Cell and Cell Division - Race-D (IJSO)
Cell and Cell Division - Race-D (IJSO)
Cell and Cell Division - Race-D (IJSO)
PRE-NURTURE COURSE
TARGET : NSEJS
RACE #15-D TOPIC : CELL CYCLE MITOSIS AND MEIOSIS BIOLOGY
SECTION-I 7. If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase,
how many chromosomes are there in each daughter
1. The centromere is a region in which cell following cytokinesis?
(1) chromatids remain attached to one another until (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40
anaphase. 8. Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate
(2) metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?
metaphase plate. (1) centromere (2) centrosome
(3) chromosomes are grouped during telophase. (3) centriole (4) chromatid
(4) the nucleus is located prior to mitosis. 9. Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific
2. Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule
cell divisions would produce an early embryo with formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating
how many cells? their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin.
Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32
affect
3. If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many
(1) the formation of the mitotic spindle.
centromeres are there?
(2) anaphase.
(1) 1 0 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40
(3) formation of the centrioles.
4. For a newly evolving protist, what would be the (4) chromatid assembly.
advantage of using eukaryote-like cell division rather
10. Which of the following are primarily responsible for
than binary fission? cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells?
(1) Binary fission would not allow for the formation (1) kinetochores
of new organisms. (2) Golgi-derived vesicles
(2) Cell division would allow for the orderly and (3) actin and myosin
efficient segregation of multiple linear
(4) centrioles and centromeres
chromosomes.
11. Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase
(3) Cell division would be faster than binary fission. would be most affected by a drug that
(4) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per (1) reduces cyclin concentrations.
chromosome replication. (2) increases cyclin concentrations.
5. Suppose a biologist can separate one of a dozen (3) prevents elongation of microtubules.
pieces of chromatin from a eukaryotic (animal) (4) prevents shortening of microtubules.
nucleus. It might consist of which of the following?
12. Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus
(1) one-twelfth of the genes of the organism were taken on a large number of cells from a growing
(2) two chromosomes, each with six chromatids fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to
(3) a single circular piece of DNA 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell
cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?
(4) two long strands of DNA plus proteins
(1) G0 (2) G1 (3) S (4) G2
6. If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to
13. A group of cells is assayed for DNA content
colchicine, a drug that interferes with the formation
immediately following mitosis and is found to have
of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis
an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus.
be arrested? How many picograms would be found at the end of
(1) anaphase (2) prophase S and the end of G2?
(3) telophase (4) metaphase (1) 8; 8 (2) 8; 16 (3) 16; 8 (4) 16; 16
(1) The statement is true for mitosis only. 37. Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and
chromatids separate.
(2) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
(3) The statement is true for meiosis II only. (1) II (2) III
(4) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. (3) IV (4) VII
32. Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in 38. For a species with a haploid number of 23
mitosis? chromosomes, how many different combinations of
(1) chromosome replication maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible
(2) synapsis of chromosomes for the gametes?
(3) Specific proteins break the two strands and re- (4) Four stranded stage
join them with their homologs.
(4) Each of the four DNA strands of a tetrad is broken 46. Which is correct for meiotic metaphase–I
and the pieces are mixed.
(1) Bivalents are arranged at equator
40. What is produced by mitosis?
(1) Two genetically identical nuclei (2) Univalents are arranged at equator
(2) Four genetically identical nuclei (3) Non-homologus chromosomes forms pair
(3) Two genetically different nuclei
(4) Spindle fibers are attached at chromomere
(4) Four genetically different nuclei
41. What moves the chromosomes during mitosis in ani- 47. In which stage of meiosis the chromosome number
mal cells? reduces to half
(1) Microtubules crossing the equator of the cell.
(1) Anaphase–I (2) Anaphase–II
(2) Microtubules connecting the replicated DNA
molecules to the poles of the cell. (3) Telophase–I (4) Telophase–II
(3) Mesosomes attached to replicated DNA mol-
48. Chiasmata appear in which stage ?
ecules at the equator of the cell.
(4) Mesosomes attached to the centrioles at the poles (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
of the cell.
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
42. Separation of homologous chromosomes during
Anaphase - I is called 49. Which phase is marked by terminalization of
(1) Synapsis (2) Disjunction chiasmata?
(3) Nondisjunction (4) Crossing over
(1) Diakinesis (2) Pachytene
43. In meiosis
(1) Division of nucleus twice but replication of DNA (3) Diplotene (4) Zygotene
only once
50. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs during
(2) Division of nucleus twice and replication of DNA
twice (1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
(3) Division of nucleus once and replication of DNA
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene
is also once
(4) Division of nucleus once and DNA - replication 51. The movement of homologous chromosomes towards
is twice opposite poles occur by contraction of spindle fibre
44. Synapsis found in between during
(1) Nonhomologous chromosome
(1) Anaphase–II (2) Anaphase–I
(2) Homologous chromosome
(3) Nonhomologous and homologous chromosome (3) Telophase (4) Metaphase–II
(4) Chromatids
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A ns . 1 4 1 2 4 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A ns . 2 4 4 3 1 4 1 4 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 4 4 3 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51
A ns . 2 2 1 2 4 1 1 4 1 2 2
SECTION-II
52.
(i) B (ii) A (iii) D (iv) B
53. True a nd False
(i) True (ii) True (iii) False (iv) True (v) False (vi) True