, the following diode may called or preferred.
(A) Tunnel diode (B) Schottky diode
(C) Varactor diode (D) PN junction diode
(E) Answer not known

16. In a bridge rectifier, the peak inverse voltage of each diode is

–––––––––, where Vm is the maximum amplitude of the input and
Vm >> VD .
(A) Vm (B) Vm/2
(C) 2Vm (D) 0
(E) Answer not known

17. The electron concentration in a piece of silicon maintained at 300 K

under equilibrium conditions is 105 /cm3 . What is the hole
concentration?
Use intrinsic carrier concentration, n i = 1 × 1010 /cm3

(A) 105 / cm3

(B) 1010 / cm3
(C) 1015 / cm3
(D) 1020 / cm3
(E) Answer not known

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18. The forbidden gap for the silicon and germanium at room
temperature 27ºC is 300ºK.
(A) 0.8 eV and 1.25 eV
(B) 0.72 eV and 1.12 eV
(C) 0.69 eV and 1.3 eV
(D) 0.85 eV and 1.4 eV
(E) Answer not known

19. N-type silicon is obtained by doping silicon with

(A) Germanium
(B) Phosphorous
(C) Aluminium
(D) Indium
(E) Answer not known

20. The conductivity of an N-type semiconductor is 10s/m and its

electron mobility is 50 × 10 − 4 m2 /v − s . The electron concentration
is (assume q = 1.6 × 10 −19 )

(A) 12.5 × 10 − 21 cm3

(B) 12.5 × 10 21 cm −3
(C) 125 × 1015 m −3
(D) 12.5 × 1021 m −3
(E) Answer not known

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21. Intrinsic carriers per cubic centimeter in Silicon is
(A) 1.7 × 106 (B) 1.5 × 1010
(C) 2.5 × 1013 (D) 2.5 × 1010
(E) Answer not known

22. Which of the following is fastest Analog-to-Digital converter?

(A) Integration type
(B) Flash type
(C) Successive approximation type
(D) Ramp type
(E) Answer not known

23. In Phase Locked Loop (PLL), the lock state is

(A) VCO frequency equals input frequency
(B) VCO frequency not equals input frequency
(C) Input frequency two times than VCO frequency
(D) Input frequency greater than VCO frequency
(E) Answer not known

24. The open loop voltage gain and common-mode rejection ratio of an
operational Amplifier is
(A) Small and much small than unity respectively
(B) Unity and much smaller than unity respectively
(C) Large and much larger than unity respectively
(D) Unity and zero respectively
(E) Answer not known

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25. For 8 bit DAC whose output are in the range 0 to 10 V. What is the
analog output for digital input 1000 0000?
(A) 2.5 V (B) 5 V
(C) 7.5 V (D) 10 V
(E) Answer not known

26. Find the output of the given circuit

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E) Answer not known

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27. Find the output voltage of given circuit.

(A) 100 V (B) 101.5 V

(C) 111 V (D) 117.5 V
(E) Answer not known

28. Slew rate is called as

(A) Maximum rate of change of output voltage caused by 0 step i/p
voltage
(B) Maximum rate of change of o/p current caused by a step i/p
current
(C) Maximum rate of change of o/p voltage caused by an o/p
current
(D) Maximum rate of change of i/p voltage caused by a step o/p
voltage
(E) Answer not known

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29. An ideal operational Amplifier has
(A) A low input resistance and a large output resistance
(B) A large input resistance and a low output resistance
(C) Equal input and output resistance
(D) A low input resistance and a low output resistance
(E) Answer not known

30. Obtain the CMRR for the circuit given

(A) 90.95 (B) 91

(C) 101 (D) 909.5
(E) Answer not known

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31. Match the following :

(a) Cascade Amplifier 1. Negligible internal

feedback
(b) Differential Amplifier 2. Has very high input
impedance and very high
current gain
(c) Darlington pair CC Amplifier 3. Provides high common
mode voltage rejection
(d) Cascode Amplifier 4. Used when the input or
output impedance is not
of the required correct
magnitude

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 2 3 1
(E) Answer not known

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32. The essential conditions for maintaining oscillation in the oscillator
circuits are
(A) The magnitude of loop gain must be zero and the total phase-
shift around the closed loop is 180°
(B) The magnitude of loop gain must be unity and the total phase-
shift around the closed loop is zero or 360°
(C) The magnitude of loop gain must be zero and the total phase-
shift around the closed loop is 270°
(D) The magnitude of closed loop gain must be less than 1 and the
total phase-shift around the closed loop is 180°
(E) Answer not known

33. The overall current gain is 3600 in a Darlington connection of two

transistors, the value of current gain provided by each transistor is
(A) 360 (B) 60
(C) 3600 (D) 36
(E) Answer not known

34. The operating cycle of class B amplifier is

(A) 90° (B) 120°
(C) 180° (D) 300°
(E) Answer not known

35. In RC phase shift oscillator which of the following feedback in

employed
(A) Voltage series (B) Voltage shunt
(C) Current shunt (D) Current series
(E) Answer not known

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36. The voltage gain (Av) of a common-base amplifier is
(A) Zero (B) Unity
(C) High (D) Less than unity
(E) Answer not known

37. Determine VGSQ and IDQ for the following network for IDSS = 10 mA
and VP = –8 V (VGG = VGS)

(A) VGSQ = –2 V, IDQ = 2.01 mA (B) VGSQ = 0 V, IDQ = 1.5 mA

(C) VGSQ = –2 V, IDQ = 5.625 mA (D) VGSQ = 5 V, IDQ = 4 mA
(E) Answer not known

38. For any BJT amplifier ideally the stability factor has to be
(A) ∞ (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 0
(E) Answer not known

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39. Miller theorem in the content of a common emitter amplifier with
resistive load describes
(A) a decrease in high frequency cut-off frequency
(B) a decrease in low frequency cut-off frequency
(C) an increase in low frequency cut-off frequency
(D) an increase in high frequency cut-off frequency
(E) Answer not known

