QUESTION 1

How many of the following numbers are divisible by 3 but not by 9.

4320, 2343, 3474, 4131, 5286, 5340, 6336, 7347, 8115, 9276

None of these

See Explanation
Taking the sum of the digits, we have :
S1 = 9, S2 = 12, S3 = 18, S4 = 9, S5 = 21, S6 = 12, S7 = 18, S8 = 21, S9 = 15, S10 = 24.
Clearly, S2, S5, S6, S8, S9, S10 are all divisible by 3 but not by 9.
So, the number of required numbers = 6.
QUESTION 2

The difference between the squares of two consecutive odd integers is always
divisible by:

See Explanation
Let the two consecutive odd integers be (2x + 1) and (2x + 3)

Then, (2x + 3)2 - (2x + 1)2 = (2x + 3 + 2x + 1) (2x + 3 - 2x - 1) = (4x + 4)(2)

= 8 (x + 1), which is always divisible by 8

QUESTION 3
If p and q are the two digits of the number 653pq such that this number is divisible by
80, then p+q is equal to :
2
3
4
6
See Explanation

Since 653xy is divisible by 5 as well as 2, so y = 0.

Now, 653x0 must be divisible by 8.

So, 3x0 must be divisible by 8. This happens when x = 2

x + y = (2 + 0) = 2.

QUESTION 4
A 3-digit number 4p3 is added to another 3-digit number 984 to give the four-digit
number 13q7, which is divisible by 11. Then, (p + q) is :
10
11
12
15
See Explanation
4p3
+984
13q7

p+8=q
q-p=8

Also, 13q7 is divisible by 11.

(7 + 3) - (q + 1) = (9 - q)

(9 - q) = 0
q = 9.

q = 9 and p = 1

(p + q) = 10.
QUESTION 5
What should be the maximum value of Q in the following equation?
5P9 – 7Q2 + 9R6 = 823
5
6
7
9
See Explanation

11
5P9
+9R6
- 7Q2
823
What should be the maximum value of B in the following equation?
5P9 – 7Q2 + 9R6 = 823
We may represent the given sum, as shown.

1 + P + R - Q = 12
P + R - Q = 11

Giving the maximum values to P and R, i.e.

P = 9 and R = 9, we get Q = 7.

QUESTION 6

Find the sum to 200 terms of the series 1 + 4 + 6 + 5 + 11 + 6 + ....

30,200

29,800

30,400

None of these

See Explanation
The above series is a combination of two APs.
The 1st AP is (1 + 6 + 11 + ....) and the 2nd AP is (4 + 5 + 6 + ...)
Since the terms of the two series are in alternate position,
S =(1 + 6 + 11 + .... to 100 terms) + (4 + 5 + 6 + .... to 100 terms)
=> 100[(2 x 1) + (99 x 5)]/2 + 100[(2 x 4) + (99 x 1)]/2 --->(Using the formula for the
sum of an AP)
=>50[497 + 107] =50[604] = 30200
Alternatively, we can treat every two consecutive terms as one.
So, we will have a total of 100 terms of the nature:
(1 + 4) + (6 + 5) + (11 + 6).... -> 5, 11, 17,....
Now, a= 5, d=6 and n=100
Hence the sum of the given series is
S= 100/2 x[(2 x 5) + (99 x 6)]
=> 50[604]
=> 30200
QUESTION 7

A six-digit number is formed by repeating a three-digit number; for example, 256256

or 678678 etc. Any number of this form is always exactly divisible by :

7 only

13 only

11 only

1001

See Explanation
256256 = 256 x 1001; 678678 = 678 x 1001, etc.

So, any number of this form is divisible by 1001

QUESTION 8

If -1 ≤ a ≤ 2 and 1 ≤ b ≤ 3, then least possible value of (2a – 3b) is:

-11
-3

-4

-5

See Explanation
-1 ≤ a; so a = -1
b ≤ 3; so b = 3
Now, 2a – 3b = -2 - 9 = -11
Therefore, the least value is -11
QUESTION 9

A girl multiplies 987 by a certain number and obtains 559981 as her answer. If in the
answer, both 9’s are wrong but the other digits are correct, then the correct answer
will be

553681

555181

555681

556581

See Explanation

987 = 3 x 7 x 47.

So, required number must be divisible by each one of 3, 7, 47.

553681 and 555181 are not divisible by 3. While 556581 is not divisible by 7.
Correct answer is 555681.
QUESTION 10
The sum of first 49 natural numbers is ?
1280
2070
1225
1215
See Explanation
We know that : (1 + 2 + 3 + ...... + n) = n(n + 1)
2

(1 + 2 + 3 + ..... + 49) = 49 x 50 = 1225

2

QUESTION 11
One-quarter of one-seventh of a land is sold for Rs. 30,000. What is the value of an
eight thirty-fifth of load?
Rs. 1,92,2300.
Rs. 1,92,2450.
Rs. 1,92,2400.
Rs. 1,92,2000.
See Explanation
One-quarter of one-seventh = 1/4 x 1/7
= 1/28
Now, 1/28 of a land costs = Rs. 30,000
Thus, 8/35 of the land will cost = 30,000 x 28 x 8/35
= Rs. 1,92,2000.
QUESTION 12
If the number 653ab is divisible by 90, then (a + b) = ?
2
3
4
6
See Explanation
90 = 10 x 9
Clearly, 653ab is divisible by 10, so b = 0
Now, 653a0 is divisible by 9.
So, (6 + 5 + 3 + a + 0) = (14 + a) is divisible by 9. So, a = 4.
Hence, (a + b) = (4 + 0) = 4.
QUESTION 13
If (64)2 - (36)2 = 20 x a, then a = ?
70
120
180
140
See Explanation
20 x a = (64 + 36)(64 - 36) = 100 x 28

a = 100 x 28 = 140
20
QUESTION 14
What is the number in the unit place in (729)59?

9 in the unit place.

1 in the unit place.
6 in the unit place.
7 in the unit place.
See Explanation
When 729 is multiplied twice, the numbers in the unit place in 1.
In other words, if 729 is multiplied an even number of times, the number
in the unit place will be 1. Thus, the number is the place in (729)^58 is 1.
Thus, (729)59 = (729)^58 x (729) = (.....1) x (729)
= 9 in the unit place.

QUESTION 15
(yn - bn) is completely divisible by (y - b), when
n is any natural number
n is an even natural number
n is and odd natural number
n is prime
See Explanation
For every natural number n, (yn - bn)
is completely divisible by (y - b).
QUESTION 16
P is a whole number which when divided by 4 gives 3 as remainder. What will be the
remainder when 2P is divided by 4 ?
3
2
1
0
See Explanation
Let P = 4q + 3. Then 2P = 8q + 6 = 4(2q + 1 ) + 2.

Thus, when 2P is divided by 4, the remainder is 2.

QUESTION 17
How many prime numbers exist in 67 x 353 x 1110 ?
30 prime number
29 prime number
27 prime number
31 prime number
See Explanation
Solution:
=(2 x 3)7 x (5 x 7)3 x 1110
=27 x 37 x 53 x 73 x 1110
Thus, there are (7 + 7 + 3 + 3 + 10) = 30 prime number
QUESTION 18
The difference between two numbers is 2395. When the larger number is divided by
the smaller one, the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller number is
120
239
476
523
See Explanation
Let the smaller number be x.
Then, larger number = (2395 + x)
Therefore 2395 + x = (6x + 15)
‹=› 5x = 2380
‹=› x = 476.
QUESTION 19
If x is a whole number, then x²(x² - 1) is always divisible by
12-x
Multiple of 12
12
24
See Explanation
Putting x = 2,we get 2²(2² - 1) = 12.
checking with other integers, the above equation always gives a value which is a
multiple of 12,
So, x²(x² - 1) is always divisible by 12.
QUESTION 20
How many terms are there in 2, 4, 8, 16,..., 1024?
14
11
12
10
See Explanation
Solution:
2, 4, 8, 16, ..., 1024 is a G.P with a =2
and r =4/2 =2
Let the number of terms be n. Then
2 x 2 ^n-1 = 1024
or 2^n-1 = 512 = 2^9
Thus n - 1 =9
n= 10
QUESTION 21
A number is divided by 221, the remainder is 64. If the number be divided by 13 then
remainder will be
1
2
3
4
See Explanation
Let the given number when divided by 119
gives x as quotient and 19 as remainder. Then
Given number = 119x + 19
= 17 x 7x + 17 + 2
= 17 (7x + 1) + 2
so, the required remainder is 2.
QUESTION 22
The digit in unit’s place of the product 71 × 72 × ..... × 79 is
2
0
6
8
See Explanation
Required digit = Unit digit
=(1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9) = 0.
QUESTION 23
How many numbers between 190 and 580 are divisible by 4,5 and 6?
6
7
8
9
See Explanation
Every such number must be divisible by L.C.M of 4,5,6 i.e, 60.
Such numbers are 240,300,360,420,480,540.
Clearly, there are 6 such numbers
QUESTION 24

The largest natural number which exactly divides the product of any four consecutive
natural numbers is:

12

24

36

See Explanation
Required numbers; 1×2×3×4 = 24, which is divisible by 24.
also checking 5 x 6 x 7 x 8 = 1680, which is also divisible by 24.
QUESTION 25

Which of the following number should be added to 11158 to make it exactly divisible
by 77?

See Explanation
Ondividing 11158 by 77, the remainder is 70
Thus, Number to be added = (77 - 70) = 7
QUESTION 26
What least number must be substracted from 427398 so that the remaining number
is divisible by 15?
3
1
16
11
See Explanation
On dividing 427398 by 15, we get remainder = 3.
Required number be substracted
QUESTION 27

The smallest value of n, for which 2n+1 is not a prime number, is

none of these

See Explanation
(2×1 + 1) = 3.
(2×2 + 1) = 5.
(2×3 + 1) = 7.
(2×4 + 1) = 9.
which is not prime , n=4.
QUESTION 28

Find the number of factors of 9321.

16
See Explanation
For a natural number N, expressed as the product of prime numbers by prime
factorization method, as-
N = Xa + Yb + Zc (where X, Y, Z are prime numbers and a, b, c are their respective
powers)
The number of factors of N is (a + 1) \times× (b + 1) \times× (c + 1)

Here, 9321 can be expressed as-

9321 = 3 \times× 13 \times× 239 = 31 \times× 131 \times× 2391
Hence, number of factors of 9321 = (1 + 1) \times× (1 + 1) \times× (1 + 1) =
2 \times× 2 \times× 2 = 8.
QUESTION 29

What is the rightmost integer of the expression 65776759 + 54697467.

See Explanation
Last digit for the power of 6 is 6 (always)
Power cycle of 7 is 7, 9, 3, 1.
Now 467/4 gives a remainder of 3
Then the last digit is 73 = 3
Last digit is 6 + 3 = 9
QUESTION 30

If x and y are positive integers such that (3x + 7y ) is a multiple of 11, then which of
the following will also be divided by 11?

4x + 6y

x+y+4
9x + 4y

4x - 9y

See Explanation
Keeping y =1, for x = 5, we have
3x + 7y =22
which is divisible by 11.
Now, substitute x =5 and y =1 in each alternative and find out
which expression becomes a multiple of 11?
Now, 4x + 6y = 4 x 5 + 6 = 26
x + y + 4 = 5 + 1 + 4 = 10
9x + 4y = 9 x 5 + 4 = 49
4x - 9y = 4 x 5 -9 = 20 -9 =11
which is divisible by 11

QUESTION 1
A polygon has 44 diagonals. What is the number of its sides?

11

See Explanation
Let the number of sides of the polygon be n.

The number of diagonals is given by the formula nC2 - n

\therefore∴ nC2 - n = 44

\dfrac{n!}{(n - 2)! × 2!}(n−2)!×2!n! - n = 44

\dfrac{n × (n - 1) × (n - 2)!}{(n - 2)! × 2}(n−2)!×2n×(n−1)×(n−2)! - n = 44

\dfrac{n × (n - 1)}{2}2n×(n−1) - n = 44

\dfrac{n^2 - n}{2}2n2−n - n = 44

n2 - 3n - 88 = 0

n2 - 11n + 8n - 88 = 0

n(n - 11) + 8(n - 11) = 0

(n - 11)(n + 8) = 0

So, n = -8 or n = 11

As the number of sides cannot be negative, n = 11.

QUESTION 2
How many parallelograms will be formed if 7 parallel horizontal lines intersect 6
parallel vertical lines?
42
294
315
None of these
See Explanation
Parallelograms are formed when any two pairs of parallel lines (where each pair is
not parallel to the other pair) intersect.
Hence, the given problem can be considered as selecting pairs of lines from the
given 2 sets of parallel lines.
Therefore, the total number of parallelograms formed = 7C2 x 6C2 = 315
QUESTION 3
A teacher has to choose the maximum different groups of three students from a total
of six students. Of these groups, in how many groups there will be included in a
particular student?
6
8
10
12
See Explanation
If students are A, B, C, D, E and F; we can have 6C3 groups in all. However, if we
have to count groups in which a particular student (say A) is always selected we
would get 5C2 = 10 ways of doing it.
QUESTION 4
How many four-digit numbers, each divisible by 4 can be formed using the digits 5,
6, 7, 8, 9, repetition of digits being allowed in any number?

100

150
125

75

See Explanation
For a number to be divisible by 4, the last two digits of the number have to be 56, 76,
96, 68 or 88. The first two digits of these numbers can be filled in 5 x 5 = 25 ways
(numbers can be repeated). Hence, in total there are 25 x 5 = 125 such numbers.

QUESTION 5
There are seven pairs of black shoes and five pairs of white shoes. They are all put
into a box and shoes are drawn one at a time. To ensure that at least one pair of
black shoes are taken out, what is the number of shoes required to be drawn out?

12

13

18

See Explanation
Find the number of white shoes:

Number of pairs = 5

Number of shoes = 5 x 2

Number of shoes = 10

Find the number of black shoes:

Number of pairs = 7

Number of shoes = 7 x 2

Number of shoes = 14

Consider the worst case scenarios:

All the white shoes were drawn before any of the black shoes were drawn.

Number of draws = 10

Now we are left with all the black shoes. All the left sides were drawn.

Number of draws = 7

Now whatever remains are all the right side of the black shoes. So any one draw
from this stack will give us a pair.

Number of draws = 1
Find the total number of draws needed:

Total number of draws needed = 10 + 7 + 1

Total number of draws needed = 18

7LB + 5LW + 5RW + 1RB (or) 7RB + 5LW + 5RW + 1LB = 18 Shoes

QUESTION 6
How many 5 digit even numbers with distinct digits can be formed using the digits 1,
2, 5, 5, 4?

16

36

24

48

See Explanation
The 5 digit even numbers can be formed out of 1, 2, 5, 5, 4 by using either 2 or 4 in
the unit’s place. This can be done in 2 ways.

Corresponding to each such arrangement, the remaining 4 places can be filled up by

any of the remaining four digits in 4! / 2! = 12 ways. [5 is repeating twice hance 2! in
denominator]

Hence, the total number of words = 2 x 12 = 24.

QUESTION 7
There are three rooms in a motel: one single, one double and one for four persons.
How many ways are there to house seven persons in these rooms ?

7! / 1! 2! 3!

7!

7! / 3

7! / 3!

See Explanation
Choose 1 person for the single room & from the remaining choose 2 for the double
room & from the remaining choose 4 people for the four person room,

Then, 7C1 x 6C2 x 4C4 = 7! / 1! 2! 3!

QUESTION 8
If C(n, 7) = C(n, 5), find n

15
12

18

-1

See Explanation
We know that C(n,r) = n! / r!(n - r)!

Now C(n,7) = C(n,5)

n! / 7! (n - 7)! = n! / 5! (n - 5)!

=> 5! (n - 5)! = 7! (n - 7)!

=> [5!] x [(n - 5)(n - 6)[(n - 7)!] = 7 x 6 x 5! x (n - 7)!

=> n2 - 11n + 30 = 42

=> n2 - 11n - 12 = 0

=> (n - 12)(n + 1) = 0

=> n = 12 or n = - 1

But n = - 1 is rejected as n is a non negative integer. Therefore, n = 12

QUESTION 9
There are 8 orators A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. In how many ways can the
arrangements be made so that A always comes before B and B always comes
before C.

8! / 3!

8! / 6!

5! x 3!

8! / (5! x 3!)

See Explanation
Select any three places for A, B and C. They need no arrangement amongst
themselves as A would always come before B and B would always come before C.

The remaining 5 people have to be arranged in 5 places.

Thus, 8C3 x 5! = 56 x 120 = 67200 = 8! / 3!

QUESTION 10
If 18Cr = 18Cr+2 ; find rC5.
56

63

49

42

See Explanation
18C = 18C
r 18-r

But, 18Cr = 18Cr+2 (Given)

Therefore,
18C 18C
18-r = r+2

or, 18 - r = r + 2

r=8

Therefore, rC5 = 8C5 = 8! / 5!3! = 56.

QUESTION 11
The number of circles that can be drawn out of 10 points of which 7 are collinear is

130

85

45

72

See Explanation
For drawing a circle we need 3 non collinear points.

This can be done in:

3C + 3C x 7C + 3C x 7C = 1 + 21 + 63 = 85
3 2 1 1 2

QUESTION 12
How many rectangles can be formed out of a chess board ?

204

1230

1740

1296
See Explanation
A chess board consists 9 parallel lines x 9 parallel lines.

For a rectangle we need to select 2 parallel lines and the other two parallel lines that
are perpendicular to the first set.

Hence, 9C2 x 9C2 = 1296 rectangles

QUESTION 13
How many natural numbers can be made with digits 0, 7, 8 which are greater than 0
and less than a million?

496

486

1084

728

See Explanation
The number of single digit numbers = 2

The number of 2 digit numbers = 2 × 3 = 6

The number of 3 digit numbers = 2 × 3 × 3 = 18

The number of 4 digit numbers = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 54

The number of 5 digit numbers = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 162

The number of 6 digit numbers = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 486

Therefore, the total numbers = 728

QUESTION 14
One red flower, three white flowers and two blue flowers are arranged in a line such
that
I. No two adjacent flowers are of the same colour.
II. The flowers at the two ends of the line are of different colours.
In how many different ways can the flowers be arranged?
6
4
10
2
See Explanation
The total possibilities are W@W@W@ (or) @W@W@W, where 2 blue and 1 red
flowers occupy the space marked as @. Hence, the Total number of permutations is
2 x (3! / 2!) = 6.
QUESTION 15
Two variants of the CAT paper are to be given to 12 students. In how many ways
can the students be placed in two rows of six each so that there should be no
identical variants side by side and that the students sitting one behind the other
should have the same variant. Find the number of ways this can be done
2 x 12C6 x (6!)2
2 x 6! x 6!
2 x 12C6 x 6!
None of these
See Explanation
First select 6 people out of 12 for the first row.
The other six automatically get selected for the second row.
Arrange the two rows of people amongst themselves. Besides, the papers can be
given a pattern of 121212 or 212121.
Hence the answer is 2 x 12C6 x (6!)2
QUESTION 16
A, B, C, and D are four points, any three of which are non-collinear. Then, the
number of ways to construct three lines each joining a pair of points so that the lines
do not form a triangle is
7
8
9
24
See Explanation
To construct 2 lines, three points can be selected out of 4 in 4 x 3 x 2 = 24 ways.
Now, if third line goes from the third-point to the first point, a triangle is formed, and if
it goes to the fourth point, a triangle is not formed. So, there are 24 ways to form a
triangle and 24 ways of avoiding triangle.

QUESTION 17
How many numbers can be formed from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (without repetition), when the
digit at the unit’s place must be greater than that in the ten’s place?
54
60
51 / 3
2 x 4!
See Explanation
The digit in the unit’s place should be greater than that in the ten’s place. Hence if
digit 5 occupies the unit place then remaining four digits need not to follow any order.
Hence the required numbers = 4!. However, if digit 4 occupies the unit place then 5
cannot occupy the ten’s position. Hence digit at the ten’s place will be one among 1,
2 or 3. This can happen in 3 ways. The remaining 3 digits can be filled in the
remaining three places in 3! ways. Hence, in all we have (3 x 3!) numbers ending in
4. Similarly, if we have 3 in the unit’s place, the ten’s place can be either 1 or 2. This
can happen in 2 ways. The remaining 3 digits can be arranged in the remaining 3
places in 3! ways. Hence, we will have (2 x 3!) numbers ending in 3. Similarly, we
can see that there will be 3! numbers ending in 2 and no number ending with 1.
Hence, the total number of numbers = 4! + (3 x 3!) + (2 x 3!) + 3!
= 4! + 6 x 3! = 24 + (6 x 6) = 60
QUESTION 18
There are 6 letters for 3 envelopes. In how many different ways can the envelopes
be filled?
120
130
100
110
See Explanation
The 1st envelope can be filled up in 6 ways.
The 2nd envelope can be filled up in 5 ways and the 3rd envelope can be filled up in
4 ways.
Therefore, by the principle of association, the three envelopes can be filled up in 6 x
5 x 4 = 120 ways

QUESTION 19
From among the 36 students in a class, one leader and one class representative are
to be appointed. In how many ways can this be done?
1360
1260
1060
1160
See Explanation
There are 36 students and every one has equal chance of being selected as a
leader. Hence, the leader can be appointed in 36 ways. When one person is
appointed as leader, we are left with 35 students. Out of these 35 teachers, we can
select one class representative. So, a class representative can be selected in 35
ways. Hence, the number of ways in which a leader and class representative can be
selected = 36 x 35 = 1260
QUESTION 20
The students in a class are seated, according to their marks in the previous
examination. Once, it so happens that four of the students got equal marks and
therefore the same rank. To decide their seating arrangement, the teacher wants to
write down all possible arrangements one in each of separate bits of paper in order
to choose one of these by lots. How many bits of paper are required?
24
12
48
36
See Explanation
We are given that four students got equal marks. On one bit of paper, one
arrangement of rank is to be written. Let the students be named as P, Q, R and S.
Now, P can be treated as having rank I in 4 ways, Q can be treated as having rank II
in 3 ways, R can be treated as having rank III in 2 ways, S can be treated as having
rank IV in 1 way.
Therefore, the total number of bits of paper required for all arrangements = 4 ×
3 × 2 × 1 = 24
QUESTION 21
In how many ways can a cricketer can score 200 runs with fours and sixes only?
13
17
19
16
See Explanation
200 runs can be scored by scoring only fours or through a combination of fours and
sixes.
Possibilities are 50 x 4, 47 x 4 + 2 x 6, 44 x 4 + 4 x 6 ... A total of 17 ways
QUESTION 22
There are 20 people among whom two are sisters. Find the number of ways in which
we can arrange them around a circle so that there is exactly one person between the
two sisters.

18!

2! x 19!

19!

None of these

See Explanation
First let us arrange the two sisters around a circle in such a way that there will be
one seat vacant between them.

[This can be done in 2! ways as the position of the two sisters is fixed.]

Then, the other 18 people can be arranged in 18 seats in 18! ways.So, total number
of ways = 18! x 2! ways

QUESTION 23
Seven different objects must be divided among three people. In how many ways can
this be done if one or two of them must get no objects?
381
36
84
180
See Explanation
Let the three people be A, B, and C.
If 1 person gets no objects, the 7 objects must be distributed such that each of the
other two get 1 object at least.
This can be done as 6 & 1, 5 & 2, 4 & 3 and their rearrangements.
The answer would be ( 7C6 + 7C5 + 7C4 ) x 3! = 378
Also, two people getting no objects can be done in 3 ways.
Thus, the answer is 378 + 3 = 381
QUESTION 24
How many integers between 1000 and 10000 have no digits other than 4, 5 or 6?

91

51

81

71

See Explanation
Any number between 1,000 and 10,000 is of 4 digits. The unit’s place can be filled
up by 4,5 or 6, that is, in 3 ways.

Similarly, the ten’s place can be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6, that is in 3 ways. The

hundred’s place can be filled up by 4, 5 or 6, that is in 3 ways and the thousand’s
place can.be filled up by 4 or 5 or 6, that is, in 3 ways.

Hence the required number of numbers = 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 = 81

QUESTION 25
A number lock on a suitcase has 3 wheels each labelled with 10 digits from 0 to 9. If
opening of the lock is a particular sequence of three digits with no repeats, how
many such sequences will be possible?
720
760
680
780
See Explanation
On first wheel there can be 10 digits. On the second wheel there will be one of the 9
digits and on the third wheel there will be 8 digits. Therefore, the number of numbers
is 10 x 9 x 8 = 720
QUESTION 26
If (n + 2)! = 2550 (n!); find ’n’
38
35
49
43
See Explanation
(n + 2)! = 2550(n!)
(n + 2)(n + 1)(n!) = 2550(n!)
(n + 2)(n + 1) = 2550
2n + 3n + 2 - 2550 = 0
2n + 3n - 2548 = 0
2n + 52n - 49n - 2548 = 0
n(n - 49)(n + 52) = 0
n = 49 or n = - 52
QUESTION 27
In how many ways can 10 people line up at a ticket window of a railway station?
36,28,800
34,82,800
33,44,800
33,28,800
See Explanation
The required number of ways = number of permutations of 10 people taking all 10 at
a time.
P(10, 10) = 10!
= 10 x 9 × 8 x 7 x 6 × 5 x 4 x 3 × 2 x 1
= 36,28,800
QUESTION 28
How many words, with or without meaning, can be formed using all letters of the
word EQUATION using each letter exactly once?
38,320
39,320
40,320
38,400
See Explanation
The Word EQUATION has exactly 8 letters which are all different.
Therefore the number of words that can be formed = Number of permutations of 8
letters taken all at a time.
= P (8, 8) = 8!
=8×7x6×5x4x3x2×1
= 40,320
QUESTION 29
Ten participants are participating in a competition. In how many ways can the first
three prizes be won?
920
680
820
720
See Explanation
Out of 10 participants, the first three prizes can be won in,
10P = 10! / (10 - 3)!
3
= 10 x 9 x 8
= 720 ways
QUESTION 30
It is required to seat 5 boys and 4 girls in a row so that the girls occupy the even
places. How many such arrangements are possible?
2880
2148
3680
3280
See Explanation
Total number of candidates = 5 + 4 = 9. In the row of 9 positions, the even places are
2nd, 4th, 6th and 8th.
Now, number of even places = 4.
Number of girls to occupy the even places = 4.
Even places can be filled = P (4, 4) ways.
Number of boys = 5.
The remaining 5 places can be filled by 5 boys = P (5, 5) ways
By the fundamental principle of counting:
The required number of seating arrangements
P(4, 4) x P(5, 5) = 4! x 5! = 24 x 120 = 2,880

QUESTION 1

If a2 + b2 = c2, then 1/log c + ab + 1/logc-ab =

1
2

-1

-2

See Explanation
1/logc + a b + 1/logc-a b =logb(c+a) + logb(c-a)
=logb(c2-a2) = logbb2 = 2.
QUESTION 2
If log1087.5 = 1.9421, then the number of digits in (875)10 is?
30
28
33
27
See Explanation
X = (875)10 = (87.5 x 10)10
Therefore, log10X = 10(log1087.5 + 1)
= 10(1.9421 + 1)
= 10(2.9421) = 29.421
X = antilog(29.421)
Therefore, number of digits in X = 30.
QUESTION 3
If log4X + log4(1/6) = 1/2 then the value of X is?
18
24
16
12
See Explanation
log4X +log4(1/6) = 1/2
=> log4[X x 1/6] = 1/2
=>log4 [X/6] = 1/2
=> 41/2 = X/6
=> 2 = X/6
Therefore, X = 12
QUESTION 4
If logX/(a2 + ab + b2) = log Y/(b2 + bc + c2) = logZ/(c2 + ca + a2), then Xa - b.Yb - c. Zc -
a =?

0
-1
1
2
See Explanation
Each ratio = k = log X = k(a2 + ab + b2)
=> (a - b)logX = k(a3 - b3)
Similarly, Yb - c = ek(b3 - c3), Zc - a= ek(c3 - a3)
Therefore, Xa - b.Yb - c.Zc - a = e0 = 1.
QUESTION 5
If 3(X - 2) = 5 and log10 2 = 0.20103, log103= 0.4771, then X =?
1 22187/47710
2 22187/47710
3 22187/47710
None of these
See Explanation
3X-2 = 5 => 3X = 45 = 90/2
=> Xlog103 = log10 90 - log102
= 2log103 +1 - log102
= X(0.4771) = 1.65317
=> X = 165317/ 47710
= 3 22187/47710
QUESTION 6
If log2 = 0.30103 and log3 = 0.4771, then number of digits in 6485 is?
12
13
14
15
See Explanation
log(648) = 5 log(81 x 8) = 20 log3 +15 log 2
= 20(0.4771) +15(0.30103)
= 14.05745.
Therefore, The number of digits in 6485 is 15.
QUESTION 7
If logX = (logY)/2 = (logZ)/5, then X4.Y3.Z-2 =?
2
10
1
0
See Explanation
(log X)/1 = (logY)/2 = (logZ)/5 = K
=> logX = K, log Y = 2k, log Z = 5K
Thus, log(X4.Y3.Z-2) = 4logX +3logY - 2logZ = 4K + 6K - 10K = 0.
=> X4.Y3.Z-2 = 1.
QUESTION 8
If logn48 = a and logn108 = b. What is the value of logn1296 in terms of a and b?
2(2a + b)/5
(a + 3b)/5
4(2a + b)/5
2(a + 3b)/5
See Explanation
Given logn48 = 4logn2 + logn3 = a and
logn108 = 2.logn2 + 3logn3 = b
Let logn 2 = X and logn3 = Y.
=> 4X + Y = a
2X +3Y = b.
2 x (ii) - (i) gives
6Y - Y = 2b - a
Y = (2b - a)/5
Similarly, X = (3a - b)/10.
logn1296 = 4(logn2 + logn3).
= 4[(2b - a)/5 + (3a - b)/10].
= 4[(a + 3b)/10] = 2(a + 3b)/5.
QUESTION 9
n∑
n=1 1/log2n(a) =?

n(n + 1)/2 loga2

n(n - 1)/2 log2a
n(n + 1)2n2/4 loga2
None of these
See Explanation
n∑
n=11/log2n(a) = ∑n=1loga(2n)
n

=n∑n=1nloga2
=n(n + 1)/2 loga2.
QUESTION 10
What is the value of X, if
1/(log442/441 X) + 1/(log443/442 X) + 1/(log444/443 X) +…+ 1/(log899/898 X) +1/(log900/899 X)
= 2?
2/21
1
7/100
10/7
See Explanation
The given equation
= 1/(log442/441 X) = (log442/441)/logX = logX 442/441.
= logX 442/441 + logX 443/442 + logX 444/443 +......+ logX 899/898 + logX 900/899 =
2.
= logX 900/441 = 2
=>X2 = 900/441
=>X = 30/21 = 10/7.
QUESTION 11
If 2logX = 5logY + 3, then the relation between X and Y is?
X2 = 100Y5
X1/5 = 1000Y1/2
X2 = 100Y5
X2 = Y5 + 1000
See Explanation
2logX = 5 logY + 3
logX2 = logY5 +3log1010
logX2 = logY5 +3log10103
=>log(y5x103)
=> X2 = 100y5
QUESTION 12
log42 - log82 + log16 2 -…. to ∞ is
e2
ln2+1
ln2-1
1-ln2
See Explanation
Required sum = 1/2 - 1/3 +1/4 - … to ∞
Now, loge(1 + X) = X - X2/2 + X3/3 - …
Therefore, loge2 = 1-1/2 + 1/3 - … to ∞
=>1/2 - 1/3 + 1/4 .. to ∞ = 1 - loge2 = 1- ln2.
QUESTION 13
If log72 = m, then log4928 is equal to
2(1 + 2m)
(1 + 2m)/2
2/(1 + 2m)
1+m
See Explanation
log4928 = 1/2log7(7x4) = 1/2(1 + log74)
= 1/2 + (1/2). 2log72
= 1/2 + log72
= 1/2 + m = (1 + 2m)/2.
QUESTION 14
If log2X +log2Y ≥ 6, then the least value of XY is?
4
8
64
32
See Explanation
Given : log2X + log2Y ≥ 6
=> log2(XY)≥6
=> XY ≥ 64
QUESTION 15
If log10 X = Y, then log1000X2 is equal to
Y2
2Y
3Y/2
2Y/3
See Explanation
log1000(X2) = 2/3 log10X = 2/3 Y.
QUESTION 16
Solve for X, log10X + log√10 X + log3√100 X = 27.
1
106
104
10
See Explanation
Changing the base to 10, we get
log√10 X = log10X / log10√10 = 2log10X
log3√X = log10X / log103√100 = 3log10X / 2.
Thus, log10X + 2log10X + 3/2 log10X = 27
=> 9/2 log10X = 27
=> log10X = 6
Therefore, X = 106
QUESTION 17
If log102 = 0.3010, log10 3 = 0.4771, then the number of zeros between the decimal
point and the first
significant figure in (0.0432)10 is?
10
13
14
15
See Explanation
X = (0.0432)10 = (432/10000)10 = (33.24/104)10
Therefore, log10X = 10 (3log10 3 + 4log102-4)
= 10(1.4313 + 1.2040 - 4)
= 10(-1.3647)
= -13.647
= -14.353
Therefore, X = antilog(-14.053)
Thus, number of zeros between the decimal and the first significant figure = 13
QUESTION 18
If (4.2)x = (0.42)y = 100, then (1/x) - (1/y) =
1
2
1/2
-1
See Explanation
(4.2)x = 100
=> (42)x = 102+x
=> 42 = 10(2/x+1) ---------- (i)
[42/100]y = 100 => 42y = 102+2y
=> 42 = 102/y+2-------- (ii)
From (i) and (ii), 2/x - 2/y = 1
=>1/x - 1/y = 1/2.
QUESTION 19
log911/log513 - (log311/log√513)?
1
-1
0
None of these
See Explanation
log911/log513 - log3 11/log√513 = log311/2.log√513 - log311/ 2.log513 = 0
QUESTION 20
If log X/2=log Y/3 = log Z/5, then YZ in terms of X is
X
X2
X3
X4
See Explanation
logX/2 = logY/3= logZ/5 = K(say).
=> logX = 2k, logY = 3k, log Z =5K
=> logYZ = 3K + 5K = 8k; logX4 = 8K
Thus, logYZ = logX4
=>YZ = X4
QUESTION 21
If 4x + 22x-1 = 3x+(1/2) = 3x - (1/2)
1/2
3/2
5/2
1
See Explanation
4x+4x/2 = 3x/√3 + 3x.√3
=> 4x.3/2 = 3x.4/√3
=> (4/3)x = 8/(3√3)
=> [4/3]x = [4/3]3/2
=> x = 3/2.
QUESTION 22
(log 49√7 + log25√5 - log4√2)/log17.5
5
2
5/2
3/2
See Explanation
{log75/2 +log55/2 - log 25/2} / log17.5
= 5(log7 + log5 - log2)/2log[35/2] = 5/2
QUESTION 23
log10tan400 . log10410…..log10tan500.
1
0
-1
None of these
See Explanation
log10 tan400 x log10tan410 ….log10tan500 = 0, since log10 tan450 = 0.
QUESTION 24
If log8p = 2.5, log2q = 5, then p in terms of q is?
3√q
2q
q
q/2
See Explanation
log8p = 5/2
=> p = 85/2 = 23(5/2) = (25)3/2
log2q = 5
=> q = 25
Therefore, p = q3/2.
QUESTION 25
2log237 - 7log732 = ?
log27
log7
5
0
See Explanation
2log237 - 7log732 = 37 - 32 = 5 (because alogax = x)
QUESTION 26
If log303 = a, log305 = b, then log308 =?
3(1 - a - b)
(a - b + 1)
(1 - a - b)
(a - b + 1)
See Explanation
a + b = log3015 = log30(30/2) = 1- log302
=> log302 = (1 - a - b)
Therefore, log308 = 3(1 - a - b).
QUESTION 27
log5 2 is
an integer
a rational number
an irrational number
a prime number
See Explanation
log52 = p/q
=> 2 = 5p/q = 2q = 5p
=> Even number = odd number, which is a contradiction.
Thus, log52 is an irrational number.
QUESTION 28
If log102986 = 3.4751, then log10 0.02986 =?
1.2986
5.4751
0.34751
None of these
See Explanation
log10(0.02986) = log10[2986/100000]
= 3.4751 - 5 = -1.5249
QUESTION 29
If log(2a - 3b) = log a - log b, then a =
3b2/2b -1
3b/2b -1
b2/2b + 1
3b2/2b + 1
See Explanation
2a- 3b = a/b
=>2ab - 3b2 = a
=>3b2 = a(2b - 1)
Therefore, a = 3b2/2b -1.
QUESTION 30
If loga/b + logb/a = log (a + b), then:
a+b=1
a-b=1
a=b
a2 - b2 = 1
See Explanation
a b
log + log = log (a + b)
b a
a b
log (a + b) = log x = log 1.
b a
So, a + b = 1.
QUESTION 1

Read the passage and answer the QUESTIONs that follow.

