MCQ on Force

1. What is the S.I unit of moment of force?

a. N m
b. N cm
c. N m2
d. N m-2
Ans: (a)

2. If the effort is 200g, the length of the effort arm is 40 cm and the load is
400 g, then find the length of the load arm using the principle of moments.
a. 10 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 40 cm
d. 80 cm

Ans: (b)

3. If the force applied on a body is 40 an and the perpendicular distance

from the point of application of the force to the fixed point in the body is
500 cm, then find the moment of force in S.I unit.
a. 20000 dyne cm
b. 2000 dyne cm
c. 2000 N m
d. 200 N m

Ans: (d)

4. A body is pivoted at a point. A force of 30 N is applied at a distance of 40

cm from the pivot. Calculate the moment of force.
a. 12 N m
b. 70 N m
c. 35 N m
d. 1200 N m
Ans: (a)

5. The algebraic sum of the moments of forces about any point in that plane
is ______.
a. a positive quantity
b. a negative quantity
c. zero
d. one

Ans: (c)
6. The moment of a force is the _______ of the magnitude of the force and the
perpendicular distance from the point of application of the force to the
fixed point in the body.
a. Sum
b. Product
c. Comparison
d. difference
Ans: (b)

7. Two children of mass 40 kg and 50 kg are sitting on the two sides of a see-
saw. The child weighing 50 kg is at a distance of 2.5 m from the centre of
the see-saw. What should be the position of the other child to balance the
see-saw?
a. 2.125
b. 3.125
c. 4.125
d. 3.5

Ans: (b)

8. Ramesh can open a nut using a lever handle of length 30 cm by applying a

force of 120 N. what should be the length of the handle, if he wants to
open it by applying a force of 40 N?
a. 90 m
b. 45 m
c. 90 cm
d. 45 cm

Ans: (c)

9. A body is pivoted at a point A. the moment of a force of 10 N about the

point A is
5 N m. What is the distance between point of application of force and point
A?
a. 5 m
b. 10 m
c. 2 m
d. 0.5 m

Ans: (d)

10. State true or false:

It is easier to rotate a body if the force is applied closer to the axis of
rotation.
 a. True
b. False

Ans: (b)

11. How many forces are atleast required to rotate a body fixed at a
point?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Ans: (b)

12. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. Moment of couple = force x distance between the two objects.
b. Moment of couple = force acting on the object x perpendicular
distance between the parallel forces.
c. Moment of couple = force acting on the object x parallel distance
between the perpendicular forces.
d. Moment of couple = force x parallel distance between the objects.

Ans: (b)

13. What happens when two equal forces are applied at the two ends of
the bar pivoted at the centre, in the same direction?
a. The bar rotates in clockwise direction
b. The bar rotates in anticlockwise direction
c. The bar breaks
d. The bar does not move

Ans: (d)

14. The principle of moment of couple is applied in

a. Opening the cork of a bottle
b. Opening the lid of a jar
c. Opening the drawer of a table
d. Opening the door of a car.

Ans: (b)

15. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. At any point of time, the moment of a couple is the same along the
plane of its action.
 b. At any point of time, the moment of a couple is different along the
plane of its action.
c. At any point of time, the moment of a couple is greater along the
plane of its action.
d. At any point of time, the moment of a couple is lesser along the
plane of its action.
Ans: (a)

16. In which game, no team wins if equilibrium is reached?

a. Football
b. Cricket
c. Basketball
d. Tug of war

Ans: (d)

17. A body is said to be in static equilibrium if it remains at the rest and

the net force acting upon it is ______.
a. Zero
b. Less than zero
c. Greater than zero
d. None of the above.

Ans: (b)

18. A car moving with a uniform velocity is ______

a. Not in equilibrium
b. In static equilibrium
c. In dynamic equilibrium
d. None of the above

Ans: (c)

19. Name the force that is directed towards centre of the circular path
traced by a moving body.
a. Centripetal
b. Gravitation
c. Centrifugal
d. Electromagnetic

Ans: (a)

20. Centripetal force is the (i) _______ and the centrifugal force is the
______ of the rotation motion.
a. (i) cause (ii) consequence
 b. (i) consequence (ii) cause
c. (i) consequence (ii) consequence
d. (i) cause (ii) cause

Ans: (a)

21. If a body is rotating along a circular path with constant speed, then
its _______.
a. Acceleration is zero
b. Velocity is uniform
c. Acceleration is fixed
d. None of the above.