40. Determine RB and RC for the transistor inverter of the figure if

icsat = 10 mA

(A) RB = 155 kΩ, RC = 1 kΩ (B) RB = 60 kΩ, RC = 40 kΩ

(C) RB = 1 kΩ, RC = 150 kΩ (D) RB = 40 kΩ, RC = 60 kΩ
(E) Answer not known

41. A source produces one of four symbols during each interval. The
probability of the symbol X 4 is P ( X 4 ) = 1 / 8 . The information
concept of the symbol X 4 is
(A) 2 bits (B) 1 bit
(C) 3 bits (D) 4 bits
(E) Answer not known

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42. A 306W carrier is amplitude modulated simultaneously by two
audio waves with modulation percentages of 55 and 65, respectively.
The total radiated power after modulation is
(A) 450 W (B) 490 W
(C) 550 W (D) 590 W
(E) Answer not known

43. Find the information capacity of the channel if the channel

bandwidth is 100 and SNR is 7.
(A) 400 (B) 200
(C) 100 (D) 300
(E) Answer not known

44. The Digital modulation technique which is easily affected due to

channel noise is
(A) BPSK (B) BFSK
(C) BASK (D) QPSK
(E) Answer not known

45. In adaptive delta modulation, the slope overload error is principally

in the ––––––––––– frequency range while quantization error is in
the ––––––––––– frequency range.
(A) low, low (B) high, high
(C) high, low (D) low, high
(E) Answer not known

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46. The amplitude of a Sinusoidal signal varies between –5V and 5V.
The signal is quantized by a uniform Quantizer in a PCM System.
The minimum number of Quantization levels required to achieve
the signal to quantization noise ratio of 43.8 dB is
(A) 32 (B) 64
(C) 128 (D) 256
(E) Answer not known

47. Identify the correct statement.

(1) The noise margin or immunity to noise is proportional to the
width of the eye opening.
(2) The sensitivity of the system to timing errors is revealed by
the rate of closing of the eye as sampling timing is varied.
(A) (1) is true but (2) is false
(B) (1) is false but (2) is true
(C) (1) and (2) are false
(D) (1) and (2) are true
(E) Answer not known

48. Arrange the following PCM events in chronological order.

(1) Encoder
(2) Sampler
(3) Quantizer
(4) Low pass filter
(A) (2), (3), (1), (4) (B) (3), (1), (2), (4)
(C) (4), (2), (3), (1) (D) (2), (3), (4), (1)
(E) Answer not known

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49. The quantization error problems associated with delta modulation
is subjected to two types of noises, they are,
(A) Slope overload, distortion, white noise
(B) Granular noise, thermal noise
(C) Granular noise, shot noise
(D) Slope overload distortion, granular noise
(E) Answer not known

50. Shannon Limit is given by

(A) C = BW log10 (1 + S N ) Bits / Second
(B) C = BW log 2 (1 + S N ) Bits / Second
(C) C = BW log 2 (1 + N S ) Bits / Second
(D) C = BW log10 (1 + N S ) Bits / Second
(E) Answer not known

51. A Sinusoidal carrier signal of peak amplitude 5V and frequency

100KHz is amplitude modulated by a 5 KHz signal of peak
amplitude 3V. What is the modulation index?
(A) 1.67 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.6 (D) 1.2
(E) Answer not known

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52. A signal x (t ) = 2. Cos (2π .104 t + π / 4 ) is applied to an FM modulator
with the sensitivity constant of 10 KHz / Volt. Then the modulation
index of the FM wave is
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 4 /π (D) 2 / π
(E) Answer not known

53. A modulator is a device to

(A) Separate two frequencies
(B) Impress the information on to a radio frequency carrier
(C) Extract information from the carrier
(D) Amplify the audio frequency signal
(E) Answer not known

54. In an AM transmitter, several sinusoidal message signals are

simultaneously modulated with a single sinusoidal carrier, then the
increase of number of sinusoidal messages leads to
(A) The increase of Carrier power
(B) The same value of side band powers
(C) The same value of total transmitted power
(D) The same value of carrier power in the transmitted signal
(E) Answer not known

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55. The rms voltage values of carrier and sideband components of an
AM transmitter are 200V and 50V respectively. If the load resistor
is 100 Ω , the total power in the AM signal is,
(A) 150 W (B) 250 W
(C) 450 W (D) 350 W
(E) Answer not known

56. Calculate the thermal noise power available from any resistor at
room temperature (290K) for a Bandwidth of 1MHz, and a value of
R = 50 Ω

(A) 4 × 10 −5W (B) 4 × 10 −3W

(C) 4 × 10 −2W (D) 4 × 10 −1W
(E) Answer not known

57. A continuous signal x(t) is ideally sampled using a unit impulse

train with sampling interval (T) sec. Which of the following
statements are true about sampled version?
(i) A sequence of impulses
(ii) Located at t = KT
(iii) A periodic version of x(t) with period (T) sec.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

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58. A random process X(t) is called wide sense stationary (WSS), If
(A) A first order moment is not constant
(B) Second order moment is variable
(C) Auto correlation function is independent of time
(D) Auto correlation function is dependent of time
(E) Answer not known

59. A stationary process x(t) is called ergodic process if

(A) Time average is same as ensemble average
(B) Time average is greater than ensemble average
(C) Time average is lesser than ensemble average
(D) Ensemble average is half of the time average
(E) Answer not known

60. Auto correlation function provides

(A) the measure of similarity between the signal and its energy
density spectrum.
(B) the measure of similarity between the signal and its delayed
version.
(C) the measure of similarity between the signal and its unit
impulse function.
(D) the measure of similarity between the signal and its searching
variable.
(E) Answer not known

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61. A more complicated receiver can have several branches, with each
branch synchronized to a different multipath component. This
structure is called
(A) RF Receiver
(B) Super heterodyne receiver
(C) RAKE Receiver
(D) Microwave Receiver
(E) Answer not known