Environmental protection and management is deservedly attracting a lot of attention

these days. This is a desirable development in the face of the alarming rate of
natural resource degradation which greatly hampers their optimal utilization.

When waste waters emanating from municipal sewage, industrial effluent, agriculture
and land runoffs, find their way either to ground water reservoirs or other surface
water sources, the quality of water deteriorates, rendering it unfit for use. The natural
balance is distributed when concentrated discharges of waste water is not controlled.
This is because the cleansing forces of nature cannot do their job in proportion to the
production of filthy matter.

According to the National Environment Engineering and Reasearch Institute

(NEERI), a staggering 70 percent of water available in the country is polluted.
According to the Planning Commission “From the Dal lake in the North to the
Chaliyar river in the South From Damodar and Hoogly in the East to the Thane
Creek in the West, the picture of water pollution is uniformly gloomy. Even our large
perennial rivers, like the Ganga, are today are heavily polluted”.

According to one study, all the 14 major rivers of India are highly polluted. Beside the
Ganga, these rivers include the Yamuna, Narmada, Godaver i, Krishna and Cauvery.
These rivers carry 85 percent of the surface runoff and their drainage basins cover
73 percent of the country. The pollution of the much revered Ganga is due in
particular to municipal sewage that accounts for ¾th of its pollution load. Despite
India having legislation on water pollution [The Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974] and various water pollution control boards, rivers have today
become synonymous with drains and sewers. Untreated community wastes
discharged into water courses from human settlements account for four times as
much waste water as industrial effluent. Out of India’s 3,119 towns and cities, only
217 have partial (209) or full (8) sewerage treatment facilities and cover less than a
third of the urban population.

Statistics from a report of the Central Board for Prevention and Control of Water
Pollution. Statistics from a report of the Central Board for Prevention and Control of
Water Pollution reveal that 1,700 of 2,700 water using industries in India are polluting
the water around their factories. Only 160 industries have waste water treatment
plants. One estimate suggests that the volume of waste water of industrial origin will
be comparable to that of domestic sewerage in India by 2000 AD. Dis charges from
agricultural fields, which carry fertilizing ingredients of nitrogen, phosphorous and
pesticides are expected to be three times as much as domestic sewage. By that
date, thermal pollution generated by discharges from thermal power plants will be
the largest in volume. Toxic effluents deplete the levels of oxygen in the rivers,
endanger all aquatic life and render water absolutely unfit for human consumption,
apart from affecting industrial production. Sometimes these effects have been
disastrous. A recent study reveals that the water of the Ganga, Yamuna, Kali and
Hindon rivers have considerable concentrations of heavy metals due to inflow of
industrial wastes, which pose a serious health hazard to the millions living on their
banks. Similarly, the Cauvery and Kapila rivers in Karnataka have been found to
contain metal pollutants, which threaten the health of people in riverine towns. The
Periyar, the largest river of Kerala, receives extremely toxic effluent that result in high
incidence of skin problems and fish kills. The Godavari of Andhera Pradesh and the
Damodar and Hoogly in West Bengal receive

untreated industrial toxic wastes. A high level of pollution has been found in the
Yamuna, while the Chambal of Rajasthan is considered the most polluted river in
Rajasthan. Even in industrially backward Orissa, the Rushikula river is extremely
polluted. The fate of the Krishna in Andhra Pradesh, the Tungabhadra in Karnataka,
the Chaliyar in Kerala, the Gomti in U.P., the Narmada in M.P. and the Sone and the
Subarnarekha rivers in Bihar is no different.

According to the W.H.O.- eighty percent of diseases prevalent in India are water-
borne; many of them assume epidemic proportions. The prevalence of these
diseases heighten under conditions of drought. It is also estimated that India loses
as many as 73 million man-days every year due to water prone diseases, costing Rs.
600 crore by way of treatment expenditure and production losses. Management of
water resources with respect to their quality also assumes greater importance
especially when the country can no more afford to waste water. The recent Clean-
the Ganga Project with an action plan estimated to cost the exchequer Rs.250 crore
(which has been accorded top priority) is a trend setter in achieving this goal. The
action plan evoked such great interest that offers of assistance have been received
from France, UK, US and the Netherlands as also the World Bank. This is indeed
laudable. Poland too has now joined this list. The very fact that these countries have
volunteered themselves to contribute their mite is a healthy reflection of global
concern over growing environmental degradation and the readiness of the
international community to participate in what is a truly formidable task. It may be
recalled that the task of cleansing the Ganga along the Rishikesh – Hardwar stretch
under the first phase of the Ganga Action Plan has been completed and the results
are reported to be encouraging.

The reasons for the crisis of drinking water resources are drying up and the lowering
of ground water through overpumping; this is compounded by the pollution of water
sources. All these factors increase the magnitude of the problem. An assessment of
the progress achieved by the end of March 1985, on completion of the first phase of
the International

Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade (1981 – ’91) reveals that drinking
water has been available to 73 percent of the urban population and 56 percent of the
rural population only. This means that nearly half the country’s rural population has
to get drinking water facilities. This needs to be urgently geared up especially when
considered against the Government’s professed objective of providing safe drinking
water and sanitation to all by the end of the International Drinking Water Supply and
Sanitation Decade i.e. March 1991. The foremost action in this would be to clean up
our water resources.
As per surveys conducted by the NEERI, per capita drinking water losses in different
cities in the country range between 11,000 to 31,000 litres annually. This indicates a
waste level of 20 to 35 percent of the total flow of water in the distribution system
primarily due to leaks in main and household service pipes. Preventive maintenance
programme would substantially reduce losses, wastages and would certainly go a
long way in solving the problem.

According to the Union Ministry of Works and Housing, of the 2.31 lakhs problem
villages most have been provided with at least one source of drinking water as of
March, 1986. The balance (38,748) villages are expected to be covered during the
seventh plan. A time bound national policy on drinking water is being formulated by
Government, wherein the task is proposed to be completed by the end of the
seventh plan. An outlay of Rs. 6,522.47 crores has been allotted for the water supply
and sanitation sector in the seventh plan period against an outlay of Rs. 3,922.02
crores in the sixth plan. Of this, outlay for rural water supply sector is Rs. 3,454.47
crores. It is expected that this outlay would help to cover about 86.4 percent of the
urban and 82.2 percent of the rural population with safe drinking water facilities by
March 1991. Hygienic sanitation facilities would be provided to 44.7 percent and 1.8
percent of the urban and rural population respectivly within the same period.

QUESTION 2

The degradation of natural resources will necessarily lead to

poor economic utilization of resources.

contamination of water from municipal sewage.

water unfit for human consumption.

none of the above.

See Explanation
The degradation of natural resources will lead to poor economic utilization of
resources.
QUESTION 3

According to NEERI

the extent of water pollution in the Dal Lake is grim.

70 percent of the total water available in the country is polluted.

only 217 out of 3119 towns and cities have sewage treatment facilities.
all the 14 major rivers of India are highly polluted.

See Explanation
NEERI has reported that 70% of the total water available in the country is polluted.
QUESTION 4

Which of the following statements is correct?

The river Periyar is in the South India.

The river Periyar is the largest river of Kerala.

The river Gomti is also extremely polluted.

All of the above are correct.

See Explanation
All the given statements are supported by the passage.
QUESTION 5

Municipal sewage pollutants account for

the lowest percentage of water pollution

75 percent of the Ganga’s water pollution load.

twice the volume of the waste water of industrial origin .

three times as much as the discharge from agricultural fields.

See Explanation
75% of Ganga’s pollution comes from municipal sewage.
QUESTION 6

Which of the following statements has/ have been made by the W.H.O?

Water-borne diseases account for 80 percent of all diseases prevalent in India.

Water-borne diseases in India create a loss of Rs. 600 crores every year.
Both the two options

None of the above.

See Explanation
W.H.O. has made both the observations.
QUESTION 7

The following passage is followed by QUESTIONs based on the contents of the

passage. Read the passage carefully and select the best answers from among the
given choices for each QUESTION. The QUESTIONs are to be answered on the
basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Emile Durkheim, the first person to be formally recognized as a sociologist and the
most scientific of the pioneers, conducted a study that stands as a research model
for sociologists today. His investigation of suicide was, in fact, the first sociological
study to use statistics. In suicide (1964, originally published in 1897) Durkheim
documented his contention that some aspects of human behaviour – even
something as allegedly individualistic as suicide – can be explained without
reference to individuals.

Like all of Durkheim’s work, suicide must be viewed within the context of his concern
for social integration. Durkheim wanted to see if suicide rates within a social entity
(for example, a group, organization, or society) are related to the degree to which
individuals are socially involved (integrated and regulated). Durkheim describes
three types of suicide: egoistic, anomic, and altruistic. Egoistic suicide is promoted
when individuals do not have sufficient social ties. Since single (never married)
adults, for example, are not heavily involved with the family life, they are more likely
to commit suicide than are married adults. Altruistic suicide on the other hand, is
more likely to occur when social integration is too strong. The ritual suicide of Hindu
widows on their husbands funeral pyres is one example. Military personnel, trained
to lay down their lives for their country, provide another illustration.

Durkheim’s third type of suicide anomic suicide increases when the social regulation
of individuals is disrupted. For example, suicide rates increase during economic
depressions. People who suddenly find themselves without a job or without hope of
finding one are more prone to kill themselves. Suicides may also increase during
period of prosperity. People may loosen their social ties by taking new jobs, moving
to new communities, or finding new mates.

Using data from the government population reports to several countries (much of it
from the French Government Statistical Office), Durkheim found strong support for
his line reasoning. Suicide rates were higher among single than married people,
among military personnel than civilians, among divorced than married people, and
among people involved in nationwide economic crises.

It is important to realize that Durkheim’s primary interest was not in the empirical
(observations) indicators he used such as suicide rates among military personnel,
married people, and so forth. Rather, Durkheim used the following indicators to supp
ort several of his contentions: (1) Social behavior can be explained by social rather
than psychological factors; (2) suicide is affected by the degree of integration and
regulation within social entities; and (3) Since society can be studied scientifically,
sociology is worthy of recognition in the academic world. Durkheim was successful
on all three counts.

QUESTION 8

Single adults not heavily involved with family life are more likely to commit suicide.
Durkheim categorized this as

anomic suicide.

altruistic suicide.

egoistic suicide.

Both altruistic and egoistic suicide .

See Explanation
This was categorised as egoistic suicide.
QUESTION 9

Increase in the suicide rate during economic depression is an example of

altruistic suicide.

anomic suicide.

egoistic suicide.

Both altruistic and egoistic suicide .

See Explanation
It is also a manifestation of anomic suicide.
QUESTION 10

According to Durkheim, altruistic suicide is more likely among

military personnel than among civilians.

single people than among married people.

divorcees than among married people.

people involved in nationwide economic crises.

See Explanation
Military personnel, trained to lay their lives for the country are more likely to commit
suicide.
QUESTION 11

According to Durkheim, suicide rates within a social entity can be explained in terms
of

absence of social ties.

disruption of social regulation.

nature of social integration.

All of these

See Explanation
Durkheim uses all three as explanations for suicide within a social entity.
QUESTION 12

In his study of suicide Durkheim’s main purpose was

to document that suicide can be explained without reference to the individual.

to provide an explanation of the variation in the rate of suicide across societies.

to categorize various types of suicides.

to document that social behavior can be explained by social rather than

psychological factors.

See Explanation
Durkheim was trying to document the fact that something as individualistic as suicide
can be explained without
reference to individuals.
QUESTION 13

Of the various forms of government which have prevailed in the world, an

hereditary monarchy seems to present the fairest scope for ridicule. Is it possible to
relate without an indignant smile, that, on the father’s decease, the property of a
nation, like that of a drove of oxen, descends to his infant son, as yet unknown to
mankind and to himself; and that the bravest warriors and the wisest statesmen,
relinquishing their natural right to empire, approach the royal cradle with bended
knees and protestations of inviolable fidelity? Satire and declamation may paint
these obvious topics in the most dazzling colors, but our more serious thoughts will
respect a useful prejudice, that establishes a rule of succession, independent of the
passions of mankind; and we shall cheerfully acquiesce in any expedient which
deprives the multitude of the dangerous, and indeed the ideal, power of giving
themselves a master. In the cool shade of retirement, we may easily devise
imaginary forms of government, in which the sceptre shall be constantly bestowed
on the most worthy, by the free and incorrupt suffrage of the whole community.

Experience overturns these airy fabrics, and teaches us, that in a large society, the
election of a monarch can never devolve to the wisest, or to the most numerous part
of the people. The army is the only order of men sufficiently united to concur in the
same sentiments, and powerful enough to impose them on the rest of their fellow-
citizens; but the temper of soldiers, habituated at once to violence and to slavery,
renders them very unfit guardians of a legal, or even a civil constitution. Justice,
humanity, or political wisdom, are qualities they are too little acquainted with in
themselves, to appreciate them in others. Valor will acquire their esteem, and
liberality will purchase their suffrage; but the first of these merits is often lodged in
the most savage breasts; the latter can only exert itself at the expense of the public;
and both may be turned against the possessor of the throne, by the ambition of a
daring rival.

The superior prerogative of birth, when it has obtained the sanction of time and
popular opinion, is the plainest and least invidious of all distinctions among mankind.
The acknowledged right extinguishes the hopes of faction, and the conscious
security disarms the cruelty of the monarch. To the firm establishment of this idea we
owe the peaceful succession and mild administration of European monarchies. To
the defect of it we must attribute the frequent civil wars, through which an Asiatic
despot is obliged to cut his way to the throne of his fathers. Yet, even in the East, the
sphere of contention is usually limited to the princes of the reigning house, and as
soon as the more fortunate competitor has removed his brethren by the sword and
the bowstring, he no longer entertains any jealousy of his meaner subjects. But the
Roman empire, after the authority of the senate had sunk into contempt, was a vast
scene of confusion. The royal, and even noble, families of the provinces had long
since been led in triumph before the car of the haughty republicans. The ancient
families of Rome had successively fallen beneath the tyranny of the Caesars; and
whilst those princes were shackled by the forms of a commonwealth, and
disappointed by the repeated failure of their posterity, it was impossible that any idea
of hereditary succession should have taken root in the minds of their subjects. The
right to the throne, which none could claim from birth, every one assumed from merit.
The daring hopes of ambition were set loose from the salutary restraints of law and
prejudice; and the meanest of mankind might, without folly, entertain a hope of being
raised by valor and fortune to a rank in the army, in which a single crime would
enable him to wrest the sceptre of the world from his feeble and unpopular master.
After the murder of Alexander Severus, and the elevation of Maximin, no emperor
could think himself safe upon the throne, and every barbarian peasant of the frontier
might aspire to that august, but dangerous station.

About thirty-two years before that event, the emperor Severus, returning from an
eastern expedition, halted in Thrace, to celebrate, with military games, the birthday
of his younger son, Geta. The country flocked in crowds to behold their sovereign,
and a young barbarian of gigantic stature earnestly solicited, in his rude dialect, that
he might be allowed to contend for the prize of wrestling. As the pride of discipline
would have been disgraced in the overthrow of a Roman soldier by a Thracian
peasant, he was matched with the stoutest followers of the camp, sixteen of whom
he successively laid on the ground. His victory was rewarded by some trifling gifts,
and a permission to enlist in the troops. The next day, the happy barbarian was
distinguished above a crowd of recruits, dancing and exulting after the fashion of his
country. As soon as he perceived that he had attracted the emperor’s notice, he
instantly ran up to his horse, and followed him on foot, without the least appearance
of fatigue, in a long and rapid career. "Thracian," said Severus with astonishment,
"art thou disposed to wrestle after thy race?" "Most willingly, sir," replied the
unwearied youth; and, almost in a breath, overthrew seven of the strongest soldiers
in the army. A gold collar was the prize of his matchless vigor and activity, and he
was immediately appointed to serve in the horseguards who always attended on the
person of the sovereign.

QUESTION 14

According to the author,

a hereditary monarchy is considered to be a matter of which one may not speak at

all.

a hereditary monarchy is considered to be a matter of derision by many.

a hereditary monarchy is considered to be the best form of government by many.

Both A and B

See Explanation
The first statement of the passage supports the answer choice, whereas, the other
options are irrelevant in the context of the passage. The first statement states: "Of
the various forms of government which have prevailed in the world, a hereditary
monarchy seems to present the fairest scope for ridicule." This supports the
statement that ’a hereditary monarchy is considered to be a matter of derision by
many.’
QUESTION 15

Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

A bird in hand is worth two in the bush.

People living in glass houses should not throw stones on others.

A stitch in time saves nine.

Things are easier said than done.

See Explanation
In the last line of the first paragraph, it is mentioned that "In the cool shade of
retirement, we may easily devise imaginary forms of government, in which the
sceptre shall be constantly bestowed on the most worthy, by the free and incorrupt
suffrage of the whole community." In other words, people opine that electing the
most worthy candidate in a community is possible. In paragraph two, it is mentioned
that the election of the wisest or the most numerous in a large society is not a reality.
This entire matter can also be expressed in terms of the adage "Things are easier
said than done." Hence, the author is most likely to agree with this.
QUESTION 16

Which of the following statements from the passage represents the writer’s opinion?

The safety bicycle would look familiar to today’s cyclists.

Two hundred years ago, bicycles didn’t even exist.

The Michaux brothers called their bicycle a vélocipède.

Macmillan’s machine had tires with iron rims.

See Explanation
This is the only choice that states an opinion. The writer cannot be certain that the
safety bicycle would look familiar to today’s cyclists; it is his or her opinion that this is
so. The other choices are presented as facts.
QUESTION 17

One can infer from the passage that the Roman Senate had

always been powerful.

never been powerful.

at a certain time ceased to be powerful.

nothing can in particular be inferred about the Roman Senate.

See Explanation
The third paragraph of the passage mentions: "But the Roman empire, after the
authority of the State sunk into contempt". This indicates that the Roman empire was
once powerful (authority of the State) but now ceases to be (sunk into contempt).
QUESTION 18

The author cites the example of the Thracian peasant in order to

show is tremendous strength and his valour.

show his audacity and smartness.

show that sheer merit won him a favoured position in the king’s court.

None of the above

See Explanation
The example of the Thracian peasant is given to show that kings were safe on the
throne even when more powerful and brave subjects were present. Neither of the
options explains this reason.
QUESTION 19

A pioneer leader for women’s rights, Susan B. Anthony became one of the leading
women reformers of the nineteenth century. In Rochester, New York, she began her
first public crusade on behalf of temperance. The temperance movement dealt with
the abuses of women and children who suffered from alcoholic husbands. Also, she
worked tirelessly against slavery and for women’s rights. Anthony helped write the
history of woman suffrage. At the time Anthony lived, women did not have the right to
vote. Because she voted in the 1872 election, a U.S. Marshall arrested Anthony. She
hoped to prove that women had the legal right to vote under the provisions of
the fourteenth and fifteenth amendments to the Constitution.

At her trial, a hostile federal judge found her guilty and fined her $100, which she
refused to pay. Anthony did not work alone. She collaborated with reformers of
women’s rights such as Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Amelia Bloomer. Susan worked
for the American Anti-Slavery Society with Frederick Douglass, a fugitive slave and
black abolitionist. On July 2, 1979, the U.S. Mint honored her work by issuing the
Susan B. Anthony dollar coin. Although Anthony did not live to see the fruits of her
efforts, the establishment of the nineteenth amendment is indebted to her efforts.

QUESTION 20

What is the main idea of the passage?

Reformers do not always see the results of their efforts.

Susan B. Anthony never gave up her fight for all people’s freedoms.

Slavery was one of Susan B.Anthony’s causes.

Anthony did not condone the use of alcohol.

See Explanation
All the options except option "Susan B. Anthony never ..." are just merely facts from
the passage that are true but doesn’t convey the main idea of the passage.
QUESTION 21

In which of the following ways did the U.S. Mint honor her life’s work?

The Susan B. Anthony stamp was issued.

The Susan B. Anthony dollar was created.

The Susan B. Anthony Memorial Park was built in Rochester.

Susan B. Anthony dolls were created.

See Explanation
This is the only choice that the passage supports.
QUESTION 22

What would historians say was Susan Anthony’s greatest achievement?

She collaborated with abolitionists to rid the country of slavery.

She was an activist and raised a family at the same time.

Her tireless efforts to guarantee women the right to vote led to the establishment of
the nineteenth amendment to the Constitution.

She was a leader in the temperance movement.

See Explanation
Although each statement is true, her greatest and lasting achievement was that her
efforts led to the establishment of the nineteenth
amendment.
QUESTION 23

Anthony advocated all of the following EXCEPT

Slavery should be abolished.

Alcohol should be prohibited because of the abuse it causes.

Women are citizens and should have the right to vote.

Employers should provide child care for female employees.

See Explanation
The option "Employers should provide child care for female employees." is not
discussed in the passage.
QUESTION 24

An effective reformer is

a person who has the support of family and friends.

an activist who can enlist the help of others to promote a cause.

a person who is knowledgeable about a particular cause.

a person who ignores what others think.

See Explanation
The passage only gives evidence that supports this answer.
QUESTION 25

Firefighters are often asked to speak to school and community groups about the
importance of fire safety, particularly fire prevention and detection. Because smoke
detectors reduce the risk of dying in a fire by half, firefighters often provide
audiences with information on how to install these protective devices in their homes.

Specifically, they tell them these things: A smoke detector should be placed on each
floor of a home. While sleeping, people are in particular danger of an emergent fire,
and there must be a detector outside each sleeping area. A good site for a detector
would be a hallway that runs between living spaces and bedrooms. Because of the
dead-air space that might be missed by turbulent hot air bouncing around above a
fire, smoke detectors should be installed either on the ceiling at least four inches
from the nearest wall, or high on a wall at least four, but no further than twelve,
inches from the ceiling. Detectors should not be mounted near windows, exterior
doors, or other places where drafts might direct the smoke away from the unit. Nor
should they be placed in kitchens and garages, where cooking and gas fumes are
likely to cause false alarms.

QUESTION 26

A smoke detector should NOT be installed near a window because

outside fumes may trigger a false alarm.

a draft may create dead-air space.

a draft may pull smoke away from the detector.

outside noises may muffle the sound of the detector.

See Explanation
The answer can be found in the next to last sentence of the passage.
QUESTION 27

The passage implies that dead-air space is most likely to be found

on a ceiling, between four and twelve inches from a wall.

close to where a wall meets a ceiling.

near an open window.

in kitchens and garages.

See Explanation
The answer can be found in the first sentence of the third paragraph. The ’inches’
option may seem attractive because the passage contains the words four inches and
twelve inches, but close reading will show it to be incorrect.
QUESTION 28

Which organizational scheme does this list of instructions follow?

hierarchical order

comparison-contrast

cause-and-effect

chronological order by topic

See Explanation
The passage details the proper locations for smoke detectors and is ordered
according to topic.
QUESTION 29

The passage states that, compared with people who do not have smoke detectors,
persons who live in homes with smoke detectors have a

50% better chance of surviving a fire.

50% better chance of preventing a fire.

75% better chance of detecting a hidden fire.

100% better chance of not being injured in a fire.

See Explanation
The answer is found in the first paragraph (smoke detectors reduce the risk of dying
in a fire by half).
QUESTION 30

What is the main focus of this passage?

how firefighters carry out their responsibilities

the proper installation of home smoke detectors

the detection of dead-air space on walls and ceilings

how smoke detectors prevent fires in homes

See Explanation
Although the passage mentions firefighters’ responsibilities, the main focus of the
passage is the installation of smoke detectors.
QUESTION 31

Read the passage and answer the following.

How quickly things change in the technology business! A decade ago, IBM was the
awesome and undisputed king of the computer trade, universally feared and
respected. A decade ago, two little companies called Intel and Microsoft were mere
blips on the radar screen of the industry, upstart start-ups that had signed on to
make the chips and software for IBM’s new line of personal computers. Though their
products soon became industry standards, the two companies remained protected
children of the market leader.

What happened since is a startling reversal of fortune. IBM is being ravaged by the
worst crisis in the company’s 79 year history. It is undergoing its fifth restructuring in
the past seven years as well as seemingly endless rounds of job cuts and firings that
have eliminated 100,000 jobs since 1985. Last week IBM announced to its shell-
shocked investors that it lost $4.97 billion last year – the biggest loss in American
corporate history.

And just when IBM is losing ground in one market after another, Intel and Microsoft
have emerged as the computer industry’s most fearsome pair of competitors. The
numbers on Wall Street tell a stunning story. Ten years ago, the market value of the
stock of Intel and Microsoft combined amounted to about a tenth of IBM’s.

Both Intel, the world's largest supplier of computer chips, and Microsoft, the world's
largest supplier of computer software, have assumed the role long played by Big
Blue as the industry's pacesetters. What is taking place is a generational shift
unprecedented in the information age -- one that recalls a transition in the U.S. auto
industry 70 years ago, when Alfred Sloan's upstart General Motors surpassed Ford
Motor as the nation's No. 1 carmaker. The transition also reflects the decline of
computer manufacturers such as IBM, Wang and Unisys, and the rise of companies
like Microsoft, Intel and AT&T that create the chips and software to make the
computers work. "Just like Dr. Frankenstein, IBM created these two monster
competitors," says Richard Shaffer, publisher of the Computer Letter. "Now even
IBM is in danger of being trampled by the creations it unleashed."

Although Intel and Microsoft still have close relationships with Big Blue, there is little
love lost between IBM and its potent progeny. IBM had an ugly falling-out with former
partner Microsoft over the future of personal-computer software. Microsoft developed
the now famous disk operating system for IBM-PC – called DOS – and later created
the operating software for the next genera tion of IBM personal computers, the
Personal System/2. When PS/2 and is operating system, OS/2, failed to catch on, a
feud erupted over how the two companies would upgrade the system. Although they
publicly patched things up, the partnership was tattered. IBM developed its own
version of OS/2, which has so far failed to capture the industry’s imagination.
Microsoft’s competing version, dubbed New Technology, or NT, will debut in a few
months and will incorporate Microsoft’s highly successful Windows program, which
lets users juggle several programs at once. Windows NT, however, will offer more
new features, such as the ability to link many computers together in a network and to
safeguard them against unauthorized use. IBM and Intel have also been parting
company. After relying almost exclusively on the Santa Clara, California company for
the silicon chips that serve as computer brains, IBM has moved to reduce its
dependence on Intel by turning to competing vendors. In Europe, IBM last year
began selling a low-cost line of PC’s called Ambra, which runs on chips made by
Intel rival Advanced Micro Devices. IBM also demonstrated a sample PC using a
chip made by another Intel enemy, Cyrix. And that October IBM said it would begin
selling the company’s own chips to outsiders in direct competition with Intel.

IBM clearly fells threatened. And the wounded giant still poses the biggest threat to
any further dominance by Intel and Microsoft. Last year, it teamed up with both
companies most bitter rivals – Apple Computers and Motorola – to develop
advanced software and microprocessors for a new generation of desktop computers.
In selecting Apple and Motorola, IBM bypassed its long time partners. Just as
Microsoft’s standard operating system runs only on computers built are computer
chips, Apple’s software runs only on Motorola’s chips. Although IBM has pledged
that the new system will eventually run on a variety of machines, it will initially run
only computer programs written for Apple’s Macintosh . Its competitive juice now
flowing, IBM last week announced that it and Apple Computer will deliver the
operating system in 1994 – a year ahead of schedule.

QUESTION 32

Why is something that happened 70 years ago in the US auto industry being
mentioned here?

General Motors broke away from Ford Motors.

A new company went ahead of an established market leader.

Like Dr. Frankenstein, Ford Motor created a monster in General Motors.

Microsoft, Intel and AT&Twere originally created by IBM.

See Explanation
General Motors, a relatively new company, had surpassed Ford as America’s No. 1
car maker.
QUESTION 33

Which of the following statements is not implied by the passage?

Microsoft developed DOS

Ten years ago, the market value of the stock of Intel and Microsoft combined
amounted to about a tenth of IBM’s

IBM laying off workers is the biggest job cut in American corporate history.

Santaclara is based in California.

See Explanation
IBM’s ‘loss’ and not the ‘lay off’ was the biggest in the corporate history.
QUESTION 34

As a result of greater competition in the US Computer industry

some computer companies are expanding while others are contracting.

employment in the industry is going down.

the industry is becoming more monopolized.

the share value of IBM is going up relative to that of Intel and Microsoft.

See Explanation
The passage shows that though IBM is losing ground in one market after another,
Intel and Microsoft have emerged as the computer industry’s most fearsome pair of
competitors.
QUESTION 35

One possible conclusion from the passage is that

share prices are not a good indicator of a company’s performance.

firing workers restores a company’s health.

all companies ultimately regret being a Dr. Frankenstein to some other company.

consumers gain as a result of competition among producers.

See Explanation
The passage states that each company feels threatened by its own creations.
QUESTION 36

The personal computer called Ambra is marketed by:

Cyrix.

IBM.

Intel.

Microsoft.

See Explanation
IBM marketed Ambra.
QUESTION 1

There are four plateaus on a mountain labelled M, N, O and P. M is 2200 meters

above the ground. N is 600 metres higher than M. P is 1000 metres higher than O. Is
N higher than O?

I P is 2600 m above the ground

II P is 400 higher than M

If either statement (i) or statement (ii) are sufficient to answer the QUESTION

If both statements (i) and (ii) together are sufficient but neither of statements

If both statements individually are sufficient to answer the QUESTION

Statement (i) and (ii) together are not sufficient to answer the QUESTION

See Explanation
Statement I: From the given information we have N higher than O by 2800 - 1600 i.e.
1200 m. Therefore, statement I alone is sufficient.
Statement II: From the given information N is higher than O by 1200 m. Therefore,
statement II alone is sufficient.
Hence answer is (a)
QUESTION 2

Find the cost of a Pen.

(I) The total cost of 99 pens, 37 pencils, 85 erasers and 19 chocolates is $1344.

(II) The total cost of 74 pencils, 38 chocolates, 98 pens and 174 erasers is $1688.

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Since there are four articles or variables and two equations in statements I and II, if
we observe the ratio of the coefficients of these variable in the equation I to the
corresponding coefficients in the equation II, we find that except for the coefficients
of pens, for all the other coefficients the ratio is 2:1. In other words, if the equation I
is multiplied by two and then the equation II is subtracted from it, we get the cost of
pen. Without using pen and paper we can answer this QUESTION.
QUESTION 3

Identify which statement is sufficient to answer the given QUESTION.

Is P - 5 even? P is real number.

i. P - 15 is an integer.

ii. P - 10 is an odd integer.

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I: Since P - 15 is an integer, P is an integer. Therefore statement I alone
is not sufficient.
Statement II: P - 10 is an odd integer. Therefore P is an odd integer. So P - 5 is an
even number. Therefore statement II alone is sufficient.
QUESTION 4

What is the depreciated value on 1st Jan 87 of a car which was bought on 1st Jan
83?

I The purchase value was Rs.60,000.

II Each year, it depreciated at the rate of 15% of it’s value on 1st Jan in that year.

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.
If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the depreciation rate. Since we
don’t know the purchase value, statement II alone is not sufficient. Both the
statement I and II together we have depreciated value = 60,000 (1 - 15/100)⁴. Hence
answer is (c).
QUESTION 5

What is the total cost of tiles needed for a room 9 feet by 12 feet?

I Tiles are 6" square each.

II Tiles cost Rs.10 per Sq. ft.

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the cost of one tile.
Statement II: Total cost = 9 x 12 x 10 = Rs 1080. Therefore, statement II alone is
sufficient. Hence answer is (b).
QUESTION 6

Is point P in the first quadrant?

I P lies within the circle with centre at the origin and radius 3.

II P lies on the straight line x + 2y = 4.

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If neither statement alone or together is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient as P can be in any quadrant. Statement II alone is
not sufficient as P can be in first or second quadrant. Hence answer is (e).
QUESTION 7

Is z less than w? z and w real numbers.

I z2 = 25

II w = 9

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I: We have, z = +5. Therefore the statement I alone is not sufficient as we
don’t know the value of w. Both statement together give w > z. Hence answer is c
QUESTION 8

What is the curved surface area of a cylinder C?

I The base area is 66.

II The volume is 264

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the height of the cylinder.
Statement II alone is not sufficient as we can’t find the value of 2(pi)rh from the given
value of (pi)r2h. But from statement I and II together we can find the values of r and
h. Therefore, we can find the curved surface area of the cylinder. Hence answer is If
both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient..
QUESTION 9

When was Raju born?

I. Raju was born on the same day that of Mr. Gandhi was

II. Mr. Gandhi was born in October.

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Using statement I alone, we SHOULD NOT assume that Mr. Gandhi mentioned here
is the Father of the Nation. Specific information is required to come to any such
conclusion. Hence, even after combining both the statements, we cannot answer this
QUESTION.
QUESTION 10

Find which of the statements is sufficient to answer the given QUESTION.

What is the rate of simple interest?

I. The Principal doubles itself in 8 years.

II. The Principal is Rs.1000

Statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.

Statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient.

Both statements I and II together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

Each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I: For the amount A (i.e P + I) to be double of P, I = P
=> P = P x R x 8/100, which gives R = 100/8 = 12.5%. Therefore, statement I alone
is sufficient to answer the QUESTION.
Statement II alone is not sufficient as the Principal value alone is not sufficient to
determine the rate of simple interest.
Hence, Statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.
QUESTION 11

Answer which of the statement is sufficient to answer the given QUESTION.

