Miscellaneous PYQ Notes

Miscellaneous, Current Affairs and GK 1
Miscellaneous, Current Affairs and GK
1. Consider the following countries : 2014-I
1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council’?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Answer: d
Arctic Council:
o It is a high-level intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa

declaration.
o It is an intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation in the Arctic region.
o Members of the Arctic Council are Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland,
Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of
America as a member of the Arctic Council.
o Iceland is the current chair of the Arctic Council.
2. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to 2014-I
which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year
of 365 days?
(a) 22nd March (or 21st March)
(b) 15th May (or 16th May)
PRELIMS PYQ NOTES DISTILLED IAS

(c) 31st March (or 30th March)

(d) 21st April (or 20th April)
Answer: a
National Calendar of India – Saka Calendar
o The Saka Era marked the beginning of the Saka Samvat, a historic Hindu
calendar which was later introduced as ‘Indian National Calendar’ in 1957.
o The Saka calendar consists of 365 days and 12 months which is similar to the
structure of the Gregorian Calendar.
o The first month of the Saka Samvat is Chaitra which begins on March
22 which corresponds with March 21 during the leap year. Hence, option 1 is
correct.
3. Consider the following countries 2015-I
1. China
2. France
3. India
4. Israel
5. Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the
Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: a

Non-Proliferation Treaty
• The objective of Non-Proliferation treaty is to inhibit the spread of nuclear

weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses
of nuclear energy, and to further achieve the goal of nuclear disarmament.
• The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), entered into force in
March 1970.
• Nuclear-weapon states (NWS) consists of the United States, Russia, China, France, and
the United Kingdom.
4. Amnesty International is 2015-I
(a) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars

(b) a global Human Rights Movement
(c) a non-governmental organization to help people voluntary very poor
people
(d) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-
ravaged regions
Answer: b

Amnesty International
• Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization with its headquarters in

the United Kingdom focused on human rights.
• It was founded by Peter Benenson.
• It was founded in July 1961.
• Secretary-General: Kumi Naidoo
• The stated mission of the organization is to campaign for "a world in which every
person enjoys all of the human rights enshrined in the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights and other international human rights instruments".
• Amnesty International is a global movement of more than 7 million people who take
injustice personally.
• The organisation was awarded Nobel Peace Prize in 1977 for the "defence of human
dignity against torture".
5. Which one of the following issues the 'Global Economic Prospects' report 2015-I
periodically?
(a) The Asian Development Bank
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
(d) The World Bank
Answer: d
Global Economic Prospects
• 'Global Economic Prospects' is a World Bank Group flagship report.

• It examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on
emerging markets and developing economies.
• It is issued twice a year, in January and June.
• The January edition includes in-depth analyses of topical policy challenges.
• The June edition contains shorter analytical pieces.

• Commodity Markets Outlook is now released as its own report, also contained in this
collection.
• World Bank Group is a unique global partnership of five institutions working

for sustainable solutions that reduce poverty and build shared prosperity in
developing countries.
• They are:
o International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
provides loans, credits, and grants.
o International Development Association (IDA) provides low- or no-interest
loans to low-income countries.
o The International Finance Corporation (IFC) provides investment, advice, and
asset management to companies and governments.
o The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA) insures lenders and investors
against political risk such as war.
o The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
settles investment-disputes between investors and countries.
6. ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an 2016-I
(a) agency created by EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees

arriving from Middle East
(b) agency of EU that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries
(c) agency of EU to deal with all the bilateral and multilateral agreements
on trade
(d) agency of EU to deal with the conflicts arising among the member
countries
Answer: b

European Stability Mechanism
• European Stability Mechanism (ESM) was an international financial institution set up

by the euro area Member States to help euro area countries in severe financial
distress.
• The European Stability Mechanism (ESM) was set up in October 2012 as a successor
to the European Financial Stability Facility (EFSF).
• It provides financial assistance, in the form of loans, to eurozone countries or as new
capital to banks in difficulty.
• This assistance is granted only if it is proven necessary to safeguard the financial
stability of the euro area as a whole and of ESM Members.
7. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in 2016-I

the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as
(a) G20
(b) ASEAN
(c) SCO
(d) SAARC
Answer: b
RCEP: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
o Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed trade

agreement between the member states of the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (ASEAN) and its free trade agreement (FTA) partners.
o RCEP was launched in November 2012 in Cambodia as an initiative
by ASEAN to encourage trade among its member states and six other countries
(Six countries are Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, and South
Korea).
o The 10 members of ASEAN are Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.

• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental

international organization, founded by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People's
Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic
of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan.
• SAARC is a regional intergovernmental organization in South Asia.
o Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives,
Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
• G20 is the premier international forum for global economic cooperation.
o The members of the G20 are
Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia
, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South
Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the European Union.
8. In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms 2016-I
‘amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?
(a) WTO affairs
(b) SAARC affairs
(c) UNFCCC affairs
(d) India-EU negotiations on FTA
Answer: a
World Trade Organisation (WTO) - Boxes
• In WTO terminology, domestic subsidies in agriculture are identified by “Boxes”

namely Green Box, Amber Box & Blue Box.
Amber Box:
• All domestic support measures that distort production and trade (with some
exceptions) fall into the amber box.
Blue Box:

• It refers to a category of domestic support or subsidies under the WTO's Agreement

on Agriculture.
• This is the “amber box with conditions” - conditions designed to reduce distortion.
• Any support that would normally be in the amber box, is placed in the blue box if the
support also requires farmers to limit production.
Green Box:
• Subsidies that do not distort trade or at most cause minimal distortion are placed in
Green Box.
• These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher
prices) and must not involve price support.
9. Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be 2016-I
added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?
(a) Ruble
(b) Rand
(c) Indian Rupee
(d) Renminbi
Answer: d
Special Drawing Rights
• The SDR is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969.

o SDRs are artificial currency created to augment international liquidity.
o It is neither a currency nor a claim on IMF rather it supplements the existing
reserves of member countries of IMF.
o A currency included as SDR must be freely usable, widely used and widely
traded.
o The U.S. dollar, the euro, British pound and the Japanese yen form the SDR
basket.

• Chinese renminbi (RMB) was included in the SDR basket as the fifth currency in the
year 2016.
o The decision was taken during the IMF’s five-yearly review of the basket of
currencies.
• At present, SDR is based on a basket of five currencies—the U.S. dollar, the euro, the
Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling.
10. With reference to ‘IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes seen in the news, which 2016-I
of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an
arm of the World Bank.
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt
financing for the public and private sector.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Theory
• The World Bank Group (WBG) consists of five organizations -

o International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
o International Development Association (IDA)
o International Finance Corporation (IFC) (Hence statement 1 is correct)
o Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
o International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
• IFC Masala Bonds:
o The first Masala bond was issued by IFC in 2014 for the infrastructure projects
in India.

o They are the rupee-denominated bonds issued to offshore investors and are a
source of debt financing for the public and private sectors. (Hence statement
2 is correct)
11. Consider the following statements : 2016-I
1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.