Ans: (c)

22. Which force provides the required centripetal force for moon to
revolve around the earth?
a. Magnetic force
b. Gravitational force
c. Frictional force
d. Electromagnetic force

Ans: (b)

23. Centrifugal force is not a _______force.

a. Real
b. Fictitious
c. Pseudo
d. Virtual

Ans: (a)

24. Where does the centre of gravity of a ring lie?

a. Inside the ring
b. Outside the ring
c. On the ring
d. None of the above.
Ans: (b)
25. Where does the centre of gravity of a cylinder lie?
a. Middle point on axis of cylinder
b. At the base of the cylinder
 c. At one of the edges of the cylinder
d. Outside the cylinder
Ans: (a)

MCQ on Chapter 2. Work power and energy.

1. The bullet that has fired from a gun can pierce a target due to its __________
a. Heat energy
b. Mechanical energy
c. Acceleration
d. Kinetic energy
Ans: (d)

2. A person holds a bucket by applying 10 N force. He then moves a horizontal distance of 5 m

and climbs up a vertical distance of 10 m. Find out the total work done by him.
a. 100 J
b. 150 J
c. 50 J
d. 200 J
Ans: (a)

3. The work done by the centripetal force for a body moving in a circular path is
a. Negative
b. Zero
c. Constant
d. Positive
Ans: (b)

4. When a cylinder filled with gas is filled with a movable piston is allowed to expand, then
the work done by the gas is positive.
a. True
b. False
Ans: (a)

5. What is the power required to lift a mass of 100 kg to a height of 50 m in 50 seconds if the
gravitational acceleration at the place is 9.8 ms-2
a. 100 W
b. 980 W
c. 50 W
 d. 5000 W
Ans: (b)

6. A body of mass 50 kg has a momentum of 3000 kg m s-1 .Calculate its kinetic energy and
velocity.
a. 90000 J and 60 ms-1
b. 900 J and 60 ms-1
c. 90000 J and 6 ms-1
d. 6000 J and 630 ms-1
Ans: (a)

7. An electric heater of power 3 kW is used for 10 h, how much energy does it consume?
a. 300 kWh
b. 1.08 x 108 J
c. Both a and b
d. 30 erg
Ans: (b)

8. 6.4 kJ of energy causes displacement of 64 m in a body in the direction of force in 2.5 s.

Calculate its power.
a. 100 HP
b. 123 HP
c. 8.6 HP
d. 3.4 HP
Ans: (d)

9. When mass and velocity of the body are doubled then its K.E. will
a. Increase by 8 times
b. Decrease by 8 times
c. Increase by 4 times
d. Remain same
Ans: (a)

10. The spring will have maximum potential energy when

a. It is pulled out
b. It is compressed
 c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: (c)

11. The energy possessed by an oscillating pendulum clock is

a. Kinetic energy
b. Potential energy
c. Restoring energy
d. Mechanical energy
Ans: (d)

12. The gravitational potential energy of an object is due to

a. Its mass
b. Its acceleration due to gravity
c. Its height above the earth’s surface
d. All of the above
Ans: (d)

13. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into:

(a) Chemical energy

(b) Biogas

(c) Electricity

(d) Geothermal energy

Ans: (a)

13. According to the work-energy theorem, total change in energy is equal to the _______
a) Total work done
b) Half of the total work done
c) Total work done added with frictional losses
d) Square of the total work done

Ans: (c)
 14. A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone in vacuum. Which of the
following quantities remain constant during the fall?
(a) Kinetic energy.
(b) Potential energy.
(c) Total mechanical energy.
(d) Total linear momentum.
Ans: (d)

16. A particle is thrown upward with some kinetic energy. What happened to its kinetic
energy at the highest point or height it reaches.
(a) Its kinetic energy is lost
(b) kinetic energy is absorbed by the air
(c) Its kinetic energy is converted to potential energy
(d) Its kinetic energy remain same
Ans: (c)

17. A truck and car are moving with same Kinetic energies on a straight road. Their engines
are simultaneously switched off. Which one will stop at a lesser distance?
a. Truck
b. Car
c. Both will stop at the same distance
d. Cannot say with the given data
Ans: (a)

{Loss in KE = Workdone by Friction

Since truck has more mass, it will stop at a lesser distance

Hence (a) is correct}

18. If the velocity of the object is increased by 0.1%, then the kinetic energy is increased by

(a) 0.1 %
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.4%
(d) 0.01%
Ans: (b)