In the rectangle ABCD, what is the length?

I Area of rectangle is 55 Sq.units.

II AC = 30 units.

If statement I alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement II alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements I and II together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Let l and b are the length and breath of the rectangle. Then statement I gives lb = 55.
Now statement I alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the breath of the
rectangle. Statement II gives l2 + b2=900, So statement II alone is not sufficient.
Both the statements together can give the value of length of the rectangle. Hence
answer is If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements
alone is sufficient.
QUESTION 12

What is the base radius of the right circular cone ?

I. A right circular cylinder with the same radius and height as the cone with volume
616 cc.

II. If the height of the cylinder had been one cm more, its volume would be more by
154 cc.

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient as we can’t determine the base radius from the
given information ∏r2h=616. Statement II alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the
height of the cylinder. But both statements together gives radius and height equal to
7cm and 4cm respectively. Therefore volume of the cone =1/3(Pi)r2h=1/3(Pi)(7)2x4.
QUESTION 13

In the figure, what is the area of triangle PQR where P,Q,R are midpoints of side
AB,BC,CA?

I. Area of triangle ABC=48 Sq.inches

II. AB=4 BC=5" CA=7

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
From statement I, we get 4 equal triangles. So A(ΔPQR)=A(ΔABC)/4 = 12. Therefore
Statement I alone is sufficient. By Hero’s formula, we have A(ΔABC)=√[s(s-a)(s-b)(s-
c)]. Therefore statement II alone is sufficient. Hence answer is (d).
QUESTION 14

What is the profit when two varieties of tea priced at Rs.6 and Rs.8 per kg
respectively are mixed and sold at Rs.9 per kg?

I. The total quantity sold was 10 kg

II. The total cost of the mixture was Rs.68

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If neither statement alone or together is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the proportion in which two
varieties of tea are mixed. Statement II alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the
quantity of mixture sold. Both the statements together can’t determine the position of
N. Hence, answer is (d).
QUESTION 15

Is the straight line MN perpendicular to the x-axis?

I. Coordinates of M are (3,4)

II. OM=5

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are not sufficient

See Explanation
statement I alone is not sufficient as we don’t know the coordinates of N.Statement II
alone is not sufficient as we can’t find the coordinates of N on the given information.
Both the statements together can’t determine the position of N. Hence answer is (e).
QUESTION 16

Answer which of the statement is sufficient to answer the given QUESTION.

Is x equal to 6?

I. The square of x is equal to 16.

II. The cube of x is equal to 216.

If statement I alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement II alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements I and II together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Using statement I alone, x may be equal to +4 or -4. In both the cases, x is not equal
to 6. Hence our answer is ’NO’. x is not equal to 6. Statement I alone is sufficient.
Using statement II alone, x is equal to 6. Our answer is ’Yes’. x is equal to 6.
Statement II alone is also sufficient. Either the statement alone is sufficient.We can
make an observation here. The value of x is different in statement I and II. It is not
necessary that both that statements should give the same value. What is important is
whether we can give the answer.
QUESTION 17

Direction: For the following QUESTION two statements are given. Read the
sentences carefully and select the appropriate answer option.

What is the area of the rectangle ABCD whose perimeter is 36 cm?

Statement: (I) AB = 10 cm

Statement: (II) BC > 8 cm

If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.

If statement II alone is sufficient but the statement I alone is not sufficient.

If both statements I and II together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
In the QUESTION itself some information is given. Hence it should can be found be
noted first.
2(l + b) = 36 => l + b = 18
if either length or breadth is know, the other dimension can be found and area also
can be found. Using statment I alone, l= 10cm.
Thus, b = 18 - 10 = 8 cm.
Since both length and breadth are known area can be found.
QUESTION 18

Direction: For the following QUESTION two statements are given. Read the
sentences carefully and select the appropriate answer option.
Find the area of the rectangle ABCD.

Statement:(I) AB = 12 cm.

Statement:(II) BC = 6 cm

If statement I alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement II alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements I and II together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If each statement alone is sufficient.

See Explanation
Area of rectangle = Length x Breadth.
We require both the length and breadth in order to find out the area. Neither of the
statements is independently sufficient as they represent only one side of the
rectangle. Combining both the statements, the area can be found as length (AB) and
breadth (BC) are given.
QUESTION 19

Direction: For the following QUESTION two statements are given. Read the
sentences carefully and select the appropriate answer option.

What is the ratio of the saving of A and B?

Statement:(i) The ratio of the incomes of A and B is 2:3.

Statement:(ii) The ratio of their expenditures is 1:2.

If statement (i) alone is sufficient but statement (ii) alone is not sufficient.

If statement (ii) alone is sufficient but statement (i) alone is not sufficient.

If both statements (i) and (ii) together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If either statement alone or together is not sufficient.

See Explanation
Savings = Income - Expenditure
Statement I alone is not sufficient since expenditures are not know.
Statement II alone is not sufficient since incomes are not know.
Combining both the statements, let A’s income be rs 2x and B’s income be rs 3x, A’s
expenditure be rs y and B’s expenditure be 2y.
Ratio of saving of A and B = (2x - y):(3x - 2y) For different values of x and y, we get
different ratios, Hence, unique value of ratio could not be found after combining both
the statement also.
QUESTION 20

Identify which statement is sufficient to answer the given QUESTION.

Is the number N divisible by 17?

i. (N + 1) is an odd number

ii. N is not divisible by 19

If statement i alone is sufficient but statement ii alone is not sufficient.

If statement ii alone is sufficient but statement i alone is not sufficient.

If both statements i and ii together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.

If neither statement alone or together is sufficient.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient. Statement II alone is not sufficient. Both
statements together are not sufficient.E.g. N can be 34, which is divisible by 17. N
can be 36, which is not divisible by 17. Hence answer is "If neither statement alone
or together is sufficient."
QUESTION 21

Identify which statement is sufficient to answer the given QUESTION.

What is the area of the rectangle ABCD?

(I) The perimeter of the rectangle is 30 cms. and its length is 10 cms.
(II) The perimeter of the rectangle is 30 cms. and its breadth is 5 cms.

If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of either of the statements.

See Explanation
From statement I, we know that 2(l + b) = 30;
l + b = 15; given l = 10;
There 10 + b = 15 => b= 5
Therefore l x b => 10 x 5 = 50 sq. cms
From statement II, we know that 2(l + b) = 30 ;
l + b =15; given b= 5;
Therefore 5 + l = 15 => l = 10
Therefore l x b = 10 x 5 = 50 sq. cms.
Since the QUESTION could be answered from statement I alone or statement II
alone
QUESTION 22

An industrial plant manufactures certain commodities. In 1995, the number of

commodities manufactured by the plant was twice the number of commodities
manufactured in 1994. What was the total number of commodities manufactured in
the years 1994,1995 and 1996?

I. In 1996, the number of commodities manufactured was thrice the number of

commodities manufactured in1994.

II. In 1997, the number of commodities manufactured was 0.5 the total number of
commodities manufactured in 1994,1995 and 1996.

If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.

See Explanation
Neither statement I alone nor statement II alone is sufficient as we don’t know the
number of commodities manufactured in 1994. If N is the number of commodities
manufactured in 1994, then combining both statements the number of commodities
is equal to 2N, 3N and 3N respectively. Since we don’t know the value of N, both
statement are not sufficient to answer the QUESTION. Hence answer is (a).
QUESTION 23

In a 100m race, B takes 1/2 minute more than A to complete the race. How much
can A give B in a 1400m race?

I. A runs 100m in 3 minutes.

Ii. A is faster than B.

If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.

See Explanation
From statement I, we can find A’s speed. We also know that B takes 3(1/2) minutes
to run 100m. We can therefore, find B’s speed. We now know the ratio of speeds.
This ratio is also the ratio of distance covered by A and B in constant time. This ratio
can be used to calculate the distance A can give B in a 1400m race. Therefore,
statement I alone is sufficient to answer the QUESTION. Hence answer is (c).
QUESTION 24
Student in a school can choose one or more foreign languages from among German,
French and Russian. In a class of 250 student, 98 study French and German only.
No student studies only one language. How many student study all three languages?

I. All student in the class study German.

II. 102 student study only Russian and German.

If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient as we don’t know how many students learn all
three languages and also the number of students learning German and Russian
only.
Statement II alone is not sufficient as we don’t know how many students learning
German. If we combine both statements, we can draw a Venn diagram to represent
the given data and get the number of students learning all three languages as 50.
Hence answer is (d).
QUESTION 25

A man bought a horse and carriage in town A on Sunday. The following week, he
sold both, the horse and the carriage to a merchant in town E. On one, he gained
30% and on the other he incurred a loss of 30%. If the man’s total investment was
Rs.2800, what is the amount he gained or lost in the transaction?

I. The cost price of the horse was more than the cost price of the carriage.

II. The merchant paid equal amounts for the horse and the carriage.

If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.

See Explanation
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the QUESTION. Using statement II, we
can calculate the percent loss as (30 x 30)/100 = 9%. As we know the man’s
investment, we can calculate his loss in the transaction. Therefore, statement II
alone is sufficient to answer the QUESTION. Hence answer is (b).
QUESTION 26

How many students passed the exam if 20 students failed in the exam?

(I) Thousand students were issued hall tickets for the exam.

(II) 10% of the students who appeared for the exam failed.

If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.

See Explanation
Information given in the QUESTION has to be noted first. Number of students who
failed is given as 20.Statement I alone is not sufficient,since the number of students
who appeared is not known.Using statement II alone, if 10% of the students
appeared have failed, then 90% of students appeared have passed. It is given in the
QUESTION that 20 students have failed.
10% of appeared =20
90% of appeared can be found.
QUESTION 27

Identify which statement is sufficient to answer the given QUESTION.

What is the perimeter of the square?

(I) The side of the square is 5 cm.

(II) The diagonal of the square is 7.07 cm.

If the QUESTION can be answered either of the two statements I or II.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.

See Explanation
The perimeter of square can be calculated, if you know the side of the square.
However, if you know the diagonal, the side of the square can first be calculated and
then the perimeter of that. Thus, you can answer this QUESTION with the data given
in either of the two statements I or II.
QUESTION 28
A can do a piece of work in 18 days. If B joins A after 9 days, in how many days
more will the work be completed?
I. B works faster than A
II. The ratio of the measure of the amount of work done by A and B in one day is 2 :
3.
If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.
See Explanation
Statement I alone cannot answer the QUESTION as we cannot determine B’s rate of
work. From statement II, we can conclude that B, by himself , can complete the work
in 12 days. As we know the rate of A and B work, the QUESTION can be answered
with the help of statement II alone. Hence, the answer is (b).
QUESTION 29
Identify which statement is sufficient to answer the given QUESTION.
What is the value of X?
I. X4 = 2401
II. X2 + 3X - 24 = 0.5(6X + 50).
If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.
See Explanation
From statement I, we obtain X = +7 or -7. As we cannot uniquely determine the value
of X, statements I alone Is not sufficient to answer the QUESTION.
From statement II, we obtain X =+7 or -7. As we cannot uniquely determine the value
of X. So, even the two statements together are not sufficient to answer the
QUESTION. Hence the answer is "If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with
the help of both the statements together."
QUESTION 30
A,B and c are participating in a 200 yard race. How much can A give B in the race?
I. B can give C 24 metres in a km race.
II. A completes the race 4.50 minutes before B.
If the QUESTION cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements
together.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
If the QUESTION can be answered with the help of both statements together.
See Explanation
Neither of the two statement alone is sufficient to answer the QUESTION. Even if we
combine the two statements, we cannot obtain a relation between A,B and c.
Therefore, even the two statements together are not sufficient to answer the
QUESTION. Hence answer is (a).

QUESTION 1

Study the following table and answer the QUESTION(s) based on it.

(click the image to zoom)

QUESTION 2

The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?

Rs. 544.44 lakhs

Rs. 501.11 lakhs

Rs. 446.46 lakhs

Rs. 478.87 lakhs

See Explanation
Total expenditure of the Company during 2000
= Rs. (324 + 101 + 3.84 + 41.6 + 74) lakhs
= Rs. 544.44 lakhs.
QUESTION 3

The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total
expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?

4:7

10:13

15:18

5:8

See Explanation
Required ratio
= [ (83 + 108 + 74 + 88 + 98)/(98 + 112 + 101 + 133 + 142) ]
= [ 451/586]
= 1/1.3
= 10/13
QUESTION 4

What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay
during this period?
Rs. 32.43 lakhs

Rs. 33.72 lakhs

Rs. 34.18 lakhs

Rs. 36.66 lakhs

See Explanation
Average amount of interest paid by the Company during the given period
= Rs. [ 23.4 + 32.5 + 41.6 + 36.4 + 49.4 ]/5 lakhs
= Rs. [ 183.3 ]/5 lakhs
= Rs. 36.66 lakhs.
QUESTION 5

The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is
approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?

0.001

0.005

0.01

0.0125

See Explanation
Required percentage
= [ (3.00 + 2.52 + 3.84 + 3.68 + 3.96)/(288 + 342 + 324 + 336 + 420) ] x 100 %
= [ 17/1710 ] x 100 = 1% = 0.01
QUESTION 6

Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the
total expenditure in 2002?

0.62

0.66
0.69

0.71

See Explanation
Required percentage
= [ (288 + 98 + 3.00 + 23.4 + 83)/(420 + 142 + 3.96 + 49.4 + 98) x 100 ] %
= [ (495.4/713.36) x 100 ] %
~= 69.45%
=0.69
QUESTION 7

Study the following table and answer the QUESTIONs.

(click the image to zoom)

QUESTION 8

Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is
approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates qualified from all
the states together in 1998?

72%

77%

80%
83%

See Explanation
Required percentage
= [ (720 + 840 + 780 + 950 + 870)/(980 + 1050 + 1020 + 1240 + 940) x 100 ]%
= [ 4160/5230 x 100 ] %
= 79.54% ~= 80%.
QUESTION 9

In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P has
maximum percentage of qualified candidates?

1997

1998

1999

2001

See Explanation
The percentages of candidates qualified to candidates appeared from State P during
different years are:

For 1997 (780 /6400 x 100 ) % = 12.19%.

For 1998 (1020 /8800 x 100 ) % = 11.59%.

For 1999 (890 /7800 x 100 ) % = 11.41%.

For 2000 (1010 /8750 x 100 ) % = 11.54%.

For 2001 (1250 /9750 x 100 ) % = 12.82%.

Therefore Maximum percentage is for the year 2001.

QUESTION 10
What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years
together, over the candidates appeared from State N during all the years together?

12.39%

12.16%

11.47%

11.15%

See Explanation
Required percentage
= [ (840 + 1050 + 920 + 980 + 1020)/(7500 + 9200 + 8450 + 9200 + 8800) x 100 ] %
= [ 4810 /43150 x 100 ] %
= 11.15%
QUESTION 11

The percentage of total number of qualified candidates to the total number of

appeared candidates among all the five states in 1999 is?

11.49%

11.84%

12.21%

12.57%

See Explanation
Required percentage
= [ (850 + 920 + 890 + 980 + 1350)/(7400 + 8450 + 7800 + 8700 + 9800)x 100 ] %
= [ 4990/42150 x 100 ] %
= 11.84%.
QUESTION 12

Combining the states P and Q together in 1998, what is the percentage of the
candidates qualified to that of the candidate appeared?

10.87%
11.49%

12.35%

12.39%

See Explanation
Required percentage
= [ (1020 + 1240)/(8800 + 9500)x 100 ] %
= [ 2260/18300 x 100 ] %
= 12.35%.
QUESTION 13

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six
different subjects in an examination.

(click the image to zoom)

QUESTION 14

What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics?
(rounded off to two digit after decimal)

77.26

74.29

91.37
96.11

See Explanation
Average marks obtained in Physics by all the seven students
= 1/7 x [ (90% of 120) + (80% of 120) + (70% of 120) + (80% of 120) + (85% of 120)
+ (65% of 120) + (50% of 120) ]
= 1/7 x [ (90 + 80 + 70 + 80 + 85 + 65 + 50) ]
= 1/7x [ 520 ]
= 520/7
= 74.29
QUESTION 15

In which subject is the overall percentage the best?

Maths

Physics

Chemistry

History

See Explanation
We shall find the overall percentage (for all the seven students) with respect to each
subject.
The overall percentage for any subject is equal to the average of percentages
obtained by all the seven students since the maximum marks for any subject is the
same for all the students.
Therefore, overall percentage for: (i) Maths
= [ 1/7 x(90 + 100 + 90 + 80 + 80 + 70 + 65) ] %
= [ 1/7 x (575) ] %
= 82.14%.
(ii) Chemistry
= [ 1/7 x (50 + 80 + 60 + 65 + 65 + 75 + 35) ] %
= [ 1/7 x (430) ] %
= 61.43%.
(iii) Physics
= [ 1/7 x (90 + 80 + 70 + 80 + 85 + 65 + 50) ] %
= [ 1/7 x (520) ] %
= 74.29%.
(iv) Geography
= [ 1/7 x (60 + 40 + 70 + 80 + 95 + 85 + 77) ] %
= [ 1/7 x (507) ] %
= 72.43%.
(v) History
= [ 1/7 x (70 + 80 + 90 + 60 + 50 + 40 + 80) ] %
= [ 1/7 x (470) ] %
= 67.14%.
(vi) Comp. Science
= [ 1/7 x (80 + 70 + 70 + 60 + 90 + 60 + 80) ] %
= [ 1/7 x (510) ] %
= 72.86%.
Clearly, this percentage is highest for Maths.
QUESTION 16

The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in all subjects is?

None

See Explanation
From the table it is clear that Sajal and Rohit have 60% or more marks in each of the
six subjects.
QUESTION 17

The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states, P,
Q, R, S and T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex.
(click the image to zoom)

QUESTION 18

If the male population above poverty line for State R is 1.9 million, then the total
population of State R is?

4.5 Million

4.85 Million

5.35 Million

6.25 Million

See Explanation
Let the total population of State R be x million. Then, population of State R above
poverty line
= [(100 - 24)% of x] million
= ( 76/100) million
And so, male population of State R above poverty line
= [ 2/5x ( 76/100) ] million
But, it is given that male population of State R above poverty line = 1.9 million.
Thus, 2/5 x (76/100) = 1.9
=> x= (5 x 100 x 1.9)/(76 x 2) = 6.25.
Therefore Total population of State R = 6.25 million.
QUESTION 19

What will be the number of females above the poverty line in the State S if it is
known that the population of State S is 7 million?

3 million

2.43 million

1.33 million

5.7 million

See Explanation
Total population of State S = 7 million.
Therefore Population above poverty line
= [(100 - 19)% of 7] million
= (81% of 7) million
= 5.67 million.
And so, the number of females above poverty line in State S
= ( 3/7x 5.67 ) million
= 2.43 million.
QUESTION 20

What will be the male population above poverty line for State P if the female
population below poverty line for State P is 2.1 million?

2.1 million

2.3 million

2.7 million

3.3 million

See Explanation
Female population below the poverty line for State P = 2.1 million
Let the male population below the poverty line for State P be x million.
Then, 5 : 6 = x : 2.1
=> x = (2.1 x 5)/6 = 1.75.
Therefore Population below poverty line for State P = (2.1 + 1.75) million = 3.85
million.
Let the population above poverty line for State P by 'y' million.
Since, 35% of the total population of State P is below poverty line, therefore, 65% of
the total population of State P is above poverty line i.e., the ratio of population below
poverty line to that above poverty line for State P is 35 : 65.
Therefore 35 : 65 = 3.85 : y
=> y = 65 x 3.85 /35= 7.15.
Therefore Population above poverty line for State P = 7.15 million and so, male
population above poverty line for
State P = ( 6/13 x 7.15 ) million
= 3.3 million.
QUESTION 21

If the population of males below the poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for
State T is 6 million, then the total populations of States Q and T are in the ratio?

1:3

2:5

3:7

4:9

See Explanation
For State Q:
Male population below poverty line = 2.4 million.
Let the female population below poverty line be x million.
Then, 3 : 5 = 2.4 : x
=> x = 5 x 2.4/3= 4.
Therefore Total population below poverty line = (2.4 + 4) = 6.4 million.
If Nq be the total population of State Q, then,
25% of Nq = 6.4 million
=> Nq = ( 6.4 x 100/25 ) million = 25.6 million.
For State T:
Male population below poverty line = 6 million.
Let the female population below poverty line be y million.
Then, 5 : 3 = 6 : y
=> y = 3 x 6/5 = 3.6.
Therefore Total population below poverty line = (6 + 3.6) = 9.6 million.
If Nt be the total population of State T, then,
15% of Nt = 9.6 million
=> Nt = ( 9.6/15x 100 ) million = 64 million.
Thus, Required ratio = Nq/Nt = 25.6/64 = 0.4 = 2/5.
QUESTION 22

The following table shows the number of new employees added to different
categories of employees in a company and also the number of employees from
these categories who left the company every year since the foundation of the
Company in 1995.

(click the image to zoom)

QUESTION 23

For which of the following categories the percentage increase in the number of
employees working in the Company from 1995 to 2000 was the maximum?

Managers

Technicians
Operators

Accountants

See Explanation
Number of Managers working in the Company:
In 1995 = 760.
In 2000 = (760 + 280 + 179 + 148 + 160 + 193) - (120 + 92 + 88 + 72 + 96)
= 1252.
Therefore Percentage increase in the number of Managers
= [ (1252 - 760)/760x 100 ] % =64.74%.
Number of Technicians working in the Company:
In 1995 = 1200.
In 2000 = (1200 + 272 + 240 + 236 + 256 + 288) - (120 + 128 + 96 + 100 + 112)=
1936.
Percentage increase in the number of Technicians = [ (1936 - 1200)/1200x 100 ] % =
61.33%.
Number of Operators working in the Company:
In 1995 = 880.
In 2000 = (880 + 256 + 240 + 208 + 192 + 248) - (104 + 120 + 100 + 112 + 144)
= 1444.
Percentage increase in the number of Operators = [ (1444 - 880)/880x 100 ] % =
64.09%.
Number of Accountants working in the Company:
In 1995 = 1160.
In 2000 = (1160 + 200 + 224 + 248 + 272 + 260) - (100 + 104 + 96 + 88 + 92)
= 1884.
Percentage increase in the number of Accountants= [ (1884 - 1160)/1160x 100 ] % =
62.41%.
Number of Peons working in the Company:
In 1995 = 820.
In 2000 = (820 + 184 + 152 + 196 + 224 + 200) - (96 + 88 + 80 + 120 + 104)
= 1288.
Percentage increase in the number of Peons = [ (1288 - 820)/820x 100 ] % =
57.07%.
Clearly, the percentage increase is maximum in case of Managers.
QUESTION 24

During the period between 1995 and 2000, the total number of operators who left the
company is what percent of total number of operators who joined the Company?

19%

21%

27%

29%

See Explanation
Total number of Operators who left the Company during 1995 - 2000
= (104 + 120 + 100 + 112 + 144)
= 580.
Total number of Operators who joined the Company during 1995 - 2000
= (880 + 256 + 240 + 208 + 192 + 248)
= 2024.
Therefore Required Percentage = ( 580/2024 x 100 ) % = 28.66% ~= 29%.

QUESTION 25

What is the pooled average of the total number of employees of all categories in the
year 1997?

1325

1195

1265

1239

See Explanation
Total number of employees of various categories working in the Company in 1997
are:
Managers = (760 + 280 + 179) - (120 + 92) = 1007.
Technicians = (1200 + 272 + 240) - (120 + 128) = 1464.
Operators = (880 + 256 + 240) - (104 + 120) = 1152.
Accountants = (1160 + 200 + 224) - (100 + 104) = 1380.
Peons = (820 + 184 + 152) - (96 + 88) = 972.
Therefore Pooled average of all the five categories of employees working in the
Company in 1997
= 1/5 x (1007 + 1464 + 1152 + 1380 + 972)
= 1/5x (5975)
= 1195.
QUESTION 26

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups – PCB,
Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is
evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following
manner.

First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the
Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores.

The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English
Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table).

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the

student is a boy or a girl.
(click the image to zoom)

QUESTION 27

How much did Dipan get in English Paper II?

94

96.5

97

98

See Explanation
Dipan’s Group Scores are as follows:
PCB Group:
= 98 x 3/3=98
Mathematics Group: = 95
Social Science Group: =(96 + 95)/2 = 95.5
Vernacular Group:= (96 + 94)/2 = 95
Dipan’s final score = 96
⇒Sum of Dipan’s Group Scores:
= 96 x 5 = 480
⇒ 98 + 95 + 95.5 + 95 + 48 + x/2 = 480
⇒ x/2 = 48.5
⇒ x = 97
Dipan scored 97 marks in English Paper II.
QUESTION 28

Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to
apply for a prize. Among those who are eligible, the student obtaining the highest
Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded
to ?

Shreya

Ram

Ayesha

Dipan

See Explanation
From the table we can observe that only Dipan is eligible to apply for the prize.
So Dipan gets the prize.
QUESTION 29

Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social
Science Group, then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be ?

Pritam, Joseph, Tirna, Agni

Joseph, Tirna, Agni, Pritam

Pritam, Agni, Tirna, Joseph

Joseph, Tirna, Pritam, Agni

See Explanation
Group scores of Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna in Social Science Group are 95.5,
95.5, 89 and 89.5 respectively.
Their final scores are 95,94.3,93.9,93.7 respectively.
If their group scores in social science change to hundred their final scores will be
affected by
4.5/5,4.5/5,11/5 and 10.5/5 respectively.
Their new final scores would be 95.9,95.2,96.1 and 95.8 respectively.
Their standing in decreasing order of final score would be Pritam, Joseph, Tirna,
Agni.
QUESTION 30

The first graph gives the Turnover (in million dollars) of the company ABC for five
different products K, L, M, N and O for the year 2006 and the second graph gives the
profit (in percentages) earned by each product in 2006.
QUESTION 31

Which product has contributed the most to the total profit earned by the company
ABC?

See Explanation
The second graph shows the profit % of the company ABC. The profit % gives an
idea of how much profit a particular product gets on its sales. However, to find what
part of the total profit of the company it constitute, we will have to calculate the profit
values for each product and find out the highest contributor to the company's overall
profit.
Sales=cost + Profit.
Sales= Cost + (cost * Profit Percentage)
For Product K,
42 = cost * 1.25
Cost = 42/1.25
Profit = cost * Profit %
Profit= 42/1.25 * 0.25
=42/5 = 8.4 millions$
Similarly we can calculate for other products.
For L, profit=2.72 million $
For M, profit=3.72 million $
For N, profit=4 million $
For O, profit=12.5 million$.
Therefore Product O has contributed the most to the total profit earned by the
company ABC.
Answer is O.
QUESTION 32
The profit on product L is approximately what percentage of the profit on product N?

68%

75%

60%

None of these

See Explanation
We know that profits for
L=2.72 million $
M=3.27 million $
N= 4 million $
O=12.5 million $
Therefore Profit earned on product L as a percentage of profit earned on product N.
=2.72/4 * 100 = 68%
QUESTION 33

What is the total profit earned by ABC in 2006?

$35.32m

$31.34m

$28.76m

Cannot be determined

See Explanation
We know the profits of all the products,

Therefore total profit of the company ABC

=8.4+2.72+3.72+4+12.5
-$31.34 m
Hence the answer is $31.34m
QUESTION 34
The turnover of product M in 2007 increases by a %. If the profit generated by M is
$5 m, then what is the approximate value of a?(Assume Profitability to remain
constant.)

36%

31%

28%

34%

See Explanation
The profitability of product M in 2007 remains same as in 2006 = 16%
Total profit earned on M=$5 m
therefore Profit=Profitability * cost
5= 16/100 * cost
Cost of product M = $31.25m
Turnover of M in 2007=Cost + profit
=31.25 +5
=$36.25m
Percentage increase in turnover of the company for year 2007 over 2006 due to
product M.
=(36.25-27)/27 * 100
=34%
Hence answer is 34%
QUESTION 35

Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA
and a select few Asian countries. The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local
currencies. A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not
the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant
repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of
poor quality of surgery is given in the table below.
(click the image to zoom)

QUESTION 36

The rupee value increases to Rs. 35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including
quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars,
between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?

700

2500
4500

8000

See Explanation
Cost of spinal fusion in India:
= Rs.5500×40.928
Cost with the increased value of Rupee:
= 5500 × 40.928 / 35 = 6431 USD
Cost of Spinal Fusion in Singapore =9000 USD
Required difference: = 9000–6431 = 2569 USD
QUESTION 37

Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she
were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into
account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for oneway travel between
Thailand and India ?

23500

40500

57500

67500

See Explanation
Cost of Hysterectomy in Thailand:
=4500+6000=10500 USD
Cost of Hysterectomy in India:
=3000+5000=8000 USD
Travelling cost: = 15000 Bahts = 15000/32.89 USD =456 USD
Required difference:
=10500–8456
=2044 USD
=2044×32.89=67227 Bahts
QUESTION 38
A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and
a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the
government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package,
taking cost of poor quality into account?

India

Thailand

Malaysia

Singapore

See Explanation
As shown in the table, Malaysia will have the cheapest package.

QUESTION 1

Each QUESTION given below has a statement followed by four different

statements. Choose the one which is the correct negation of the given
statement.

QUESTION 2

Hitchcock cannot trace the culprit, only if there is no clue.

There is no clue, but Hitchcock could trace the culprit.

Hitchcock could trace the culprit, because there is clue.

There is a clue and Hitchcock could trace the culprit.

Neither is there a clue, nor could Hitchcock trace the culprit.

See Explanation
The event "Hitchcock cannot trace the culprit" can happen only when the event
"there is no clue" happens. Also, if the event "there is no clue" does not happen, then
the event "Hitchcock cannot trace the culprit" cannot happen. In other words, if it is
true that there is a clue, then it implies that Hitchcock could trace the culprit.
QUESTION 3
Paul is popular either as a lead guitarist or as a base guitarist.

Paul is popular as a lead guitarist but not as a base guitarist.

Paul is famous neither as a lead guitarist nor as base guitarist.

Paul is not popular as base guitarist but popular as a lead guitarist.

Paul is popular as both a lead guitarist as a base guitarist.

See Explanation
The given statement implies that Paul is popular as at least one image. Hence, if it is
true that Paul is not popular as a base guitarist, then it implies that he is popular as a
lead guitarist.
QUESTION 4

Only if Tara is happy, then she does not go to work.

Tara is not happy and she does not go to work.

Tara is happy and she goes to work.

Tara is not happy and she goes to work.

Tara is happy and she does not go to work.

See Explanation
The event of "Tara is not going to work" happens only when the event "Tara is
happy" happens. Also, if the event "Tara is happy" does not happen, then the event
"Tara is not going to work" will not happen. In other words, if it is true that Tara is not
happy, then it means that Tara is going to work.
QUESTION 5

The loan will not be recovered or the deposit will be returned.

The load will be recovered and the deposit will not be returned.

The loan will not be recovered and the deposit will be returned.
The deposit will not be returned and the loan will not be recovered.

The deposit will be returned and the loan will be recovered.

See Explanation
Either one of the two events "The loan will not be recovered" or "The deposit will be
returned" should happen. If it is true that the deposit will not be returned, then it is
true that the loan will not be recovered.
QUESTION 6

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Teachers can teach, only if students are interested.

A. Teachers can teach.

B. Student are not interested.

C. Teachers cannot teach.

D. Student are interested.

AB

BC

DA

CD

See Explanation
It can be concluded from the given statement that the event of "Teachers teaching"
can happen only when students are interested or else it cannot happen. This has a
reverse implication that if in case students are not interested, then teachers cannot
teach. This is expressed by the choice BC.
QUESTION 7
In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four
statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Vijay gets the first rank, whenever he is happy.

A. Vijay has not got the first rank.

B. Vijay has got the first rank.

C. Vijay is happy.

D. Vijay is not happy.

CB

BC

DA

BC and DA

See Explanation
From the given statement, it is evident that if Vijay is happy, then he will get the first
rank. This particular conclusion is exhibited by choice CB and hence is the correct
answer.
QUESTION 8

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Mohit is suffering either from inferiority complex or from superiority complex.

A. Mohit is not suffering from superiority complex.

B. Mohit is suffering from inferiority complex.

C. Mohit is not suffering from inferiority complex.

D. Mohit is suffering from superiority complex.

AB

AC

BC

DC

See Explanation
It can be concluded from the given sentence that Mohit is suffering from either one of
the two conditions - inferiority complex or superiority complex. If it is true that Mohit is
not suffering from superiority complex, then it can only imply that he is suffering from
inferiority complex. This is consistent with the answer choice AB
QUESTION 9

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

If the coffee is hot, then Rahim cannot drink it.

A. Rahim can drink coffee.

B. The coffee is not hot.

C. Rahim cannot drink coffee.

D. The coffee is hot.

CB

AB

AB and BC

AB and DC

See Explanation
It can be concluded from the given sentence that if the coffee is hot then it implies
that Rahim will not be able to drink it. This conclusion is mentioned as DC. Also, the
event of "Rahim drinking the coffee" can only happen if the coffee is not hot. This
second conclusion is expressed by AB.
QUESTION 10

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Only if Sheela does not come, Githa will come to play.

Sheela came. Hence, Githa will also come to play.

Githa will not come to play. Hence, Sheela will come.

Githa has come to play implies that Sheela is not coming.

Sheela has not come. Hence, Githa has come to play.

See Explanation
It can be concluded from the given sentence that the event of "Githa coming to play"
will only happen if Sheela does not come to play. The answer choice states this
conclusion similarly as "Githa has come to play implies that Sheela is not coming.
QUESTION 11

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Whenever it is hot, I wear a slack.

It is hot implies I am wearing a slack.

I did not wear a slack implies that it is hot.

It is hot but I did not wear a slack.

Both " It is hot implies I am wearing a slack." and " Whenever it is hot, I wear a
slack."

See Explanation
The event of the speaker wearing a slack happens whenever it is hot. Hence, it is hot
implies that speaker is wearing a slack. In reverse terms, if the speaker did not wear
slacks, then must imply that it is not hot. Hence, only one of the terms is correct
QUESTION 12

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

If the movie is good, then I’ll watch it.

I watched a movie means it is good.

The movie is good, hence do not watch it.

I did not watch a movie, although it was good.

I did not watch a movie implies that the movie was not good.

See Explanation
The action of the speaker watching the movie will happen if the movie is good. This
can be paraphrased as "I watched a movie means it is good" and hence is the
answer.
QUESTION 13

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Either Sanjay cooks or Vijay brings the food parcel.

Sanjay cooks means Vijay will not bring the food parcel.

Vijay did not bring the food parcel, hence Sanjay cooked.

Sanjay is cooking hence Vijay has brought the food parcel.

Vijay did not bring food parcel implies that Sanjay did not cook.

See Explanation
From the given sentence, it can be implied that either one of the two events must
happen. Either Sanjay will cook or Vijay brings the food parcel. If it is true that Vijay
did not bring the food parcel, it implies that Sanjay cooked. This is elaborated in the
answer choice.
QUESTION 14

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Vinay plays badminton, only if he wears red or black.

Vinay plays badminton Implies he wears red and black

Vinay plays badminton but he does not wear red hence he wears black.