2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
New Development Bank
• The proposal for setting up the New development bank was given by India at the 4th
BRICS summit in 2012 held in Delhi.
• The new development bank was created by BRICS in 2014. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
• It is headquartered in Shanghai, China. Hence statement 2 is Correct.
• The major role of the Bank is to support public or private projects through loans,
guarantees, equity participation and other financial instruments.
• It also cooperates with international organizations and other financial entities, and
provide technical assistance for projects.
• The first regional office of the NDB is in Johannesburg, South Africa.
• The BRICS is an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia,
India, China and South Africa.

12. With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee 2016-I
(IMFC), consider the following statements :
1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and
advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
2. The World Bank participates as observer in IMFC’s meetings.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
IMFC
• The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and
management of the international monetary and financial system, including on
responses to unfolding events that may disrupt the system. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• The IMFC usually meets twice a year.
• A number of international institutions, including the World Bank, participate as
observers in the IMFC's meetings. Hence statement 2 is correct.
13. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in 2016-I
the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?
(a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and development (OECD)
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World Bank
(d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Answer: c

Ease of Doing Business
• Ease of Doing Business Index is released by the World Bank annually.

o The indicator measures the performance of countries across 10 different
dimensions in the 12-month period ending May 1, 2019.
• According to the report, New Zealand retained its 1st position and Somalia was
ranked at 190th spot.
• India had jumped from its 77th position in the 2019 ranking to the 63rd position in
the 2020 report.
o India's score increased from 67.23 in the previous year to 71.0 this year.
o India ranking improved on four parameters which are Starting a
Business, Dealing with Construction Permits, Trading across Borders
and Resolving Insolvency.
o India for the third consecutive year was present in the list of 10 economies
where the business climate has improved the most.
o India is maintaining its first position among South Asian countries.
• Global Economic Prospects, World Development Report IBRD are the other reports
released by the World Bank.
14. Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to 2016-I
compute the Global Hunger Index Report?
1. Under nourishment
2. Child stunting
3. Child mortality
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: c

Theory
• The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is designed to comprehensively measure and track
hunger globally and by country and region.
• It is calculated each year by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI).
• The GHI highlights successes and failures in hunger reduction and provides insights
into the drivers of hunger.
• By raising awareness and understanding of regional and country differences in hunger,
the GHI aims to reduce hunger.
• To reflect the multidimensional nature of hunger, the GHI combines the four
component indicators into one index:
o Undernourishment: the proportion of undernourished people as a percentage
of the population (reflecting the share of the population whose caloric intake
is insufficient;
o Child wasting: the proportion of children under the age of five who suffer from
wasting (that is, low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition);
o Child stunting: the proportion of children under the age of five who suffer from
stunting (that is, low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition);
and
o Child mortality: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (partially
reflecting the fatal synergy of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy
environments).
15. Consider the following statements: 2016-I
The India-Africa Summit

1. held in 2015 was the third such Summit
2. was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a
Theory
• The first India-Africa Summit was held in 2008 in New Delhi.

• It is an official platform for the African-Indian relations and held once in every three
years.
• The second and third summit was held in 2011 and 2015 in Addis Ababa and New Delhi
respectively. Hence statement 1 is correct
• It was not initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
16. ‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontieres)’, often in the news, is 2016-I
(a) a division of World Health Organization
(b) a non-governmental international organization
(c) an inter-governmental agency sponsored by European Union
(d) a specialized agency of the United Nations
Answer: b
Theory
• Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF) or Doctors without Borders is a Non-governmental

organisation.
• It was founded on 20 December 1971.
• The international humanitarian medical aid organisation works in 69 countries.
• MSF has no real "headquarters." Although the organization was established in
France.
• It has grown into an international association with 24 independent sections
worldwide. It serves populations affected by epidemics, armed conflicts, natural
calamities, and manmade disasters.
• It delivers health care to some of the most deprived peoples on the planet.

17. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? 2016-I
(a) Iran
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Oman
(d) Kuwait
Answer: a
Gulf Cooperation Council
• Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a political and economic alliance of six Middle East
countries.
• The members of GCC are Bahrain, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman and UAE. Iran
is not a member of GCC. Hence Option 1 is Correct.
• The headquarters of GCC is in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
• All current members of GCC are monarchies.
• The GCC supreme council is the highest decision-making entity of the GCC.
o It sets its vision and goals.
o Each member state has one vote.
o Decisions on substantive issues require unanimous approval, while issues on
procedural matters require a majority.
18. ‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context 2016-I
of the affairs of
(a) African Union
(b) Brazil
(c) European Union
(d) China
Answer: d

Theory
• The OBOR initiative has also been referred to as the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI),
which was announced in 2013 by China’s President Xi Jinping.
• The ‘Belt’ also refers to the ‘Silk Road Economic Belt’.
• The main objective of the Initiative is to improve sub-regional and regional
cooperation.
• It aims to connect the East Asian economic region with the European economic circle
and runs across the continents of Asia, Europe, and Africa.
19. Consider the following pairs : 2016-I
Community sometimes in the affairs of mentioned in the news

1. Kurd Bangladesh
2. Madhesi Nepal
3. Rohingya Myanmar
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: c
Theory
• Kurds are the Muslim ethnic group predominantly in the Middle East.
o Kurds inhabit a mountainous region straddling the borders of Turkey, Iraq,
Syria, Iran and Armenia.
o They make up the fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East, but they
have never obtained a permanent nation-state.
• Madhesis were in news for demanding greater representation for the community in
the Nepalese constitution.

o The Madhesi also referred to as Teraibasi Nepali are an indigenous ethnic

group of Nepalese people who are natives of the Madhesh plains of Southern
Nepal in Terai belt of South Asia.
• Rohingya are an ethnic group, the majority of whom are Muslim, who have lived
in Myanmar province of Rakhine.
o Many of their enemies refuse to acknowledge that the Rohingya are an
ethnically distinct group.
20. With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons 2016-I
(OPCW)’, consider the following statements :
1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO
and WHO.
2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
3. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical
weapons threats.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Theory
• Organization for the Prohibitions of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is an

intergovernmental organisation and the implementing body for the Chemical
Weapons Convention. It is not under the European Union. (Hence statement 1 is
incorrect)
o OPCW is the Hague-based autonomous body, which works within the
framework of the United Nations, was established in 1997 by the Chemical
Weapons Convention to carry out its mandate.

• It oversees the global endeavour to permanently and verifiably eliminate chemical

weapons.
• The Convention contains four key provisions:
o Destroying all existing chemical weapons under international verification by
the OPCW.
o Monitoring the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from re-
emerging; (Hence statement 2 is correct)
o Providing assistance and protection to States Parties against chemical
threats; and (Hence statement 3 is correct)
o Fostering international cooperation to strengthen implementation of the
Convention and promote the peaceful use of chemistry.
21. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme 2017-I
working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are
correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly
to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to
provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations
system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and
basic sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: b

UN Habitat
• UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly.