62. Find the data rate of an 802.11 a system assuming 16–QAM

2
modulation and rate − coding
3
(A) Rmax = 30 Mbps (B) Rmax = 31 Mbps
(C) Rmax = 32 Mbps (D) Rmax = 33 Mbps
(E) Answer not known

63. How many stages of flip – flops are required to generate PN

sequences of Length 31?
(A) 4 stages (B) 6 stages
(C) 5 stages (D) 3 stages
(E) Answer not known

64. Since the mobile fading channel is random and time varying,
equalizers must track the time varying characteristics of the mobile
channel and thus are called
(A) Linear equalizer (B) Non – linear equalizer
(C) Negative equalizer (D) Adaptive equalizer
(E) Answer not known

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65. The RAKE receiver uses separate —————— to detect the
—————— shifted version of the original CDMA signal with
multipath.
(A) Receivers, phase (B) Correlators, time
(C) Correlators, phase (D) Antennas, phase
(E) Answer not known

66. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding OFDM?

(i) Cyclic prefix is used to overcome ISI
(ii) OFDM transmitter can be implemented using FFT
(iii) OFDM is a multi carrier modulation technique
(iv) OFDM has a low peak to average power ratio (PAPR)
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(E) Answer not known

67. The multiplexing used in MIMO system is

(A) FDM (B) TDM
(C) CDM (D) SDM
(E) Answer not known

68. MIMO achieves space measurements to improve wireless systems

(A) Capacity, Gain, Throughput
(B) Capacity, Range, Reliability
(C) Reliability, Gain, Range
(D) Capacity, Amplitude, Frequency
(E) Answer not known
25 403 – Electronics and
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69. Assume four branch diversity is used, where each branch receives
an independent Rayleigh fading signal. If the average SNR is 20 dB
determine the probability that the SNR will drop below 10 dB.

(A) (1 − e 0.1 )4 (B) (1 − e −0.5 )4

(C) (1 − e 0.5 )4 (D) (1 − e −0.1 )4
(E) Answer not known

70. Consider GSM which is a TDMA/FDD function that uses 25 MHz

for the forward link which is broken into radio channels of 200 kHz.
If 8 speech channels are supported on a single radio channel and if
no guard band is assumed, the number of simultaneous users that
can be accommodated in GSM is
(A) 1000 (B) 2000
(C) 4000 (D) 8000
(E) Answer not known

71. Snell’s law states that

(A) n2 sin θ1 = n1 sin θ 2 (B) n1 sin θ1 = n2 sin θ 2
(C) n1n2 sin θ1 = sin θ 2 (D) sin θ1 = n1n2 sin θ 2
(E) Answer not known

72. Multipath propagation creates the following important effects are

(A) Rapid change in signal strength, random frequency variation
and time dispersion
(B) Interference, fading and refection
(C) Slow fading, fast fading and frequency selective fading
(D) AC interference, CC interference and is interference
(E) Answer not known
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73. Frequency selective fading is due to time dispersion of the
transmitted symbols within the channel. Thus the channel induces
(A) Adjacent channel interference
(B) Cochannel interference
(C) Inter symbol interference
(D) Mutual interference
(E) Answer not known

74. The envelope of the received signal, in a short scale fading

environment is statistically described by —————— distribution,
if there is a presence of dominant line – of – sight component.
(A) Normal (B) Rayleigh
(C) Ricean (D) Exponential
(E) Answer not known

75. The process of transferring a mobile station from one channel or

base station to another is called
(A) Transfer (B) Give away
(C) Disperse (D) Handoff
(E) Answer not known

76. A vehicle (mobile terminal) is travelling at a speed of 20 m/s away

from a base station BS. The frequency of operation is 800 MHz.
Assuming that the mobile terminal is very far from the base station,
the doppler shift at the mobile terminal is
(A) 37 Hz (B) 40 Hz
(C) 47 Hz (D) 53 Hz
(E) Answer not known

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77. If a total of 33 MHz bandwidth is allocated to a particular FDD
cellular telephone system which uses two 25 kHz simplex channels
to provide full duplex voice and control channels, compute the
number of channels available per cell if a system uses 12 – cell
reuse
(A) 33 channels (B) 65 channels
(C) 55 channels (D) 50 channels
(E) Answer not known

78. Identify the statement that is true about Handoff strategies.

(i) A mobile moves into different cell while its idle.
(ii) A mobile remains in the same cell and is idle.
(iii) A mobile moves into a different cell while in conversation
(iv) A mobile moves within same cell while in conversation.
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only
(E) Answer not known

79. Assertion [A] : Communication system with multipath fading

channel experiences higher BER compared to
ideal channel
Reason [R] : The additive white Gaussian noise (AWGN)
present in the channel leads to bit error
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation
of [A]
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]
(D) [A] is false, but [R] is true
(E) Answer not known

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80. Which of the following property is applicable to flat fading
(1) Bandwidth of signal < Bandwidth of channel
(2) Delay spread > Symbol period
(3) Delay spread < Symbol period
(4) Bandwidth of signal > Bandwidth of channel
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (1) and (3)
(C) (2) and (4) (D) (3) and (4)
(E) Answer not known

81. The HTTP uses the services of TCP on

(A) Well-known port 13 (B) Registered port 80
(C) Dynamic port 13 (D) Well-known port 80
(E) Answer not known

82. –––––––––––– is the architectural framework for accessing linked

documents in the internet.
(A) FDP (B) HTTP
(C) WWW (D) TELNET
(E) Answer not known

83. Webpages are viewed with a program called

(A) Browser (B) Hypertext
(C) Hyperlinks (D) Software
(E) Answer not known

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84. Which of the following are true for user datagram protocol?
(1) Connection oriented protocol
(2) Connectionless protocol
(3) Reliable transport protocol
(4) Unreliable transport protocol
(A) (2) and (4) (B) (1) and (3)
(C) (2) and (3) (D) (1) and (4)
(E) Answer not known