Vinay wears neither red nor black implies he may play badminton.

Vinay plays badminton wearing black, implies he does not wear red.

See Explanation
If Vinay plays badminton, it implies that he wears at least one of the colours red or
black. Hence, if Vinay plays badminton but he does not wear red, then it implies that
he wears black. This is incorporated by the answer choice.
QUESTION 15

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Players can play, only if weather is good.

A. Players can play.

B. Weather is not good.

C. Players cannot play.

D. Weather is good.

AB

BC

DA

CD

See Explanation
From the given sentence, it is clear that if in case the weather is not good, then there
is no chance that players can play. Hence, BC is the correct answer.
QUESTION 16

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Vijay is sad, whenever he gets the last rank.

A. Vijay has not got the last rank.

B. Vijay has got the last rank.

C. Vijay is sad.

D. Vijay is not sad.

CB
BC

DA

BC and DA

See Explanation
There are two implications that can be made form the given sentence. Vijay has got
the last rank implies that Vijay is sad. Also, Vijay is not sad implies that he has not
got the last rank. Hence, BC and DA is the correct answer.
QUESTION 17

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

If the cola is hot, then Ram cannot drink it

A. Ram can drink cola.

B. The cola is not hot.

C. Ram cannot drink cola.

D. The cola is hot.

CB

AB

AB and BC

AB and DC

See Explanation
There can be two implications made from the given sentence. Ram can drink the
cola implies that it is not hot. The cola is hot implies that Ram cannot drink it. This is
given by choice AB and DC.
QUESTION 18

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Only if Kirti does not come, then Durga will come to play.

Kirti came hence Durga will also come to play

Durga will not come to play. Hence, Sheela will come.

Durga has come to play means Kirti has not come.

Kirti has not come hence Durga has come to play.

See Explanation
From the given sentence it can implied that if Durga has come to play then it implies
that Kirti has not come.
QUESTION 19

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Whenever it is cold, I wear a jacket.=

It is cold implies I am wearing a jacket.

It is cold but I did not wear the jacket.

It was not cold but I did not wear the jacket.

Both "It is cold implies I am wearing a jacket." and "It is cold but I did not wear the
jacket."

See Explanation
From the given sentence it can be concluded that if it is cold then it can be implied
that the speaker is wearing a jacket.
QUESTION 20

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

If the food is good, then I eat it.

I ate the food means it is good.

The food is good, hence I do not eat it.

I did not eat food, though it was good.

I did not eat food implies that the food was not good.

See Explanation
From the given sentence, it can be concluded that if the speaker did not eat the food,
then it implies that the food is not good.
QUESTION 21

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Whenever the employees want a hike, they go on strike.

A. The employees do not want a hike.

B. The employees want a hike.

C. The employees went on strike.

D. The employees did not go on strike.

CB

BD

DA

DB

See Explanation
From the given sentence, it can be concluded that if the employees did not go on
strike then it implies that the employees do not want a hike. Hence, DA is the
answer.
QUESTION 22

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Either they use the computer or Abacus.

A. They use the computer.

B. They do not use Abacus.

C. They do not use the computer.

D. They use Abacus.

AB

BA

DC
AD

See Explanation
The given sentence indicates that either of two statements are possible. Either they
use the computer or they use the Abacus. From this it can be concluded that if they
do not use the abacus, then they use the computer. Hence, BA is the answer.
QUESTION 23

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

If it is very hot outside, then I will carry an onion with me and I will return home by
lunch time.

I will not carry an onion with me or I will not return home by lunch time, means that it
is not very hot outside.

It is not very hot outside means that I will not carry an onion with me and I will not
return home by lunch time.

I will not carry an onion with me and I will return home by lunch time means that it is
not very hot outside.

I will carry an onion with me and I will return home by lunch time means that is very
hot outside.

See Explanation
From the given sentence it is clear that if either one of the events "I will carry an
onion with me" or "I will return home by lunch time" does not happen, then it implies
that it is not very hot outside. This is indicated by the option "I will not carry an onion
with me or I will not return home by lunch time, means that it is not very hot outside."
and hence is the answer.
QUESTION 24
In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four
statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

If Ramesh leaves his job, then he will join for an MBA course or for an MCA course

Ramesh has joined neither an MBA course nor an MCA course, implies that he has
not left his job.

Ramesh has not left his job, implies that he will not join an MBA course or he will not
join an MCA course.

Ramesh has joined an MBA course or an MCA course, implies that he has not left
his job.

Ramesh has not left his job, implies that he will not join an MBA course and he will
not join an MCA course.

See Explanation
From the given statement it can be concluded that if Ramesh does not join either of
the courses, then it could only mean that he did not leave his job. The answer choice
speaks along the same lines.
QUESTION 25

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Dancers can dance, only if stage is good.

A. Dancers can dance.

B. Stage is not good.

C. Dancers cannot dance.

D. stage is good.
AB

BC

DA

CD

See Explanation
From the conditions mentioned in the passage, we can conclude that only if the
stage is good, then the dancers can dance. Therefore, if the stage is not good,
dancers cannot dance.
QUESTION 26

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Unless the architecture is good, the building will not be attractive.

The architecture is good means the building is attractive.

The building is not attractive means the architecture is not good.

The architecture is good, means the building is not attractive.

The building is attractive means the architecture is good.

See Explanation
From the given sentence, it can be inferred that the building can be attractive only if
the pre-requisite, the architecture is good. Hence, if it is known that the building is
attractive, then it implies that the architecture is good.
QUESTION 27

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

If the Lawyer is taller than Engineer, then the Lawyer is shorter than Professor. It is
known that no two of them are of equal heights.

The Lawyer is shorter than Engineer means he is taller than Professor.

The Professor is taller than Lawyer means Engineer is shorter than Lawyer.

The Professor is shorter than Lawyer means Lawyer is shorter than Engineer.

The Lawyer is shorter than Engineer means Professor is shorter than the Engineer.

See Explanation
From the given sentence, two implications can be made. Firstly, if it is true that the
Lawyer is taller than the Engineer, then it implies that the Lawyer is shorter than the
Professor. Also, if it is true that the Lawyer is not shorter than the Professor, then the
Lawyer is not taller than the Engineer. In other words, the Professor is shorter than
the Lawyer means that the Lawyer is shorter than Engineer, which is one of the
given options.
QUESTION 28

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

If Dev eats chicken, then it is either KFC or BBQ.

Dev eats chicken but it is not BBQ, means it is KFC.

Dev eats chicken but it is not KFC, means it is BBQ.

The chicken is neither BBQ nor KFC, means Dev does not eat the chicken.

All the other options.

See Explanation
It can be concluded from given conditions that Dev eats chicken only if the chicken is
KFC or BBQ. Thus, Dev eats chicken but it is not BBQ, means it is KFC, or, Dev eats
chicken but it is not KFC, means it is BBQ. Also, the chicken is neither BBQ nor
KFC, means Dev does not eat the chicken.Therefore, all follow.
QUESTION 29

In the following QUESTION, there is a main statement followed by four

statements A, B, C and D. From the choices choose the pair in which the first
statement implies the second statement and the two are logically consistent
with the main statement.

Only if he is going to sleep then he reads English or solves Logical reasoning.

He is going to sleep means he reads English or he solves Logical reasoning.

He is not reading English but solving Logical reasoning means he is going to sleep.

He is not reading English and not solving Logical reasoning means he is not going to
sleep.

He is not going to sleep and he is not reading English means he is solving Logical
reasoning.

See Explanation
Either of the actions "He reads English" or "He solves Logical Reasoning" happens
only when he is going to sleep. Hence, if it is true that he is not reading English but
solving Logical Reasoning, it can only mean that he is going to sleep. This statement
is expressed by the given answer option.

QUESTION 1
If 12% of x is equal to 6% of y, then 18% of x will be equal to how much % of y ?
7%
9%
11%
none of these
See Explanation
We have ,
12% of X = 6% of Y
=> 2% of X = 1% of Y
=>(2 x 9)% of X = ( 1 x 9)% of Y
Thus, 18% of X = 9% of Y.
QUESTION 2

If the given two numbers are respectively 7% and 28% of a third number, then what
percentage is the first of the second ?

20%

25%

18%

none of these

See Explanation
Here, l = 7 and m = 28
Therefore, first number = l/m x 100% of second number = 7/28 x 100% of second
number = 25% of second number
QUESTION 3

Two numbers are respectively 40% and 30% more than a third number. The second
number expressed in terms of percentage of the first is ? (approx)

95%

93%

90%

none of these

See Explanation
Here, x = 40 and y = 30;
Therefore second number
= [[( 100 + y)/ (100 + x )] x 100 ]% of first number
= [[( 100 + 30)/ (100 + 40 )] x 100 ]% of first number
= 92.8% of the first
QUESTION 4

Two numbers are less than a third number by 40% and 47% respectively. How much
per cent is the second number less than the first ?(approx)

95%

88%

85%

none of these

See Explanation
Here, x = 40 and y = 47
Therefore second number
= [[(100 - y)/(100 - x )] x 100 ]% of first number
= [[(100 - 47)/(100 - 40 )] x 100 ]% of first number
i.e, 88.3% of the first.
QUESTION 5

If a number is 20% more than the another, how much % is the smaller number less
than the greater number?

12(1/3)%

16(2/3)%

16(1/3)%

none of these

See Explanation
Let the smaller number be 100.
Then the first number will be 120.
% the smaller number is less than the greater number = [(20/(120)) x 100]% =
16(2/3)%.
QUESTION 6
A man’s wages were decreased by 50%. Again, the reduced wages were increased
by 50%. He has a loss of?
35%
25%
20%
none of these
See Explanation
Here, x = - 50 and y = 50
Therefore, the net % change in value
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [- 50 + 50 + ( -50 x 50)/100]% or - 25%
Since the sign is negative, there is loss of 25%
QUESTION 7
The price of cooking oil has increased by 25%. The percentage of reduction that a
family should effect in the use of cooking oil so as not to increase the expenditure on
this account is?
25%
20%
23%
none of these
See Explanation
Reduction in consumption
= [(P/(100 + P)] X 100)%
= [(25/(100 + 25)] X 100)%
= 20%
QUESTION 8
If the price of bananas goes down by 10%, find the percentage of increase that a
family should effect in its consumption so as not to increase expenditure on this
account?
13(1/9)%
15(1/9)%
11(1/9)%
none of these
See Explanation
Increase in consumption
= [(P/(100 - P)] X 100)%
= [(10/(100 - 10)] X 100)%
= 11(1/9)%
QUESTION 9
A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, the final value of the
number is ?
does not change
decreases by 2%
increases by 4%
decreases by 4%
See Explanation
Here, x = 20 and y = - 20
Therefore, the net % change in value
= ( x + y + xy/100)%
= [20 - 20 + (20x - 20)/100]% or - 4%
Since the sign is negative, there is a decrease in value by 4%.
QUESTION 10
A batsman scored 120 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent
of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?
50%
40%
60%
70%
See Explanation
Number of runs made by running = 110 - (3 x 4 + 8 x 6)

= 120 - (60)

= 60

Now, we need to calculate 60 is what percent of 120.

=> 60/120 x 100 = 50 %
QUESTION 11
A shopkeeper marks the price of his goods at 25% higher than the original price.
After that, he allows a discount of 12%. What profit or loss does he get?
10% profit
15% profit
10% loss
15% loss
See Explanation
Here, x = 25 and y = - 12
Therefore, the net % change in value
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [25 - 12 + ( -12 x 25)/100]% or 10%
Since the sign is positive , there is a profit of 10%
QUESTION 12
The tax on a commodity is diminished by 10% and its consumption increases by
10%. Find the effects on revenue ?
1% decrease
2% increase
3% decrease
none of these
See Explanation
Since tax consumption = revenue .
Therefore, Net % change in revenue
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [ - 10 + 10 + ( - 10 x 10)/100]% or -1% .
Therefore, revenue decreased by 1%.
QUESTION 13
The radius of a sphere is increased by 10%. The surface area increases by?
21%
31%
41%
none of these
See Explanation
Since 4 x pi x radius x radius = surface area.
Therefore, net % change in area
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [10 + 10 + (10 x 10)/100]% or 21%.
QUESTION 14
When the price of an article is reduced by 30%, the sales increases by 50%. The
percentage change in the total amount of receipts is?
5% decrease
5% increase
10% decrease
none of these
See Explanation
We have, receipts = Price x Sales
Therefore, net % change in receipts
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [ - 30 + 50 + ( - 30 x 50)/100]% = 5% increase.
QUESTION 15
If the side of a square is increased by 55%, its area is increased by?
140%
145%
150%
none of these
See Explanation
Since Side x Side = Area
Therefore, net% change in area
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [55 + 55 + (55 x 55)/100]% or 140.25%
Therefore, area is increased by 140.25%
QUESTION 16
The length and breadth of a square are increased by 40% and 30% respectively.
The area of the rectangle so formed exceeds the area of the square by ?
82%
78%
80%
none of these
See Explanation
Since Side1 x Side2 = Area
Therefore, net% change in area
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [40 + 30 + (40 x 30)/100]% or 82%.
Therefore, area is increased by 82%.
QUESTION 17
In measuring the sides of a rectangle, one side is taken 20% in excess and the other
10% in deficit. Find the error per cent in area calculated from the measurement?
12% deficit
10% excess
8% excess
none of these
See Explanation
Since Side1 x Side2 = Area
Therefore, error% in area
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [20 - 10 + ( -10 x 20)/100]% or 8%
i.e., 8% excess
QUESTION 18
Water tax is increased by 40% but its consumption is decreased by 40%. The
increase or decrease in the expenditure is?
16% decrease
16% increase
8% decrease
8% increase
See Explanation
Since Tax x Consumption = Expenditure .
Therefore, Net % change in expenditure
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [40 - 40 + (40 x - 40)/100]% or -16%.
Therefore, expenditure decreased by 16%.
QUESTION 19
On decreasing the price of a colour TV by 20%, its sale is increased by 30%. The
effect on the revenue is?
4% decrease
4% increase
16% decrease
none of these
See Explanation
Net% change in revenue
= ( x + y + xy/100) %
= [-20 + 30 + ( -20 x 30)/100]% or 4%.
QUESTION 20
The value of a machine depreciates at the rate of 10% every year. It was purchased
3 years ago. If its present value is Rs 8,748, its purchase price was?
Rs 16,000
Rs 18,000
Rs 12,000
none of these
See Explanation
We have P = 8748, R = -10 and n = 3
Therefore, the purchase price of the machine
= P/(1 + (R/100))n = 8748/(1 - (10/100))3
= 8748 x (100/90) x (100/90) x (100/90)
= 12,000.
QUESTION 21
The income of a company increases 30% per annum. If its income is Rs 26,64,000 in
the year 1999, what was its income in the year 1997?
Rs.15,68,542
Rs.16,55,423
Rs.15,76,331
none of these
See Explanation
We have P = 2664000, R = 30 and n = 2
Therefore Company’s income in 1977
= P/(1 + (R/100))n = 2664000/(1 + (30/100))2
= Rs 15,76,331.
QUESTION 22
The value of a machine is Rs 6,250. It decreases by 20% during the first , 40%
during the second year and 30% during the third year. What will be the value of the
machine after 3 years?
Rs 2,100
Rs 2,200
Rs 2,152
none of these
See Explanation
Here A = 6250, x = - 20, y = - 40 and z = - 30
Therefore value of the machine after 3 years
= A ( 1 + x/100) ( 1 + y/100) ( 1 + z/100)
= 6250 ( 1 - 20/100) ( 1 - 40/100) ( 1 - 30/100)
= (6250 x 80 x 60 x 70) / (100 x 100 x 100)
= Rs 2,100
QUESTION 23
The population of a town increases by 12% during first year and decreased by 10%
during second year. If the present population is 50,400, what it was 2 years ago?
40,000
35,000
50,000
none of these
See Explanation
Here A = 50400, x = 12, y = - 10
Therefore, the population 2 years ago
= A /[( 1 + x/100) ( 1 + y/100)]
= 50400 / [( 1 + 12/100) ( 1 - 10/100)]
= (50400 x 100 x 100) / (112 x 90)
= 50,000.
QUESTION 24
Kailash loses 20% of his pocket money. After spending 25% of the remainder he has
Rs 480 left. What was his pocket money?
Rs 600
Rs 800
Rs 900
none of these
See Explanation
Let A be the pocket money,
A ( 1 + x/100) ( 1 + y/100) = 480 (Given)
Here x = - 20, y = - 25
Therefore,
A( 1 - 20/100) ( 1 - 25/100) = 480
A = (480 x 100 x 100) / (80 x 75) = Rs 800
QUESTION 25
The daily wage is increased by 50% and a person now gets Rs 25 per day. What
was his daily wage before the increase ?
Rs 20
Rs 16.6
Rs 18
none of these
See Explanation
Let A be the daily wages before the increase,
A ( 1 + x/100) = 25 (Given)
Here, x = 50
Therefore, A( 1 + 50/100) = 25
A = (25 x 100) / (150) = Rs 16.6.
QUESTION 26
A student has to secure 30% marks to get through. If he gets 80 marks and fails by
70 marks, find the maximum marks set for the examination.
500
1000
1200
none of these
See Explanation
Here, x = 30 , y = 80 and z = 70
Therefore, Maximum marks = [100( y + z )] / x.
= [100( 80 + 70 )]/30
= 500.
QUESTION 27
Mr Katial buys a house for Rs 1,00,000 and rents it. He puts 12.5% of each month’s
rent aside for upkeep and repairs, pays Rs 325 per year as taxes and realizes 5.5%
annually on his investment . Find the monthly rent?
Rs 634.76
Rs 554.76
Rs 654.76
none of these
See Explanation
Let the monthly rent be Rs X.
We have,
5.5% of 100000 = 12 (X - 12.5% of X) - 325
5500/12 = X - (X/8) - 325/12
5500/12 + 325/12 = 7/8 x X
X = 5825/12 x 8/7
Rs 554.76 per month
QUESTION 28
In an examination, there were 2,000 candidates, out of which 900 candidates were
girls and rest were Boys. If 38% of the boys and 32% of the girls passed, then the
total percentage of failed candidates is?
35.67%
64.75%
68.57%
none of these
See Explanation
Girls = 900, Boys = 1100
Passed = ( 38% of 1100 ) + ( 32% of 900)
= 418 + 288 = 706
Failed = 2000 - 706 = 1294
Failed % = [(1294/2000) x 100]% = 64.7%.
QUESTION 29
From the salary of Rahul, 20% is deducted as house rent, 10% of the rest he spends
on children’s education and 10% of the balance, he spends on clothes. After this
expenditure he is left with Rs 1,377. His salary is?
Rs 2,125
Rs 2,040
Rs 2,100
Rs 2,200
See Explanation
Suppose that his salary = Rs 100
House rent = Rs 20, balance = Rs 80
Expenditure on education = Rs (10 x 80)/100 = Rs 8
Balance = Rs 72
Expenditure on clothes Rs (10 x 72)/100 = Rs 7.2
Balance now = Rs 64.8
If balance is Rs 64.8, salary = Rs 100
If balance is Rs 1,377, salary
= Rs (100 x 1377) / 64.8
Rs 2,125
QUESTION 30
The price of pulses has fallen by 20%. How many quintals can be bought for the
same amount which was sufficient to buy 18 quintals at the higher price?
20
22.5
25
30
See Explanation
80% of original price can buy = 18 quintals.
Therefore, he can buy ( 18 x 100 )/ 80 = 22.5 quintals at the lower price.

QUESTION 1
Frugal : Parsimonious :: ?
Joy : Ecstasy
Poor : Misery
Love : Hate
Rich : Poor
See Explanation
Frugal and parsimonious are synonyms of each other and bear the meaning ’being
stingy’. Similarly, joy and ecstasy are related to happiness.
QUESTION 2
Automobile : Petrol :: ?
Fire : Fuel
Plane : Propeller
Diesel : Gas
Man : Food
See Explanation
An automobile needs petrol to function. Similarly, man needs food in order to
function.
QUESTION 3
Paw : Cat :: Hoof :
Dog
Lamb
Horse
Elephant
See Explanation
The cat’s foot is called a paw. The horse’s foot is called a hoof.
QUESTION 4
Calf : Cow :: Puppy : ?
Cub
Kitten
Dog
Snake
See Explanation
A calf’s parent is cow and puppy’s parent is dog.
QUESTION 5
Race : Fatigue :: Fast : ?
Hunger
Food
Laziness
Sleepy
See Explanation
Running a race would result in fatigue. Similarly, fasting would result in hunger.
QUESTION 6
Reading : Knowledge :: Work : ?
Money
Employment
Engagement
Experience
See Explanation
’Knowledge’ is achieved by ’Reading’. In the same way, ’Experience’ is achieved by
’Work’.
QUESTION 7
Chatter : Teeth :: ? : Leaves
whistle
ripple
rustle
cackle
See Explanation
The first term is the noise produced by the second term.
QUESTION 8
Lumberjack : Axe :: Chef : ?
Chisel
Spear
Poker
Colander
See Explanation
The second term is the tool used by the first term.
QUESTION 9
Tungsten : Filament :: Tree : ?
graphite
paper
wool
fabric
See Explanation
The first term is used in the production of the second.
QUESTION 10
Letter : Word ::
club : people
product : factory
page : book
homework : school
See Explanation
A group of letters form a word. Similarly, a group of pages combined together form a
book.
QUESTION 11
Cyclone : Devastation :: Seaquake : ?
shore
elegance
corrosion
huge waves
See Explanation
The first term results in the second term.
QUESTION 12
Brick : Clay :: Ruby : ?
graphite
corundum
diamond
pearl
See Explanation
The second term is used in making the first.
QUESTION 13
Sugar : Molasses :: Gasoline : ?
Mine
Quarry
Gas
Petroleum
See Explanation
The first term is obtained from the second term.
QUESTION 14
Happiness : Sorrow :: Comfort : ?
hardship
easy
difficult
erase
See Explanation
Both terms in their respective sets are antonyms of each other.
QUESTION 15

Find the pair of words which exhibits the same relationship as that of the lead pair.

Numismatist : Coins :: ?

jeweller : jewellery

geneticist : chromosomes

philatelist : stamps

grisly : appearance

See Explanation
Just as a numismatist collects coins, a philatelist collects stamps.
QUESTION 16
Find the analogy.
Candle : Wick :: ?
Hammer : Nail
Oven : Fire
Bicycle : Wheel
Pride : Grief
See Explanation
Wick is part of a candle. Similarly, wheel is a part of bicycle.
QUESTION 17
Bacteria : Decomposition :: ?
volcano : eruption
oxygen : water
antibiotic : injection
yeast : fermentation
See Explanation
Bacteria are minute organisms which cause decomposition; yeasts are minute
organisms which cause fermentation.
QUESTION 18
Palate : Mouth ::
hill : sky
sparrow : nest
rivulet : dam
ceiling : room
See Explanation
Palate is the roof of the mouth. Similarly, ceiling is the roof of the room.
QUESTION 19
Legend : Map ::
Glossary : Text
Volume : Guidebook
Pitcher : Jar
Essay : Subject
See Explanation
Legend explains the symbols used in the map; glossary explains the technical terms
of the text.
QUESTION 20
Eulogy : Praise ::
requiem : happiness
elegy : mourning
encomium : critic
joy : sorrow
See Explanation
Eulogy is a speech or writing praising the dead; elegy is a mourning poem sang for
the dead.
QUESTION 21
Ship : Captain :: Newspaper : ?
reader
editor
publisher
printer
See Explanation
A captain is responsible for all operations on ship, likewise, an editor is responsible
for all the operations in newspaper.
QUESTION 22
Atheist: Belief :: Indigent :
arrogance
beauty
patience
money
See Explanation
The second term is what the first term lacks.
QUESTION 23
Novice : Learner :: Harbinger : ?
Messenger
Con
Sergent
Scholar
See Explanation
Words in each pair are synonyms.
QUESTION 24
Rabbit : Burrow :: Lunatic : ?
Prison
Cell
Barrack
Asylum
See Explanation
A rabbit dwells in a burrow. Similarly, a lunatic dwells in an asylum.
QUESTION 25
Melt : Liquid :: Freeze : ?
condense
solid
crystal
ray
See Explanation
The first term is the process of formation of second term.
QUESTION 26
Amber : Yellow :: Caramine : ?
red
green
violet
chocolate
See Explanation
Amber is a shade of yellow and caramine is a shade of red.
QUESTION 27
Die : Dice ::
data : data
monkey : chimps
Mouse : mice
dates : datum
See Explanation
The second term is the plural form of the first term.
QUESTION 28
Elevated : Exalted :: ?
disorderly : unfaithful
intense : low
dirty : filthy
promoted : excellence
See Explanation
The second term is a more intense form of the first term.
QUESTION 29
Day : Week :: ?
year : week
second : time
time : duration
week : month
See Explanation
The second term is the finite collection of the first term.
QUESTION 30
Radical : Moderate :: Revolution : ?
change
chaos
stagnation
reformation
See Explanation
Words in each pair are antonyms to each other.

QUESTION 1

Identify the part which has error in it.

The creature on Mars, if any, (A) / are bound to be very different from us (B) / not
only in shape but also in size (C) / because of different gravitational conditions (D).

See Explanation
’The creature on Mars, if any,’ in the sentence should be replaced by ’the creatures
on Mars, if any’.
The plural of ’creatures is used to agree with the verb ’are’ and to correspond with ’if
any’. A verb must agree with its subject in number and person. The plural ’parts’ fits
in with the verb ’were’.
QUESTION 2

Spot the part that has error in it.

Each of the speakers whom I invited (A) / to participate in the debate has (B) /
indicated their unwillingness (C) / because of the short notice (D).

See Explanation
’Indicated their unwillingness’ in the sentence should be replaced by ’indicated his
unwillingness’.
In referring to any body, everybody, everyone, anyone, each etc., the pronoun of the
masculine or the feminine gender is used according to the context. But when the
gender is not determined, we use the pronoun of the masculine gender, as there is
no singular pronoun of the third person to represent both male and female.
QUESTION 3

Spot the part that has error in it.

She was wearing a wig that was (A) / far more attractive than (B) / the other women
who had (C) / their natural hair (D).

D
See Explanation
There is ambiguity in the sentence. The wig should be compared to the natural hair
of the women and not to the women.
QUESTION 4

Find the correct alternative for the underlined part.

Mahatma Gandhi is credited as having championed a nonviolent approach to reform

as a practical and moral means to struggle against social injustice.

as having

with having

to have

as the one who

See Explanation
In English it is idiomatic usage to credit someone ’with' having done something.
QUESTION 5

Find the error in the underlined sentence and answer the correct one from the given
options.

The strand fills with water during the rainy season that the peat then holds and keeps
it humid, all of which creates conditions enabling trees to grow.

enabling trees to grow.

for the trees to grow.

for growing trees.

that enable the trees to grow.

See Explanation
In the given sentence, the omission of the word ’the’ makes it sound as though these
conditions are necessary for all trees which cannot be the case. Hence, the word
’the’ has to be included.
QUESTION 6
Spot the part that has error in it.

There is only the plantain (A) / and an apple in the refrigerator; (B) / so let us go to
the market (C) / and buy some more fruits (D).

See Explanation
’The plantain’ should be changed to ’a plantain’.
The reference here is to one plantain and not a particular one.
QUESTION 7

Find the error in the underlined sentence and answer the correct one from the given
options.

The granddaddy of manufacturers, the Shutters Company, headquartered in Milton,

is nearly 50 years as old as any of their supposed predecessors.

as old as any of their supposed

older than any of their supposed

as old as their supposed

older than any of their supposedly

See Explanation
The expression ’as old as’ indicates equality of age, but the sentence indicates that
the Shutters company predates other companies. Older than makes the point of
comparison clear. The adjective ’supposed’ should be used rather than the adverb
’supposedly’.
QUESTION 8

Find the error in the underlined sentence and answer the correct one from the given
options.
Studies conducted in the 1990’s indicate that even after fifty years, patients are
still suffering the long term effects of polio contracted when a child.

contracted when a child.

contracted when children.

that was contracted when a child.

contracted when they were children.

See Explanation
The phrasing ’contracted when they were children’ correctly uses contracted to
modify polio and includes a pronoun and a verb that refer unambiguously to their
antecedent patients.
QUESTION 9

Spot the part that has error in it.

In tropical climate, it is necessary (A) / that a person drinks (B) / several cups of
water daily (C) / if he wishes to remain healthy (D).

See Explanation
In place of ’in tropical’, ’in the tropical’ should be used.
The article ’the’ must be used as ’tropical climate’ here is being used generically.
One should either say ’the tropical climate’ or ’tropical climates’.
QUESTION 10

The part of Madras that interested us the most (A) / were the beach and the museum
(B) / which we recommend to all friends (C) / who plan to visit that city (D).

A
B

See Explanation
’The part of Madras’ should be replaced by ’the parts of Madras’. A verb must agree
with its subject in number and person. The plural ’parts’ fits in with the verb ’were’.
QUESTION 11

Choose the best alternative for the underlined part of the sentence, by identifying the
error in it, if any.

The woodland sub-species were in isolation from contact with humans longer
than either their marsh cousins or the tree-dwelling sub-species.

in isolation from contact with humans longer than

isolated from contact with humans longer than

in isolation from contact with humans longer than were

isolated from contact with humans longer than were

See Explanation
'in isolation from contact with humans' and 'isolated from contact with humans' is
redundant. It is enough to say 'isolated from humans'. Thus three options are
eliminated.

isolated from contact with humans longer than is the simplest form of expression.

QUESTION 12

Spot the part that has error in it.

If one reads the newspaper regularly (A) / you will be surprised at the improvement
(B) / in your overall reading skills (C) / from day to day (D).
A

See Explanation
’If one reads’ should be changed to ’If you read’.
The indefinite pronoun ’one’ or the personal pronoun ’you’ should be used
throughout the sentence.
QUESTION 13
Find the error in the underlined sentence and answer the correct one from the given
options.
Its collection includes such treasures as a woven funerary headdress, one that they
believe is a type unique to ancient Thebes.
that they believe is
that they believe it to be
they believe it is of
they believe to be
See Explanation
The pronoun that is redundant since ’one’ is sufficient to introduce the modifier.
QUESTION 14

In the following QUESTION, the given sentence has four parts marked A, B, C and
D. Choose the part of the sentence with the error.

The young man was surprised to find (A) / that his experience as a tutor had been
used (B) / as the basis for the protagonist in a short story (C) / written by a former
girlfriend (D).

C
D

See Explanation
There is a comparison error in the given sentence. Either "the tutor was the basis for
the protagonist", or the "his experience as a tutor had been used as the basis for
the experience of the protagonist in a short story."
QUESTION 15

Many working men and women have been (A) / able to acquire a university degree
(B) / during the last ten years after (C) / many universities started correspondent
courses (D).

See Explanation
"Many universities started correspondent courses" should be changed to "many
universities started correspondence courses."
’Correspondent course’ as a phrase does not exist.
QUESTION 16

In the following QUESTION, the given sentence has four parts marked A, B, C and
D. Choose the part of the sentence with the error.

His father advised him to forget the past, (A) / to stop crying on split milk (B) / and to
work hard in the future (C) / avoiding the mistakes he had committed earlier (D).

D
See Explanation
’Crying over split milk’ has to be changed to ’Crying over spilt milk’.
This is an idiomatic expression which means to be unhappy about what cannot be
undone.
QUESTION 17

Find the part of the sentence with error.

To this day, the Pythagoras theorem (A) / remains the very important single theorem
(B) / in the realm of mathematics, (C) / including algebra, geometry and trigonometry
(D).

See Explanation
’Remains the very’ should be changed to ’remains the most’. The superlative degree
of an adjective denotes the highest degree of the quality, and is used when more
than two things are compared. The superlative is sometimes used when there is no
idea of comparison, but merely a desire to indicate the possession of a quality in a
very high degree; as, this is most unfortunate.
QUESTION 18

Identify the part which has error in it.

Psychiatrists claim that the dream process (A) / can offer insights into (B) / how the
brain has worked, though (C) / it cannot be taken as the final evidence (D).

D
See Explanation
’How the brain has worked’ in the sentence should be replaced by ’how the brain
works’.
The simple present tense is needed as part B indicates.
QUESTION 19

Spot the part that has error in it.

It is futile to discuss this further (A) / since neither him nor you (B) / are going to
agree (C) / with the other on this issue (D).

See Explanation
’Neither him nor you’ should be changed to ’neither he nor you’. The nominative case
of the third person, singular, masculine - ’he’ is to be used instead of ’him’.
QUESTION 20

Find the error in the underlined sentenced and choose the right alternative from the
given options.

In addition to having more engineers than Brunswick Inc. has, the qualifications of
the engineers in Harvey's are better than Newton, the other top firm in the city.

the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than those of the engineers
in Newton's

the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than the engineers in
Newton's

the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than they are of Newton

the quality engineers are better in Harvey's than those of Newton's

See Explanation
The QUESTION is supposed to compare the qualification of engineers in Harvey and
qualifications of engineers in Newton.

the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than those of the engineers
in Newton's - Correct
the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than the engineers in
Newton's - Qualifications of engineers is compared with engineers, which is
incorrect.
the qualifications of the engineers in Harvey's are better than they are of Newton
- Qualifications of engineers is compared with engineers, which is incorrect.
the quality engineers are better in Harvey's than those of Newton's - This is also
incorrect, since the comparison is supposed to be between qualifications.

QUESTION 21

Replace the underlined part of the sentence with the best suitable option, if
necessary.

Robinson is a botanist whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece

of Hawaii, a place now awash with introduced species of plants and animals.

who has the dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,

whose dream it is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,

who it is his dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,

whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,

See Explanation
The pronoun ’whose’ is the best way to link the dream with Robinson as a botanist.
QUESTION 22
That hospital is so badly run (A) / that neither the nurses nor the doctor (B) / come on
time, and so the patients (C) / have to wait indefinitely to get attended to (D).
A
B
C
D
See Explanation
’Come on time’ should be replaced by ’comes on time’.
When the subjects joined by ’or’ or ’nor’ are of different persons, the verb agrees with
the noun that precedes it; as ---
Neither my friend nor I am to blame.
QUESTION 23

Identify the part which has error in it.

People in many parts of Africa (A) / are suffering from chronicle under-nourishment
(B) / because of the total absence of rain (C) / for four consecutive years (D).

See Explanation
The correct word is ’chronic undernourishment’.
QUESTION 24

Find the correct alternative for the underlined part.

The expedition did not enter the water-filled clearing because it believed that to do it
endangers the rare Spanish moss hanging from the trees.

to do it endangers

doing it endangers

to do this would endanger

doing so would endanger

See Explanation
"Doing so would endanger" appropriately used the adverb ’so’ to refer back to the
verb.
QUESTION 25

Spot the part that has error in it.

Like his brother who did not wear his helmet (A) / and was injured in the accident (B)
/ Raja was always careful (C) / and wore his helmet without fail (D).

See Explanation
Here, ’like his brother’ should be changed to ’unlike his brother’.
The adverb ’unlike’ is to be used here as it logically suggests so.
QUESTION 26

Identify the part which has error in it.