{Let initial velocity=v

After increase, final velocity becomes = 1.001v
KEi=1/2mv2KEi=1/2mv2
KEf=1/2m(1.001v)2=1.002×1/2mv2KEf=1/2m(1.001v)2=1.002×1/2mv2
% Increase = KEf−KEiKEi×100=.002×100=.2KEf−KEiKEi×100=.002×100=.2 %
Hence (b) is correct}

19. A moving car possesses

(a) sound energy
(b) mechanical energy
(c) heat energy
(d) chemical energy
Ans: (b)

20. The energy released in the form of nuclear radiations in addition to heat and light
during nuclear reactions is known as
a) chemical energy
b) nuclear energy
c) heat energy
d) electrical energy
Ans: (c)

21. The energy obtained from electric cells and batteries as a result of a chemical
reaction is called
a) chemical energy
b) nuclear energy
c) heat energy
d) electrical energy
Ans: (d)

22. The vibrating diaphragm of a drum in the form of

a) kinetic energy
b) sound energy
c) chemical energy
d) nuclear energy
Ans: (b)

Machines: MCQ Std-10

Q1. A movable pulley is used as
a. force multiplier
b. speed multiplier
c. to change the direction of effort
d. all the above
Ans-a

Q2. A woman draws water from a well using a fixed pulley. The mass of bucket
and water together is 7kg. The force applied by the woman is 80N. What is the
mechanical advantage ? (Take g=10ms−2)
a. 0.875
b. 0.75
c. 0.0875
d. 0.815
Ans-a

Q3. What is the mechanical advantage of the block and tackle used to lift the
bale of cotton?

a. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Ans-b

Q4. If we ignore friction, which of the following two pulleys systems will require
less effort (force) to lift the load?
a.) Pulley A
b.) Pulley B
c.) Both Pulley A & Pulley B will require the same effort (force)
d.) Not enough information to decide
Ans-b

Q5. You use a fixed pulley to lift a watermelon to your tree house. If you changed
it to a movable pulley and ignore the effects of friction: The effort (force) required
would:
a.) Increase
b.) Decrease
c.) Stay the same
d.) Not enough information to decide
Ans-b

Q6. When a fixed pulley is used to lift a load the effort needed is 30N, what is the
effort required to lift it using a single movable pulley system?
a. 5N
b. 30N
c. 15N
d. 300kg
Ans-c

Q7. What is the direction of pull in a single movable pulley?

a. upward
b. downward
c. to the right
d. none of the above
Ans- a

Q8. What is the distance the effort moved with a single movable pulley lifting a
load by 5 cm?
a. 5cm
b. 10cm
c.15cm
d. 4.8N
Ans-b

Q10. How many ropes are holding up the load in a single movable pulley?
a. 1
b.2
c. 3
d. 4
Ans-b

Q11. If the mechanical advantage of a simple machine is 4, then the

a. output force is 4 times the effort
b. effort is 4 times the output force
c. efficiency is 4%
d. the work output is 4 times the input
Ans-a

Q12. The ratio of the work output to the work input of a machine is
a. Mechanical advantage
b. efficiency
c. work
d. power
Ans- b

Q13. The mechanical advantage for a pulley system is determined by

a. counting the number of strands holding the resistance force.
b. counting the number of strands holding and not holding the resistance force
c. adding the radii of the pulleys.
d. multiplying the radii of the pulleys.
Ans-a

Q14.In the following pulley system an effort applied is 50N , it can lift maximum
load of

a. 25N
b. 50N
c. 100N
d. 200N
Ans-c

Q15. Mechanical advantage is _______________.

a. load / effort
b. effort / load
c. efficiency / velocity ratio
d. velocity ratio/ efficiency
Ans-a

Q16. The actual mechanical advantage of a machine

a. cannot be less than 1
b. decreases as the input (effort) distance increases
c. increases with greater friction
d. is less than the ideal mechanical advantage of the machine
Ans-d
Q17. A mechanical device requires 420 J of work to do 230 J of work in lifting a
crate. What is the efficiency of the device?