85. An IPv4 packet has arrived with the first 8 bits as shown:
01000010. The receiver discards the packet due to
(A) Version mismatch (B) Invalid header length
(C) Check sum error (D) TTL equals zero
(E) Answer not known

86. Distance vector routing algorithm is also called as

(A) Bellman – Ford (B) Ford – Fulkerson
(C) Wiley (D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) Answer not known

87. Network Address Translation (NAT) changes the internet from a

connectionless network into
(A) Connectionless network
(B) Connection oriented network
(C) Both connectionless and connection oriented networks
(D) No changes are done by NAT
(E) Answer not known
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88. A pure Aloka network transmits 100 bits frames on a channel of
100 kbps. Calculate the vulnerable time.
(A) 1 ms (B) 2 ms
(C) 3 ms (D) 4 ms
(E) Answer not known

89. Which of the following are the properties of distance vector routing?
(1) Decrease in cost propagates quickly
(2) Decrease in cost propagates slowly
(3) Increase in cost propagates slowly
(4) Increase in cost propagates quickly
(A) (1) and (3) (B) (1) and (4)
(C) (2) and (3) (D) (2) and (4)
(E) Answer not known

90. The transmission delay is

(A) Packet length/Transmission rate
(B) Distance/Transmission rate
(C) Transmission rate/Distance
(D) Distance/Propagation speed
(E) Answer not known

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91. Which of the following are true for Go-back-N protocol?
(1) Several packets can be sent before receiving
acknowledgements
(2) Receiver can only buffer one packet
(3) Receiver can buffer many packets
(4) Only one packet can be sent before receiving
acknowledgement
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (1) and (3)
(C) (2) and (4) (D) (3) and (4)
(E) Answer not known

92. Which of the following g (x ) values for a codeword that has single
bit errors in the positions of 1 to 3 caught?
(i) x +1
(ii) x3
(iii) 1
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (iii) only (D) (ii) only
(E) Answer not known

93. The framing, –––––––––––– is the process of adding one extra 0

whenever five consecutive is follow a 0 in the data.
(A) byte stuffing (B) character stuffing
(C) bit stuffing (D) byte unstuffing
(E) Answer not known

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94. Broadcast channels are sometimes referred to as
(A) Multi access channels
(B) Random access channels
(C) Broadcast channels are belongs to MAC sublayer
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) Answer not known

95. Which of the following is not a function of data link layer?

(A) Framing (B) Error control
(C) Flow control (D) Channel coding
(E) Answer not known

96. A code scheme has a hamming distance d min = 4. How many bits of
errors are guaranteed to be detected using this code scheme.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(E) Answer not known

97. PPP is a
(A) Transport layer protocol (B) Application layer protocol
(C) Presentation layer protocol (D) Data link layer protocol
(E) Answer not known

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98. During error control in data link layer sequence numbers allotted to
outgoing frames, because
(A) Receiver distinguish retransmission of frames
(B) To find missing frames
(C) To detect error
(D) To control error
(E) Answer not known

99. HTTP application protocol belongs to: –––––––––––– OSI layer.

(A) Presentation layer (B) Session layer
(C) Transport layer (D) Application layer
(E) Answer not known

100. A causal LTI system is described by the differential equation as,

d 2 y (t ) dy (t )
+3 + 2 y (t ) = x (t )
dt 2 dt
It’s system function when considering all initial conditions as zero is
3 3
(A) H (s ) = (B) H (s ) =
2s2 + 3s + 2 s2 + 2s + 2
1 1
(C) H (s ) = 2 (D) H (s ) = 2
3s + s + 2 s + 3s + 2
(E) Answer not known

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Communication Engineering
101. Convolution of x (t + 5) with impulse function δ (t − 7 ) is equal to
(A) x (t − 12)
(B) x (t + 12 )
(C) x (t − 2)
(D) x (t + 2)
(E) Answer not known

102. Assertion [A] : A causal system with system transfer function

h(n ) = a nu(n ) is stable if a < 1

Reason [R] : A system is stable if its pole lies inside the unit
circle
(A) Both [A] & [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation
of [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation
of [A]
(C) [A] is true but [R] is false
(D) [A] is false but [R] is true
(E) Answer not known

103. For an LTI system with x (n ) = {− 1, 2, 0, 1}, h(n ) = {3, 1, 0, − 1}, find
y(n ) .
(A) y(n ) = {3, − 5, 4, 2, − 1, 0, 1}
(B) y(n ) = {5, 2, 3, 1, 1, 1, 0}
(C) y(n ) = {− 3, 5, 2, 4, − 1, 0, − 1}
(D) y(n ) = {− 1, 0, − 1, 4, 2, 5, 3}
(E) Answer not known

35 403 – Electronics and

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 ( )
104. Let x (n ) = a n u(n ), a < 1 , and X e jw be the Fourier Transform of
( )
x (n ) . Then X e jo is
1
(A)
1+a
(B) 1+a
1
(C)
1−a
(D) 1−a
(E) Answer not known

105. z2 + 1
The z -Transform of the sequence x [n] is x (z ) = . Determine
z −1/ 3
n
1 
the z -Transform of y[n] =   x [n]
3
9z 2 + 1
(A) y(z ) =
1
3z −
3
3z 2 + 1
(B) y(z ) =
1
9z −
3

(C) ( 
) 1
y(z ) = 9z 2 + 1 /  9z − 
 3

(D) ( 
) 1
y(z ) = 3z 2 + 1 /  3z − 
 9
(E) Answer not known

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Communication Engineering
106. Which of the following properties of odd and even function of signals
– is/are true?
(i) The product of two even function is also an even function
(ii) The product of an even function and an odd function is an odd
function
(iii) The sum of two odd function is an odd function
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) Answer not known

107. If x (n ) = b n , b > 0 , then the Region of Convergence (ROC) of its

z -transform in z-plane is
1
(A) b< z <
b
1
(B) < z <b
b
1
(C) < z
b
(D) b< z
(E) Answer not known