The ground felt very smoothly (A) / because of the flowers that had fallen (B) / in
profusion from the trees (C) / which were in full bloom in the spring(D).

See Explanation
’Felt very smoothly’ should be changed to ’felt very smooth’. ’Smooth’ is an adjective,
’smoothly’ is an verb. It is the function or use that determines to which part of speech
a word belongs in a given sentence.
QUESTION 27

My friend who returned from Florida (A) / after a stay of many years there said (B) /
that the climate of Florida is (C) / very much like that of Madras in summer (D).

See Explanation
’Florida is’ should be replaced by ’Florida was’.
The sentence is in indirect speech and hence a past tense in the principal clause is
followed by a past tense in the subordinate clause.
QUESTION 28

Trying to keep her balance on the icy surface, the last competitor’s ski-tip caught the
pole and somersaulted into the soft snow.

the last competitor’s ski-tip caught the pole and somersaulted into the soft snow.

the ski-tip of the last competitor caught the pole and somersaulted in the soft snow.

the last competitor caught the pole with the tip of her ski, and somersaulted into the
soft snow.

the last competitor caught the pole with her ski-tip, which made her somersault into
the soft snow.

See Explanation
After the comma, the name of the person or noun has to be inserted. The use of
’which made her’ is incorrect.
QUESTION 29
In the following QUESTION, the given sentence has four parts marked A, B, C and
D. Choose the part of the sentence with the error.

The set of enactments passed by the assembly (A) / have been sent to the council
(B) / for consideration by its members (C) / before being notified in the gazette (D).

See Explanation
’Have been sent’ should be replaced by ’has been sent’
The subject here is ’set’ which is singular. So the corresponding verb will be singular.
QUESTION 30

Identify the part which has the error in it.

The chairman reviewed many details (A) / connecting with probability (B) / of the
company and then decided that (C) / further expansion was not desirable (D).

See Explanation
’Connecting with’ should be replaced by ’connected with’. The past tense is to be
used as part A indicates.

QUESTION 1

Fill in the blank with a suitable word from the options.

After centuries of obscurity, this philosopher’s thesis is enjoying a surprising ____ .

remission

decimation

longevity

renaissance

See Explanation
The sentence tells us that the thesis has been in obscurity (forgotten or neglected)
but now it is being revived. We can say it is undergoing a renaissance (revival).
QUESTION 2

Fill in the blank with suitable words from the options.

There is a general ____ in the United States that our ethics are declining and that
our moral standards are ____.

feeling - normalizing

idea - futile

optimism - improving

complaint - deteriorating

See Explanation
The conjunction ‘and’ usually joins things of similar meaning or weight. This suggests
that since ethics are declining, moral standards are also declining (deteriorating).
Almost any word except ‘optimism’ would have fit the first blank.
QUESTION 3

Fill in the blank with suitable words from the options.

In the Middle Ages, the ____ of the great cathedrals did not enter into the architects’
plans; almost invariably a cathedral was positioned haphazardly in ____
surroundings.
situation - incongruous

location - apt

ambience - salubrious

durability - convenient

See Explanation
The semicolon indicates that the second part of the sentence expands on the first
part.
So, the second part tells us we are talking about the position, or situation of a
cathedral. And since the first part tells us that architects did not pay attention to the
situation, the cathedral was positioned randomly in odd (incongruous) surroundings.
QUESTION 4

The quantum theory was initially regarded as absurd, unnatural and ____ with
common sense.

consanguineous

discernible

incompatible

decipherable

See Explanation
A set of words linked with ‘and’ usually indicates things of similar weight. To go with
‘absurd’ and ‘unnatural’ we can choose incompatible with common sense.
QUESTION 5
Abraham Lincoln was famously known for his ______, which explains why he is
often referred to as “Honest Abe.”
mendacity
humility
veracity
piety
See Explanation
Here, the keyword is “honest,” and the missing word is used to explain why Lincoln
was called honest. Thus, the missing word must also mean honesty, as only
someone known for honesty would be called “honest.”, As veracity means honesty or
truthfulness, it’s the suitable answer.
QUESTION 6

Fill in the blanks with suitable answer options.

Archaeology is a poor profession; only ____ sums are available for excavating sites
and even more ____ amounts for preserving the excavations.

paltry - meager

miniscule - substantial

average - augmented

judicious - penurious

See Explanation
The part after the semicolon expands upon the first part of the sentence.
So, since the first part tells us that there is no money in archaeology, then there will
only be small (paltry) amounts for excavating. Also ‘even more’ indicates that
another similar word is required. Thus, meager also means small.
QUESTION 7
The village headman was unlettered, but he was no fool, he could see through the
________ of the businessman’s proposition and promptly _______ him down.
deception, forced
naivete, turned
potential, forced
sophistry, turned
See Explanation
The sentence suggests that although the village headman was illiterate, he was
wise. This information must have been provided in order to validate that he could see
through the deception (sophistry) of the businessman’s proposition and must have
turned him down.
QUESTION 8
Moths are nocturnal pollinators, visiting scented flowers during the hours of
darkness, whereas the butterflies are ____ , attracted to bright flowers in the
daytime.

diurnal

quotidian

colorful

ephemeral

See Explanation
‘Whereas’ indicates opposite ideas. So we need a word in contrast to ‘nocturnal’
(active at night). The word is diurnal (active in daytime).
QUESTION 9

War has been, throughout history, the chief _________ of social cohesion; and since
science began, it has been the strongest ________ to technical progress.

reason, encouragement

origin, boost

cause, provocation

source, incentive

See Explanation
In the given space of time i.e. ’throughout history’ there can be only source. Reason
and cause or origin can be a particular event.
Boost, encouragement and incentive mean the same.
QUESTION 10
Scrooge, in the famous novel by Dickens, was a ______; he hated the rest of
mankind.
misanthrope
hypochondriac
philanthropist
hedonist
See Explanation
The part of the sentence after the semicolon defines the word needed for the blank.
So, since he ‘hated mankind’, the word we need is misanthrope (hater of the rest of
mankind).
QUESTION 11

Fill in the blank with a suitable word from the options.

In her crusade to make public servants accountable to voters, she________ the

nation's unscrupulous and self-indulgent politicians.

exposed

accepted

dramatized

promoted

See Explanation
If the nation's politicians had been unscrupulous and self-indulgent, and a woman
crusader wanted to make them accountable to the voters, she would not have
dramatized, or accepted, or foreshadowed or promoted them, but would have
exposed them.
QUESTION 12

In a fit of ____ she threw out the valuable statue simply because it had belonged to
her ex-husband.

pique

goodwill

contrition

pedantry

See Explanation
She threw out a valuable statue just because it belonged to her ex-husband.
Therefore, she must have been acting out of spite or ill will. Hence we choose pique
which means ‘resentment’.
QUESTION 13

Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

In this biography we are given a glimpse of the young man ______ pursuing the path
of the poet despite ______ and rejection slips.

doggedly - disappointment

sporadically - awards

tirelessly - encouragement

successfully - acclaim

See Explanation
The word ’despite’ indicates something contrary. So, despite the rejection slips he
pursues his path doggedly or tirelessly. But since the ‘and’ links similar things he is
getting disappointment along with the rejection slips, not encouragement.
QUESTION 14

Fill in the blank with the correct answer.

The assumption that chlorofluorocarbons would be _________ in the environment

because they were chemically inert, was challenged by the demonstration of a
potential threat to the ozone layer.

deleterious

innocuous

persistent

noxious

See Explanation
Turn the sentence around, and fit a word of your own in the blank. The
demonstration of the potential threat challenged the assumption that the CFCs would
be ‘harmless’ because they were inert. Innocuous is the best word because it means
harmless.
QUESTION 15
The professor became increasingly _______ in later years, flying into a rage
whenever he was opposed.
voluble
subdued
irascible
contrite
See Explanation
The required word is signaled by the phrase ‘ flying into a rage’. Someone who is
easily angered is described as ‘irascible’.
QUESTION 16

Fill in the blank with a suitable word from the options.

People from all over the world are sent by their doctors to breathe the pure, ____ air
in this mountain region.

invigorating

soporific

debilitating

insalubrious

See Explanation
Since the air is described as ‘pure’ we need a positive word. Also, since doctors
recommend it, the air must be good for health.
Therefore, we choose invigorating which means energizing.
Soporific: Inducing sleep.
Debilitating: Causing a loss of energy or strength.
Insalubrious: Unhealthful.
QUESTION 17

Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

Handicrafts constitute an important ________ of the decentralized sector of India’s

economy and ________ employment to over six million artisans.

factor, aims
extension, plants

segment, provides

period, projects

See Explanation
The sentence says ’handicrafts constitute...’. The word ’constitute’ suggests that the
first blank will be filled with a word similar to part. From the given options, the only
such word to fill in the blanks correctly would be ’segment’. The second blank would
also be logically filled with the word ’provides’.
QUESTION 18

Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

Corruption is ____ in our society; the integrity of even senior officials is ____ .

rife - suspectful

growing - unQUESTIONed

endangered - disputed

pervasive - intact

See Explanation
The semicolon suggests that the second part expands upon the first part. So, if
corruption is rife (common), then we will doubt the integrity of the officials. Their
integrity will be suspectful (doubtful).
QUESTION 19

Plastic bags are ____ symbols of consumer society; they are found wherever you
travel.

fleeting

rare

ephemeral
ubiquitous

See Explanation
Since the bags are found everywhere they must be ubiquitous.
QUESTION 20

We live in a ____ age; everyone thinks that maximizing pleasure is the point of life.

propitious

sporadic

corrupt

hedonistic

See Explanation
The part after the semicolon explains what kind of age we are talking about.
So, since we are told that maximizing pleasure is the point, the word we need is
hedonistic (pleasure seeking).
QUESTION 21
Despite his ________ upbringing, Vladimir proved quite adept at navigating city life.
urbane
acrid
bucolic
cosmopolitan
See Explanation
The keywords are found in the phrase “quite adept at navigating city life,” which is
used to describe Vladimir. The word ’despite’ stresses that his ability to navigate city
life is contrary to his upbringing. Hence, his upbringing must have been bucolic
which is a word that suggests a rural lifestyle,
QUESTION 22

His presentation was so lengthy and ______ that it was difficult for us to find out the
real ________ in it.

verbose, content

tedious, skill
laborious, coverage

simple, meaning

See Explanation
The word ’and’ indicates that the first blank will be filled with a word that is similar to
’lengthy’. Hence, the first blank can be filled with ’verbose’, ’tedious’ and ’laborious’.
The second blank can only be filled with the word ’content’ to make complete
meaning.
QUESTION 23
The _______ successfully repelled every _______ on the city.
defenders, comment
citizens, onslaught
thieves, robbery
judge, criticism
See Explanation
We can repel or push back only onslaughts or attacks.
QUESTION 24

The success of the business venture ____ his expectations; he never thought that
the firm would prosper.

confirmed

belied

nullified

fulfilled

See Explanation
He never thought the business would prosper (do well). Therefore, the success
came as a surprise and contradicted (‘belied’) his expectations.
QUESTION 25
Unwilling to admit that they had been in error, the researchers tried to _________
their case with more data obtained from dubious sources.
ascertain
buttress
refute
absolve
See Explanation
The researchers were unwilling to admit that they were wrong. Therefore they would
try to support (buttress) their arguments.
QUESTION 26

Nutritionists declare that the mineral selenium, despite its toxic aspects,
is_______________to life, even though it is needed in extremely small quantities.

destructive

essential

insignificant

extraneous

See Explanation
Something which is needed for life, even if it is in extremely small quantities, cannot
be described as destructive to life, or insignificant to life, or extraneous to life. It can
only be described as being essential to life.
QUESTION 27

The formerly ____ waters of the lake have been polluted so that the fish are no
longer visible from the surface

muddy

tranquil

stagnant

pellucid

See Explanation
The word ‘formerly’ indicates that once things were different. So, since now the
waters are polluted so that fish cannot be seen, then formerly they must have been
unpolluted and clear (pellucid).
QUESTION 28
Many so-called social playwrights are distinctly _______ ; rather than allowing the
members of the audience to form their own opinions, these writers force a viewpoint
on the viewer.
conciliatory
prolific
iconoclastic
didactic
See Explanation
The word for the blank is explained after the semicolon. If they force their viewpoint
on the viewer, then they must be ‘didactic’. Didactic means intending to preach or
instruct.
QUESTION 29

A ____ child, she was soon bored in class; she already knew more mathematics
than her junior school teachers.

obdurate

querulous

precocious

recalcitrant

See Explanation
The sentence suggests that she was way ahead of her class. This indicates the need
for the word precocious, which means gifted or advanced for one’s years.
QUESTION 30
The ______ terrorist was finally _______ by the police.
famous, apprehended
notorious, nabbed
crafty, admonished
renowned, caught
See Explanation
The first blank describes a quality of the terrorist. This can be either filled with
notorious or crafty as the other two options are positive words which cannot be used
to describe a terrorist. The word ’admonished’ means to scold firmly which does not
suit the given context. Hence, the given blank has to be filled with the word ’nabbed’.
QUESTIONs on Direction Sense typically involve a person traveling in a series of
directions which involves several turns. These types of QUESTIONs are to test the
test-taker’s ability to trace, follow and find directions accurately.

The above figure depicts the four main directions:

N - North

S - South

E - East

W - West

It also shows the four cardinal directions:

NE - North-East

SE - South-East

NW - North–West

SW - South –West
Structure of QUESTIONs on Direction Sense

1. Determining the current position of a person with respect to the starting point
2. Determining the direction in which a person is moving
3. Determining the distance between any two points that the person has
traversed
4. QUESTIONs involving shadows of persons in the morning or evening

Example 1) Town A is to the West of Town B. Town P is to the South of Town A.

Town Q is to the East of Town P. Then Town Q is towards which direction of Town
A?

(a) South

(b) South West

(c) South East

(d) North

Solution- (c) South East

Example 2) A man walked 30 m towards the North. Then he turned right and walked
45 m. Then he turns right and walks 45 m. Then he turns left and walks 5 m. Finally,
he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many meters is he from the
starting position?

(a) 15m West

(b) 50m East

(c) 50m West

(d) 55m East

Solution- (b) 50m East

From the conditions given in the QUESTION above, we can make the following
diagram, As we can see from the diagram, the man is 50m East from the starting
point.

Example 3) A person starts from point A and travels 3 km eastwards to B and then
turns left and travels thrice that distance to reach C. He again turns left and travels
five times the distance he covered between A and B and reaches his destination D.
The shortest distance between the starting point and the destination is
(a) 12 km

(b) 15 km

(c) 16 km

(d) 18 km

Solution: (b) 15 km

The movements of the person are as shown in the given figure.

According to the QUESTION,

BC = (3 x 3 )km = 9 km

CD = (3 x 5)km = 15 km

Now, OD = (15 - 3) = 12 km

Now, required distance

AD = sqrt (12^2 + 9^2)

= sqrt (144 + 81)

= sqrt 225 km = 15km

Example 4) X and Y start moving towards each other from points A and B, which are
200m apart. After walking 60m, Y turns left and goes 20m, then he turns right and
goes 40m. He then turns right again and comes back to the road on which he had
started walking. If X and Y walk with the same speed, what is the distance between
them?

(a) 20m

(b) 30m

(c) 40m

(d) 50m

Solution- (c) 40m

It is clear from the diagram given, Y covered 140m space and reached D, which is
100m far from P and also from Q.

X also covered 140m and reached A. Hence, the distance DA = 40m.

.
Example 5) A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are nine houses. C is 2km East of B. A is
1km North of B and H is 2km South of A. G is 1km West of H while D is 3km East of
G. F is 2km North of G, I is situated just in the middle of B and C, while E is just in
the middle of H and D. Find the distance between E and G.

(a) 2 km

(b) 1.5 km

(c) 3 km

(d) 4 km

Solution- (a) 2 km

Required distance = GE = GH + HE = 1 + 1 = 2 km

QUESTION 1
The average salary of all the employees in a small organization is Rs 8,000. The
average salary of 7 technicians is Rs 12,000 and the average salary of the rest is Rs
6,000. The total number of employees in the organisation is ?

21

20

26

22

See Explanation
Let total number of employees be k
Then,
8000 x k = 7 x 12000 + (k - 7) x 6000
k = 21
Thus, the total number of employees in the organization is 21
QUESTION 2

Without any stoppage, a person travels a certain distance at an average speed of 42

km/h, and with stoppages he covers the same distance at an average speed of 28
km/h. How many minutes per hour does he stop?

14 minutes

15 minutes

28 minutes

None of these

See Explanation
Let the total distance to be covered is 84 kms.
Time taken to cover the distance without stoppage = 84 / 42 hrs = 2 hrs
Time taken to cover the distance with stoppage = 84 / 28 = 3 hrs.
Thus, he takes 60 minutes to cover the same distance with stoppage.
Therefore, in 1 hour he stops for 20 minutes.
QUESTION 3
The average marks of Suresh in 10 papers are 80. If the highest and the lowest
scores are not considered, the average is 81. If his highest score is 92, find the
lowest score.

55

60

62

Cannot be determined

See Explanation
Total marks of 10 papers = 80 x 10 = 800
Total marks of 8 papers = 81 x 8 = 648
Total marks of two papers = (800 - 648) = 152
If highest total is 92, then the lowest total is = 152 - 92 = 60
QUESTION 4

Three maths classes: X, Y and Z take an algebra test. The average score of class X
is 83. The average score of class Y is 76. The average score of class Z is 85. The
average score of class X and Y is 79 and average score of class Y and Z is 81. What
is the average score of classes X, Y, Z ?

81.5

80.5

83

78

See Explanation
Let the number of students in classes X, Y and Z be A, B and C respectively.
Then, total score of X= 83A, total score of Y = 76B, total score of Z = 85C.
Also given that,
(83A + 76B) / (A + B) = 79
=> 4A = 3B.
(76B + 85C) / (B + C) = 81
=> 4C = 5B,
=>B = 4A/3 and C = 5A/3
Therefore, average score of X, Y, Z = ( 83A + 76B + 85C ) / (A + B + C) = 978 / 12 =
81.5
QUESTION 5

The average of 17 numbers is 10.9. If the average of first nine numbers is 10.5 and
that of the last nine numbers is 11.4, the middle number is

11.8

11.4

10.9

11.7

See Explanation
Sum of first nine numbers (N1 to N9) + Sum of last nine numbers (N9 to N17) = ( 10.5
x 9 ) + ( 11.4 x 9 ) = 21.9 x 9 = 197.1
Hence, the middle number
= 197.1 - ( 17 x 10.9 ) = 197.1 - 185.3 = 11.8
QUESTION 6

Suraj has a certain average of runs for 12 innings. In the 13th innings he scores 96
runs thereby increasing his average by 5 runs. What is his average after the 13th
innings?

48

64

36

72

See Explanation
To improve his average by 5 runs per innings he has to contribute 12 x 5 = 60 runs
for the previous 12 innings.
Thus, the average after the 13th innings
= 96 - 60 = 36.
QUESTION 7

A batsman in his 17th innings makes a score of 85, and thereby increases his
average by 3. What is his average after the 17th innings? He had never been ’not
out’.

47

37

39

43

See Explanation
Average score before 17th innings
= 85 - ( 3 × 17 ) = 34
Average score after 17th innings
=> 34 + 3 = 37
QUESTION 8

The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio between first and second be 2 : 3 and
that between second and third be 5 : 8, then the second number is?

30

20

58

48

See Explanation
Let the numbers be X, Y and Z. Then,
X + Y + Z = 98
X/Y=2/3
Y/Z=5/8
Therefore, X = 2Y/3 and Z = 8Y/5.
So,
2Y/3 + Y + 8Y/5 = 98.
49Y / 15 = 98
Y = 30
QUESTION 9

The average weight of 8 sailors in a boat is increased by 1 kg if one of them

weighing 56 kg is replaced by a new sailor. The weight of the new sailor is?

57 kg

60 kg

64 kg

62 kg

See Explanation
Assume the average weight of 8 sailors = x
Average = Total / Number
Sum total = x * 8

Now, one weighing 56 kg is replaced by another. Let the weight of new comer be 'y'
kg
Sum total = ( 8 * x ) - 56 + y
Given the average increases by '1', that is 'x+1'
x+1 = (8 * x - 56 + y ) / 8 ...[Avg = sum total/number]
8 * (x+1) = 8x - 56 + y
8x + 8 = 8x - 56 + y
y = 64
Hence, weight of the new sailor = 64 Kg.
Hope it helps.
Alternatively:
Age of new comer = Replaced weight + (change in avg) * Number of people
= 56 + (x - 1- x) * 8 = 64 kg
QUESTION 10

A number X equals 80% of the average of 5, 7, 14 and a number Y. If the average of

X and Y is 26, the value of Y is?

13

26

39

None of these

See Explanation
Average of 5, 7, 14 and Y = ( 5 + 7 + 14 + Y ) / 4
Therefore, X = 80% of ( 5 + 7 + 14 + y )/ 4
X = (80 / 100) x (26 + Y) / 4
=> X = (26 + Y) / 5
5X - Y = 26 ----- (i)

Also,
(X + Y) / 2 = 26
X + Y = 52 ----- (ii)

From (i) and (ii)

Y = 39
QUESTION 11

The average age of P, Q, R, S five years ago was 45 years. By including T, the
present average age of all the five is 49 years. The present age of T is?

64 years
48 years

45 years

40 years

See Explanation
Present age of P, Q, R, S = ( 45 x 4 ) + 20 = 200
Present age of P, Q, R, S and T = 49 x 5 = 245
Hence, the age of T = 245 - 200 = 45 years.
QUESTION 12

At Chennai it rained as much on Tuesday as on all the others days of the week
combined. If the average rainfall for the whole week was 3 cm. How much did it rain
on Tuesday?

2.625 cm

3 cm

10.5 cm

15 cm

See Explanation
Total rainfall = 3 x 7 = 21 cm
Hence, rainfall received on Tuesday = 21 / 2 (as it rained as much on Tuesday as on
all the others days of the week combined)
= 10.5 cm.
QUESTION 13

The average monthly expenditure of a family for the first four months is Rs 2,750, for
the next three months is Rs 2,940 and for the last five months Rs 3,130. If the family
saves Rs 5,330 during the whole year, find the average monthly income of the family
during the year.

Rs 3,800

Rs 3,500
Rs 3,400

Rs 4,200

See Explanation
Average monthly expenditure of 4 months
= Rs 2,700
Total expenditure for 4 months = Rs 2,700 x 4
= Rs 11,000
Average monthly expenditure of 3 months
= Rs 2,940
Total expenditure of 3 months = Rs 2,940 x 5
= Rs 8,820
Average monthly expenditure of 5 months
= Rs 3,130
Total expenditure of 5 months = Rs 31,020
= Rs 1,560
Total expenditure in the whole year
= Rs 11,000 + 8,820 - Rs 15,650 = Rs 35,470.
Saving during the whole year = Rs 5,330.
Total income of the family during the year= Rs 35,470 + Rs 5,330 = Rs 40,800.
Therefore, Average monthly income during the year 40800/12 = Rs 3,400.
QUESTION 14

The average age of 8 men is increased by 2 years. When two of them, whose ages
are 20 years and 24 years respectively are replaced by two women. What is the
average age of these women?

36 years

30 years

40 years

42 years

See Explanation
Let the average age of 8 men be X years
Thus, Sum of the ages of 8 men = 8X years
Now, according to the condition of the QUESTION, average age of (6 men + 2
women) = (x + 2) years
Thus, Sum of the ages of (6 men + 2 women)
= 8(X + 2) = 8X x 16 years
Hence, it is clear that on replacing two men by two women, sum of their ages
increased by 16 years.
Therefore, sum of the ages of two women
= (20 + 24) + 16 = 60 years
Thus, average age of the women = 60 / 2 = 30 years
QUESTION 15

The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers 45 and 55 are discarded, the
average of the remaining set of numbers is

38.5

37.5

37.0 .

36.5

See Explanation
Average of 50 numbers is 38 .
Total = 50 x 38 = 1900
45 and 55 are discarded i.e 1900 - 45 - 55 = 1800
Average = 1800 / 48 = 37.5
QUESTION 16

The average speed of a train running at a speed of 30 km/hr during the first 100
kilometres, at 40 km/hr during the second 100 kilometres and at 50 km/hr during the
last 100 kilometres is nearly ?

38.5 km/hr

38.3 km/hr
40.0 km/hr

39.2 km/hr

See Explanation
Time taken to cover first 100 kilometres = 100 / 3 = 3 (1/3) hours
Time taken to cover second 100 kilometres = 100/40 = 2 (1/2) hours
Time take to cover last 100 kilometres = 100/2 = 2 hours
Total distance covered = 300 km.
Total time taken = 47 / 6 = 7.83 hours
Thus, average speed = 300 / 7.83 = 38.3 km/hr.
QUESTION 17

The average of 6 observations is 12. A new observation is included and the new
average is decreased by 1. The seventh observation is?

See Explanation
Let seventh observation = X.
Then, according to the QUESTION we have
=> (72 + X) / 7 = 11
=> X = 5.
Hence, the seventh observation is 5.
QUESTION 18

The average age of 20 men in the class is 15.6 years. Five new men join and the
new average becomes 15.56 years. What was the average age of five new men?

15.5

15.4
15.25

15.3

See Explanation
Total age of 20 men = 15.6 x 20 = 312
Now, total age of 25 men = 15.56 * 25 = 389.
Total age of five men added later = 389 - 312 = 77.
Hence, the total average of five men = 77 / 5 = 15.4
QUESTION 19

The average weight of 3 men A, B and C is 84 kg. Another man D joins the group
and the average now becomes 80 kg. If another man E, whose weight is 3 kg more
than that of D, replaces A, then average weight of B, C, D and E becomes 79 kg.
The weight of A is?

70 kg

72 kg

75 kg

80 kg

See Explanation
Weight of D = (80 x 4 - 84 x 3) kg = 68 kg
Weight of E = (68 + 3) kg = 71 kg
(B + C + D + E)’s weight = (79 x 4) kg = 316 kg
Therefore, (B + C)’s weight = [316 - (68 + 71)] kg = 177 kg.
Hence, A’s weight = [(84 x 3) - 177] kg = 75 kg.
QUESTION 20

There was one mess for 30 boarders in a certain hostel. The number of boarders
being increased by 10, the expenses of the mess were increased by Rs 40 per
month while the average expenditure per head diminished by Rs 2. Find the original
monthly expenses.

Rs 390

Rs 410
Rs 360

Cannot be determined

See Explanation
Let X rupees be the average of 30 boarders
30X + 40 = (X - 2) x 40
X = 12
Hence, original expenditure
= Rs 12 x 30 = Rs 360.
QUESTION 21

The average weight of 36 men is 50 kg. It was found later that the figure of 37 kg
was misread as 73 kg. What is the correct average?

49 kg

51 kg

50.5 kg

None of these

See Explanation
Correct average = [( 50 x 36) - 73 + 37 )] / 36 = 1764 / 36 = 49 kg. [ Subtract the
wrong figure and add the correct figure ]
QUESTION 22

The average earning of a person for the first four days of a week is Rs 18 and for the
last four days is Rs 22. If he earns Rs 20 on the fourth day, his average earning for
the whole week is?

Rs 18.95

Rs 16

Rs 20

Rs 25.71
See Explanation
Total earning for the week
= Rs ( 4 × 18 ) + ( 4 × 22 ) - 20 = Rs 140
Average earning = Rs 140 / 7 = Rs 20.
QUESTION 23

The average of marks obtained by 120 boys was 35. If the average of marks of
passed boys was 39 and that of failed boys was 15, the number of boys who passed
the examination is ?

100

110

120

150

See Explanation
Let the number of boys who passed = X.
Then, 39X + 15(120 - X) = 120 x 35
24X = 4200 - 1800
=> X = 2400 / 24
X = 100.
Hence, the number of boys passed = 100.
QUESTION 24

In a class, there are 20 boys whose average age is decreased by 2 months, when
one boy aged 18 years replaced by a new boy. The age of the new boy is ?

14 years 8 months

15 years

16 years 4 months

17 years 10 months

See Explanation
Total decrease = (20 x 2) months = 40 months
= 3 years 4 months
Age of the new boy
= 18 years - 3 years 4 months.
= 14 years 8 months.
QUESTION 25

The average temperature from Tuesday to Friday is 48°C and from Wednesday to
Saturday is 52°C. If the temperature on Tuesday is 42°C, what was it on Saturday?

52°C

55°C

58°C

51°C

See Explanation
Temperature on : Tuesday + Wednesday + Thursday + Friday = 4 x 48°C = 192°C
Temperature on : Tuesday = 42°C
Thus,
Wednesday + Thursday + Friday = (192°C - 42°C) = 150°C
Temperature on : Wednesday + Thursday + Friday + Saturday = 4 × 52°C = 208°C
Thus, Saturday’s temperature = 208 - 150°C = 58°C
QUESTION 26

A man spends on an average Rs 269.47 for the first 7 months and Rs 281.05 for the
next 5 months. Find his monthly salary if he saves Rs 308.46 during the whole year.

Rs 300

Rs 500

Rs 840

Rs 400

See Explanation
Total spending in 12 months = Rs [ ( 269.47 x 7 ) + ( 281.05 × 5 ) ] = Rs 3,291.54
Total income = Spending + Saving
=> Rs 3,291.54 + Rs 308.46
=> Rs 3,600.00
Monthly salary = Rs 3600 / 12 = Rs 300
QUESTION 27

Average temperature of first 4 days of a week is 38.6°C and that of the last 4 days is
40.3°C. If the average temperature of the week be 39.1°C, the temperature on 4th
day is?

36.7°C

38.6°C

39.8°C

41.9°C

See Explanation
Let temperature on 4th day be X°C
Therefore, (4 x 38.6) + (4 x 40.3) - X = 7 x 39.1
=> X = 41.9
Therefore, temperature on 4th day = 41.9°C.
QUESTION 28

The average daily wages of A, B and C is Rs 120. If B earns Rs 40 more than C per
day and A earns double of what C earns per day, the wage of A per day is?

Rs 80

Rs 120

Rs 160

Rs 100

See Explanation
Total wages of A + B + C = ₹ 360
Let C's wages be X , A's is 2X and B's is (X + 40)
2X + (X+40) + X = 360
4X = 320
X= 80
A's wages = 80 x 2 = 160
QUESTION 29

With an average speed of 40 km/hr a car reaches its destination on time. If it goes
with an average speed of 35 km/h, it is late by 15 minutes. The total journey is?

30 km

40 km

70 km

80 km

See Explanation
Let the total journey be X km.
(X / 35) - (X / 40) = (15 / 60)
Solving for X, we get X = 70
Therefore, total journey = 70 km.

QUESTION 1

These QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

Among the residents of Exotica Apartments, the number of residents who own Audi
cars is eight times the number of residents who own only Ford cars, the number of
residents who own only Palio cars is twice the number of residents who own only
Ford and Palio. The number of residents who own only Palio and Audi is same as
the number of residents who own only Ford. The number of residents who own only
Audi is average of the number of residents who own only Ford and only Palio. The
number of residents who own only Audi and Palio is half the number of residents
who own all the three cars. Each residents owns at least one of the three cars.

QUESTION 2
If the number of residents who own only Ford cars is 20, then what is the total
number of residents who own only Palio and only Audi cars?

120

110

100

90

See Explanation

d=b/2, e=b, a=f, g=2f, c= (a + b)/2

8a = c + e + f + g
8a = (a+b)/2 + b + a + 2a
8a = (a + b + 2b + 6a)/2
b=3a
Now, a = 20(given)
b = 60
b+c=?
b + (a + b)/2 = 60 + 40 = 100

QUESTION 3
If the number of residents who own only Audi cars is 20, then what is the total
number of persons who own at least two cars?

74

72

70

75

See Explanation

d=b/2, e=b, a=f, g=2f, c= (a + b)/2

8a = c + e + f + g
8a = (a+b)/2 + b + a + 2a
8a = (a + b + 2b + 6a)/2
b=3a
Now, (a + b)/2 =20
=> a = 10 (because b = 3a)
b= 30
Thus, total no. of residents who own atleast 2 cars is d+e+f+g=b + 2a + a + b/2 =75

QUESTION 4
If the number of residents who own all the three cars is 40, then what is the total
number of residents who own Ford or Palio cars?

220

230

210

215

See Explanation

d=b/2, e=b, a=f, g=2f, c= (a + b)/2

8a = c + e + f + g
8a = (a+b)/2 + b + a + 2a
8a = (a + b + 2b + 6a)/2
b=3a
2a = 40
a = 20
=> b= 60
No. of residents who own ford or palio =a+b+d+g+e+f= 4a + 2b + b/2 = 230

QUESTION 5
If the residents who own only Palio cars also buy ford cars, then what is the total
number of residents who own only two types of cars, given that 320 residents own
Audi cars?

320

300

275

340

220

See Explanation

d=b/2, e=b, a=f, g=2f, c= (a + b)/2

8a = c + e + f + g
8a = (a+b)/2 + b + a + 2a
8a = (a + b + 2b + 6a)/2
b=3a
8a =320
a= 40
b =120
No. of residents who use only 2 cars=(d+e+f)+b
= b/2 + b + a + b = 340
QUESTION 6

In a school, 20% of the students play Chess and Cricket, 39 % of the students play
exactly two games among Chess, Cricket and Rugby. 53% of the students play
Rugby and 58% of the students do not play Chess, 45% of students play cricket.
15% of the students play none of the three games and 40 students play all the
games.

QUESTION 7

How many students play exactly one game?

170

180

210

190

See Explanation

d + g = 20%---(1)
d + e + f = 39%--(9)
c + f + g + e =53%---(7)
b + e + c + n = 58%--(5)
b + e + g + d =45%---(2)
n = 15%
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
thus, b + e = 25%----(3)
b + e + c + n =58%
n= 15%---(4)
Substituting (3) and (4) in (5), we get
As, c =18%---(6)
Substituting (6) in (7)
=>g + e + f = 35%---(8)
Adding (1) and (9),
Now, 2d + g + e + f = 59%---(10)
Substituting (8) in (10)
2d=59%-35%=24%
d=12%---(11)
Substituting (11) in (1)
g= 20% -12% =8%
Now, 8% is given as 40.
Total students = 500
Substituting (11) in (9)
e + f =39% - 12% =27%
a + b= 100% - (d + e + f + g + c + n) = 20%

Number of students who play exactly one game = a+b +c =(20+18)% of 500=190

How many students play only Rugby ?

90

100

110

120

See Explanation
d + g = 20%---(1)
d + e + f = 39%--(9)
c + f + g + e =53%---(7)
b + e + c + n = 58%--(5)
b + e + g + d =45%---(2)
n = 15%
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
thus, b + e = 25%----(3)
b + e + c + n =58%
n= 15%---(4)
Substituting (3) and (4) in (5), we get
As, c =18%---(6)
Substituting (6) in (7)
=>g + e + f = 35%---(8)
Adding (1) and (9),
Now, 2d + g + e + f = 59%---(10)
Substituting (8) in (10)
2d=59%-35%=24%
d=12%---(11)
Substituting (11) in (1)
g= 20% -12% =8%
Now, 8% is given as 40.
Total students = 500
The number of students who play only Rubgy is 18% of 500 = 90

QUESTION 9

How many students play Rugby and Cricket, if 20 students play only Chess?