• UN-Habitat has served as the global leader in promoting socially and environmentally
sustainable human settlements and adequate shelter for all. (Hence statement 1 is
correct)
• UN-Habitat collaborates with governments, intergovernmental, UN agencies, civil
society organizations, foundations, academic institutions and including the private
sector to achieve enduring results in addressing the challenges of
urbanization. (Hence statement 2 is not correct)
• Un-Habitat was established in 1978.
• UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to
reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic
sanitation. (Hence statement 3 is correct).
22. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an 2017-I
(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit

from the Asian Development Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring
of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable
mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the
OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have
the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate
infrastructure development in the world.
Answer: d
Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF):
• GIF was launched by the World Bank to cater to the infrastructure needs of countries.

• The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a global, open platform that facilitates the
preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure public-private partnerships
(PPPs) to enable mobilization of the private sector and institutional investor
capital. (Hence Option 2 is correct)
• It is designed to provide a new way to collaborate on preparing, structuring, and
implementing complex projects that no single institution could handle on its own.
23. Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the 2017-I
countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization
Answer: d
Theory
• Global Gender Gap Index:

o It is released by World Economic Forum which is an annual report. Hence the
option 1 is correct.
• The first publication of this index was released in 2006.
• This index is ranked among 153 countries by using 4 dimensions namely as follows,
o Educational attainment,
o Health and survival,
o Economic participation & opportunity and
o Political empowerment.
• According to the 14th edition of the Global Gender Gap Index, India has ranked in
the 112th position whereas Ireland is topped among the countries.
International Some of the reports and

Organisations Indexes released

• Environmental
performance index
• Fostering effective
energy transition
report
World
• Social mobility index
Economic
• Global risks report
Forum
• Global
competitive report
• Global Information
Technology report.
• World health
statistics,
• World tuberculosis
reports,
World Health • Ambient air pollution
Organization report,
• Global nutrition
report and
• World health report.
• Annual report
UN Women
• UN Human Rights
UN Human
report
Rights Council
• World Economic Forum (WEF):

o It was established in January 1971 with its headquarters in Geneva,
Switzerland.

o The aim of WEF is to improve the state of the world by bringing together all
the countries and formulating agendas in political, academic, business, society,
and economic development at global and regional levels.
• World Health Organisation (WHO):
o It came into force on 7th April 1948 which is celebrated every year as World
Health Day.
o WHO headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
o The main objective of WHO is to assist the governments of countries in
strengthening health services.
• UN Women:
o UN Women also called as United Nations entity for gender equality and the
empowerment of women.
o It was founded in July 2010 and came into force from January 2011 and
headquartered in New York, United States of America.
o The main objective of UN Women is to empower women and develop their
progress in all walks of life.
• UN Human Rights Council:
o United Nations Human Rights Council was founded by the UN General
Assembly on 15th March 2006.
o It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
o The main objective of the United Nations Human Rights Council is to protect
the rights of humans all around the world.
24. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): 2017-I
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the
Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation
among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS)
• It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies

of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing inclusive and an
open forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
• The Indian Navy in 2008 chaired the inaugural IONS Seminar. Hence, statement 1 is
not correct.
• Subsequent seminars and meetings of the ‘Conclave of Chiefs’ have been held at the
commencement of each two year IONS Chairmanship:
o United Arab Emirates in 2010,
o South Africa in 2012,
o Australia in 2014,
o Bangladesh in 2016 and
o Iran in 2018.
• In 2020 the IONS Chairmanship rotates to France and in 2022 to Thailand.
• IONS includes 24 nations that permanently hold territory that abuts or lies within the
Indian Ocean and 8 observer nations.
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the
United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International
Atomic Energy Agency.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Theory
• The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United
State(US) not the United Nations. So statement 1 is incorrect.
The International Panel on Fissile Materials:
• It was founded in January 2006.

• The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an independent group of arms-control
and nonproliferation experts. So statement 2 is also incorrect.
• It has experts from both nuclear weapons and non-nuclear-weapon states.
It is a group of 18 countries:
• Brazil
• Canada
• China
• France
• Germany
• India
• Iran
• Japan
• The Netherlands
• Mexico
• Norway
• Pakistan
• South Korea
• Russia

• South Africa
• Sweden
• The United Kingdom
• The United States.
26. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people 2018-I
either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to
starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts ?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Answer: d
Theory
• Yemen and South Sudan are two countries in which lakhs of people
suffered from acute famine/ malnutrition and died due to starvation caused
by war or conflicts.
• These countries are facing a humanitarian crisis due to famine and civil war.
• Yemen is now on the brink of “the world’s largest famine”, according to the United
Nations.
o Already, 17 million people are dependent on external aid for food and
medicine, while the country is fighting a massive cholera outbreak.
o The breakdown of government services, lack of drinking water and a
crumbling health sector, besides the miseries of civil war and aerial
bombardment, are fast turning Yemen into a failed state, and a breeding
ground for extremist groups such as al-Qaeda in the Arabian Peninsula.
• One year after South Sudan briefly declared a famine, more than half of the people
in the world’s youngest nation face extreme hunger amid civil war. A new report by

the United Nations and South Sudan’s government says more than six million people
are at threat without aid, up about 40% from a year ago.
27. The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the 2018-I
context of the affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Answer: b
Theory
• The Two-State Solution is used in the context of the Israel Palestine issue.
• It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of
the Jordan River.
• UNSC Resolution 1397 agreed in 2000 with support from the USA and
became the first UNSC resolution to agree on a two-state solution.
28. International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to 2018-I
(a) Child labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace
Answer: a
Theory
• International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to Child
Labour.

• Convention No. 182 calls for the prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of
child labour, which includes slavery, forced labour and trafficking.
• Minimum Age Convention (No 138) mandates member countries of the ILO to fix the
minimum age for admission to employment or work within its territory.
29. With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture 2018-I
(GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACS(A)
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Theory
• The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and
officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and
Climate Change in 2010, through the paper "Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies,
Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation". (Hence
statement 1 is incorrect)
• GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform
on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA).
• GACSA aims to catalyze and help create transformational partnerships to encourage
actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.
• GACSA aims to catalyze and help create transformational partnerships to encourage
actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.

• Membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member
individually determines the nature of its participation. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• GACSA is an independent alliance, governed by its members. India is just a signatory
to GACSA but was not instrumental in its creation.
30. Consider the following pairs Town sometime mentioned in news: Country: 2018-I
1. Aleppo: Syria
2. Kirkuk: Yemen
3. Mosul: Palestine
4. Mazar -i- Sharif: Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and3
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: b
Theory
• Aleppo – Syria, Damascus (capital of Syria)

• Kirkuk – Iraq, Baghdad (capital of Iraq)
• Mosul – Iraq
• Mazar-i-sharif – Afghanistan, Kabul (Capital of Afghanistan)
31. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in 2018-I
the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India's indigenous anti-missile Programme
(c) An American anti missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

Answer: c
Theory
• THAAD is a transportable, ground-based missile defense system.