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108.  1 for 5 ≤ t ≤ 10

x (t ) = − 1 for 10 ≤ t ≤ 15
 0 otherwise

then, x (t ) can be expressed as
(A) u(t + 5) − 2u(t + 10 ) + u(t + 15)
(B) u(t − 5) − u(t − 10 ) + u(t − 15)
(C) u(t − 5) − 2u(t − 10 ) + 2u(t − 15)
(D) u(t − 5) − 2u(t − 10 ) + u(t − 15 )
(E) Answer not known

109. Which of the following statements are true about Discrete-Time

Fourier series?
(i) Obeys Even signals and ak is real
(ii) Doesn’t obeys odd signals and ak is imaginary
(iii) Time shift is time domain leads to phase factor change in
frequency domain
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

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110. The expression for i1 in the circuit below, when dc voltage is applied
at t = 0 is,

(A) (
i1 = 15 − 14 e −2t − e −12t A )
(B) i1 = (10 − 10e − 2t
− 5e −12t A)
(C) i1 = (15 − 10e − 2t
)
− e −12t A
(D) i1 = (10 − 14e − 2t
− 5e −12t A)
(E) Answer not known

111. In the hybrid parameter relation, for passive 2-port network

h11h12 − h12h21 =
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) –1
(E) Answer not known

39 403 – Electronics and

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112. If three equal resistors (value R) is connected in delta network, then
the value of resistors in the equivalent star network will be
(A) R
(B) R/3
(C) 3R
(D) R3
(E) Answer not known

113. Find the equivalent resistance between terminals x − y in the

following network.

(A) 1 Ω
2
(B) 1 Ω
4
(C) 1 Ω
6
(D) 1 Ω
8
(E) Answer not known

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114. Statement A : A circuit containing R, L & C is said to be in
resonance in the voltage across the circuit is in
phase with the current through it.
Statement B : At resonance, the power factor of the circuit is one
(A) Both A and B are true
(B) Both A and B are false
(C) A is true but B is false
(D) A is false but B is true
(E) Answer not known

115. Find the Thevenin voltage and resistance across ‘ab’ for the network
below

(A) VTh = 23.41 V, RTh = 13.33Ω

(B) VTh = 1.75 V, RTh = 13.33Ω
(C) VTh = 23.41 V, RTh = 60Ω
(D) VTh = 1.75 V, RTh = 60Ω
(E) Answer not known

41 403 – Electronics and

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116. Find Vo from the circuit.

(A) 3.7 V
(B) 7.4 V
(C) 2.5 V
(D) 5V
(E) Answer not known

117. Thevenin’s resistance across terminals ‘A’ and ‘B’ is

(A) 0.5 kΩ
(B) 0.2 kΩ
(C) 1 kΩ
(D) 0.11 kΩ
(E) Answer not known

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118. Find the equivalent resistance across x − y of the circuit diagram.

(A) 2Ω
(B) 1Ω
(C) 4Ω
(D) 0.5 Ω
(E) Answer not known

119. When two port networks A and B are connected in cascade as shown
below, the t parameter matrix for the connected network is given by

(A) t = t A + tB
(B) t = t A ⋅ tB
(C) t = t A − tB
(D) t = t A tB
(E) Answer not known

43 403 – Electronics and

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120. Maximum power is transferred to the load when
RL
(A) RS =
2
(B) RS = RL
(C) RS = RL
RL
(D) RS =
2
(E) Answer not known

121. 2S + 1
A compensator transfer function is given by C (S ) = . What is
0.2S + 1
its nature and parameter?
(A) LAG compensator, β = 10
(B) LAG compensator, β = 2
(C) LEAD compensator, α = 0.1
(D) LEAD compensator, α = 0.2
(E) Answer not known

122. Using Routh’s criterion, the number of roots in the right half of
S-plane for the characteristic equation S 3 + 50S 2 + 5S + 25 = 0
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
(E) Answer not known

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123. Use the Routh-Hurwitz criterion to determine the stability of the
system having characteristic equation
S 6 + S 5 + 5S 4 + 3S 3 + 2S 2 − 4S − 8 = 0
(A) Stable
(B) Unstable
(C) Partially stable
(D) Undefined
(E) Answer not known

124. Which are the characteristics of lead compensation?

(1) Appreciable improvement in transient response
(2) Small change in transient response
(3) Appreciable change in steady state accuracy
(4) Small change in steady state accuracy
(A) (1) and (3)
(B) (1) and (4)
(C) (2) and (3)
(D) (2) and (4)
(E) Answer not known

45 403 – Electronics and

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125. According to Nyquist criterion, for a system to be stable, all poles
should lie
(A) At the Center of S-plane
(B) On Right half of S-plane
(C) On Left half of S-plane
(D) Both on Right and Left half of S-Plane
(E) Answer not known

126. Electrical lag compensator consists of two resistors and a capacitor

connected in
(A) Series (B) Parallel
(C) Series parallel (D) Not connected
(E) Answer not known

127. State-space methods in control are different from the classical

methods because
(A) they can handle multiple-input multiple output
(B) they work in time-domain
(C) they are not very in good giving physical insight
(D) all of the above
(E) Answer not known

128. Gain margin is positive

(A) marginal stability by increasing open-loop gain
(B) marginal stability by decreasing open-loop gain
(C) marginal stability achieved without change in gain
(D) gain = 0 dB achieved by increasing gain
(E) Answer not known
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129. Phase crossover frequency ‘iop’ is the frequency at which the
open-loop transfer function has a phase of
(A) 180°
(B) 90°
(C) 270°
(D) 0°
(E) Answer not known

130. Given natural frequency Wn = 50 rad / sec , damping factor τ = 0.1 ,

find settling time for 2% criterion
(A) 0.6 seconds (B) 0.8 seconds
(C) 0.9 seconds (D) 1 second
(E) Answer not known

131. Nyquist criterion mainly depends upon

(A) Number of encirclements of (− 1, 0 )
(B) Number of encirclements of (1, 0 )
(C) Number of encirclements of (− 2, 0 )
(D) Number of encirclements of (+ 2, 0 )
(E) Answer not known