90

40

45

55

See Explanation

d + g = 20%---(1)
d + e + f = 39%--(9)
c + f + g + e =53%---(7)
b + e + c + n = 58%--(5)
b + e + g + d =45%---(2)
n = 15%
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
thus, b + e = 25%----(3)
b + e + c + n =58%
n= 15%---(4)
Substituting (3) and (4) in (5), we get
As, c =18%---(6)
Substituting (6) in (7)
=>g + e + f = 35%---(8)
Adding (1) and (9),
Now, 2d + g + e + f = 59%---(10)
Substituting (8) in (10)
2d=59%-35%=24%
d=12%---(11)
Substituting (11) in (1)
g= 20% -12% =8%
Now, 8% is given as 40.
Total students = 500
The number of students who play only Rubgy and Cricket is
a=20
a=>20/500=4%
a+b=20%
b=16% i.e 45 students
Substituting (4) and (6) in (5)
b+e= 25%
=>e=9%, i.e 9% of 500=45

QUESTION 10

In an examination, 43% passed in Maths, 48% passed in Physics and 52% passed
in Chemistry. Only 8% students passed in all the three. 14% passed Maths and
Physics and 21% passed in Math and Chemistry and 20% passed in Physics and
Chemistry. The number of students who took the exam is 200.

QUESTION 11

How many students passed in Maths only?

16

32
48

80

See Explanation
From the given information, the following Venn diagram can be formed.

The number of students who passed in Maths alone = 86 - 16 - 12 - 26 = 32

QUESTION 12
Find the ratio of the number of students passing in Maths only to the number of
students passing in Chemistry only?

16 : 37

29 : 32

16 : 19

31 : 49

See Explanation

From the above figure,

The number of students passing in Maths only = 32
The number of students passing in Chemistry only = 38
Hence, the required ratio is: 32 : 38 = 16 :19.

QUESTION 13

What is the ratio of the number of students passing in Physics only to the number of
students passing in either Physics or Chemistry or both?

11/42

34/46

49/32

31/49

See Explanation
From the given figure,
The number of students passing in Physics only = 44
The number of students passing in either Physics or Chemistry or both (everything
except for Maths only) = 200 - 32 = 168.
Therefore, the required ratio = 44 : 168 = 11 : 42.

QUESTION 14

In a test consisting of 143 QUESTIONs, any QUESTION can be classified as

Difficult/Easy or Precise/Long or Quants/Reasoning based. It was found that 20 of
the QUESTIONs are Easy, Precise and Reasoning based and 20 of the
QUESTIONs are Difficult, Precise and Reasoning based, 50 of the difficult
QUESTIONs are either Long or Quant based. 20 QUESTIONs are Easy, Long
and Quants based. In total, 64 QUESTIONs are Quants based of which one fourth
are Precise and Difficult. 10 of the QUESTIONs are Difficult, Long and Quants
based.

QUESTION 15

What is the total number of Long QUESTIONs ?

73

80

65

69

See Explanation

The number of long QUESTIONs is given by the number of QUESTIONs outside the
circle of precise (P), i.e, a + 10 + 20 + c
Determining the value of a:
It is given that 50 difficult QUESTIONs are either long or quant based,(refer the
figure) Hence, a + 16 + 10 = 50
a = 24.

Determining the value of c:

Value of c = 143 - (64 + a + 20 + 20)
c = 143 - (104 + 24)
c = 15

Hence, the required answer =a + 10 + 20 + c= 24 +10 + 20 + 15 = 69

QUESTION 15

What is the total number of Long QUESTIONs ?

73

80

65

69

See Explanation

The number of long QUESTIONs is given by the number of QUESTIONs outside the
circle of precise (P), i.e, a + 10 + 20 + c
Determining the value of a:
It is given that 50 difficult QUESTIONs are either long or quant based,(refer the
figure) Hence, a + 16 + 10 = 50
a = 24.

Determining the value of c:

Value of c = 143 - (64 + a + 20 + 20)
c = 143 - (104 + 24)
c = 15

Hence, the required answer =a + 10 + 20 + c= 24 +10 + 20 + 15 = 69

QUESTION 16

How many of the QUESTIONs are Difficult, Long and Reasoning based?

20

24

28

36

See Explanation
From the above figure, the required answer is given by ’a’.
Determining the value of a:
It is given that 50 difficult QUESTIONs are either long or quant based, i.e., difficult,
long and reasoning; difficult, precise and quants or difficult long and quant. Hence, a
+ 16 + 10 = 50
a = 24.

QUESTION 17

How many of the QUESTIONs are Easy, Precise and Quant based ?

18

25

24

30

See Explanation
From the above diagram, it is evident that the required answer is ’b’.
b = 64 - (10 + 16 + 20)
b = 18

QUESTION 18
At the quarterly birthday party of Sherry, a baby boy, 40 persons chose to kiss him
and 25 chose to shake hands with him. 10 persons chose to both kiss him and shake
hands with him. How many persons turned out at the party?
35
75
55
25
See Explanation
Let n(A) = No. of persons who kissed Sherry = 40
n(B) = No. of persons who shook hands with Sherry = 25
and n(A ∩ B) = No. of persons who both shook hands with Sherry and kissed him =
10
Then, using the formula, n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B)
n(A U B) = 40 + 25 - 10 = 55.
QUESTION 19

The QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

In a class of 150 students, 50 students passed in mathematics, 40 students failed
only in chemistry and 20 students failed in both the subjects.

QUESTION 20

How many students passed in both the subjects?

20

15

10

16

See Explanation

The above Venn Diagram is based on the given information.

Number of students who passed in both the subjects=Number of students who did
not fail= 150-(80+20+100)=10
QUESTION 21

How many students passed exactly in one subject?

25

120

140

145

See Explanation

From the given figure, it can be determined that the required answer is the sum of
number of students who passed in Maths only(but did fail in Chemistry) and the
number of students who passed in Chemistry only(but did fail in Maths)
Hence, the required answer = 40 + 80 = 120
QUESTION 22
How many students failed in at least one of the subjects?

130

125

145

140

See Explanation

The number of people who failed in at least one of the subjects can be determined
by the sum of number of students who failed in Maths(but passed in Chemistry) and
the number of students who failed in Chemistry(but passed in Maths)=80+40=140.
Or this can be obtained by subracting the total number of students from the students
who passed in both=150-10=140
QUESTION 23
The QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

A survey was conducted among 200 users of mobile phones of different companies.
It was found that 160 use mobile phones of NOKIA, 100 use mobile phones of
SIEMENS and 90 use mobile phones of LG. 20 use mobile phones of all three
companies and each one uses mobile phones at least one of the three companies.

QUESTION 24

How many use mobile phones of only one company?

70

80

95

105

See Explanation

From the above figure, it is evident that the required answer is a + c + f.

Summing the total number of Nokia, Siemens and LG users,
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e + 60 = 160 + 100 + 90
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e = 290 ----- (1)
Also,
a + b + c + d + 20 + e + f = 200 (Each one uses mobile phones)
a + b + c + d + e + f = 180 ----- (2)
Subtracting (2) from (1)
b + d + e = 110 ----- (3)
Substituting (3) in (2)
a + c + f = 70.
Therefore, 70 people use mobile phones of only one company.
QUESTION 25

If 40 use only NOKIA, then how many use LG and SIEMENS only?

15

30

18

10

See Explanation

From the above figure, it is evident that the required answer is c + f.

Summing the total number of Nokia, Siemens and LG users,
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e + 60 = 160 + 100 + 90
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e = 290 ----- (1)
Also,
a + b + c + d + 20 + e + f = 200 (Each one uses mobile phones)
a + b + c + d + e + f = 180 ----- (2)
Subtracting (2) from (1)
b + d + e = 110 ----- (3)
Substituting (3) in (2)
a + c + f = 70.
According to the QUESTION, a = 40,
Hence, c + f = 30
QUESTION 26

What is the minimum possible number of users, who use only NOKIA?

30

50

45

25

See Explanation

From the above figure, it is evident that the required answer is a + c + f.

Summing the total number of Nokia, Siemens and LG users,
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e + 60 = 160 + 100 + 90
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e = 290 ----- (1)
Also,
a + b + c + d + 20 + e + f = 200 (Each one uses mobile phones)
a + b + c + d + e + f = 180 ----- (2)
Subtracting (2) from (1)
b + d + e = 110 ----- (3)
Substituting (3) in (2)
a + c + f = 70.
Given that 160 use mobile phones of NOKIA
a+b+d+20=160
a+b+d=140
b+d+e=110 from (3)
For a to be minimum b+d has to be maximum
b+d=110(110 is the maximum value of b+d)
a=140-110=30
The minimum possible number of users, who use only NOKIA=30
QUESTION 27

The QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

Out of 200 people who attended a birthday party 120 had cool drinks, 100 had ice
cream, 80 had cake and 10 had none of these three. 100 people had exactly one of
the three items.

QUESTION 28

How many people had exactly two of the three items?

70

80

110

85

See Explanation
From the given information, it is clear that the required answer is b + d + f.

Given:
a + c + g = 100 -----(x)
Summing up the number of people who consumed all three items:
a + 2b + c + 2d + 3e + 2f + g = 120 + 100 + 80
a + 2b + c + 2d + 3e + 2f + g = 300 -----(1)
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 200 - 10
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 190 -----(2)

Adding (x) to (1)

2a + 2b + 2c + 2d + 3e + 2f + 2g = 300 + 100
2a + 2b + 2c + 2d + 3e + 2f + 2g = 400 ----- (3)

Multiplying (2) by 2 and subtracting from (3)

e = 400 - 380
e = 20 ----- (4)
Substituting (x) and (4) in (2)
b + d + f + 100 + 20 = 190
b + d + f = 70
Hence, 70 people had exactly two out of the three items
QUESTION 29

If 20 people had only cool drink and ice cream, then how many people had only
cake?
12

18

20

10

See Explanation

Given:
a + c + g = 100 -----(x)
Summing up the number of people who consumed all three items:
a + 2b + c + 2d + 3e + 2f + g = 120 + 100 + 80
a + 2b + c + 2d + 3e + 2f + g = 300 -----(1)
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 200 - 10
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 190 -----(2)

Adding (x) to (1)

2a + 2b + 2c + 2d + 3e + 2f + 2g = 300 + 100
2a + 2b + 2c + 2d + 3e + 2f + 2g = 400 ----- (3)

Multiplying (2) by 2 and subtracting from (3)

e = 400 - 380
e = 20 ----- (4)
Substituting (x) and (4) in (2)
b + d + f + 100 + 20 = 190
b + d + f = 70 -----(5)

The QUESTION mentions that b = 20

Substituting in (5),
d + f = 50
Also, d + e + f + g = 80
50 + 20 + g = 80
g = 10
Therefore, 10 people had only cake.
QUESTION 30

If 15 people who had only cool drink, had cake also and 5 people who had only ice
cream and cake had cool drink also, then how many people had at least two of the
three items?

135

105

78

119

See Explanation

There were initially 100 people who had only one item.
a + c + g = 100 -----(x)
15 out of these consumed one more item and hence, the number of people who
consumed only one item becomes 85.
Then,
No. of people who consumed at least two out of three items = Total number of
people - No. of people who consumed upto 1 item.
= 200 - (85 + 10)
= 105

Hence, there are 105 people who have consumed at least two out of three items.
QUESTION 31

What is the maximum possible number of people who had only cool drink?

90

87

118

120

See Explanation

a+b+c+d+e+f+g=
190 -----(2)
When e=0 f=80 c=20
a should be 120
but this does nt satisfy equation (2)
When e=5 f=75 c=10
a should be 115(as 120 ppl had cool drinks) but this also does not satisfy equation
(2)
When e=10 f=70 c=20
a should be 110(as 120 ppl had cool drinks)but this does not satisfy equation (2)
When e=1 f=70 c=20
a should be 90(as 120 ppl had cool drinks) and it satisfies equation (2) also.

QUESTION 32

These QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

In an office of 220 employees, for a given month, the number of employees who use
only bikes and cars is 33 1/3% less than the number of employees who use only
bikes and bus. The number of employees who use only bus and bikes is 3/4th of the
number of employees who use only cars and bus. The number of employees who
use only bus is 25. The number of employees who use neither bus nor cars is 50.
The number of employees who use cars is 115. The number of employees who use
all the three is 20.

QUESTION 33

How many employees who use bus but not bikes?

25

40

65

85
See Explanation

From the given figure,

Total number of employees who do not use cars:
50 + (3/4)x + 25 = 220 - 115
(3/4)x = 105 - 75
x = 30 x 4 / 3
x = 40

The required answer = 25 + x = 25 + 40 = 65

Hence, 65 employees who use bus but not bikes.

QUESTION 34

In the next month, each employee either starts or stops using exactly one mode of
transport, then what is the maximum possible number of employees who will be
using only cars, if 40 employees were to use only bikes?

95

105

60

70

50
See Explanation

From the given figure,

Total number of employees who do not use cars:
50 + (3/4)x + 25 = 220 - 115
(3/4)x = 105 - 75
x = 30 x 4 / 3
x = 40
From the above results, the following Venn diagram can be obtained.

The no of employees who use only bike,stop using them inorder to maximise the no
of employees who use only cars.
Similarly
The no of employees who use only bus,stop using them inorder to maximise the no
of employees who use only cars.
The no of employees who use only car,stop using them inorder to maximise the no
of employees who use only cars.
The employees who use bikes and cars only,stop using car.

QUESTION 35

If in the next month, 40 employees who use cars stop using them and start using
bus, then what is the maximum possible number of employees who will be using
bikes and bus?

50

60

70

80
See Explanation

From the given figure,

Total number of employees who do not use cars:
50 + (3/4)x + 25 = 220 - 115
(3/4)x = 105 - 75
x = 30 x 4 / 3
x = 40
From the above results, the following Venn diagram can be obtained.

In order to increase the number of employees who will be using bikes and bus, the
number of employees using only bike and car has to be changed to use only bike
and bus. Then, the number of employees who use bikes and bus becomes
30 + 20 + 20 = 70 (including the ones that use all three)
QUESTION 36
Answer the QUESTIONs based on the information given below.

Among the 300 tourists who visited India, each one visited at least one place among
Agra, Calcutta and Mysore. 150 tourists visited Mysore and 180 visited Agra.

QUESTION 37

If the number of visitors who visited Calcutta is 120, then what is the maximum
possible number of tourists who visited only Agra?

100

150

120

60

See Explanation

Using trial and error method by choosing the highest value for ’a’ from the options,
i.e., 150.
The rest of the Venn diagram should be distributed with the other 150 visitors. Since
Mysore has 150 visitors, the visitors who are not visiting only Agra should
necessarily be visiting Mysore. Also, there are only 120 visitors to Calcutta. Hence,
the following Venn diagram can be formed.
Hence, the required number of visitors is 150.

QUESTION 38

If the number of tourists who visited exactly one place is 160, then what is the
maximum possible number of tourists who visited Calcutta?

250

180

190

210

See Explanation

Given a+c+g=160---(1)
a+b+c+d+e+f+g=300---(2)
(2)-(1) =(3)
b+d+e+f=140---(3)
a=40
g=10
Substituting values in (2)
we get c=110
b=0;d=0;f=0
the maximum possible number of tourists who visited
Calcutta=b+c+e+f=110+140=250

QUESTION 39

If 240 tourists went to either Mysore or Calcutta, then what is the maximum possible
number of tourists that went to Agra and Mysore only?

160

240

180

120

See Explanation
b+c+d+e+f+g=240
d cannot be greater than 150.But all the other options are greater than 150.So the
answer is 120.

QUESTION 1

Direction: In the following QUESTION, select the word or phrase that is similar in
meaning to the underlined word/phrase.

The company checks out all new employees.

stares at

examines

ignores

pays

See Explanation
To ’check out’ means to inspect or investigate.
QUESTION 2

Direction: In the following QUESTION, select the word or phrase that is similar in
meaning to the underlined word/phrase.
If everyone chips in we can get the kitchen painted by noon.

comes out

paints

clears the mess

helps

See Explanation
To ’chip in’ means to help.
QUESTION 3

Direction: In the following QUESTION, select the word or phrase that is similar in
meaning to the underlined word/phrase.

I have always looked up to my father.

followed

gazed

admired

suspected

See Explanation
’Look up to’ means to view someone with respect and admiration.
QUESTION 4

Direction: In the following QUESTION, select the word or phrase that is similar in
meaning to the underlined word/phrase.

I ran out of sugar and so the dessert could not be made.

poured

ran

spilled
used up

See Explanation
The phrasal meaning for the word ’ran out of’ is to exhaust the supply or become
used up.
QUESTION 5

Choose the word that is farthest in meaning to the given word:

Relinquish

Acquire

Renounce

Give up

Deny

See Explanation
"Relinquish" means "voluntarily giving up".
The antonym is acquiring.
QUESTION 6

Choose the word that is farthest in meaning to the given word:

Fortuitous

Felicitous

unexpected

Expedient

Predictable

See Explanation
"Felicitous" means - happening by chance rather than intention.
The word that is farthest in meaning is "Predictable"
QUESTION 7
Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the given word:

Dismay

Consternation

Constellation

Relief

Pleasure

See Explanation
"Dismay" means - "concern and distress caused by something unexpected."
Consternation is the synonym for the given word.
QUESTION 8

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the given word:

Subservient

Peripheral

Superior

Supernatural

Abnormal

See Explanation
"Subservient" means- less important; subordinate.
Peripheral is a synonym to the given word.
QUESTION 9

Find the part of the sentence that has a grammatical error in it:

He has not been attending (A) / Hindi classes (B) / since two weeks(C) / No error
(D).

A
B

See Explanation
C has the error.
'Since two weeks' is wrong usage. It should be 'for two weeks'
QUESTION 10

Find the part of the sentence that has a grammatical error in it:

Everyone visiting the house asked the young lad (A) / how could he kill the bear (B) /
single handed and without a weapon. (C) / No error (D)

See Explanation
B has an error. It should be "how he could kill the bear"
QUESTION 11
Find the part of the sentence that has a grammatical/usage error in it:
It is the duty of every citizen to do his utmost (A) / to defend the hardly-won (B)
/ freedom of the country. (C) / No error (D)
A
B
C
D
See Explanation
B has the error. It is "hard-won" and not "hardly won"
QUESTION 12

Find the part of the sentence that has a grammatical/usage error in it:
No sooner did I open the door (A) / when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in (B)
/ making us shiver from head to foot (C) / No error (D)

See Explanation
B has the error.
It is "than the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in"
QUESTION 13

Choose the best fit for the blanks from the options given:

The poem was too ______; it would have been better if the poet had not stated its
meaning so explicitly.

opaque

perspicuous

apparent

ambiguous

See Explanation
To figure out what the missing word is, try to predict its definition by using key words
from the prompt.
The key words here are in the phrase “stated the meaning [...] so explicitly,” a phrase
that is used to describe what the author of the prompt wishes the poet had not done.
The missing word describes how the poem actually was, not how the author wishes
it had been.
Since the author wished the poem had been more subtle, it must not have been
subtle in reality.
The missing word must mean unsubtle or obvious. Therefore, the correct answer is
"Perspicuous", since perspicuous means clearly expressed or easy to understand.
QUESTION 14

Choose the best fit for the blanks from the options given:

Man, thou art __________ wonderful animal

an

the

no article

See Explanation
"Wonderful" has a consonant sound beginning. So the answer is 'a wonderful animal'
QUESTION 15
Choose the best fit for the blanks from the options given:
The argument Paul made in his essay seemed ______; it was clear to the teacher
that he had not fully thought through the differences between the moons of Saturn.
synthesized
sagacious
inchoate
developed
See Explanation
To figure out what the missing word is, try to predict its definition by using key words
from the prompt.
Here, the key words are “not fully thought through,” a phrase that, like the missing
word, describes Paul’s argument.
Thus, the missing word must be one that means not fully thought through or
undeveloped.
"inchoate" means not fully developed and so is the answer.
QUESTION 16

Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.

By taking many wickets India carried the day in the test match against Pakistan.
had great fun

decimated the opposition

won the battle for supremacy

gained confidence

See Explanation
’Carry the day’ means to win or succeed. Hence, ’won the battle for supremacy’ is
the correct answer.
QUESTION 17

Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.

Traffic was really slow on the freeway this morning because of a fender-bender in
one of the westbound lanes.

congested traffic

automobile accident

police surveillance

divider damage

See Explanation
The phrase ’fender-bender’ refers to an automobile accident.
QUESTION 18

Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.

People cry over spilt milk when they do not execute tasks with proper planning.

weep

repent

fail
are indifferent

See Explanation
’To cry over spilt milk’ is to be unhappy about what cannot be undone. The word
’repent’ also has a similar meaning.
QUESTION 19

Choose the alternative to replace the underlined part.

Great entrepreneurs always follow the carrot and stick policy.

far-seeking

reward and punish

profit-oriented

adaptable

See Explanation
"Carrot and Stick" is an idiom that refers to a policy of offering a combination of
rewards and punishment to induce behavior. It is named in reference to a cart driver
dangling a carrot in front of a mule and holding a stick behind it. The mule would
move towards the carrot because it wants the reward of food, while also moving
away from the stick behind it, since it does not want the punishment of pain, thus
drawing the cart.
QUESTION 20
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
His wrong decision was just like the act of a giddy goat.
a slow act
a brave act
a foolish act
an obedient act
See Explanation
The phrase ’act of a giddy goat’ means to behave foolishly.
QUESTION 21
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
Red tapism is a bane for any bureaucracy.
Official delay
Brand association
Anger management
Love affairs
See Explanation
Red tapism is characterized by the practice of requiring excessive paperwork and
tedious procedures before official action can be considered or completed.
QUESTION 22
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
His bad record brings him under the cloud.
to be a secret
to quarrel
under suspicion
to a lower rank
See Explanation
To be ’under the cloud’ is to be suspected of something.
QUESTION 23
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
He refused to co-operate with me, and thus threw a spanner on my plan.
executed
left me alone with
sabotaged
restructured
See Explanation
’To throw a spanner on something’ is to spoil it from succeeding.
QUESTION 24
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
A few people set others by the ear for their own benefits.
listen to others
give long speeches to others
incite others
abuse others
See Explanation
’Set someone by ear’ means to cause a dispute among people.
QUESTION 25
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
Swami Vivekanand led a spartan life.
brave
ascetic
peaceful
difficult
See Explanation
Both spartan and ascetic have a similar meaning: characterized by severe self-
discipline and abstention from all forms of indulgence, typically for religious reasons.
QUESTION 26
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
After a long illness he gave up the ghost last week.
gave up the fear
gave up in the war
recovered
passed away
See Explanation
Both ’gave up the ghost’ and ’passed away’ means to die.
QUESTION 27
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
There is a gradual increase in the success of a company. It is never a flash in the
pan.
sudden success
sudden problem
sudden excitement
sudden pain
See Explanation
The phrase ’a flash in the pan’ means someone or something that draws a lot of
attention for a very brief time. Specifically in this case, ’flash in the pan’ means a
sudden success.
QUESTION 28
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
While participating in a debate you should not cut both ends.
cut the argument short
ignore both sides
be in favour of two things
argue against both
See Explanation
The phrase ’cut both ends’ means to affect both sides of an issue. In the given
context, to be specific, it means to be in favour of two things.
QUESTION 29
Select the answer option which gives the correct meaning of the underlined part in
the sentence.
Being a politician he is Argus Eyed and never overlooks even a small matter.
doubtful
suspicious
slacking
vigilant
See Explanation
Both ’Argus-eyed’ and ’vigilant’ have a similar meaning viz careful or observant.

QUESTION 1

A man pointing to a photo says "The lady in the photograph is my nephew’s maternal
grandmother". How is the lady in the photograph related to the man’s sister who has
no other sister ?

Cousin

Sister-in-law

Mother

Mother-in-law

See Explanation
Since the man is referring to his nephew, the nephew’s parent has to be a sibling to
the man. Now the last part says that the man’s sister has no other sister and hence
the brother-sister relationship is established between the man and his nephew’s
mother. Now the lady in the picture is the grandmother of the nephew and hence she
is the mother of the man’s sister.
QUESTION 2

A woman going with a boy is asked by another person about the relationship
between them. The woman replied ,"My maternal uncle and the uncle of his maternal
uncle is the same". How are the woman and the boy related?

Grandmother and Grandson

Mother and Son

Aunt and Nephew

None of these

See Explanation
The woman's maternal uncle and the uncle of the boy's maternal uncle is the
same.(Maternal uncle of the boy)'s parent is the sibling of maternal uncle of the
woman.It implies that the woman's mother, woman's maternal uncle and the boy's
maternal uncle's parent are siblings.So the woman and the maternal uncle of the boy
are are cousins.So are the woman and the mother of the boy.As they are cousins,
the boy is the woman's nephew and the woman is the boy's aunt.
QUESTION 3

Pointing out to a lady, Raja said ,"She is the daughter of the woman who is the
mother of the husband of my mother". Who is the lady to Raja ?

Aunt

Grand daughter

Daughter

Sister

See Explanation
Mother’s husband is my Father ;
My Father’s mother is my Grandmother ;
My Grandmother’s daughter is my Father’s sister,
Father’s sister is my Aunt
QUESTION 4

Pointing towards a person a man said to a woman "His mother is the only daughter
of your father . How is the woman related to that person?

Daughter

Sister

Mother

Wife

See Explanation
The only daughter of woman’s father is she herself. So the person is the woman’s
son, that is the woman is the person’s mother .
QUESTION 5

Pointing to a lady in a photograph ,Shaloo said , "Her son’s father is the son-in-law of
my mother", How is Shaloo related to the lady ?

Aunt

Sister

Mother

Cannot be determined

See Explanation
Lady’s son’s father is lady’s husband. So the lady’s husband is the son-in-law of
Shaloo’s mother that is the lady is the daughter of Shaloo’s mother. Hence, Shaloo
can either be the sister of the lady or can also be considered as the lady herself.
Thus the answer cannot be determined.
QUESTION 6

Anil introduces Rohit as the son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Rohit
related to Anil?

Cousin
Son

Uncle

Son-in-law

See Explanation
The relation may be analysed as follows: Father’s wife is my mother, my mother’s
brother is my maternal uncle, My uncle’s son is my cousin. So, Rohit is Anil’s cousin.
QUESTION 7

Pointing towards a person in the photograph Anju said " He is the only son of the
father of my sister’s brother ." How is that person related to Anju ?

Mother

Father

Maternal uncle

None of these

See Explanation
Relation may be analysed as follows: Sisters brother is my Brother, my Brother’s
father is my Father, My Father’s son is my Brother So the person in the photograph
is Anju’s brother .
QUESTION 8

Rita told Mani, "The girl i met yesterday at the beach was the youngest daughter of
the brother-in-law of my friend’s mother". How is the girl related to Rita’s friend ?

Cousin

Daughter

Niece

Friend

See Explanation
The relation may be analysed as follows
Daughter of brother-in-law is my Niece :
My Mother's niece is my Cousin
So the girl is the cousin of Rita’s friend
QUESTION 9

Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the only daughter(who has only one
brother) of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?

Brother

Nephew

Uncle

Son-in-law

See Explanation
The father of the boy’s uncle → the grandfather of the boy and daughter of the
grandfather → sister of father.
QUESTION 10

Pointing to Gopi, Nalni says, "I am the daughter of the only son of his grandfather."
How Nalni is related to Gopi?

Niece

Daughter

Sister

Cannot be determined

See Explanation
Nalni is the daughter of the only son of Gopi’s grandfather. Hence, it’s clear that
Nalni is the sister of Gopi.
QUESTION 11

A’s son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B. How D is
related to A?
Sister

Daughter-in-law

Sister-in-law

Cousin

See Explanation
Since E is the brother of B
Therefore, A is the father of E
but D is the wife of E.
Hence, D is the daughter-in-law of A.
QUESTION 12

Pointing to a lady, a person said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my
wife." How is the lady related to the person?

Maternal aunt

Grandmother

Sister of father-in-law

None of these

See Explanation
Lady's brother is the person's father-in-law.So the lady is the Sister of father-in-law.
QUESTION 13

B5D means B is the father of D.

B9D means B is the sister of D.

B4D means B is the brother of D.

B3D means B is the wife of D.

Which of the following means F is the mother of K?

F3M5K
F5M3K

F9M4N3K

F3M5N3K

See Explanation
F3M → F is the wife of M
M5K → M is the father of K
Therefore, F is the mother of K.
QUESTION 14

Introducing a girl, Santhosh said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-
law”. How is Santhosh related to the girl?

Uncle

Husband

Brother

Father

See Explanation
Only daughter of mother-in-law -> wife i.e. girl’s mother is Santhosh’s wife. Santhosh
is the father of the girl.
QUESTION 15

Showing a lady in the park, Balu said, “She is the daughter of my grandmother’s only
son”. How is Balu related to that lady?

Brother

Cousin

Father

Uncle

See Explanation
Grandfather’s only son is my father.
Daughter of father is my sister.
So Balu is the lady’s brother.
QUESTION 16

Pointing to a lady, a girl said, “She is the only daughter-in-law of the grandmother of
my father’s son”. How is the lady related to the girl?

Sister-in-law

Mother

Niece

Mother-in-law

See Explanation
My father’s son is my brother
Grandmother of my brother is my grandmother.
Only daughter-in-law of my grandmother means my mother.
So the lady is the girl’s mother.
QUESTION 17

When Manoj saw Ashok, he recalled, that Ashok was the son of the father of the
mother of his daughter. What is Ashok to Manoj?

Brother-in-law

Brother

Cousin

Uncle

See Explanation
The Mother of my daughter is my wife. Son of father of wife is the brother of wife i.e.
brother-in-law.
Ashok is the brother-in-law of Manoj.
QUESTION 18
Pointing to a lady on the platform Geetha said, “She is the sister of the father of my
mother’s son”. What is the lady to Geetha?

Mother

Sister

Aunt

Niece

See Explanation
Mother’s son is my brother.
My brother’s father is my father.
My father’s sister is my aunt.
So the lady is Geetha’s aunt.
QUESTION 19

Lakshmi and Girija are Gopal’s wives. Shalini is Girija’s step-daughter. How is
Lakshmi related to Shalini?

Sister

Mother-in-law

Mother

Step-mother

See Explanation
Girija’s step-daughter means Lakshmi’s daughter.
So Lakshmi is the mother of Shalini.
QUESTION 20

Showing the man receiving the prize Seema said, “He is the brother of my uncle’s
daughter”. What is the man to Seema?

Son

Brother-in-law
Nephew

Cousin

See Explanation
Brother of my uncle’s daughter is my uncle’s son, who is my cousin. i.e. The man is
Seema’s cousin.
QUESTION 21

Pointing towards Waman, Madhav said "I am the only son of his father’s one of the
sons". How is Waman related to Madhav ?

Nephew

Either father or uncle

Uncle

Father

See Explanation
Waman’s father has more than one son.
Madhav is the only son of one of the sons of Waman’s father.
Therefore, Waman is either father or uncle of Madhav.
QUESTION 22

Prakash is the son of Pramod. Neha is the daughter of Abhishek. Ruchi is the
mother of Neha. Awadhesh is the brother of Neha. How is Awadhesh related to
Ruchi?

Brother

Father

Son

Cannot be determined

See Explanation
Neha is the daughter of Abhishek and Ruchi.
Abhiskek and Ruchi are husband and wife respectively.
Awadhesh is the brother of Neha and hence, he is the son of Abhishek and Ruchi.
QUESTION 23

Pointing to a photograph, Vipul said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only

son". How is Vipul related to the girl in the photograph?

Father

Cousin

Brother

Data inadequate

See Explanation
My Grandfather’s only son is My Father.
So the girl is the daughter of Vipul’s father. i.e. Vipul is the girl’s brother.
QUESTION 24

Pointing to a man, a women said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother".
How is women related to the man?

Aunt

Mother

Grandmother

Sister

See Explanation
Only daughter of my mother is myself.
So the women is man’s Mother
QUESTION 25

A + B means A is the father of B, A - B means A is the wife of B, A x B means A is

the brother of B,

A / B means A is the daughter of B.

If P / R + S + Q, which of the following is true ?

P is the daughter of Q

P is the aunt of Q

Q is the aunt of P

P is the mother of Q

See Explanation
From the given data we conclude that S is the father of Q and P/R denotes that P is
the daughter of R and R is the father of S, which makes P as Q’s aunt.
QUESTION 26

Pointing a photograph X said to his friend Y, "She is the only daughter of the father
of my mother." How X is related to the person of photograph?

Daughter

Son

Nephew

Cannot be decided

See Explanation
The only daughter of the father of X’s mother, means mother of X.
Hence X is the son of the lady in the photograph.
QUESTION 27

Amit said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". How is Amit related to
the girl?

Father

Grandfather

Father-in-law
Husband

See Explanation
The girl is the wife of grandson of Amit’s mother i.e., the girl is the wife of the son of
Amit. Hence, Amit is the father-in-law of the girl.
QUESTION 28

Introducing Salma, Aamir says, "She is the wife of only nephew of only brother of my
mother." How is Salma is related to Aamir?

Wife

Sister

Sister-in-law

Data inadequate

See Explanation
Brother of mother means maternal uncle. Hence only nephew of Aamir’s maternal
uncle means Aamir himself. Therefore Salma is the wife of Aamir.
QUESTION 29
A lady pointing to a man in a photograph says, "The sister of the son of this man is
my mother-in-law." How is the husband of the lady related to the man in the
photograph?
Father
Son
Maternal Grandson
Maternal Grandfather
See Explanation
From the statement we can clearly understand the son of the man in the photo had a
sister, whose son is married to the lady. We also get the information that the man’s
son and the lady’s mother-in-law are siblings, which could only mean that the man is
the grandfather of her husband.

QUESTION 1
The cost price of three varieties of oranges namely A, B and C is Rs 20/kg, Rs 40/kg
and Rs 50/kg. Find the selling price of one kg of orange in which these three
varieties of oranges are mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5 such that there is a net profit of
20%?
Rs 48
Rs 48.6
Rs 49.2
Rs 49.8
See Explanation
Cost price of one kg of orange in which the three varieties of oranges are mixed in
the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 is equal to S where
S = 0.2 x 20 + 0.3 x 40 + 0.5 × 50
= 4 + 12 + 25
= Rs 41
Selling price per kg of oranges to ensure there is a net profit of 20%
= 1.2 x 41
= Rs 49.2
QUESTION 2

A sweet seller sells 3/5th part of sweets at a profit of 10% and remaining at a loss of
5%. If the total profit is Rs 1500, then what is the total cost price of sweets?

Rs. 36,500

Rs. 37,000

Rs. 37,500

None of these

See Explanation
Assume 'A' to be the cost price.
Therefore,
[{(3/5) x A x (10/100)} – {(2/5) x A x 5/100}] = 1500
Or A = Rs 37,500
QUESTION 3

’A’ sold an article to ’B’ at a profit of 20%. ’B’ sold the same article to ’C’ at a loss of
25% and ’C’ sold the same article to ’D’ at a profit of 40%. If ’D’ paid Rs 252 for the
article, then find how much did ’A’ pay for it?