• THAAD is an anti-ballistic missile defense system that has been designed and
manufactured by the US company.
• It is designed to shoot down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles
in their terminal phase (descent or re-entry) by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.
32. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to 2018-I
assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies,
emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio
de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015,
Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Answer: b
Theory
• In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was

held in Brazil.
• The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a
response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on
greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.
• PAGE represents a mechanism to coordinate UN action on the green economy and to
assist countries in achieving and monitoring the emerging Sustainable Development
Goals.

• Four UN organizations, including ILO, UN Environment, UNIDO and UNITAR initially

joined forces to be able to provide countries with broad and tailored support.
33. Consider the following statements 2018-I
1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.

2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the
territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by
tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Theory
• Most of the world's coral reefs are located within the tropical zone between 30º N and
30º S latitude. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Conditions for the growth of Coral Reefs:
o It required a preferred temperature range of approximately 22º to 30º C.
o For the growth of coral, the depth of the water should not exceed 200m.
o Corals can live only in saline waters, and the average salinity should be
between 27 to 40% for their proper growth.
• More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in territories of Australia,
Indonesia, and the Philippines. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The coral reefs are most commonly grown in the Pacific and the Indian Ocean, due to
their shallow, warm, and clean water.

• Some scientists estimate that more than 25,000 described species from thirty-two of
the world's thirty-three animal phyla live in reef habitats - four times the number of
animal phyla found in tropical rain forests. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
34. "Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by 2018-I
(a) The Intergovernmentai Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organisation
Answer: c
Theory
• The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015.
• It is an initiative launched to urge individuals, companies, and governments to
measure their climate footprint, reduce their greenhouse gas emissions as much as
possible.
• The secretariat in 2016 launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change
initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase
successful climate action around the world.
• Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and
governments to:
o Measure their climate footprint;
o Reduce their emissions as much as possible;
o Offset what they cannot reduce with UN certified emission reductions.
35. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the 2019-I
following statements:
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: a
Theory
• The AIIB is a multilateral development bank that has now grown to 97 approved
members worldwide. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
• India is the second-largest shareholder of the AIIB. Hence Statement 2 is Not
Correct.
• India is the largest borrower from the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.
• Australia, New Zealand, Qatar, Canada, Cyprus etc are non-regional members.
o Hence Statement 3 is Not Correct.
• The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank
with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia.
• It is established by the AIIB Articles of Agreement (entered into force Dec. 25, 2015)
which is a multilateral treaty.
• The Parties (57 founding members) to agreement comprise the Membership of the
Bank.
• It is headquartered in Beijing and began its operations in January 2016.
• The members of Bank have now grown to 97 approved members worldwide.
• There are 27 prospective members including Armenia, Lebanon, Brazil, South Africa,
Greece, etc.
36. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of 2019-I
Doing Business Index?
(a) Maintenance of law and order

(b) Paying taxes

(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits
Answer: a
Theory
The World Bank's ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ covers 10 sub-indicators namely:
1. Starting a Business,
2. Dealing with Construction Permits,
3. Getting Electricity,
4. Registering Property,
5. Getting Credit,
6. Protecting Minority Investors,
7. Paying Taxes,
8. Trading Across Borders,
9. Enforcing Contracts and
10. Resolving Insolvency.
• Therefore, maintenance of law and order is not an indicator of World Banks 'Ease of
Doing Business Index'.
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a

"protocol against the smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air".
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption
instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational
organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at
returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken
illicitly.

4. The United Nations office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by

its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and
UNTOC.
Which of the following statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
Theory
• The protocol against the smuggling of Migrants by land, sea and air comes under the
the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) and
not UNCAC, Hence Statement 1 is Not Correct.
• The United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC) is the only legally
binding universal anti-corruption instrument.
• The Convention covers many different forms of corruption, such as bribery, trading in
influence, abuse of functions, and various acts of corruption in the private sector.
Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
• United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC) includes "Returning Assets
to their rightful owners from whom they they have been taken illicitly".
Hence Statement 3 is Not Correct.
• The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its Member
States to assist in the implementation of both Conventions,such as UNCAC and
UNTOC, along with the UN Drug Conventions of 1961, 1971 and 1988 underpin all the
operational work of UNODC. Hence Statement 4 is Correct.

38. “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to 2020-I
(a) A loan system of the World bank

(b) One of the operations of a central bank
(c) A credit system granted by WTO to its members
(d) A credit system granted by IMF to its members
Answer: d
Theory
• The IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions.
• The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access
at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee.
• It is a portion of a member country’s quota that can be withdrawn free of charge at its
own discretion.
• The first 25% reserve tranche portion charges no interest.
• Anything beyond that could require permission and be subject to a service fee.
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 190 countries, working

to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate
international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and
reduce poverty around the world.
• The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants
to the governments of low and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing
capital projects.
• The World Trade Organization is an intergovernmental organization that is concerned
with the regulation of international trade between nations.

39. Consider the following pairs: 2020-I
1. Alma-Ata Declaration : Healthcare of the people

2. Hague Convention : Biological and chemical weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue : Global climate change
4. Under2 Coalition : Child rights
Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: c
Theory
• Alma Ata Declaration was adopted at an international conference on primary health

care held in Kazakhstan in 1978.
• It was the first international declaration underlining the importance of primary health
care. Hence Pair 1 is Correct.
• The Hague Convention protects children and their families against the risks of illegal,
irregular, premature, or ill-prepared adoptions abroad.
o Hague Convention is a multilateral treaty that came into existence on 1st
December 1983.
o The Convention applies to children age under 16 years. Hence, Pair 2 is NOT
correct.
• The Talanoa Dialogue is a process designed to help countries implement and
enhance their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020.
o The Dialogue was mandated by the Parties to the United Nations Framework
Convention for Climate Change to take stock of the collective global efforts to
reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases, in line with the goals of the Paris
Agreement. Hence Pair 3 is Correct.

• The Under2 Coalition is a global community of state and regional

governments committed to ambitious climate action in line with the Paris
Agreement. Hence, Pair 4 is NOT correct.
40. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of 2020-I
G20 ?
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
(c) Brazil, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea
Answer: a
Theory
• G20 is an international forum for global economic cooperation.