47 403 – Electronics and

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132. At the phase crossover frequency the phase angle is
(A) ∠G ( jω ) H ( j ω ) = –180°
(B) ∠G ( jω ) H ( j ω ) = –90°
(C) ∠G ( jω ) H ( j ω ) = 0°
(D) ∠G ( jω ) H ( j ω ) = –270°
(E) Answer not known

133. Difference between bode plots and Nyquist plots is

(A) Bode plots use magnitude in decibels
(B) There is no difference
(C) Nyquist’s plots used for applying Nyquist’s stability criterion
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(E) Answer not known

134. The natural frequency of a closed loop transfer function. Is

C (S ) 20
= 2
R(S ) S + (1 + 20 K )S + 20
(A) wn = 20 K (B) wn = 400
(C) wn = 20 (D) wn = 20
(E) Answer not known

135. The type and order of a system whose open loop transfer function
K
given by G (S ) = 3 is
S + 8S 2 + 2S
(A) 0, 3 (B) 0, 2
(C) 1, 2 (D) 1, 3
(E) Answer not known
403 – Electronics and 48
Communication Engineering
136. Consider the closed loop control system as shown in figure below.

The closed loop poles of the system are

(A) –4, –10 (B) –4, –6
(C) –4, 6 (D) –4, 10
(E) Answer not known

137. The nature of response of a second order critically damped system is

(A) Oscillatory (B) Damped oscillatory
(C) Exponentially rising (D) The larger rise time
(E) Answer not known

138. Y (S ) 1
Given the transfer function G (S ) = = 2
R(S ) S + 3S + 2

Find the response y(t ) to the input r (t ) = 5 u(t )

 5 
(A) y(t ) = − 5e −t + e − 2t  u(t )
 2 
5 5 
(B) y(t ) =  − 5e −t + e − 2t  u(t )
2 2 
5 
(C) y(t ) =  − 5e −t  u(t )
2 
5 5 
(D) y(t ) =  + e −2t  u(t )
2 2 
(E) Answer not known
49 403 – Electronics and
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139. An impulse is applied at the input of a continuous system and the
output is observed to be e −2t . Find the transfer function.
1
(A)
s−2
(B) s+2
(C) s−2
1
(D)
s+2
(E) Answer not known

140. In a 2nd order feedback control system,

(A) Natural frequency and damping depends on gain
(B) Natural frequency and damping independent of gain
(C) Natural frequency and damping dependent on excitation type
(D) Natural frequency and damping independent of excitation
(E) Answer not known

141. Linear array is said to be uniform array only if its elements are fed
with
(A) Same current and progressive phase shift
(B) Same material
(C) Emits same polarization
(D) Same number of elements
(E) Answer not known

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142. Write the expression for the radiation resistance Rrad of a Hertzian
dipole,
2
λ λ
(A) Rrad = 790   (Ω ) (B) Rrad = 790   (Ω )
 dl   dl 
2
dl dl
(C) Rrad = 790   (Ω ) (D) Rrad = 790   (Ω )
λ λ
(E) Answer not known

143. END-FIRE linear uniform array, the direction of maximum

λ
radiation for dmax < is
2
(A) 0° and 180° (B) 90° and 270°
(C) 45° and 135° (D) ± 135°
(E) Answer not known

144. A distortionless transmission line operating at 250mHz has

R = 30 Ω / m , L = 200 nH / m and C = 80 PF / m . The velocity of
propagation along the line is
(A) 25 × 10 8 m/sec (B) 2.5 × 108 m/sec
(C) 1.25 × 10 8 m/sec (D) 12.5 × 10 8 m/sec
(E) Answer not known

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145. A transmission line has load impedance Z L = 25 + j50 Ω .
Terminating a 50 Ω line. Find the normalized load impedance.
(A) Z L = 0.5 + j1 Ω (B) Z L = 2.5 + j1 Ω
(C) Z L = 1 + j1 Ω (D) Z L = 25 + j 50 Ω
(E) Answer not known

146. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line ‘ Z o ’ is

1
(A) Zo = LC (B) Z o =
LC
L L
(C) Zo = (D) Z o =
C C
(E) Answer not known

147. If a lossless line, feeding a complex load impedance, has a

VSWR of 4. Then the magnitude of voltage reflection coefficient at
load end is
(A) 4 (B) 5
5 3
(C) 3 (D) 5
5 4
(E) Answer not known

148. Condition for distortionless line

(A) LC = RG (B) RC = LG
(C) RL = CG (D) R = LC
(E) Answer not known

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149. The ratio between amplitudes of reflected and incident electric
fields is defined as
(A) Reflection coefficient (B) Transmission coefficient
(C) Refraction coefficient (D) Skin depth
(E) Answer not known

150. Find the skin depth S at a frequency of 1 MHz in a medium with

σ = 4 s / m and μr = 1 & μ0 = 4π × 10 −7
1 1
(A) (B)
4π 10 −1 4 π 10 −1
4π 16
(C) (D)
−1
10 π 10 −1
(E) Answer not known

151. The intrinsic impedance of free space is

μ0 ∈0
(A) (B)
∈0 μ0
∈0
(C) μ0 ∈0 (D) j
μ0
(E) Answer not known

152. Velocity of plane wave in a medium having μr = 2, ε r = 2 is

(A) V = 1.5 × 10 8 m / s (B) V = 15 × 10 8 m / s

(C) V = 0.15 × 10 8 m / s (D) V = 3 × 108 m / s
(E) Answer not known

53 403 – Electronics and

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153. Let ‘ ev ’ is the volume charge density, then Poisson’s equation is
ev
(A) ∇2 v = 0 (B) ∇ 2 v =
ε
ev es
(C) ∇2 v = − (D) ∇ 2 v =
ε ε
(E) Answer not known