Rs. 175
Rs. 200

Rs. 180

Rs. 210

See Explanation
Let the article costs ‘X’ to A
Cost price for B = 1.2X
Cost price for C = 0.75(1.2X) = 0.9X
Cost price for D = 1.4(0.9X) = 1.26X = 252
X = 200
Amount paid by A for the article = Rs. 200
QUESTION 4
If the absolute difference between the selling price of the article when there is 15%
loss and 15% gain in selling a article is Rs 450, then what is the cost price of the
article?
Rs 1,200
Rs 1,500
Rs 2,000
Rs 2,200
See Explanation
If C.P. = Rs 100
Given, 115% of C.P - 85% of C.P = Rs 30
When C.P. = Rs ’X’
115% of C.P - 85% of C.P = Rs 450
Therefore, X = 450/30 x 100
QUESTION 5

On selling an article at successive discounts of 20% and 25% a dealer makes a net
profit of 20%, Find the net profit per cent if the dealer sells the same article at a
discount of 25%.

50%

40%

66%
60%

See Explanation
Let the cost price and market price of the article be ’x’ and ’y’ respectively.
Case 1: Successive discounts of 20% and 25%
Selling price of a the article = (0.8)(0.75)(y) = 0.6y
Therefore, 0.6y = 1.2x or, y = 2x
Case 2: A single discount of 25%
Selling price of the article = 0.75y = 1.5x
Net profit per cent = [(1.5x - x)/x] 100 = 50%
QUESTION 6

If the selling price of a mat is five times the discount offered and if the percentage of
discount is equal to the percentage profit, find the ratio of the discount offered to the
cost price.

11: 30

1:5

1:6

7 : 30

See Explanation
Since S.P. = 5 (M.P. - S.P.) => 5 M.P. = 6 S.P.
M.P. = (6/5) S.P.
Since the percentage discount = Percentage profit,
[ { (6/5) S.P. - S.P. } / ((6/5 ) S.P) ] x100 = (S.P - C.P) / C.P x 100
Therefore, 1/6 = (S.P/C.P) – 1 => S.P = (7/6) C.P
M.P = 6/5 S.P = 6/5 x 7/6 C.P = 7/5 C.P
Therefore, Ratio of discount to C.P
= (M.P – S.P)/C.P = [{(7/5)C.P - (7/6)C.P} / C.P.]
= 7/30
Therefore the ratio is 7 : 30
QUESTION 7
A sells his house to B at a profit of 10% who in turn sells it to C at a profit of 15%
who in turn Sells it to D at a profit of 25% and D sells it to E at 35% profit. If cost
price of E’s house is Rs 35,00,000, what is the approximate cost price of A’s house?

Rs 15,40,000

Rs 15,10,000

Rs 15,00,000

Rs 16,40,000

See Explanation
Let the cost price of A’s house = Rs X
Therefore, Cost price of E’s house
= 1.1 * 1.15 * 1.25 * 1.35 * X
Therefore, 3500000 = 1.1 * 1.15 * 1.25 * 1.35 * X
X = 3500000 / 1.1 * 1.15 * 1.25 * 1.35
= Rs 16,39,584.25
The nearest option is Rs 16,40,000.
QUESTION 8

The market price of an article was 40% more than its cost price. I was going to sell it
at market price to a customer, but he showed me some defects in the article, due to
which I gave him a discount of 28.57%. Next day he came again and showed me
some more defects, hence I gave him another discount that was equal to 12.5% of
the cost price. What was the approximate loss to me?

Loss of 10%

Loss of 12.5%

Loss of 15%

None of these

See Explanation
Let the cost price be Rs 100
Then, market price is Rs 140
Now, the first discount is of 28.57% (approx.) = 2/7 th of market price.
Hence, its selling price = 140 x 5/7 = Rs 100
Now since you are selling at cost price, any further discount will be equal to loss
percentage.
QUESTION 9
Arjun buys a toy at Rs 100 and sells it at Rs 120. Amin buys the same toy at Rs 120
but sells it at Rs 100. What are the respective profit/loss per cent for the two
persons?
20%, 20%
20%, 16.7%
16.7%, 16.7%
16.7%, 10%
See Explanation
Percentage profit = [(120 - 100) / 100] x 100 = 20%
Percentage loss = [(120 - 100) / 120] x 100 = 16.7 %
QUESTION 10
Abhay sold a book at a loss of 10%. Had he sold it for Rs 108 more, he would have
earned a profit of 10%. Find the cost price of the book?
Rs 432
Rs 540
Rs 648
Rs 740
See Explanation
If C.P. = Rs 100
Profit of 10% - Loss of 10% = 110 - 90 = Rs 20

When C.P. = Rs. X

Profit of 10% - Loss of 10% = Rs. 108
X = 108/20 x 100 = Rs. 540
QUESTION 11

Cost price of 12 mangoes is equal to the selling price of 9 mangoes and the discount
on 10 mangoes is equal to the profit on 5 mangoes. What is the percentage point
difference between the profit percentage and discount percentage?

1.5 %

1.75 %

1.85 %
2%

See Explanation
Cost price of 12 mangoes is equal to the selling price of 9 mangoes,
Let the C.P. of one mango = Re. 1
C.P. of 9 mangoes = Rs. 9
S.P. of 9 mangoes = Rs. 12
Profit % of 9 mangoes = 3/9 x 100 = 33.33 %
Profit % of 1 mango = 33.33/9 = 3.703 %
Profit % of 5 mangoes = 3.703 x 5 = 18.51 %
Given, the discount on 10 mangoes is equal to the profit on 5 mangoes,
Discount on 10 mangoes = 18.51 %
Discount on 1 mango = 1.851 %
Therefore, Profit % of 1 mango - Discount on 1 mango = 3.703 - 1.851 = 1.85 %
QUESTION 12
If watches bought at prices ranging from Rs 200 to Rs 350 are sold at prices ranging
from Rs 300 to Rs 425. What is the greatest possible profit that might be made in
selling eight watches?
Rs 900
Rs 800
Rs 1,800
None of these
See Explanation
Profit would be maximum if watches are brought for Rs 200 and sold for Rs 425
Profit = Rs (425 - 200) = Rs 225
Profit of 8 watches = Rs 225 x 8 = Rs 1,800
QUESTION 13
A shopkeeper marks up the price of his goods by 20% and gives a discount of 10%
to the customer. He also uses a 900g weight instead of 1Kg weight. Find his profit
percentage.
8%
12%
20%
None of these
See Explanation
Let the C.P of 1000g of goods be Rs 1,000
Market price = Rs 1,200
Selling price = Rs 1,200 x 0.9 = Rs 1,080 (after discount of 10% )
If Rs 1080 is the selling price of 900g of goods ( as he cheats of 10 % while selling )
C.P of 900g = Rs 900
Profit = Rs 180
Therefore, Profit % = (180/900 ) x 100 = 20 %
QUESTION 14
Ajay marked the price of his goods 30% more than his C.P. He then sells 1/4th of his
stock at a discount of 15%, and half of the stock at the marked price, and the rest at
a discount of 30%. Find his gain percentage.
16.5%
15.375%
14.20%
13.37%
See Explanation
If C.P = 100, M.P = 130
S.P = (1/4) x 110.5 + (1/2) x 130 + (1/4) x 91
S.P = 27.625 + 65 + 22.75 = 115.375
Hence , Profit = 15.375%
QUESTION 15
John sells his laptop to Mark at a loss of 20% who subsequently sells it to Kevin at a
profit of 25%. Kevin after finding some defect in the laptop, returns it to Mark but
could recover only Rs.4.50 for every Rs. 5 he had paid. Find the amount of Kevin’s
loss if John had paid Rs. 1,75,000 for the laptop.
Rs. 13,500
Rs. 2,500
Rs. 17,500
None of these
See Explanation
Let’s assume John bought the laptop for Rs. 100,
He then sells it to Mark for Rs. 80,
Who consequently sells it to Kevin for Rs. 100,
Then, Kevin sells it back to Mark for Rs. 90 (Rs.4.50 for every Rs. 5 that he had paid
initially), so he suffers a loss of Rs. 10,
Therefore, for Rs 100 there is a loss of Rs. 10,
Then for Rs. 1,75,000 there will be a loss of Rs. 17,500
QUESTION 16
The marked price of a radio is Rs 1,600. Rahul gives successive discount of 10%,
r% to the Pradeep. If Pradeep pays Rs 1.224 for the radio, find the value of r.
10%
20%
25%
15%
See Explanation
Marked price of the article = Rs 1,600
Therefore, Selling price = (100 - 10)% x (100 - r%) x 1600
= (90/100) x [(100 - r) / 100] x 1600
Given, 1224 = 9/10 x (100 - r) x 16
=> 1224 x 10 / (9 x 16) = (100 – r)
85 = 100 - r
r = 15%
QUESTION 17

Ajay sells goods to a customer at a profit of K % over the cost price, besides it he
cheats his customer by giving 880 g only instead of 1 kg. Thus his overall profit
percentage is 25%. Find the value of K.

8.33%

8.25%

10%

12.5%

See Explanation
Let C.P. of 1000g = Rs. 1000
Profit % = K %
Profit = K/100 x 1000 = 10K
He then cheats his customer by giving 880 g only instead of 1 kg,
So, C.P of 880 g = Rs. 880
S.P. of 880 g = 1000 + 10K
Profit % = [ ( 1000 + 10K - 880 ) / 880 ] x 100 = 25
K = 10%
QUESTION 18
Ajay buys 6 dozen eggs for Rs 10.80, and 12 eggs are found rotten and the rest are
sold at 5 eggs per rupee. Find his percentage gain or loss.
11 1/9 % gain
11 1/9 % loss
9 1/11 % gain
9 1/11 % loss
See Explanation
6 dozen egg cost = Rs 10.80
Since one dozen is rotten , he sells 5 dozen at 5 eggs per rupee.
Hence, S.P = Rs 12
Thus, Gain % = [(12 - 10.8) / 10.8] x 100 = 11 1/9%
QUESTION 19

If a book is sold at 8% profit instead of 8% loss, it would have brought Rs 12 more.

Find out the cost price of the book

Rs 75

Rs 72

Rs 60

Rs 70

See Explanation
Let C.P. of the book be Rs. ’X’
Given, 1.08 X - 0.92X = 12
=> 0.16 X = 12 = 12/0.16 = Rs 75
QUESTION 20
The cost price of 20 books is the same as the selling price of ’X’ books. If the profit is
25%, then the value of X is ?
25
18
16
15
See Explanation
let S.P. of X books = Rs 100 = C.P. of 20 books
Therefore, C.P. of one book = Rs 5
Profit = 25 %
Therefore, S.P of one book = 6.25
S.P of X articles = 6.25 X
6.25 X = 100 => X = 16
QUESTION 21
A man sells a book at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Re 1
less, he would have gained 10%. The cost price of the book is
Rs 200
Rs 150
Rs 250
Rs 240
See Explanation
Let the C.P of the article be Rs X
Profit = 5%
Therefore, S.P. = X + 5 % of X = 21X / 20
If C.P would have been (X - 5% of X), i.e.,
Rs 19 X / 20 and S.P would have been Rs [ (21 X / 20) - 1 ],
Then, gain % = 10 %
Therefore, [ { ( 21 X / 20) - 1 } - 19 X / 20 ] / (19 X /20 ) x 100 = 10
(2 X - 20 / 19 X) x 100 = 10
=> X = 200
QUESTION 22
Arjun sold an ipod for Rs 17,940 with a discount of 8% and gained 19.6%. If no
discount is allowed, then what will be his gain per cent?
30%
26.4%
24.8%
None of these
See Explanation
S.P = Rs 17,940
Discount = 8%
Market price = (17940 x 100)/ (100 - 8)
Rs 19,500
Gain = 19.6%
C.P = 17940 x 100/100 + 19.6 = Rs 15,000
If no discount is allowed on the Market price then S.P = Rs 19,500
Therefore, Gain % = (4500/15000 ) x 100 = 30 %
QUESTION 23
A trader wants 10% profit on the selling price of a product whereas his expenses
amount to 15% on sales. What should his rate of mark up be on an article of Rs. 9?
20%
25%
30%
(100/3) %
See Explanation
Let S.P. = Rs X
Therefore, expenses = 15% of X = 0.15 X
Profit = 10% of X = 0.10X
C.P. = Rs 9 (Given)
Therefore, 9 + 0.15X + 0.1X = X => X = 12
Markup % = 3/9 x 100 = 100/3 %
Therefore, the rate of mark up on the article should be 100/3 %
QUESTION 24
On selling a pencil at 5% loss and a book at 15% gain, Kiran gains Rs 7. If he sells
the pencil at 5% gain and the book at 10% gain, then he gains Rs 13. The actual
price of the book is
Rs 100
Rs 80
Rs 90
Rs 400
See Explanation
Let actual price of the book = Rs X
Let actual price of the pen = Rs Y
Therefore, ( X + 15% of X) + (Y – 5% of Y) = X + Y + 7
15X - 5Y = 700 …….(i)
Also (X + 10% of X) + (Y + 5% of Y) = X + Y + 13
10X + 5Y = 1300
Using (i) and (ii) we get X = 80, Y = 100
Therefore, actual price of the book = Rs 80
QUESTION 25
By selling 33 metres of wire, a shopkeeper gains the price of 11 metres of wire. His
gain per cent is
7%
50%
20%
22%
See Explanation
Suppose S.P of 33 meters of cloth = Rs 33
Therefore, Gain = Rs 11 => C.P = Rs 22
Gain % = 11/22 x 100 = 50%
Gain = 50%
QUESTION 26
If 7% of the sale price of a watch is equivalent to 8% of its cost price and 9% of its
sale price exceeds 10% of its cost price by Re 1, then what is the cost price of the
watch?
Rs 400
Rs 350
Rs 300
Rs 280
See Explanation
Let C.P. = X and S.P. = Y
=> 7 % of Y = 8% of X and 9% of Y =10% of X + 1
=> 7Y = 8X and 9Y = 10X + 100
=> 9 x (8X / 7) = 10 X + 100
=> X = Rs. 350
QUESTION 27
A bike agent buys 30 bicycles, of which 8 are first grade and the rest are second
grade, for Rs 3,150, Find at what price he must sell the first grade bikes so that if he
sells the second grade bikes at three quarters of the price, he may make a profit of
40% on his outlay.
Rs 200
Rs 240
Rs 180
Rs 210
See Explanation
Suppose the price of first grade bike = Rs X
And the price of second grade bike = Rs Y
Therefore, 8X + 22Y = 3150
Suppose he sells the first grade bike at the rate of Rs Z per cycle
Therefore, 8Z + 22 x 3/4Z = 3150 + 40% of 3150
98Z = 17640 => Z = 180
S.P. of the first grade bike = Rs 180
S.P. of the second grade bike = Rs 135
QUESTION 28
The retail price of a washing machine is Rs.1265. If the manufacturer gains 10%, the
wholesale dealer gains 15% and the retailer gains 25%, then the cost of the product
is
Rs 800
Rs 900
Rs 700
Rs 600
See Explanation
Suppose the cost = Rs X
Therefore, S.P. of the manufacturer = X + 10% of X = 11X/10
S.P. of the wholesale dealer = 11X/10 + 15% of 11X/10 = 11X/10 + 33X/200 =
(253/200) X
S.P. of the retailer = 253/200 X + 25% of 253/200X = 253/200 X + 253/800 X =
(1265/800) X
Given (1265/800) X = 1265 => X = Rs. 800
QUESTION 29
If the cost of 12 books is equal to the selling price of 10 books, the profit per cent in
the transaction is
16 2/3%
18%
20%
25%
See Explanation
Let C.P. of 12 books = Rs 12
Therefore, S.P. of 10 books = Rs 12
C.P. of 10 books = Rs 10
Therefore, Profit = 20%
QUESTION 30
Two motor cycles were sold for Rs 9,900 each, gaining 10% on one and losing 10%
on the other. The gain or loss per cent in the whole transaction is
Neither loss nor gain
1% profit
100/99 % profit
1% loss
See Explanation
C.P. of the 1st Motor Cycle = (9900 x 100)/(100 + 10) = Rs 9000
C.P. Of the 2nd Motor Cycle = (9900 x 100)/(100 - 10) = Rs 11000
Total C.P = Rs 20,000
Total S.P = Rs 19,800
Therefore, Loss per cent = (200/20000) x 100 = 1

Problems on Probability
Quantitative Aptitude

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This is the aptitude QUESTIONs and answers section on 'Probability' with solutions
and detailed explanation. QUESTIONs on the basic definitions and theorems of
probability are asked.

QUESTION 1
If two dice are thrown simultaneously, then find the probability that the sum of
numbers appeared on the dice is 6 or 7?

5/6

7/36

5/36

11/36

See Explanation
The sum of numbers appeared is 6 or 7. Therefore, the required sums are 6 or 7,
i.e., the required events are (1,5), (5,1), (2,4), (4,2), (3,3), (1,6), (6,1), (2,5), (5,2),
(3,4), (4,3)
i.e., for 6, n(E) = 5 and for 7, n(E) = 6
Therefore, the required probability = n(E)/n(S) = 11/36.
QUESTION 2

Out of 17 applicants, there are 8 boys and 9 girls. Two persons are to be selected for
the job. Find the probability that at least one of the selected persons will be a girl.

25/34

19/34

21/34

27/34

See Explanation
The events of selection of two person is redefined as (i) first is a girl AND second is a
boy OR (ii) first is boy AND second is a girl OR (iii) first is a girl and second is a girl.
So the required probability:
= (8/17 x 9/16) + (9/17 x 8/16) + (9/17 x 8/16)
= 9/34 + 9/34 + 9/34
= 27/34.
QUESTION 3
In a race where 12 cars are running, the chance that car X will win is 1/6, that Y will
win is 1/10 and that Z will win is 1/8. Assuming that a dead heat is impossible, find
the chance that one of them will win.
1/140
1/180
27/410
47/120
See Explanation
Required probability = P(X) + P(Y) + P(Z) (all the events are mutually exclusive).
= 1/6 + 1/10 + 1/8 = 47/120
QUESTION 4
The probability that Alex will solve a problem is 1/5. What is the probability that he
solves at least one problem out of 4 problems?
64/125
256/625
64/625
369/625
See Explanation
The probability that Alex will not solve a problem = 4/5. The probability that Alex will
not solve 10 problems = (4/5)4 = 256/625. Hence, the probability that Alex will solve
at least one problem = 1 - 256/625 = 369/625.

QUESTION 5

What is the probability that in the rearrangements of the word AMAZED, the letter ’E’
is positioned in between the 2 ’A’s (Not necessarily flanked)?

1/6

1/4

1/3

1/5

See Explanation
In any rearrangement of the word, consider only the positions of the letters A, A and
E.
These can be as A A E, A E A or E A A.
Therefore, effectively one-third of all words will have ’E’ in between the two ’A’s.
QUESTION 6
In his room, Dumbo has three trousers. One of them is black, the second is blue, and
the third is brown. In his room, he also has four shirts. One of them is black and the
other 3 are white. He opens his room in the dark and picks out one shirt and one
trouser pair without examining the colour. What is the likelihood that neither the shirt
nor the trouser is black?
1/12
1/6
1/2
1/4
See Explanation
Probability that trouser is not black = 2/3
Probability that shirt is not black = 3/4

Required probability = 2/3 x 3/4 = 1/2

QUESTION 7

Two dice are thrown together. What is the probability that the sum of the number on
the two faces is divisible by 4?

2/9

1/9

1/4

1/3

See Explanation
Clearly n(S) = 6 x 6 = 36
Let E be the event that the sum of the numbers on the two faces is divided by 4.
E= {(1,3), (2,2), (2,6), (3,1), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3), (6,2), (6,6)}
n(E) = 9
Hence, P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 9/36 = 1/4
QUESTION 8

A bag contains 5 red and 3 green balls. Another bag contains 4 red and 6 green
balls. If one ball is drawn from each bag. Find the probability that one ball is red and
one is green.
19/20

17/20

21/40

8/10

See Explanation
Let A be the event that ball selected from the first bag is red and ball selected from
second bag is green.
Let B be the event that ball selected from the first bag is green and ball selected from
second bag is red.
P(A) = (5/8) x (6/10) = 3/8.
P(B) = (3/8) x (4/10) = 3/20.
Hence, the required probability is P(A) + P(B) which is nothing but 21/40.
QUESTION 9

In a charity show, tickets numbered consecutively from 101 through 350 are placed
in a box. What is the probability that a ticket selected at random (blindly) will have a
number with a hundredth digit of 2?

0.285

2/5

99/225

47/205

See Explanation
Let S be the numbers between 101 and 350, i.e., n(S) = 250
Let E be the event when hundredth digit is 2.
n(E) = 100th digits of 2 = 299 − 199 = 100
P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 100/250 = 2/5
QUESTION 10
A bag contains 21 toys numbered 1 to 21. A toy is drawn and then another toy is
drawn without replacement. Find the probability that both toys will show even
numbers.
5/21
9/42
6/22
4/21
See Explanation
Since there are 10 even numbers in the given range, the probability that the first toy
shows an even number = 10/21
Since the toy is not replaced, there are now 9 even numbered toys and total 20 toys
left.
Hence, probability that the second toy shows an even number = 9/20.
Required probability = 10/21 x 9/20 = 9/42.
QUESTION 11
When 3 fair coins are tossed together, what is the probability of getting 2 tails?
1/2
1/3
1/4
3/4
See Explanation
We can get 2 tails in 3C2 ways.
We can get 3 tails in exactly one way.
Also, there are a total out 8 possible outcomes.
Thus, the required probability = (3 + 1)/8 = 1/2
QUESTION 12

There are four inns in a town. If 3 men check into the inns in a day, then what is the
probability that each checks into a different inn?

1/6

2/8

3/8

2/3

See Explanation
Total ways for the 3 men to check into the inns = 4³ ways.
The number of cases where 3 men are checking in different inns = 4 x 3 x 2 = 24
ways.
Therefore, the required probability = 24/4³ = 3/8.
QUESTION 13

Eleven books, consisting of five Engineering books, four Mathematics books and two
Physics books, are arranged in a shelf at random. What is the probability that the
books of each kind are all together?

5/1155

2/1155

3/1155

1/1155

See Explanation
The total number of arrangements = 11! / 5! / 4! / 2! = 6930. (the Physics,
Mathematics and Engineering books are considered to be identical)
The number of arrangements of when all books of one kind are together:
Here, we consider that all Physics, Engineering and Mathematics books are one item
each. Hence, we get a total of 3 items. These 3 items can be arranged in 3! = 6
ways.

Hence, the required probability is 6/6930 = 1/1155

QUESTION 14
Find the probability that a number selected from numbers 1, 2, 3,..., 20 is a prime
number, when each of the given numbers is equally likely to be selected?
10/20
1/20
8/20
3/20
See Explanation
Let X be the event of selecting a prime number.
X = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19}
n(X) = 8,
n(S) = 20
Hence, the required probability is 8/20.
QUESTION 15
In a box, there are 5 blue, 8 white and 3 yellow bulbs. One bulb is picked up
randomly. What is the probability that it is neither white nor blue?
3/16
5/16
8/32
2/32
See Explanation
Total number of bulbs = (5 + 8 + 3) = 16.
Let E = event that the bulb drawn is neither white nor blue = event that the bulb
drawn is yellow.
Therefore, P(E) = 3/16
QUESTION 16

In a race, the odds in favour of cars P, Q, R, S are 1 : 3, 1 : 4, 1 : 5 and 1 : 6

respectively. Find the probability that one of them wins the race.

9/17

114/121

319/420

27/111

See Explanation
P(P) = 1/4, P(Q) = 1/5, P(R) = 1/6 and P(S) = 1/7.
All the events are mutually exclusive and hence,
the required probability:
= P(P) + P(Q) + P(R) + P(S)
= 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/7
= 319/420
QUESTION 17
A fair coin is tossed repeatedly. If head appears on the first four tosses, then the
probability of appearance of tail on the fifth toss is.
1/7
1/2
3/7
2/3
See Explanation
Since the coin is a fair coin, every toss is independent of any other toss. Hence, the
probability of appearance of tail on the fifth toss is = 1/2
QUESTION 18

If two dice are thrown simultaneously, find the probability that the numbers appeared
are equal?

2/6

1/6

3/6

4/6

See Explanation
The numbers appeared are equal.
Therefore, the required events are (1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5) and (6, 6).
Therefore, n(E) = 6
Therefore, the required probability = n(E)/n(S) = 6/36 = 1/6
QUESTION 19
Tickets numbered 1 to 30 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What
is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
2/15
7/15
10/30
7/30
See Explanation
Here, the sample space S = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ...,29, 30).
Let E = the event of getting a multiple of 3 or 5.
E = (3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 5, 10, 20, 21, 24, 25, 27, 30)
P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 14/30 = 7/15
QUESTION 20
Three students appear at an examination of Mathematics. The probability of their
success are 1/3, 1/4, 1/5 respectively. Find the probability of success of at least two.
1/6
2/5
3/4
3/5
See Explanation
The probability of success of at least two students will involve the following
possibilities.
The first two students are successful, the last two students are successful, the first
and third students are successful and all the three students are successful.
Therefore, the required probability = 1/3 x 1/4 x 4/5 + 1/4 x 1/5 x 2/3 + 1/3 x 1/5 x 3/4
+ 1/3 x 1/4 x 1/5 = 10/60 = 1/6
QUESTION 21
A five-digit number is formed by using digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. What
is the probability that the number is divisible by 4?
1/5
2/5
3/5
4/5
See Explanation
A number divisible by 4 formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 has to have the last
two digits 12 or 24 or 32 or 52.
In each of these cases, the five digits number can be formed using the remaining 3
digits in 3! = 6 ways.
A number divisible by 4 can be formed in 6 x 4 = 24 ways.
Total number that can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition =
5! = 120.
Hence, the required probability would be 24/120 = 1/5.
QUESTION 22
A life insurance company insured 25,000 young boys, 14,000 young girls and 16,000
young adults. The probability of death within 10 years of a young boy, young girl and
a young adult are 0.02, 0.03 and 0.15 respectively. One insured person dies. What is
the probability that the dead person is a young boy?
36/165
25/166
26/165
32/165
See Explanation
The number of young boys that will die = 0.02 x 25,000 = 500
The number of young girls that will die = 0.03 x 14,000 = 420
The number of young adults that will die = 0.15 x 16,000 = 2400
The required probability = The number of young boys who will die / The total number
of people who will die.
= 500 / (500 + 420 + 2400) = 25/166
QUESTION 23
Four boys and three girls stand in queue for an interview. The probability that they
stand in alternate positions is?

1/35

1/34

1/68

1/17

See Explanation
Total number of possible arrangements for 4 boys and 3 girls in a queue = 7!
When they occupy alternate position the arrangement would be like:
BGBGBGB
Thus, total number of possible arrangements for boys = (4 x 3 x 2)
Total number of possible arrangements for girls = (3 x 2)
Required probability = (4 x 3 x 2 x 3 x 2)/7!
= 1/35
QUESTION 24
Seven white balls and three black balls are randomly placed in a row. Find the
probability that no two black balls are placed adjacently to each other.
7/15
2/15
3/7
2/7
See Explanation
The total ways of placing seven white balls and three black balls in a row = 10! / 7! /
3! = 120.
The number of ways in which no two black balls are placed next to each other:
Assume that seven white balls are placed in a continuous line with gaps before and
after each ball. There are totally 8 such gaps. Out of these 8 gaps, 3 gaps should be
chosen in order to place the black balls. There are a total of 8C3 = 56 ways in which
this can be done.
Hence, the required probability = 56/120 = 7/15.
QUESTION 25
A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that it is
neither a spade nor a jack?
9/13
4/13
2/13
6/13
See Explanation
There are 13 spades including a jack and 3 more jacks of other suits.
Probability of getting spade or a jack:
= (13 + 3)/52
= 16/52
= 4/13
Therefore, the probability of getting neither a spade nor a jack:
= 1 − 4/13
= 9/13
QUESTION 26
Four different objects 1, 2, 3, 4 are distributed at random in four places marked 1, 2,
3, 4. What is the probability that none of the objects occupy the place corresponding
to its number?
6/3
3/8
1/2
5/8
See Explanation
There are 4! i.e. 24 ways in which four objects can be arranged in four places. There
are a total of 9 instances where the objects are not occupying the place
corresponding to the given number. They are as follows:
(2, 1, 4, 3) (2, 3, 4, 1) (2, 4, 1, 3) (3, 1, 4, 2) (3, 4, 1, 2) (3, 4, 2, 1) (4, 1, 2, 3) (4, 3, 1,
2) (4, 3, 2, 1)
Hence, the required probability = 9/24 = 3/8.
QUESTION 27
Two brothers Ram and Ravi appeared for an exam. The probability of selection of
Ram is 2/7 and that of Ravi is 1/5. Find the probability that both of them are selected.
2/35
2/3
7/35
5/7
See Explanation
Let A be the event that Ram is selected and B is the event that Ravi is selected.
P(A) = 2/7
P(B) = 1/5
Let C be the event that both are selected.
P(C) = P(A) x P(B) as A and B are independent events:
= 2/7 x 1/5 = 2/35
QUESTION 28
A speaks the truth in 75% of cases and B in 80% of cases. In what percent of cases
are they likely to contradict each other in narrating the same event?
0.225
0.37
0.32
0.35
See Explanation
Different possible cases of contradiction occurs when A speaks the truth and B does
not speak the truth or A does not speak the truth and B speaks the truth.
(3/4 x 1/5) + (1/4 x 1/5) = 7/20 = 35% = 0.35
QUESTION 29
If x is chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4} and y is to be chosen at random
from the set {5, 6, 7}, then what is the probability that xy will be even?
5/6
2/6
2/3
1/2
See Explanation
S = {(1,5), (1,6), (1,7), (2,5), (2,6), (2,7), (3,5), (3,6), (3,7), (4,5), (4,6), (4,7)}
Total element n(S) = 12
xy will be even when even x or y or both will be even.
Events of xy being even is E.
E = {(1,6), (2,5), (2,6), (2,7), (3,6), (4,5), (4,6), (4,7)}
n(E) = 8
P(E) = n(E)/n(S)
= 8/12
= 2/3
QUESTION 30

A special lottery is to be held to select a student who will reside in the only deluxe
room in a hostel. There are 100 Year-III, 150 Year-II and 200 Year-I students who
applied. Each Year-III’s name is placed in the lottery 3 times; each Year-II’s name 2
times and Year-I’s name 1 time. What is the probability that a Year-III’s name will be
chosen?

1/8

2/9

3/8
2/7

See Explanation
Total names in the lottery = 3 x 100 + 2 x 150 + 200 = 800
Number of Year-III’s names = 3 x 100 = 300
Required probability:
= 300/800 = 3/8

Problems on Mixtures and Alligations

Quantitative Aptitude

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This is the aptitude QUESTIONs and answers section on 'Mixtures and Alligations'
with solutions and detailed explanation.

QUESTION 1

One type of liquid contains 25% of benzene, the other contains 30% of benzene. A
can is filled with 6 parts of the first liquid and 4 parts of the second liquid. Find the
percentage of benzene in the new mixture.

28%

25%

30%

27%

See Explanation
Benzene in first type of liquid = 25%
Benzene in second type of liquid = 30%
Now , A can is filled with 6 parts of the first type of liquid and 4 parts of the second
type of liquid.
Which means Benzene from first type of liquid = 6×(25/100)
Benzene from second type of liquid= 4×(30/100)
Therefore , Total part of benzene present in the can = 6×(25/100) + 4×(30/100)
= 150/100 + 120/100
= 270/100
= 27/10
= 2.7
Now , Total part of liquid present in the can = 6 + 4 = 10
Therefore , the percentage of Benzene in new mixture = (2.7/10)×100 = 270/10 =
27%

Alternate:

Let the percentage of benzene =X

(30 - X)/(X- 25) = 6/4 = 3/2
=> 5X = 135 or
X = 27 so,
required percentage of benzene = 27 %
QUESTION 2

A housewife has 11 litre of solution that contains sodium carbonate solution and
benzene solution in the ratio 3 : 1. She adds 250 ml of 3 : 2 solution of sodium
carbonate and benzene solution to it and then uses 250 ml of the combined mixture
to make strong organic solution How much of pure sodium carbonate solution is she
left with?

1000 ml

912.5 ml

750 ml

720 ml

See Explanation
ln a mixture of 1,000 ml sodium carbonate : benzene solution = 3 : 1.
Hence, sodium carbonate: 750 ml benzene solution 250 ml
A 250 ml of 3 : 2 solution contains 150 ml sodium carbonate solution and l00ml
benzene solution.
Total sodium carbonate solution = 900 ml, total benzene solution = 350 ml
After using 250 ml to make strong organic solution , sodium carbonate solution used
= 250/1250 x 900 = 180 ml
pure sodium carbonate solution left = 900 -180 =720ml
QUESTION 3

There are two alloys made up of copper and aluminium. In the first alloy copper is
half as much as aluminium and in the second alloy copper is thrice as much as
aluminium. How many times the second alloy must be mixed with first alloy to get the
new alloy in which copper is twice as much as aluminium?

See Explanation
first alloy second alloy
C Al C Al
Required alloy
C Al
2 1
Thus, Copper in first alloy = 1/3
copper in second alloy = 3/4
copper in required alloy =2/3
QUESTION 4

A jar contains a mixture of two liquids Acid (Nitric acid) and Base (Ammonium
chloride) in the ratio 4 : 1. When 10 litres of the mixture is taken out and 10 litres of
liquid Base is poured into the jar, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. How many litres of liquid
Acid was contained in the jar?

14
18

20

16

See Explanation
Let quantity of liquid Base in the mixture be x litres.
Then quantity of Acid in the mixture= 4x litres
Quantity of Acid in 10 litres of mixture = (4/5) × 10 = 8 litres
Quantity of Base in 10 litres of mixture = 10–8 = 2 litres
So, the remaining quantity of Acid and Base in the mixture 4x-8, x-2 litres
respectively.
After adding 10 litres of Base with the mixture the ratio of the quantity of Acid and
Base
= (4x-8)/(x-2+10)=(4x-8)/(x+8) = 2/3
=> 12x - 24 = 2x + 16 => 12x - 2x = 16 + 24
=> 10x = 40 => x = 40/10= 4 lit
So, quantity of liquid A in the mixture = 4x = 4 × 4 =16 litres

Alternate:
Percentage of liquid Base in the original mixture = 1/5 x 100 = 20%
In the final mixture % of the liquid Base = 3/5 x 100 = 60%
Now, using the rule of allegation
Hence, reduced quantity of the first mixture and the quantity of mixture B which is to
be added are the same.
Total mixture = 10 + 10 = 20 liters and quantity of liquid A = 20/5 x 4 = 16
QUESTION 5

A solution of cough syrup has 15% alcohol. Another solution has 5% alcohol. How
many litres of the second solution must be added to 20 litres of the first solution to
make a solution of 10% alcohol?

10

5
15

20

See Explanation
Hence both the types should be added in the ratio of 1 : 1 to obtain the required
strength.
Hence 20 litres of first type should be added to the 20 litres of the second type to get
the desired solution.
QUESTION 6

In a mixture of 45 litres, the ratio of acid to base is 4 : 1. How much base must be
added to make the mixture ratio 3 :2?