• It has 20 members, and these countries are as follows-
o Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia,
Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa,
Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the European Union. Hence
• G20 members account for 85 per cent of the world economy, 75 per cent of global
trade, and two-thirds of the world's population.
• G20 was formed in 1999 and its present chairman is Joko Widodo.
• Canadian finance minister Paul Martin was chosen as the first chairman and German
finance minister Hans Eichel hosted the inaugural meeting.
2023 G20 summit-
• The G20 Summit is formally known as the “Summit on Financial Markets and the
World Economy”.
• India is hosting the G-20 Leaders’ Summit in 2023.
List of some important international groups and member countries are as follows-

• ADB - Asian Development Bank Established on 19 December 1966 Nd ADB now has 68
members.
• G7 - Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, UK and USA.
• SCO- founded in 2001, f China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Pakistan,
India and Uzbekistan.
• BBIN Initiative- Bangladesh, Bhutan, India and Nepal, it was founded in 2016.
• BIMSTEC- Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand.
41. Consider the following pairs River - Flows into : 2020-I
1. Mekong — Andaman Sea

2. Thames — Irish Sea
3. Volga — Caspian Sea
4. Zambezi — Indian Ocean
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: c
Theory
• Four major rivers flow into the Irish Sea, the River Clyde in Scotland, the River Dee in
Wales, the River Liffey in the Republic of Ireland, and the River Mersey in
England. While Thames river flows into the north sea, hence 2 is incorrect.
• Volga River, Terek River, Ural River, and Mtkvari River flows into the Caspian Sea.
Hence 3 is correct.
• Mekong River drains into the South China Sea. It is the 11th largest river of the world
and its length is 4880 km. It flows through China, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia,
and Vietnam. Hence 1 is incorrect.

• The Zambezi, Ganges-Brahmaputra, Indus, Jubba, and Murray rivers and the Shatt al-
Arab, Wadi Ad Dawasir, and Limpopo rivers, etc. drain into the Indian Ocean, hence 4
is correct.
42. Consider the following: 2012-I
1. Hotels and restaurants

2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions
The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’
coverage under Employees’ State Insurance Scheme?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Employees State Insurance Scheme-
• The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is social security legislation that provides
for medical care and cash benefit in the contingencies of sickness, maternity,
disablement, and death due to employment injury to workers
Coverage-
• The Act applies, in the first instance to non-seasonal factories employing 10 or more
persons. The provisions of the Act are being extended area-wise by stages.
• The Act contains an enabling provision under which the "appropriate government" is
empowered to extend the provisions of the Act to other classes of establishments
- industrial, commercial, agricultural or otherwise.
• Under these provisions most of the State Govts. have extended the provisions of the
Act to new classes of establishments namely: shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas

including preview theatres, road-motor transport undertakings, and newspaper

establishments employing 20 or more coverable employees. Hence 1, 2, 3 and 4 all
are correct.
• The Scheme has also been extended to Educational Institutions employing 20 or

more persons in Rajasthan, Bihar, Pondicherry, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand,
Chattisgarh, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Assam,
Punjab, Tamilnadu and to Private Medical Institutions in the State of West Bengal,
Rajasthan, Bihar, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab,
Assam, UT Chandigarh, Jharkhand and Orissa.
• As of now, employees of factories/establishments mentioned above in the
implemented areas and drawing wages (excluding overtime) not exceeding Rs.15,
000/- per month are covered under the Act.
43. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances? 2012-I
1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but

not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of
Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of
movements.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Theory
The major difference between Bharatnatyam and Kuchipudi are as follows-

Bharatnatyam Kuchipudi
Ancient in origin Relatively younger than
Bharatnatyam
State - Tamil Nadu State- Andra Pradesh
Precise and Rhythmic Rounded Steps
Steps
Lot of focus on 'Aramandi' Dancers don't sit low
on the ground
Theme- Religious and Theme-Religious-
Spiritual Bhagat Purana
Performed by Earlier Earlier - Male Brahmins
devadasis (New-Male and
Now-Male and female
female dancers)
both
Dances do not speak Dancers speak
dialogues dialogues
Transitional movements In Kuchipudi Dance,
of the leg, hip, and arm.
The solo items are
Expressive eye movements
and hand gestures are Manduka Shabdam
used to convey emotions (story of frog maiden),
Balgopala Taranga
(dance on the edges of
brass plate with a
pitcher full of water on
the head) and
Tala Chitra Nritya

(drawing pictures with
dancing toes).

44. Consider the following : 2012-I
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
Theory
• Black-necked crane:
o The high altitude wetlands in the Tibetan plateau are the main breeding
ground of the species.
o These wetlands with small mounds provide excellent habitats for the birds to
breed.
o These birds winter at lower altitudes where they feed mainly on the leftovers
in rice and potato fields.
o This species is found in India, China and Bhutan and breeds in high altitude
wetlands in the Tibetan plateau at elevations of 2950-4900 m above mean sea
level.
o High altitude marshes and lakes of Tibetan Plateau (Tibet, Qinghai, Xinjiang,
Gansu), Sichuan (China), and eastern Ladakh (India) are the known breeding
grounds of black-necked crane. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The major wintering flocks are in Tibet, Yunnan and Guizhou (China) and
Bhutan (Phobjika and Bomdaling Valleys).

o A small wintering population is also found in the Sangti and Zimithang valleys
of Arunachal Pradesh in India.
• Flying squirrel:
o The Indian Giant Flying Squirrel is one of the largest flying squirrels, similar in
size to the Red Giant Flying Squirrel found in Northeast India and East Asia at
about 43cm long with a 50cm tail. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o They have a rufous coat, grey underparts, and large, round eyes.
o Their flying membrane extends from their wrists to their ankles, which enables
them to glide from tree to tree.
o Although named the Indian Giant Flying Squirrel, this species is fairly widely
distributed throughout Asia and can also be found in China, Laos, Myanmar,
Sri Lanka, China, Thailand and Vietnam.
o They can be found in dry deciduous and evergreen forests, but are tolerant
of human disturbance and can be found on plantations.
o This species is currently not of conservation concern but could decline with
increasing habitat loss.
o It is hunted for food and medicinal purposes in South Asia.
• Snow Leopard:
o Snow leopards live in the mountainous regions of central and southern Asia.
o In India, their geographical range encompasses a large part of the western
Himalayas including the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern
Himalayas. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
o The last three states form part of the Eastern Himalayas – a priority global
region of WWF and the Living Himalayas Network Initiative.
o The snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN-World Conservation
Union’s Red List of the Threatened Species.
o In addition, the snow leopard, like all big cats, is listed on Appendix I of the
Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES), which
makes trading of animal body parts (i.e., fur, bones and meat) illegal in
signatory countries.
o It is also protected by several national laws in its range countries.