154. Divergence of any vector ‘ D ’ is

 D ⋅ dS  D ⋅ dV
S V
(A) ∇ ⋅ D = lim (B) ∇ ⋅ D = lim
ΔS → 0 ΔS ΔS → 0 ΔS
 D ⋅ dS
(C) ∇ ⋅ D = lim S
(D) ∇ ⋅ D = lim  D ⋅ dS
ΔS
ΔL → 0 ΔV → 0 ΔV
(E) Answer not known

155. If charge is distributed with uniform density ρl c ( m) along an

infinite straight line which will be chosen as the z -axis, then the
field E in cylinderical co-ordinates is given by
ρl  ρl 
(A) E = a r (B) E = ar
2π ε 0 r 2 2π ε 0 r
ρl  ρl 
(C) E = ar (D) E = a r
4π ε 0 r 4π ε 0 r 2
(E) Answer not known

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156. The unit of Electric flux density (or) electric displacement is

(A) V /m (B) C / m2
(C) A/m (D) kg / m
(E) Answer not known

157. The intrinsic impedance η (eta) is equal to

(A) Square of the ratio of permeability to permittivity
(B) Ratio of permeability to permittivity
(C) Square root of the ratio of permeability to permittivity
(D) Square root of the ratio of permittivity to permeability
(E) Answer not known

158. Differential form of Ampere’s circuital law is

− ∂B ∂D
(A) ∇×E = (B) ∇ × H = J +
∂t ∂t
(C) ∇⋅D = ρ (D) ∇ ⋅ B = 0
(E) Answer not known

159. Gauss’s law for magnetic field is  B ⋅ dS =

S

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 3
(E) Answer not known

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 
160. The divergence of D = e − x sin y ax − e − x cos y ay + 2z az at the origin
is

(A) 2e − x + 2 (B) 2e − x − 2
(C) 2 (D) –2
(E) Answer not known

161. Contract stretching is a process that

(A) expands the range of intensity levels in an image
(B) highlights specific range of intensities
(C) highlights the contribution made to total image appearance by
specific bits
(D) enhances flows in the given image
(E) Answer not known

162. Among the following video compression standards, which one

supports to reduce the spatial redundancy in intraframe predictive
coding (in I-frames)
(A) H.262 and MPEG-2
(B) H.261
(C) H.263
(D) H.264 and MPEG-4 AVC
(E) Answer not known

163. A digital image is compressed with a compression ratio of 2. Its

relative data redundancy is
(A) 25% (B) 20%
(C) 50% (D) 75%
(E) Answer not known
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164. In run length coding the second byte value ‘1’ is given by
(A) End of line
(B) Move to a new position
(C) End of image
(D) Specify pixels individually
(E) Answer not known

165. Histogram equalization refers to image

(A) Quantization (B) Framing
(C) Normalization (D) Sampling
(E) Answer not known

166. What is the sum of all components of a normalised histogram of a

gray scale image?
(A) 0 (B) –1
(C) 256 (D) 1
(E) Answer not known

167. If N is unquantized number and Nr is the number quantized by

rounding, then rounding error is defined as
(A) Nr – N
(B) N – Nr
(C) (Nr – N)/2
(D) (Nr + N)/2
(E) Answer not known

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168. Which among the following (IIR) filter realization structure have
desirable coefficient sensitivity property
(A) Ladder (B) Cascade
(C) Direct form - I (D) Direct form - II
(E) Answer not known

169. Consider a signal x (n) = {1, 3, 2, 5, − 1, − 2, 2, 3, 2, 1....} . If we

upsample the signal by 2-fold and then down sample by 3 fold, the
resultant output is
(A) y (n) = {1, 0, 5, 0, 2, 0, 1,......}
(B) y (n) = {1, 0, 3, 0, 2, 0, 5, 0, − 1, ....}
(C) y (n) = {1, 5, 2, 1, ........}
(D) y (n) = {1, 3, 2, 5, − 1, − 2, 2, .......}
(E) Answer not known

170. Obtain the expression for the output y (n ) in terms of x (n) .

n
(A) y (n) = x (5n) (B) y (n) = x  
5
(C) y ( n ) = x ( n − 5) (D) y (n) = x (n )
(E) Answer not known

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171. The IIR filter design using the impulse invariant method are
appropriate for the design of
(A) low pass filter and band pass filter
(B) low pass filter and high pass filter
(C) low pass filter and band stop filter
(D) High pass filter and band stop filter
(E) Answer not known

172. The magnitude response of which filter has maximally flat pass
band and stop band.
(A) Chebyshev filter – Type I
(B) Chebyshev filter – Type II
(C) Butterworth filter
(D) FIR Filter
(E) Answer not known

173. Design of FIR digital filter using fourier series method results is
(A) Aliasing effect
(B) Gibbs oscillation
(C) Freq warping
(D) Limit cycle oscillation
(E) Answer not known

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174. The bilinear transformation from the s-plane to the z-plane is given
by

2  1 − z −1  T  1 − Z −1 
(A) S=  (B) S = 
T  1 + z −1  2  1 + Z −1 

2  1 + Z −1  2 1 + Z 
(C) S=   (D)  
T  1 − z −1  T 1 − Z 
 
(E) Answer not known

175. In hamming window, the approximate transition width of the main

lobe is
4π 8π
(A) (B)
M M
6π 12π
(C) (D)
M M
(E) Answer not known

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176. This question consists of two statements. One labelled as
‘Statement (I)’ and the other as statement (II). Examine these two
statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the
code given below.
Statement I : FFT is a much faster version of the DFT algorithm.