a. 55%

b. 183%

c. 190%

d. 0.5%

Ans-a

Q18. The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100 percent because
a. the work input is too small
b. the work output is too great
c. some work input is lost to friction
d. a machine cannot have MA greater than 1
Ans-c
Q19. In the following pulley system if the weight of movable pulleys is increased
then the mechanical advantage will _

a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. none of the above
Ans-b

Q20 . In the following pulley system, if M= 40kg then F=_______( ignore the
effects of friction )( Take g=10ms−2)

a. 100kg
b.100N
c. 4kg
d. 4N
Ans- b
_________________________________________________________________________

Refraction through Plane Surfaces

Q1. The intensity of the refracted light is always ________________ than the intensity of the incident
light.
(A) Greater

(B) Remains same

(C) Less

(D) None of these

Answer: C

Q2. A coin is placed at a depth 4cm in water. When we see it from air it appears
4
to be at a depth of __________ (µ= )
3

9
A. 𝑐𝑚
16
B. 4 𝑐𝑚
16
C. 𝑐𝑚
9
D. 3 𝑐𝑚

Answer: 3cm

Q3. Total internal reflection can take place only if

A. Light goes from optically denser medium to rarer medium.

B. The refractive indices of the two medias are widely different.
C. Light goes from optically rarer medium to denser medium
D. None of these.
Answer: A

Q4. Critical angle for light passing from glass to water is minimum for

A. Violet
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow
Answer: A
Q5. A ray of light travels from a denser to a rarer medium. Observe the diagram
and choose the correct option.

A. The speed of light decreses and wavelength also decrease

B. The speed of light increases and wavelength decreases.

C. The speed of light increases and frequency also increases.

D. The speed of light increases and wavelength increases.

Answer: D

Q6. A ray of light suffers refraction through an equilateral prism. The deviation
produced by the prism does not depend on the:

A. Angle of incidence
B. Colour of light
C. Material of prism
D. Size of prism
Answer: D

Q7. An object in a denser medium when viewed from a rarer medium appears to
be raised. The shift is maximum for:

A. Red light
B. Violet light
C. Yellow light
D. Green light
Answer: B

Q8. When white light enters a prism it gets splitted into its constituent colours.
It is due to:

A. Diffraction of light
B. Interference of light
C. High density of prism material
 D. Because speed of light is different for different wavelength
Answer: D
Q9. Four students showed the following traces of the path of a ray of light
passing through a rectangular glass slab.

The trace most likely to be correct is that of student:

A. I B. II C. III D. IV
Answer: C

Q.10. In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a

rectangular glass slab, four students tabulated their observations as given below:

Students I II III

∠i 30° 30° 30°,

∠r 18° 20° 17°

∠e 32° 32.5° 30°

Which student performed the experiment correctly?

A. I B. II C. III D. None of them

Answer: C

Q11. The correct path of a ray of light passing from air to kerosene oil and from
kerosene oil to water is:
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Answer : A

Q12. A ray of light enters air from water and experiences refraction, then
A. ∠i = ∠r B. ∠i < ∠r
C. ∠i > ∠r D. ∠i / ∠r = 0°

Answer: B

Q13. Which of the following is an example of total internal reflection?

A. Twinkling of stars
B. Mirage
C. Mirror
D. Thin film of soap bubble
Answer: B

Q. 14 A total reflecting right angled isosceles prism can be used to deviate a ray
of light through:

A. 30⁰ B. 60⁰ C. 75⁰ D. 90⁰

Answer: D

Q15. Total internal reflection when light travels from:

A. A rarer medium to denser medium

B. A denser to rarer medium
C. A rarer medium to denser medium with angle of incidence greater than
critical angle
D. A denser to rarer medium with angle of incidence greater than critical
angle
Answer: D
Q.16 In refraction of light through a prism, the light ray:
 A. suffers refraction only at one face of the prism
B. emerges out of the prism in a direction parallel to the incident ray
C. bends at both the surfaces of prism towards its base
D. bends at both the surfaces of prism opposite to its base.
Answer: C

Q17. When light travels from one medium to another, which of the
following does not change?
A. Velocity B. wavelength C. frequency D. intensity
Answer: C

Q18. If the thickness of the glass slab is increased, the lateral displacement
will:

A. Increase B. decrease C. remains the same D. None of these

Answer: A

3
Q. 19 The refractive index of glass slab is2. When seen from above its
thickness will appear as
3
A. times its real thickness
2
2
B. 3times its real thickness
3
C. times square its real thickness
2
2
D. times square its real thickness.
3
Answer: B