• Cheetah:
o Currently, cheetahs are listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
o In Namibia, they are a protected species. Under the Endangered Species Act in
the United States, they are considered Endangered.
o The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) lists
them as an Appendix 1 species.
o Most wild cheetahs exist in fragmented populations in pockets of Africa,
occupying a mere 9 percent of their historic range. In Iran, fewer than 50
Asiatic cheetahs (a sub-species) remain. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
o The largest single population of cheetahs occupies a six-country polygon that
spans Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Angola, Mozambique and Zambia.
o Namibia has the largest number of individuals of any country, earning it the
nickname, “The Cheetah Capital of the World.” More than 75 percent of
remaining wild cheetahs live on rural farmlands alongside human
communities.
Tribe State
1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a

Theory
• Dongaria – Odisha is easy as dongaria kondh tribe was in news due to the POSCO
project
• Karbi would be of Assam – karbi aunglong protest for separate state
• Bonda is the most primitive tribal groups in Odisha.
• Tamang and the Limbu communities of Sikkim have been placed in the ST category.
• Hence the correct answer is 1.
• Tharu Tribals
o The community belongs to the Terai lowlands, amid the Shivaliks of the lower
Himalayas. Most of them are forest dwellers and some practised agriculture.
o The word Tharu is believed to be derived from their, meaning followers of
Theravada Buddhism.
o The Tharus live in both India and Nepal. In the Indian Terai, they live mostly in
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.
o According to the 2011 census, the Scheduled Tribe population in Uttar Pradesh
was more than 11 lakh; this number is estimated to have crossed 20 lakh now.
o The biggest chunk of this tribal population is made up of Tharus.
o Members of the tribe survive on wheat, corn and vegetables are grown close
to their homes. A majority still lives off the forest.
• PVTGs in Andaman
o Great Andamanese is one of five PVTGs that reside in the Andamans
archipelago.
o The Great Andamanese speak Jeru dialect among themselves and their
number stands at 51 as per the last study carried out by Andaman Adim Janjati
Vikas Samiti in 2012.
o The five PVTGS residing in Andamans are Great Andamanese, Jarawas,
Onges, Shompens and North Sentinelese.

46. With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following 2014-I
statements :
1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by
Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Theory
• Sattriya Dance-
o Sattriya originated in Sattra, monastery, as a part of the neo-Vaishnavite
movement started by Srimanta Sankardev in Assam. He propagated the “ek
sharan naama dharma”(chanting the name of one God devotedly).
o It was introduced in the 15th century A.D.
o Sattriya was given the status of classical dance in the year 2000 by the Sangeet
Natak Akademi.
o The themes performed are mostly on Radha Krishna and other myths.
o It consists of dhemali, drum playing, known as gayan bayan, where several
men play drums, in various talas (rhythms) and also use hand gestures.
o Popular Artists are Guru Jatin Goswami and Sharodi Saikia among others.
o It is based on devotional songs composed by Sankardeva.

47. With reference to India's culture and tradition, what is 'Kalaripayattu? 2014-I
(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of

South India
(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of
Coromandel area
(c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern
part of Malabar
(d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South
India
Answer: d
Theory
• Kalaripayattu is a martial art.

• It originated in Kerala from the 3rd century BC to the 2nd century AD.
• The place where this martial art is practised is called a 'Kalari'.
• It is considered to be among the oldest martial arts still in existence. Hence, option 4
is correct.
Martial art
Related State
forms
Lazim Maharashtra
Kalaripayattu Kerala

Orissa, West Bengal and

Chhau
Bihar
1. Garba Gujarat
2. Mohiniattam Odisha
3. Yakshagana Karnataka
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: c
Theory
• The three main components of classical dances are

o Natya (the dramatic element of the dance i.e. the imitation of characters)
o Nritta (the dance movements in their basic form)
o Nritya (expressional component i.e. mudras or gestures)
o Garba is a folk dance of Gujarat.
There are eight classical dances in India:
1. Bharatanatyam: Tamil Nadu

2. Mohiniyattam: Kerala (Hence 2nd statement is wrong)
3. Kathakali: Kerala
4. Kathak: North India (Uttar Pradesh)
5. Kuchipudi: Andhra Pradesh
6. Sattriya: Assam

7. Odissi: Odisha
8. Manipuri: Manipur
• Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Karnataka that depicts mythological

stories and Puranas.
• It is a temple art form performed with massive headgears and vibrant costumes.
1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.

2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Theory
Saint Kabir:
• Kabir was a renowned poet and social reformer during that 15 century.
• His writings influenced the Bhakti movement.
• He was against religious discrimination and propagated the presence of one
Supreme being in all the religions.
• He founded a religious community known as KabirPanth and his followers referred
to as kabirpanthis.
• He was greatly influenced by his Guru Saint Swami Ramanand.
• His works: Sakhi Granth, Anurag Sagar, bijak, kabir granthawali, etc. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
Pusti Bhakti is the grace of God and is of four kinds

• Vallabhacharya’s philosophy came to be known as Pushtimarga (the path of grace).

Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Pravaha Pustibhakti worldly life but move with awareness to attain God
• Maryada Pustibhakti withdrawing from the world and devote themselves to God
• Pusti-Pustibhakti enjoying God's grace and attempt to acquire knowledge.
• Suddha-Pustibhakti devotes themselves to the singing and praising of God.
Madhavacharya:
• Madhvacharya was a vaishnavite Brahmin from Karnataka.

• He was a propounder of Advaita literature and Upanishad.
• He founded the Dvaita school of Vedanta and called the philosophy as ‘Tattvavada’.
50. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as 2018-I
‘World Economic Outlook’?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Development Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum
(d) The World Bank
Answer: a
Theory
• The World Economic Outlook is published by the International Monetary

Fund twice a year. (April and October)
• It analyses and predicts near and medium-term growth prospects.
• Countries are compared based on GDP growth rate, or absolute GDP.
World Economic Outlook (October 2020)
• According to the October update of the World Economic Outlook 2020, India's
GDP will witness a contraction of over 10%.

• Global growth would contract by 4.4% in 2020 and bounce back to 5.2% in 2021.
• India is likely to bounce back with an 8.8% growth rate in 2021, thus regaining the
position of the fastest-growing emerging economy, surpassing China’s projected
growth rate of 8.2%.
• China is the only country to show a positive growth rate of 1.9% in 2020.
51. With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ 2014-I
refers to
(a) an assembly of village elders
(b) a religious sect
(c) a style of temple construction
(d) an administrative functionary
Answer: c
Theory
• In the Panchayatana style of temple architecture, the main shrine is surrounded by

four subsidiary shrines at four different corners, making it total of five shrines.
• In the Panchayatana style of temple architecture, the main shrine is built on a
rectangular plinth.
• Kandariya Mahadeva Temple in Khajuraho, Lingaraja Temple in

Bhubaneswar, Dashavatara Temple in Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh are the famous
examples of this style of architecture.

52. Kalamkari painting refers to 2015-I
(a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India

(b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North- East India
(c) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India
(d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India
Answer: a
Theory
• Kalamkari painting refers to a hand-painted cotton textile in South India.
• The word Kalamkari is derived Persian word where ‘kalam‘ means pen and ‘Kari‘
refers to craftsmanship.
• The painting is done using hands-on cotton or silk fabric with a tamarind pen, using
natural dyes.

• Kalamkari art was also found at the archaeological sites of Mohenjo-Daro.
• There are two styles of Kalamkari art in India :

o Srikalahasti style
o Machilipatnam style
• Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh are two states in India, where two different types of
Kalamkari paintings are done.
53. India is a member of which among the following? 2015-I
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation

2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
3. East Asia Summit
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) India is a member of none of them
Answer: b
Theory
• India is a member of the East Asia Summit.

• India is a member of ASEAN+6, not the Association of South-East Asian Nations
(ASEAN).
• India is also not a member of Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC).
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC)
• The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is an inter-governmental forum for 21

member economies in the Pacific Rim.
• It aims to promote free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region
• APEC started in 1989, in response to the growing interdependence of Asia-Pacific
economies and the advent of regional trade blocs in other parts of the world.