Statement II : Time complexity of DFT is O ( N 2 ) and the time

complexity of FFT is O ( N log N ) for N point discrete signal.
(A) Both Statement I (S1) and Statement II (S2) are true and
S2 is the correct explanation of ‘S1’
(B) Both ‘(S1)’ and ‘(S2)’ are true but ‘S2’ is not the correct
explanation of ‘S1’
(C) ‘S1’ is true but ‘S2’ is false
(D) ‘S1’ is false but ‘S2’ is true
(E) Answer not known

177. Consider the following statements related to decimation in time and

decimation in frequency algorithm of FFT.
S1 : Input is in bit reversed order and output is in normal order in
decimation in time.
S2 : Number of complex addition and multiplications are the same
in both algorithm.
S3 : Input is in bit reversed order and output is also in bit reversed
order in decimation in frequency. The correct statement is/are:
(A) Only S1 and S3
(B) Only S1 and S2
(C) S1, S2 and S3
(D) Only S2 and S3
(E) Answer not known

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178. How many complex multiplications are performed in computing the
N-point DFT of a sequence using divide-and-conquer method if
N = LM?
(A) N ( L + M + 2) (B) N ( L + M − 2)
(C) N ( L + M − 1) (D) N ( L + M + 1)
(E) Answer not known

179. For a finite period sequence x[n ] its DFT x (k ) is

(A) Continuous and periodic
(B) Continuous and aperiodic
(C) Discrete and periodic
(D) Discrete and aperiodic
(E) Answer not known

180. Direct computation of DFT is inefficient, primarily because it

(A) does not exploit the symmetry and periodicity properties of
the phase vector
(B) exploits the symmetry property of the phase vector
(C) exploits the periodicity property of the phase vector
(D) exploits the symmetry and periodicity properties of the phase
vector
(E) Answer not known

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181. In Microprocessor 8085, assume the stack pointer register contain
memory location 2000 H and Register B contains 32 H and ‘C’
contains 57 H. After the execution of instruction PUSH B the stack
pointer would be pointing to
(A) 2 OOO H (B) 1 FFD H
(C) 1 FFF H (D) 1 FFE H
(E) Answer not known

182. A computer programme which converts statements written in high

level language to object code is known as
(A) Compiler (B) Assembler
(C) Disassembler (D) Operating system
(E) Answer not known

183. In a Microprocessor, when a CPU is interrupted, it

(A) stop execution of instruction
(B) acknowledge the interrupt and wait for next instruction from
interrupt device
(C) acknowledge the interrupt and branches to subroutine
(D) acknowledge the interrupt and continue
(E) Answer not known

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184. PAL structure is
(A) programmable AND array followed by fixed OR array
(B) programmable AND array followed by programmable
OR array
(C) fixed AND array followed by programmable OR array
(D) programmable OR array followed by programmable OR array
(E) Answer not known

185. In this form of Addressing, the Address field contains the effective
address of the operand
(A) direct addressing (B) immediate addressing
(C) indirect addressing (D) register addressing
(E) Answer not known

186. A 4 bit Binary up/down counter is in the binary state of 0000. The
next state in the down mode is
(A) 0001 (B) 1111
(C) 1000 (D) 1110
(E) Answer not known

187. The characteristic equation of the complement output of a JK flip

flop Q (t + 1) =

(A) J Q + K ′Q −1 (or) J Q + K Q
(B) J Q′ + K ′Q (or) J Q + K Q
(C) J ′ Q′ + K Q (or) J Q + K Q
(D) J ′ Q + K ′ Q (or) J Q + K Q
(E) Answer not known
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188. —————— is a complementing flipflop that can be obtained from
a JK flipflop when inputs J and K are lied together.
(A) T-Flipflop (B) D-Flipflop
(C) RS-Flipflop (D) RS-Latch
(E) Answer not known

189. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) PROM contains a fixed and array and a programmable or
ARRAY
(B) PROM has programmable AND and fixed or array
(C) PLA has fixed and array and programmable or array
(D) PLA has programmable and array and programmable NOR
array
(E) Answer not known

190. A 10 bit ADC is operating with 1 μ sec clock period and the total
conversion time is seen to be 10 sec. Then the ADC must be the
(A) counting type
(B) flash type
(C) successive approximation type
(D) integrating type
(E) Answer not known

191. A feature that distinguishes the J-K flip-flop from the D-flip-flop is
the
(A) toggle state (B) set state
(C) type of clock (D) reset state
(E) Answer not known

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192. The logical expression
F = ( A + C ) ( B + C ) ( A + B ) is equivalent to

(A) ( A + B) ( A + C) (B) ( A + B ) ( A + C )
(C) ( A + B ) ( A + C) (D) ( A + B ) ( A + C )
(E) Answer not known

193. The binary numbers given are X = 1010100 and Y = 1000011,

performing X – Y by using 2’s complement produce the output as
(A) 10010111 (B) 0010001
(C) 0010001 (D) 10010000
(E) Answer not known

194. Find the function ‘F’ in given multiplexer is, if input D is high.

(A) F = (1, 3, 4, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15)

(B) F=1
(C) F = (2, 4, 6, 12, 13, 14)
(D) F = (3, 6, 12, 14, 15)
(E) Answer not known

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195. The essential prime implicant characterised by
(i) Prime Implicant
(ii) Redundant Implicant
(iii) Final expression contains only essential prime Implicants
(A) (i) is correct
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(E) Answer not known

196. The simplified form of the Boolean expression

Y = ( A BC + D ) ( A D + B C ) can be written as

(A) AD + B C D (B) ( A + D ) ( B C + D )
(C) AD + BCD (D) AD + BC D
(E) Answer not known

197. Reason and Assertion type:

Assertion [A] : AND-OR logic procedures an output expression in

SOP form.
Reason [R] : AND-OR invert logic proceduces a complemented
SOP form, which is actually in POS form.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A] is correct
(E) Answer not known

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198. 2’s complement of the binary 1101100 is
(A) 1101011 (B) 0010011
(C) 0010100 (D) 0010010
(E) Answer not known

199. Convert the binary number 0.1011 to decimal

(A) 0.8675 (B) 0.7865
(C) 0.6875 (D) 0.5678
(E) Answer not known

200. The octal value of (0.513)10 is

(A) (0.416517...)8 (B) (0.406507 ...)8
(C) (0.406517...)8 (D) ( 0.416507 ...)8
(E) Answer not known

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