Q.20. If the critical angle for a medium is 48⁰ in the denser medium, then
the angle of refraction in rarer medium is:
A. 48⁰ B. 96⁰ C. 90⁰ D. 24⁰
Answer: C

Florence Public
School R T Nagar
Bangalore-32 Class
: X ICSE
 Subject: Physics
UT No:2

Date:16-8-2021 Marks:20

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following

questions. Choose the appropriate answer (10 x1=10)
1. In optics an object which has higher refractive index is called

a) optically denser

b) optically rarer

c) optical density

d) refractive medium

2. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these does the light travels fastest. The
value of refractive index for kerosene is 1.44,turpentine is 1.47 and water is 1.33

a)turpentin
e b)water
c)data given is
insufficient d)kerosene
3. If the refractive index of two media are equal then

a.no refraction will occur

b.it will bend away from the

normal c .interface will absorb
the light
d .light will reflect in the same medium
4. Light is refracted when it travels at an angle from water to air because

a.Its speed

a. Its speed remains the same

b. it is moving from a less dense medium to a denser medium

c. its speed is increased

d. its speed is decreased

5. According to Snells law the relation between angle of incidence and angle of refraction is

a.angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of refraction

b.the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is defined as
refractive index c.the ratio of sine of angle of refraction to the sine of angle of incidence is
equal to refractive index d.angle of incidence is always greater than angle of refraction
6.A ray of light falls on the surface of a rectangular slab of plastic material whose refractive index
is 1.6.If the incident ray makes an angle of 53 degree with the normal .Find the angle made by
the refracted ray with the normal(sin 53 degree=4/5)
a.35 degree
b.30 degree
c. 20 degree
d.25 degree
7. Fish anticipates the presence of hunter farther due to

a.scattering of light

b.Reflection of
light c.dispersion
of light
d.refraction of
light
8. When a beam of light moves from a rarer medium to a denser medium

a.it goes undeviated

b.it bends towards the normal

c.it bends away from the
normal d.none of the above
9.A ray of light suffers refraction through an equilateral prism.The deviation produced by the
prism does not depend on the
a. angle of incidence
b.colour of light
c.material of prism
d.size of the prism
10.An object in a denser medium when viewed from a rarer medium appear to be
raised.The shift is maximum for
a.red light
b.yellow
light c.violet
light d.green
light

II. Read carefully

the relationship between the given question and answer and write
the appropriate answer to the given question (5x1=5)
a.Refractive index of water with respect to glass:: 8/9 ::Refractive index of glass with respect to
water:---

2. :: Rectangular glass slab :: Prism :: angle of deviation

3.critical angle of glass-air interface:: ------------:: critical angle of water-air interface :: 49 degree

4.critical angle for yellow colour::45 degree :: critical angle for blue colour::-------

5.i=0 degree:: no refraction:: ------------------- :: angle of refraction is 90 degree

III Read the following carefully and round off the odd one out (5
x0.5=2.5)
1.angle of incidence,angle of refraction,angle of emergence,right
angle 2.convex mirror,concave lens,plane mirror, convex lens
3.reflection,neutralization,refraction,dispersion
4.refraction,dispersion,refraction,refractive index
5.reflection,refraction,dispersion,lateral displacement

IV.Match the following

Read the questions from column ‘A’ and match the correct answer from column
‘B’ and write the correct answer against each question (5 x 0.5=2.5)
A B
1. Refraction of light a. no unit

2. Reflection of light b.metre

3. wavelength c.hertz

4. frequency d. mirror

5. refractive index e.m/s

 f.lenses

SPECTRUM SET IV
As the _________ increases, the speed of light increases.
A. Frequency.
B. Amplitude.
C. Wavelength.
D. All the above.
Ans: C.

2. Colour of light is related to its

A. Frequency.
B. Speed.
C. Wavelength.
D. Amplitude.
Ans: C.

3. Which of the following is not the use of infrared radiation?

A. Infrared radiations are used for photography in fog
B. Infrared radiations are used for signals during the war.
C. The photographic darkrooms are provided with infrared lamps.
D. They are used in detecting purity of gems.
Ans: D.

4. In the white light of sun, maximum scattering by the air molecules present in the
Earth’s atmosphere is for:
(a) Red colour.
(b) Yellow colour.
(c) Green colour.
(d) Blue colour.
Ans: D.

5. In the white light of sun, minimum scattering by the air molecules present in the
Earth’s atmosphere is for:
(a) Red colour
(b) Yellow colour
(c) Green colour
(d) Blue colour.
Ans: A.