72 lts

24 lts

15 lts

1.5 lts

See Explanation
Base = 9 litres
Acid = 9 lts
To make the ratio of acid : base as
3 : 2,
15 litres of base must be added.
QUESTION 7

In a mixture of 45 litres, the ratio of acid to base is 3 : 2. How much base must be
added to make the ratio 9: 11?

10 lts

15 lts

17 lts
20 lts

See Explanation
Let M = 3K,W = 2K
Thus, 3K + 2K = 45
=> K=9
=> acid = 27 litres and base = 18 litres.
Now suppose x litres of base is added to the mixture such that
27/(18 + X) = 9/11
=>162 +9X = 297
=> 9X = 135
=> X = 15
QUESTION 8
In a mixture of 60 litres, the ratio of acid to base is 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2,
then the quantity of base (in litres) to be further added is
20
30
40
60
See Explanation
Acid = 40 lts
Base = 20 lts
to make the ratio A:B = 1:2 ,
60 lts of base should be added
QUESTION 9
Ajay pays Rs 6.4 per litre of spirit, He adds water and sells the mixture at Rs 8 per
Iitre, thereby making 37.5% profit. Find the proportion of the water to that of the spirit
received by the customers.
1:15
1:10
1:20
1:12
See Explanation
Suppose the quantity of spirit purchased= X litres
Suppose quantity of water mixed = Y litres
Required ratio of the water and the spirit in the mixture = Y : X
C.P of X lts of spirit = Rs 6.4X
S.P of X lts of milk = Rs 8(X + Y)
profit % = 37.5
Thus, C.P = S.P x 100/(100 + gain% )
=> 64 =( 8X + 8Y)/(100 + 37.5) x 100
880 X= 800X +800Y
=> 80X = 800Y => X = 10Y
=> X/10 = Y/1
Required ratio = 1:10
QUESTION 10
Ajay pays Rs 8.0 per litre of spirit. He adds water and sells the mixture at Rs 9 per
litre, thereby making 40 % profit. The proportion of water to spirit received by the
customers is
45:11
11:45
2:45
45:2
See Explanation
Suppose the quantity of spirit purchased = X lites
Suppose quantity of water mixed = Y litres
Required ratio of the water and the spirit in the mixture = Y:X
C.P. of x litres of spirit = Rs 8.0X
S.P of x litres of spirit = 9(X + Y)
Thus,C.P = S.P x 100/(100 + gain% )
=> 64 = (9X+9Y) x 100/100 + 40
=> 1120X =900X +900Y
=> 220X= 900Y
=> Y/X = 220/900 = 11/45
QUESTION 11
A trader has 50 kg of pulses, part of which he sells at 8 per cent profit and the rest at
18 per cent profii. He gains 14 per cent on the whole. What is the quantity sold at 18
per cent profit?
30 kg
25 kg
20 kg
40 kg
See Explanation
Ratio of quantities sold at 8% profit and 18% profit
=>4:6 = 2:3
Therefore,the quantity sold at 18% profit
=>50/(2 + 3) x 3
=>30 kg
QUESTION 12
A trader has 50 kg of rice, apart of which he sells at 10 per cent profit and the rest at
5 per cent loss. He gains 7 per cent on the whole. What is the quantity sold at 10 per
cent gain and 5 per cent loss?
30kg, 10kg
40kg, 15kg
35kg, 40kg
40kg, 10kg
See Explanation
Ratio of quantities sold at 10%profit and 5%loss
=>12:3 = 4:1
Therefore,the quantity sold at 10%profit
=50/(4 +1) x 4
=40 kg
and the quantity sold at 5%loss
=50 - 40
=10 kg
QUESTION 13
Several litres of acid were drawn offa 54 litre vessel full of acid and an equal amount
of water was added. Again the same volume of the mixture was drawn off and
replaced by water. As a result, the vessel contained 24 litres of pure acid. How much
of the acid was drawn off initially?
12 lts
16 lts
18 lts
24 lts
See Explanation
Suppose X litres of acid was drawn off initially.
Remaining acid in the 54 litre vessel full of acid.
=> (54 - x) litres and water added = x litres.
Now out of the 54 litres of mixture of acid and water x litres of mixture is drawn off.
=> quantity of acid drawn off =(54 - X/54 x X)
litres and quantity of water drawn off = X2/54
Now vessel contains [54 - X - (54 - X/54)X]
Thus, 54 - X - [54 - X/54]X = 24
=> X2 - 108X +1620 = 0
=> X = 80, 18
since 90 > 54 therefore X = 90 is ruled out
hence X = 18
QUESTION 14
Mira’s expenditure and sayings are in the ratio 3: 2. Her income increases by 10
percent. Her expenditure also increases by 12 percent. By how much per cent does
her saving increase?
7%
10%
9%
13%
See Explanation
We get two values of x ,7 and 13.
But to get a viable answer we must keep in mind that the central value(10)must lie
between x and 12.
Thus the value of x should be 7 and not 13
Thus, Required %increase = 7%
QUESTION 15
An empty container is filled with pure alcohol. The alcohol is slowly allowed to run
out and when the container is 1/4 empty ,it is replaced with water . Next, when the
container is half empty it is again filled with water. Finally, when it is empty, it is again
filled with water. What percentage of container is alcohol now?

81/2%
113/4%
93/8 %
143/8%
See Explanation
Ratio of quantity of alcohol left to total quantity
=>1/1 x (3/4)/1 x (1/2)/1 x (1/4)/1
=>3/32
Alcohol percentage=3/32 x 100 => 93/8%
QUESTION 16
Mr X mixed 10 kg of variety A rice with 15 kg of variety B rice and sold the mixture at
a price 40% more than that of A. He did not get any profit.What is the ratio of the
cost price of variety A to that of B per kg?
2:5
3:5
4:5
5:8
See Explanation
Let Rs X, Rs Y be the cost price per kg of variety A and variety B of rice
By data 10X + 15Y = 25 (1.4) X.
Since sale price of the mixture is 40% more than the cost price or A.
Therefore 10X + 15Y= 35X
Thus,15Y = 25X.
Hence, X : Y = 15 : 25 = 3 : 5
QUESTION 17
A vessel contains a 105 ml mixture of milk and water. 3/7 of the mixture is alcohol,
the remainder is water. An additional quantity of 105 ml of milk is poured into the
mixture. What is the ratio of the volume of milk to water in the new mixture?
3:7
3:4
5:2
1:1
See Explanation
The amount of milk in the old mixture is 3/7 x 105 = 45 ml.
Further 105 ml milk is added.
Therefore, total milk in new mixture is 150 ml.
Water content is (105 -45) - 60 ml.
Milk to water ratio is 150: 60 or 5: 2
QUESTION 18
How much water must be mixed in 300 ml of sugar solution which contains 40%
sugar by Weight, such that it becomes a 30% sugar solution?
50 ml
75 ml
90 ml
100 ml
See Explanation
Total Quantity = 300 ml
Sugar by weight = 120 ml
Water= 180 ml
Let x be the amount of water added to the solution
Then 120/(300 + x)=30/100
=>1200 = 900 + 3x
=>x= 100 ml
QUESTION 19
Two vessels A and B contain mixtures of spirit and water. A mixture of 3 parts from A
and 2 parts from B is found to contain 29% of spirit and a mixture of 1 part from A
and 9 parts from B is found to contain 34 per cent of spirit. Find the percentage of
spirit in A and B.
35, 25
40, 20
25, 35
50, 50
See Explanation
Let X% be the percentage of spirit in A and Y% in B
3X/100 + 2Y/100 = 29% of (3 + 2)
3X/100 + 2Y/100 = 1.45
3X + 2Y = 145 ----------(i)
X/100 + 9Y/100 = (34/100) x 10
X + 9Y = 340 ----(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get X = 25 and Y = 35
A contains 25% spirit and B contains 35% of spirit.
QUESTION 20
Two jars contain milk and water in the ratio 5: 4 and 2: 1 regpectively. What volume
should be taken out from the first jar if volumes have to be taken out from both jars
so as to fill up a third 30 l jar with milk to water in the ratio 1: 1 ?
7.5 l
15 l
22.5 l
It is impossible
See Explanation
In both jars concentration of milk is more than 50%.
Therefore, in jar three concentration of milk cannot be 50%.
Hence, we cannot decide the volumes
QUESTION 21

Three bottles whose capacities are as 5 : 3 : 2 are completely filled with milk mixed
with water. The ratio of milk to water in the mixture of bottles are as 3 : 2, 2 : 1 and 3
: 1 respectively. Find the percentage of water in the new mixture obtained when
1/3rd of first, 1/2 of second and 2/3rd of the third bottle is taken out and mixed
together

66.66%

50%

16.66%

33.33%

See Explanation
Let the percentage of water be X

The quantity of new mixture = (5X/3) + (3X/2 )+ (4X/3) = 27X/6 = 9X/2.

Percentage of milk = (5X/3) x (3/5) + (3X/2) x (2/3) + (4X/3) x (3/4) = 3X
Percentage of water = (5X/3) x (2/5) + (3X/2) x (1/3) + (X/2) x (2/3) = 3X/2
Percentage of water = (3X/2)/(9X/2) x 100 = 100/3 = 33 (1/3)%
QUESTION 22
Three bottles contain equal mixtures of spirit and water in the ratio 6 : 1, 5 : 2 and 3 :
1 respectively. If all the solutions are mixed together, the ratio of spirit to water in the
final mixture will be
64 : 65
65 : 64
19 : 65
65 : 19
See Explanation
QUESTION 23
Two bottles A and B contain diluted ammonium nitric acid. In bottle A, the amount of
water is double the amount of acid while in bottle B, the amount of acid is 3 times
that of water. How much mixture Should be taken from each bottle in order to
prepare 5 litres of diluted sulphuric acid containing equal amount of acid and water?
1, 4
3, 2
2, 3
4, 1
See Explanation
A B
Acid water Acid water
1:2 3:1
Acid=1/3 Acid=3/4
Mixture=Acid:Water=1:1 Required acid=1/2
Now,Required ratio=(1/4):(1/6)=3:2
So the required quantity is 3 and 2 litres respectively.
QUESTION 24
The ratio of sodium chloride to ammonium in 100 kg of mixed ammonium normally
used by three chemists is 7: 25. The amount of sodium chloride to be added to 100
kg of mixed ammonium to make the ratio 9 :25 is
5 kg
6.625 kg
6.25 kg
6.35 kg
See Explanation
sodium chloride in 100 kg = 7/32 x 100 = 21.875 kg
ammonium in 100 kg = 25/32 x 100 = 78.125 kg
Now 78.125 is 25 parts out of (25 + 9) = 34 parts.
Hence 9 parts = 9/25 x 78.125 = 28.125
Amount to be added = 28.125 - 21.87 5= 6.25 Kg
QUESTION 25

Three beakers namely A, B and C each contain 100 ml of spirit and water solution.
The ratio of spirit to water in the beakers A, B and C is 1 : 3, 1 : 4 and 2 : 3
respectively. 40 ml of solution is transferred from beaker A to beaker C and than 28
ml of solution is transferred from beaker C to beaker B. Find the final ratio of spirit in
the beakers A, B and C.

3:6:8

6 : 15 : 20

15 : 28 : 42

None of these

See Explanation
Initial quantity of spirit and water in the beakers.
Beaker A: Spirit = 25 ml and Water =75 ml
Beaker B: Spirit = 20 ml and Water = 80 ml
Beaker C: Spirit = 40 ml and Water= 60 ml
After 40 ml (10 ml of spirit and 30 ml of water, which is in the ratio of 1 : 3) is
transferred from beaker A to beaker C, the quantity of spirit and water in the beakers
is as follows:
Beaker A : Spirit = 25 - 10 = 15 ml and
Water = 75 - 30 = 45 ml
Beaker B : Spirit = 20 ml and Water = 80 ml
Beaker C: Spirit = 40 + 10 = 50 ml and
Water = 60 + 30 = 90 ml
Now, Spirit : Water in Beaker C = 5 : 9
After 28 ml (10 ml of spirit and 18 ml of water, which is in the ratio of 5 : 9) is
transferred from beaker C to beaker B:
Beaker A: Spirit= 15 and Water = 45 mI
Beaker B: Spirit = 20 + l0 = 30 ml and
Water = 80 + 18 = 98 ml
Beaker C: Spirit = 50 - 10 = 40 ml and
Water = 90 - 18 = 72 ml
Required Ratio = 15 : 30 : 40 = 3 : 6 : 8
QUESTION 26
An alloy contains only zinc and copper. One such alloy weighing 15-gm contains zinc
and copper in the ratio of 2: 3 by weight. If 10 gm of zinc is added then find what
amount of copper has to be removed from the alloy such that the final alloy has zinc
and copper in the ratio of 4:1 by weight?
5 gm
5.5 gm
6 gm
4.8 gm
See Explanation
Weight of zinc in the alloy= 6 gm and weight of copper in the alloy = 9 gms.
Weight of zinc in the alloy=6 + 10= 16.(4 parts value)
Therefore one part = 4 gm
So 5 gm should be subtracted from 9 gm of copper to make 4 gm
QUESTION 27
Aqua regia is a mixture containing 50 per cent concentrated HCL and 70 per cent
concentrated HNo3 in the ratio 1 : 3 respectively. Aqua regia is to be formed with 15 l
of HCl of 80 percent concentration and 56 l of HNO3 of 90 per cent concentration by
adding water as a diluting agent. Another mixture ’X’ having 40 percent concentrated
HCL and 30 percent concentrated H2SO4 in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively is added to
the Aqua regia to form a solution of 111 l. Find the ratio of HCL to water in the
solution. Only water is used as a diluting agent
3:8
4:7
1:3
2:5
See Explanation
80 % concentrated HCL is to be diluted to form a 50% concentrated HCL solution.
The quantity of water to be added to the l5 l solution is i.e 5:3
Thus, (3/5) X 15 = 9
9 litres of water is added to HCL solution Similarly 16 l of water is added to 90%
concentrated solution of HNO3 to dilute it to 70% concentration.
The total quantity of HCL and HNO3 solutions are 24 l and 72 l respectively and that
of the
aqua regia formed is 96 I and that of water in it is 33.6 l
The quantity of mixture ’X’ is 11 I - 96 = 15.
In the mixture X, the quantity of HCL is [(5/12) X 0.6 + (7/12) X 0.7] X 15=(0.25 +
0.41) X 15 = 9.91.
The required ratio is (12 + 2.5)/(33.6 + 9.9) = 14.5/43.5 = 1/3
QUESTION 28
Two equal containers are filled with a mixture of water and petrol. One of them
contains three times as much petrol as in the other. The mixtures in the two
containers are then mixed and it is found that the ratio of water to petrol is 3: 2: Find
the ratio of water to petrol in each of the original containers.
2:1, 3:4
1:3, 1:2
2: 3, 4: 1
None of the above
See Explanation
In the new mixture, water : petrol = 3x : 2x
Assume x = 1, total quantity in both the beakers = 5 lit, for each beaker it would be
2.5 (not possible)
Assume x= 2, total quantity in both the beakers = 10 lit, for each beaker it would be
5 lit
So possibilities are

QUESTION 29
Platinum is 19 times as heavy as bronze and silver is 9 times as heavy as bronze. In
what ratio these two metals be mixed so that the alloy is 15 times as heavy as
bronze is
2:1
3:2
1:2
2:3
See Explanation
Let the proportion of weight of platinum in the mixture = x
then the proportion of weight of silver in the mixture = 1 - x
According to the QUESTION
19 X x + 9 (1 - x) = 15 X 1
19x + 9 - 9x = 15
10x = 15 - 9 = 6
x = 6/10 = 3/5
Therefore the proportion of weight of platinum in the mixture = x = 3/5
and the proportion of weight of silver in the mixture = 1 - x = 1 - 3/5 = 2/5
The required ratio of platinum : silver = 3/5 : 2/5
=3:2

Problems on Ages
Logical Reasoning

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QUESTION 1

What the output?

class Main{

int i=8;

int j=9;

public static void main(String[] args){

add();

public static void add(){

int k = i+j;

System.out.println(k);
 }

See Explanation
aedqw

QUESTION 2

These QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

Among the residents of Exotica Apartments, the number of residents who own Audi
cars is eight times the number of residents who own only Ford cars, the number of
residents who own only Palio cars is twice the number of residents who own only
Ford and Palio. The number of residents who own only Palio and Audi is same as
the number of residents who own only Ford. The number of residents who own only
Audi is average of the number of residents who own only Ford and only Palio. The
number of residents who own only Audi and Palio is half the number of residents
who own all the three cars. Each residents owns at least one of the three cars.

QUESTION 3

If the number of residents who own only Ford cars is 20, then what is the total
number of residents who own only Palio and only Audi cars?

120

110

100

90
See Explanation

d=b/2, e=b, a=f, g=2f, c= (a + b)/2

8a = c + e + f + g
8a = (a+b)/2 + b + a + 2a
8a = (a + b + 2b + 6a)/2
b=3a
Now, a = 20(given)
b = 60
b+c=?
b + (a + b)/2 = 60 + 40 = 100

QUESTION 4

If the number of residents who own only Audi cars is 20, then what is the total
number of persons who own at least two cars?

74

72

70

75

See Explanation
d=b/2, e=b, a=f, g=2f, c= (a + b)/2
8a = c + e + f + g
8a = (a+b)/2 + b + a + 2a
8a = (a + b + 2b + 6a)/2
b=3a
Now, (a + b)/2 =20
=> a = 10 (because b = 3a)
b= 30
Thus, total no. of residents who own atleast 2 cars is d+e+f+g=b + 2a + a + b/2 =75

QUESTION 5

If the number of residents who own all the three cars is 40, then what is the total
number of residents who own Ford or Palio cars?

220

230

210

215

See Explanation
d=b/2, e=b, a=f, g=2f, c= (a + b)/2
8a = c + e + f + g
8a = (a+b)/2 + b + a + 2a
8a = (a + b + 2b + 6a)/2
b=3a
2a = 40
a = 20
=> b= 60
No. of residents who own ford or palio =a+b+d+g+e+f= 4a + 2b + b/2 = 230
QUESTION 6

If the residents who own only Palio cars also buy ford cars, then what is the total
number of residents who own only two types of cars, given that 320 residents own
Audi cars?

320

300

275

340

220
See Explanation

d=b/2, e=b, a=f, g=2f, c= (a + b)/2

8a = c + e + f + g
8a = (a+b)/2 + b + a + 2a
8a = (a + b + 2b + 6a)/2
b=3a
8a =320
a= 40
b =120
No. of residents who use only 2 cars=(d+e+f)+b
= b/2 + b + a + b = 340
QUESTION 7

In a school, 20% of the students play Chess and Cricket, 39 % of the students play
exactly two games among Chess, Cricket and Rugby. 53% of the students play
Rugby and 58% of the students do not play Chess, 45% of students play cricket.
15% of the students play none of the three games and 40 students play all the
games.

QUESTION 8

How many students play exactly one game?

170

180
210

190

See Explanation

d + g = 20%---(1)
d + e + f = 39%--(9)
c + f + g + e =53%---(7)
b + e + c + n = 58%--(5)
b + e + g + d =45%---(2)
n = 15%
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
thus, b + e = 25%----(3)
b + e + c + n =58%
n= 15%---(4)
Substituting (3) and (4) in (5), we get
As, c =18%---(6)
Substituting (6) in (7)
=>g + e + f = 35%---(8)
Adding (1) and (9),
Now, 2d + g + e + f = 59%---(10)
Substituting (8) in (10)
2d=59%-35%=24%
d=12%---(11)
Substituting (11) in (1)
g= 20% -12% =8%
Now, 8% is given as 40.
Total students = 500
Substituting (11) in (9)
e + f =39% - 12% =27%
a + b= 100% - (d + e + f + g + c + n) = 20%

Number of students who play exactly one game = a+b +c =(20+18)% of 500=190
QUESTION 9

How many students play only Rugby ?

90

100

110

120

See Explanation

d + g = 20%---(1)
d + e + f = 39%--(9)
c + f + g + e =53%---(7)
b + e + c + n = 58%--(5)
b + e + g + d =45%---(2)
n = 15%
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
thus, b + e = 25%----(3)
b + e + c + n =58%
n= 15%---(4)
Substituting (3) and (4) in (5), we get
As, c =18%---(6)
Substituting (6) in (7)
=>g + e + f = 35%---(8)
Adding (1) and (9),
Now, 2d + g + e + f = 59%---(10)
Substituting (8) in (10)
2d=59%-35%=24%
d=12%---(11)
Substituting (11) in (1)
g= 20% -12% =8%
Now, 8% is given as 40.
Total students = 500
The number of students who play only Rubgy is 18% of 500 = 90
QUESTION 10

How many students play Rugby and Cricket, if 20 students play only Chess?

90

40

45

55

See Explanation
d + g = 20%---(1)
d + e + f = 39%--(9)
c + f + g + e =53%---(7)
b + e + c + n = 58%--(5)
b + e + g + d =45%---(2)
n = 15%
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
thus, b + e = 25%----(3)
b + e + c + n =58%
n= 15%---(4)
Substituting (3) and (4) in (5), we get
As, c =18%---(6)
Substituting (6) in (7)
=>g + e + f = 35%---(8)
Adding (1) and (9),
Now, 2d + g + e + f = 59%---(10)
Substituting (8) in (10)
2d=59%-35%=24%
d=12%---(11)
Substituting (11) in (1)
g= 20% -12% =8%
Now, 8% is given as 40.
Total students = 500
The number of students who play only Rubgy and Cricket is
a=20
a=>20/500=4%
a+b=20%
b=16% i.e 45 students
Substituting (4) and (6) in (5)
b+e= 25%
=>e=9%, i.e 9% of 500=45
QUESTION 11

In an examination, 43% passed in Maths, 48% passed in Physics and 52% passed
in Chemistry. Only 8% students passed in all the three. 14% passed Maths and
Physics and 21% passed in Math and Chemistry and 20% passed in Physics and
Chemistry. The number of students who took the exam is 200.

QUESTION 12

How many students passed in Maths only?

16

32

48

80

See Explanation
From the given information, the following Venn diagram can be formed.
The number of students who passed in Maths alone = 86 - 16 - 12 - 26 = 32
QUESTION 13

Find the ratio of the number of students passing in Maths only to the number of
students passing in Chemistry only?

16 : 37

29 : 32

16 : 19
31 : 49

See Explanation

From the above figure,

The number of students passing in Maths only = 32
The number of students passing in Chemistry only = 38
Hence, the required ratio is: 32 : 38 = 16 :19.
QUESTION 14

What is the ratio of the number of students passing in Physics only to the number of
students passing in either Physics or Chemistry or both?
11/42

34/46

49/32

31/49

See Explanation

From the given figure,

The number of students passing in Physics only = 44
The number of students passing in either Physics or Chemistry or both (everything
except for Maths only) = 200 - 32 = 168.
Therefore, the required ratio = 44 : 168 = 11 : 42.
QUESTION 15

In a test consisting of 143 QUESTIONs, any QUESTION can be classified as

Difficult/Easy or Precise/Long or Quants/Reasoning based. It was found that 20 of
the QUESTIONs are Easy, Precise and Reasoning based and 20 of the
QUESTIONs are Difficult, Precise and Reasoning based, 50 of the difficult
QUESTIONs are either Long or Quant based. 20 QUESTIONs are Easy, Long
and Quants based. In total, 64 QUESTIONs are Quants based of which one fourth
are Precise and Difficult. 10 of the QUESTIONs are Difficult, Long and Quants
based.

QUESTION 16

What is the total number of Long QUESTIONs ?

73

80

65

69

See Explanation
The number of long QUESTIONs is given by the number of QUESTIONs outside the
circle of precise (P), i.e, a + 10 + 20 + c
Determining the value of a:
It is given that 50 difficult QUESTIONs are either long or quant based,(refer the
figure) Hence, a + 16 + 10 = 50
a = 24.

Determining the value of c:

Value of c = 143 - (64 + a + 20 + 20)
c = 143 - (104 + 24)
c = 15

Hence, the required answer =a + 10 + 20 + c= 24 +10 + 20 + 15 = 69

QUESTION 17

How many of the QUESTIONs are Difficult, Long and Reasoning based?

20

24

28

36

See Explanation
From the above figure, the required answer is given by ’a’.
Determining the value of a:
It is given that 50 difficult QUESTIONs are either long or quant based, i.e., difficult,
long and reasoning; difficult, precise and quants or difficult long and quant. Hence, a
+ 16 + 10 = 50
a = 24.
QUESTION 18

How many of the QUESTIONs are Easy, Precise and Quant based ?

18

25

24

30

See Explanation
From the above diagram, it is evident that the required answer is ’b’.
b = 64 - (10 + 16 + 20)
b = 18
QUESTION 19
At the quarterly birthday party of Sherry, a baby boy, 40 persons chose to kiss him
and 25 chose to shake hands with him. 10 persons chose to both kiss him and shake
hands with him. How many persons turned out at the party?
35
75
55
25
See Explanation
Let n(A) = No. of persons who kissed Sherry = 40
n(B) = No. of persons who shook hands with Sherry = 25
and n(A ∩ B) = No. of persons who both shook hands with Sherry and kissed him =
10
Then, using the formula, n(A U B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B)
n(A U B) = 40 + 25 - 10 = 55.
QUESTION 20

The QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

In a class of 150 students, 50 students passed in mathematics, 40 students failed

only in chemistry and 20 students failed in both the subjects.
QUESTION 21

How many students passed in both the subjects?

20

15

10

16

See Explanation

The above Venn Diagram is based on the given information.

Number of students who passed in both the subjects=Number of students who did
not fail= 150-(80+20+100)=10
QUESTION 22

How many students passed exactly in one subject?

25

120

140

145

See Explanation

From the given figure, it can be determined that the required answer is the sum of
number of students who passed in Maths only(but did fail in Chemistry) and the
number of students who passed in Chemistry only(but did fail in Maths)
Hence, the required answer = 40 + 80 = 120
QUESTION 23

How many students failed in at least one of the subjects?

130

125

145

140

See Explanation

The number of people who failed in at least one of the subjects can be determined
by the sum of number of students who failed in Maths(but passed in Chemistry) and
the number of students who failed in Chemistry(but passed in Maths)=80+40=140.
Or this can be obtained by subracting the total number of students from the students
who passed in both=150-10=140
QUESTION 24

The QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

A survey was conducted among 200 users of mobile phones of different companies.
It was found that 160 use mobile phones of NOKIA, 100 use mobile phones of
SIEMENS and 90 use mobile phones of LG. 20 use mobile phones of all three
companies and each one uses mobile phones at least one of the three companies.

QUESTION 25

How many use mobile phones of only one company?

70

80

95

105

See Explanation

From the above figure, it is evident that the required answer is a + c + f.

Summing the total number of Nokia, Siemens and LG users,
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e + 60 = 160 + 100 + 90
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e = 290 ----- (1)
Also,
a + b + c + d + 20 + e + f = 200 (Each one uses mobile phones)
a + b + c + d + e + f = 180 ----- (2)
Subtracting (2) from (1)
b + d + e = 110 ----- (3)
Substituting (3) in (2)
a + c + f = 70.
Therefore, 70 people use mobile phones of only one company.
QUESTION 26

If 40 use only NOKIA, then how many use LG and SIEMENS only?

15

30

18

10

See Explanation

From the above figure, it is evident that the required answer is c + f.

Summing the total number of Nokia, Siemens and LG users,
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e + 60 = 160 + 100 + 90
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e = 290 ----- (1)
Also,
a + b + c + d + 20 + e + f = 200 (Each one uses mobile phones)
a + b + c + d + e + f = 180 ----- (2)
Subtracting (2) from (1)
b + d + e = 110 ----- (3)
Substituting (3) in (2)
a + c + f = 70.
According to the QUESTION, a = 40,
Hence, c + f = 30
QUESTION 27

What is the minimum possible number of users, who use only NOKIA?

30

50

45

25

See Explanation

From the above figure, it is evident that the required answer is a + c + f.

Summing the total number of Nokia, Siemens and LG users,
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e + 60 = 160 + 100 + 90
a + 2b + c + 2d + f + 2e = 290 ----- (1)
Also,
a + b + c + d + 20 + e + f = 200 (Each one uses mobile phones)
a + b + c + d + e + f = 180 ----- (2)
Subtracting (2) from (1)
b + d + e = 110 ----- (3)
Substituting (3) in (2)
a + c + f = 70.
Given that 160 use mobile phones of NOKIA
a+b+d+20=160
a+b+d=140
b+d+e=110 from (3)
For a to be minimum b+d has to be maximum
b+d=110(110 is the maximum value of b+d)
a=140-110=30
The minimum possible number of users, who use only NOKIA=30
QUESTION 28

The QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

Out of 200 people who attended a birthday party 120 had cool drinks, 100 had ice
cream, 80 had cake and 10 had none of these three. 100 people had exactly one of
the three items.

QUESTION 29

How many people had exactly two of the three items?

70

80

110

85

See Explanation
From the given information, it is clear that the required answer is b + d + f.

Given:
a + c + g = 100 -----(x)
Summing up the number of people who consumed all three items:
a + 2b + c + 2d + 3e + 2f + g = 120 + 100 + 80
a + 2b + c + 2d + 3e + 2f + g = 300 -----(1)
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 200 - 10
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 190 -----(2)

Adding (x) to (1)

2a + 2b + 2c + 2d + 3e + 2f + 2g = 300 + 100
2a + 2b + 2c + 2d + 3e + 2f + 2g = 400 ----- (3)

Multiplying (2) by 2 and subtracting from (3)

e = 400 - 380
e = 20 ----- (4)
Substituting (x) and (4) in (2)
b + d + f + 100 + 20 = 190
b + d + f = 70
Hence, 70 people had exactly two out of the three items
QUESTION 30

If 20 people had only cool drink and ice cream, then how many people had only
cake?
12

18

20

10

See Explanation

Given:
a + c + g = 100 -----(x)
Summing up the number of people who consumed all three items:
a + 2b + c + 2d + 3e + 2f + g = 120 + 100 + 80
a + 2b + c + 2d + 3e + 2f + g = 300 -----(1)
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 200 - 10
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 190 -----(2)

Adding (x) to (1)

2a + 2b + 2c + 2d + 3e + 2f + 2g = 300 + 100
2a + 2b + 2c + 2d + 3e + 2f + 2g = 400 ----- (3)

Multiplying (2) by 2 and subtracting from (3)

e = 400 - 380
e = 20 ----- (4)
Substituting (x) and (4) in (2)
b + d + f + 100 + 20 = 190
b + d + f = 70 -----(5)

The QUESTION mentions that b = 20

Substituting in (5),
d + f = 50
Also, d + e + f + g = 80
50 + 20 + g = 80
g = 10
Therefore, 10 people had only cake.
QUESTION 31

If 15 people who had only cool drink, had cake also and 5 people who had only ice
cream and cake had cool drink also, then how many people had at least two of the
three items?

135

105

78

119

See Explanation

There were initially 100 people who had only one item.
a + c + g = 100 -----(x)
15 out of these consumed one more item and hence, the number of people who
consumed only one item becomes 85.
Then,
No. of people who consumed at least two out of three items = Total number of
people - No. of people who consumed upto 1 item.
= 200 - (85 + 10)
= 105

Hence, there are 105 people who have consumed at least two out of three items.
QUESTION 32

What is the maximum possible number of people who had only cool drink?

90

87

118

120

See Explanation

a+b+c+d+e+f+g=
190 -----(2)
When e=0 f=80 c=20
a should be 120
but this does nt satisfy equation (2)
When e=5 f=75 c=10
a should be 115(as 120 ppl had cool drinks) but this also does not satisfy equation
(2)
When e=10 f=70 c=20
a should be 110(as 120 ppl had cool drinks)but this does not satisfy equation (2)
When e=1 f=70 c=20
a should be 90(as 120 ppl had cool drinks) and it satisfies equation (2) also.

QUESTION 33

These QUESTIONs are based on the following information.

In an office of 220 employees, for a given month, the number of employees who use
only bikes and cars is 33 1/3% less than the number of employees who use only
bikes and bus. The number of employees who use only bus and bikes is 3/4th of the
number of employees who use only cars and bus. The number of employees who
use only bus is 25. The number of employees who use neither bus nor cars is 50.
The number of employees who use cars is 115. The number of employees who use
all the three is 20.

QUESTION 34

How many employees who use bus but not bikes?

25

40

65

85
See Explanation

From the given figure,

Total number of employees who do not use cars:
50 + (3/4)x + 25 = 220 - 115
(3/4)x = 105 - 75
x = 30 x 4 / 3
x = 40

The required answer = 25 + x = 25 + 40 = 65

Hence, 65 employees who use bus but not bikes.

QUESTION 35

In the next month, each employee either starts or stops using exactly one mode of
transport, then what is the maximum possible number of employees who will be
using only cars, if 40 employees were to use only bikes?

95

105

60

70

50
See Explanation

From the given figure,

Total number of employees who do not use cars:
50 + (3/4)x + 25 = 220 - 115
(3/4)x = 105 - 75
x = 30 x 4 / 3
x = 40
From the above results, the following Venn diagram can be obtained.

The no of employees who use only bike,stop using them inorder to maximise the no
of employees who use only cars.
Similarly
The no of employees who use only bus,stop using them inorder to maximise the no
of employees who use only cars.
The no of employees who use only car,stop using them inorder to maximise the no
of employees who use only cars.
The employees who use bikes and cars only,stop using car.

QUESTION 36

If in the next month, 40 employees who use cars stop using them and start using
bus, then what is the maximum possible number of employees who will be using
bikes and bus?

50

60

70

80
See Explanation

From the given figure,

Total number of employees who do not use cars:
50 + (3/4)x + 25 = 220 - 115
(3/4)x = 105 - 75
x = 30 x 4 / 3
x = 40
From the above results, the following Venn diagram can be obtained.

In order to increase the number of employees who will be using bikes and bus, the
number of employees using only bike and car has to be changed to use only bike
and bus. Then, the number of employees who use bikes and bus becomes
30 + 20 + 20 = 70 (including the ones that use all three)
QUESTION 37
Answer the QUESTIONs based on the information given below.

Among the 300 tourists who visited India, each one visited at least one place among
Agra, Calcutta and Mysore. 150 tourists visited Mysore and 180 visited Agra.

QUESTION 38

If the number of visitors who visited Calcutta is 120, then what is the maximum
possible number of tourists who visited only Agra?

100

150

120

60

See Explanation
QUESTION 39

If the number of tourists who visited exactly one place is 160, then what is the
maximum possible number of tourists who visited Calcutta?

250

180

190

210

See Explanation
Given a+c+g=160---(1)
a+b+c+d+e+f+g=300---(2)
(2)-(1) =(3)
b+d+e+f=140---(3)
a=40
g=10
Substituting values in (2)
we get c=110
b=0;d=0;f=0
the maximum possible number of tourists who visited
Calcutta=b+c+e+f=110+140=250

QUESTION 40

If 240 tourists went to either Mysore or Calcutta, then what is the maximum possible
number of tourists that went to Agra and Mysore only?
160

240

180

120

See Explanation

b+c+d+e+f+g=240
d cannot be greater than 150.But all the other options are greater than 150.So the
answer is 120.