6. Smoke appears white in colour because

A. The size of the smoke particles are bigger than the wavelength of the light.
B. No colour get scattered equally.
C. The smoke itself is white in colour.
D. There are some water particles in it.
Ans: A.

7. What characteristic property of light is responsible for the blue colour of the sky?
A. As the blue colour is scattered the most due to its short wavelength.
B. Other colours do not get scattered at all.
C. Blue travels fastest and hence it appears blue.
D. Sky itself is blue in colour.
Ans: A.

8. The danger signal is red. Why?

A. red travels fastest in air.
B. The wavelength of red light is longest in the visible light. So the light of red colour is
scattered least.
C. Red is originally marks danger.
D. None of the above.
Ans: B.

9. Velocity of wave is a product of

A. Amplitude x Wavelength.
B. Frequency × wavelength.
C. Frequency x Amplitude.
D. None of the above.
And: B.

10. A quartz prism is required for obtaining the spectrum of the

A. Infrared radiation.
B. Microwaves.
C. Ultraviolet light.
D. gamma rays.
Ans: C.

11. _____radiations cause health hazards like skin cancer if human body is exposed to
them for a long period.
A: Gamma.
B. UV.
C. Infrared.
D. Microwaves.
Ans: B.

12. Which of the properties of infrared radiations which differ from the visible light.
A. They are absorbed by glass, but they are not absorbed by rock salt.
B. They are detected by their heating property using a thermopile or a blackened bulb
thermometer.
C. Their wavelength is more than visible light.
D. Their wavelength is less than visible light.
Ans: D

13. Which of the properties of ultraviolet radiations which differ from the visible light.
A. Ultraviolet radiations can pass through quartz, but they are absorbed by glass.
B. They are usually scattered by the dust particles present in the earth’s atmosphere.
C. Ultraviolet radiations can pass through glass, but they are absorbed by quartz.
D. They are usually absorbed by the dust particles present in the earth’s atmosphere.
Ans: A.

14. Which of the properties of UV light is not same as visible light?

(a)Ultraviolet radiations travel in a straight line with a speed of 3 × 108 m s-1 in air or
vacuum
(b)They obey the laws of reflection and refraction
(c) They strongly affect the photographic plate as they are chemically more active than
the visible light.
D. Their wavelength is same as that of visible light.
Ans: D.

15. __________ rays have lowest whereas _____waves have the longest wavelength.
A: Radio, gamma.
B. Gamma, Radio,
C. Radio, X rays.
D. Gamma, X rays.
Ans: B.

16. Ultraviolet radiations can be detected by _______ because in their presence

_________becomes dark.
: Silver bromide.
B. Silver Iodide.
C. Silver Chloride.
D. Silver magnetite.
Ans: C.

17. Ultraviolet radiations are shorter than________ m.

A. 4 × 10-7
B. 3 x 10-7
C. 5 x 10-7
D. 8 x 10-7
Ans: A

18. Name given to the band of colors is

A. Dispersion.
B. Spectrum.
C. Electromagnetic band.
D. Band of seven colours.
Ans: B.

19. Where does the splitting of the light begins?

A. At the first surface only.
B. At both the opposite surfaces.
C. Nowhere.
D. At the base.
Ans: B.

20. ________of light is the phenomenon of splitting of a beam of white light into its seven
constituent colours when passed through a transparent medium.
A. Splitting.
B. Scattering.
C. Dispersion.
D. Spectrum.
Ans: C.

SOUND
1. Increasing the frequency of a vibration makes a sound

A) louder.

B) higher in pitch.

C) lower in pitch.

D) infrasonic.

Ans B

2. Greater sound energy forms larger waves. Larger waves have

A) a higher frequency.

B) a greater amplitude.

C) more compressions and rarefactions.

D) a slower speed.

ANS:- B

3. In which media would sound waves travel fastest?

A) a vacuum

B) air

C) water

D) iron

ANS: D

4. If the period of a vibration gets longer, the frequency

A) increases.

B) decreases.

C) does not change.

D) becomes ultrasonic.

ANS:- B

5. A girl produces a certain note when she blows gently into an organ pipe. If she blows into the pipe
harder to produce the same note, the most probable change will be that the sound wave

A) will travel faster.

B) will have a higher frequency.

C) will have a lower frequency.

D) will have a higher amplitude.

ANS D

6. The distance between consecutive crests in a series of waves is 7.0 m.

The crests travel 6.0 m in 5.0 s. What was the period of these waves?

A) 5.0 s

B) 0.17 s

C) 0.20 s

D) 5.8 s

ANS D

7. If a vibrating body is to be in resonance with another body, it must

A) have a natural frequency close to the natural frequency of the other body.

B) be of the same material as the other body.

C) vibrate with the greatest possible amplitude.

D) vibrate faster than usual.

ANS A

8. A man stands between two high rise buildings and blows a whistle. He hears two successive echoes after
0.3 s and 1.8 s. Calculate the distance between buildings. Assume that the speed of sound in air is 332 ms

A) 40 m

B) 79 m

C) 158 m

D) 349 m

ANS D

9. The average amount of energy passing through a unit area per unit time in a specified direction is called
____ of the wave.
A loudness

B intensity

C pitch

D quality

ANS B

10. Longitudinal waves can travel in ____.

A solids only

B liquids only
C gases only

D solids, liquids and gases

ANS D

11. The velocity of sound in air is not affected by change in ____.

A temperature of air

B atmospheric pressure

C composition of air

D moisture content of air

ANS B

12. The kind of motion in which transfer of energy takes place when the particles move about their mean
position is called ____ motion.
A oscillatory

B rotational

C vibrational

D wave

AND D

13. The voice of ladies is shrill because of ____.

A low pitch

B higher pitch

C low loudness

D high loudness

ANS B

14. The distance between two consecutive crests or troughs is defined as ____.
A amplitude

B wavelength

C wave number

D half the wave length

ANS B

15. The wave in which the individual particles of a medium oscillate along the direction of wave
propagation is called ____.
A longitudinal wave

B transverse wave

C microwave

D matter wave
AND A

16. The vibrations of frequency greater than 20,000 Hz are called ____ vibrations.
A ultrasonic

B infrasonic

C supersonic

D sonic

ANS A

17. A child hears an echo from a cliff 4 seconds after the sound is produced from a cracker. The distance
of the cliff from the child is ____ m.
A 6.88

B 688

C 68.8

D 6888

ANS B

18. A sound wave propagating through a medium has bounced back into the same medium by hitting
a hard surface and then such a phenomenon is called ____ of sound.
A refraction

B reflection

C polarization

D dispersion

ANS B

19. Human ear can perceive sounds ranging from ____.

A 20 Hz to 2000 Hz

B 200 Hz to 20000 Hz

C 20 Hz to 20000 Hz

D 2000 Hz to 20000 Hz

ANS C

A true

B false

ANS B

21. Which of the following frequencies of sound waves are audible to human beings?
A 5 cycles/second

B 27000 cycles/second

C 5000 cycles/second
D 50,000 cycles/second

ANS C

22. The speed of sound at 0 °C is 330 m/s. Then, the speed of sound at a temperature of 20 °C is ____
m/s.
A 2

B 42

C 32

D 342

ANS D

23. The time taken by a particle of a medium to complete one vibration is called ____.
A frequency

B time period

C phase difference

D amplitude

ANS B

24. Which of the following devices, work on the principle of multiple reflection of sound?
A Bioscope

B Periscope

C Gramophone

D Stethoscope

ANS D

25. The characteristic of a sound, which distinguishes a feeble sound from a loud sound of the same
frequency is called ____.
A loudness

B music

C pitch

D noise

ANS A

26. Among the following properties of a wave, the one that is independent of the other is its ____.
A amplitude

B velocity

C frequency

D wavelength

ANS A
 27. The maximum displacement suffered by the particles of a medium about their mean position is
called ____.
A wave length

B amplitude

C frequency

D phase

ANS B

28. When the particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the propagation of the wave, then the
wave is called ____ wave.
A progressive wave

B stationary wave

C longitudinal wave

D transverse wave
ANS D
29. Sound waves are produced by
A. linear motion
B. circular motion
C. vibrating bodies
D. transitional motion
Answer C
30. The sensation of sound persists in our brain for about
A. 0.001s
B. 0.2s
C. 0.1s
D. 10s
Answer C
31. Sound energy passing per second through a unit area held perpendicular is called
A. intensity
B. frequency
C. amplitude
D. quality
Answer A

32. Sound is which type of wave?

A. Electromagnetic wave

B. Mechanical wave

C. Transverse wave

D. None of the above

ANS B