• It aimed to establish new markets for agricultural products and raw materials beyond
Europe.
• APEC is headquartered in Singapore.
• APEC’s 21 member economies are Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada; Chile;
People’s Republic of China; Hong Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; Republic of Korea;
Malaysia; Mexico; New Zealand; Papua New Guinea; Peru; The Philippines; The
Russian Federation; Singapore; Chinese Taipei; Thailand; United States of America;
Vietnam
Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN)
• The Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a regional intergovernmental

organization comprising ten countries in Southeast Asia.
• The ASEAN promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic,
political, security, military, educational, and socio-cultural integration among its
members and other countries in Asia.
• The motto of ASEAN is “One Vision, One Identity, One Community".
East Asia Summit (EAS)
• The East Asia Summit (EAS) established in 2005 is a forum of 18 regional leaders for
strategic dialogue and cooperation on the key political, security, and economic
challenges facing the Indo-Pacific region.
• The EAS comprises the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) – Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the
Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam – along with 8 members Australia,
China, Japan, India, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States.

54. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National 2015-I
Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)?
1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology
under the Central Government.
2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research
in India's premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly
advanced foreign scientific institutions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Theory
• The National Innovation Foundation - India (NIF) is an autonomous body set up in

March 2000 with the assistance of the Department of Science and Technology under
the Central Government at Ahmedabad, Gujarat. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Vision: It is India's national initiative to strengthen the grassroots technological
innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge. Hence, Statement 2 is not
correct.
• Mission: Its mission is to help India become a creative and knowledge-based society
by expanding policy and institutional space for grassroots technological innovators.
• Objectives:
o NIF scouts, support and spawn' grassroots innovations developed by
individuals and local communities in any technological field, helping in human
survival without any help from the formal sector.
o NIF helps grassroots innovators and outstanding traditional knowledge holders
get due recognition, respect, and reward for their innovations.

o It also tries to ensure that such innovations diffuse widely through commercial
and/or non-commercial channels, generating material or non-material
incentives for them and others involved in the value chain.
• Initiatives:
o NIF recognizes grassroots innovators and school students at the national level
in its various National Biennial Grassroots Innovation Award Functions and
annual Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam Ignite Children Award functions.
o NIF has also set up an augmented Fabrication Laboratory (Fab Lab) for product
development and strengthening in-house research.
o The INSPIRE Award - MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National Aspiration
and Knowledge) is being revamped and executed by the Department of
Science & Technology and National Innovation Foundation-India to align it with
the action plan for the "Start-up India" initiative.
o Grassroots Innovation Design Studio (GRIDS) facilitates formal design inputs to
the grassroots innovations at premier institutes viz NID Ahmedabad,
IIT Gandhinagar, NIT Srinagar, Srishti School of Arts, Design & Technology,
Bengaluru.
o Students' Club for Augmenting Innovations (SCAI) is a nationwide student
movement, comprising students from India's best management and
technology institutes that provides product development, mentoring, and
monitoring support to innovators and traditional knowledge holders at the
grassroots.
o Micro Venture Innovation Fund (MVIF) is one of its kind of dedicated risk fund
in the world, set up with the support of SIDBI in October 2003 and
operationalized in January 2004 that provides financial support to grassroots
innovators.
o Grassroots Technological Innovations Acquisition Fund (GTIAF) sanctioned in
2011 and operationalized in 2012 obtains the rights of technologies from
innovators after compensating them for the same, with the purpose of
disseminating and diffusing them at low or no cost for the larger benefit of the
society.

o Gandhian Inclusive Innovation Challenge Awards aim towards developing new

solutions for three challenges: paddy transplanter, wood stove, and tea leaf-
plucking machine.
o The Grassroots to Global (G2G) model propagated by NIF has proved that
Indian innovators can match anyone in the world when it comes to solving
problems creatively and they perform better than others in generating greater
sustainable alternatives by using local resources frugally.
o NIF provides in situ incubation of grassroots technologies to the innovator at
his/her place. All incubation facilities (financial or technical support,
mentoring, etc.) are extended to the innovator at his place where he continues
to work on his/her ideas or innovations.
o NIF has established community workshops in different rural areas of the
country at the premises of seasoned innovators so that other grassroots
innovators of the region can have access to fabrication facilities locally. Also,
they could learn from the experiences of seasoned innovators. This is expected
to promote the conversion of an idea into a prototype faster.
o The inverted model of innovation implies that children invent, engineers &
designers fabricate and companies commercialize.
o Innovations' exhibition at the President House and The Festival of Innovation
and Entrepreneurship (FINE) Since 2010, the Rashtrapati Bhavan has been
hosting an exhibition of innovations near its Mughal Garden to showcase the
creativity and ingenuity of common people. Since 2015, NIF and Rashtrapati
Bhavan is organizing a Festival of Innovation which comprises roundtables on
various topics in relation to Innovation in addition to the Exhibition.
o NIF is in the process of constructing a National Inclusive Innovation Centre for
Development (NIICenD) at Amrapur village in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It aims to
achieve the global standards of design and affordable excellence in terms of
greenery, accommodation of interest of non-human sentient beings, the
natural flow of water, wind & light, net-zero and renew-ability of the structure
so that after even 100 years of existence, most parts of the building remain
usable.

Place of Pilgrimage Location

1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Theory
Srisailam:
• Srisailam is the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala

Hills in Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Temple or Srisailam Temple is a Hindu
temple dedicated to the deities Shiva and Parvati.
• This temple is one of the twelve Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva and one of the eighteen
Shakti Peethas of goddess Parvati.
• Shiva is worshipped as Mallikarjuna and is represented by the lingam.
• Parvati is depicted as Bhramaramba.
Omkareshwar:
• Omkareshwar is situated on the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh (ancient

name: Shivpuri). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• River Narmada flows here around the Mandhata hill in the form of an Om which gives
it the name, 'Omkareshwar'.
• Omkareshwar is a Hindu temple dedicated to God Shiva.
• It is one of the 12 revered Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva.

Pushkar:
• The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Pushkar lies in Ajmer, Rajasthan.
• Pushkar is famous for the red spired Brahma Temple
• Pushkar is located on the shore of Pushkar Lake.
56. Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has 2016-I
declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
Answer: d
Theory
• Maharashtra has become the first state in the country to have a state butterfly, Blue
Mormon.
o Blue Mormon, the second largest butterfly found in India.
▪ It is a large, swallowtail black coloured velvet winged butterfly.
▪ The species of butterfly are primarily found in Sri Lanka and South
India-mainly restricted to the Western Ghats of Maharashtra, South
India, and coastal belts.
▪ Sometimes, It is also spotted in the mainland of Maharashtra between
Vidarbha and Western Maharashtra.

57. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across 2018-I
the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? [2016-I]
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats
Answer: d
Theory
• Great Indian hornbills are found in the forests of Nepal, India, Mainland Southeast
Asia, and Sumatra.
• Great Indian hornbill is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened
Species.
• They are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of India.
• Great Hornbills are found in three separate areas in South Asia;
o The Western Ghats,
o The Himalayan foothills in Uttaranchal to south Nepal
o Bhutan and northeast India.
• They are also found in Myanmar, islands in the Mergui archipelago, southern China,
Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Thailand, peninsular Malaysia, and in Sumatra, Indonesia.
• They are also found in primary evergreen and moist deciduous forests, mainly in
lowland forests, but they can be found up to 2,000 meters in some areas.
• The Great Hornbill is the state bird of Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Hornbill Festival is also celebrated between the 1st to 10th December every year in
Nagaland.
• In Nagaland Hornbill is a respected bird that finds mention in the tribe's folklore.
• In 2018 the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) listed the Great
Indian Hornbill as vulnerable in the Red List of Threatened Species.

Traditions- Communities
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival- Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj JaatYatra- Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari-Santhals
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Answer: a
Theory
1. Chaliha Sahib: Sindhi festival regarding Jhulelal. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra: It is Nanda Devi related festival in Uttarakhand. Gonds are not
native to this state. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.
3. Wari-Warkari: Wari is a pilgrimage for the Warkari sect related to Pandharpur god
Vithobain Maharashtra, and it is a part of Bhakti movement rather than a festival of a
particular tribal group. Besides, Santhals are not native to this state. Hence, pair 3 is
not correct.

59. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of 2012-I
elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why?
1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed
some restrictions on their export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not
found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of
electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Theory
• Rare Earth Metals:

o Rare Earth Elements or Rare Earth Metals are a set of 17 chemical elements in
the periodic table — the 15 lanthanides, plus scandium and yttrium, which
tend to occur in the same ore deposits as the lanthanides, and have similar
chemical properties.
o The 17 Rare Earths are cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), europium
(Eu), gadolinium (Gd), holmium (Ho), lanthanum (La), lutetium (Lu),
neodymium (Nd), praseodymium (Pr), promethium (Pm), samarium (Sm),
scandium (Sc), terbium (Tb), thulium (Tm), ytterbium (Yb), and yttrium (Y).
o Application:
▪ These elements are important in technologies of consumer
electronics, computers and networks, communications, clean energy,
advanced transportation, healthcare, environmental mitigation, and
national defense, among others. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

▪ Scandium is used in televisions and fluorescent lamps, and yttrium is

used in drugs to treat rheumatoid arthritis and cancer.
▪ Rare Earth elements are used in space shuttle components, jet engine
turbines, and drones.
▪ Cerium, the most abundant Rare Earth element, is essential to
NASA’s Space Shuttle Programme.
• Why does China dominate the sector?

o In China, the mining of Rare Earths began in the 1950s.
o At present, China refines approximately 80%-90% of the world’s Rare Earths,
thereby having substantial control over their supply. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
o According to the Australian Strategic Policy Institute, after the Cultural
Revolution in China ended, the country focussed on exploiting its natural
resources.
▪ In 1992, on a visit to the Rare Earths district of Baotou in Inner
Mongolia, China’s paramount leader Deng Xiaoping said: “The Middle
East has its oil, China has Rare Earths; China’s Rare Earths deposits
account for 80% of identified global reserves, you can compare the
status of these reserves to that of oil in the Middle East. It is of
extremely important strategic significance; we must be sure to handle
the Rare Earth issue properly and make the fullest use of our country’s
advantage in Rare Earth resources.”
• 10 countries that mined the most rare earth metals in 2019, as per the latest data
from US Geological Survey.
o China
o The US
o Myanmar
o Australia
o India
o Russia
o Madagascar

o Thailand
o Brazil
o Vietnam Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
60. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become 2013-I
frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance / importances
of discovering this particle?
1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of
transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the
physical space between them.
3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Theory
• The Higgs particle was discovered by British physicist Peter Higgs in the 1960s.
• It is also known as the "God Particle".
• This was proposed to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
• Higgs- Boson particle is a part of invisible energy field i.e. Higgs field in the universe.
• This is a fundamental particle which provide mass to other particles existing in the
universe, resulting in the creation of stars, planets, etc.
• When the Higgs field doesn't provide mass to particles then there will be no gravity
and no life.

• Higgs-Boson particle is named after 2 scientists those are Peter Higgs and Satyendra
Nath Bose.
61. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the 2014-I
following statements :
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Theory
• BRICS is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national
economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
• Originally there were 4 nations grouped as "BRIC" (or "the BRICs").
• South Africa became the member in 2010 and was last to join. Hence Statement 2 is
Correct.
• The BRIC grouping's first meeting was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia.
About BRICS
• Structure
o BRICS does not exist in form of organization, but it is an annual summit
between the supreme leaders of five nations.
o The Chairmanship of the forum is rotated annually among the members, in
accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S.
o BRICS cooperation in the past decade has expanded to include an annual
programme of over 100 sectoral meetings.

• Salient Features
o Together, BRICS accounts for about 40% of the world’s population and about
30% of the GDP (Gross Domestic Product), making it a critical economic engine.
o It’s an emerging investment market and global power bloc.
62. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ 2014-I

originally started from
(a) Egypt
(b) Lebanon
(c) Syria
(d) Tunisia
Answer: d
Theory
• Arab Spring:
o It is an anti-government protest against oppressive regimes and a low standard
of living, started in Tunisia in December 2010.
o By early 2011, it spread across Arabic-speaking countries in North Africa and
the Middle East.
• Egypt is bordered by Libya, Sudan, and Israel.

• Lebanon is bounded by Syria and Israel and has marine boundary with the
Mediterranean Sea.
• Syria is bounded by Turkey, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, and Israel.
• Tunisia is bordered by Algeria and Libya and has a marine boundary with the
Mediterranean Sea.
63. The problem of international liquidity is related to the nonavailability of 2015-I
(a) goods and services

(b) gold and silver

(c) dollars and other hard currencies
(d) exportable surplus
Answer: c
Theory
• The concept of international liquidity is associated with international payments

that arise out of international trade in goods and services.
• International liquidity consists of all the resources that are available to the monetary
authorities of countries for the purpose of meeting balance of payments deficits.
• Such liquidity ranges from assets readily available to resources that become available
only after extensive negotiation.
• The primary medium of international liquidity are gold and those foreign currencies
which are universally acceptable in the settlement of international transactions.
• The problem of international liquidity exists essentially for developing countries.
64. The 'Fortaleza Declaration', recently in the news, is related to the affairs of 2015-I
(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) OECD
(d) WTO
Answer: b
Theory
• During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014) the leaders signed the Agreement
establishing the New Development Bank (NDB).
• Fortaleza Declaration stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among
BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions

for global development thus contributing to sustainable and balanced growth.

Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• NDB’s key areas of operation are clean energy, transport infrastructure, irrigation,
sustainable urban development and economic cooperation among the member
countries.
• The NDB functions on a consultative mechanism among the BRICS members with all
the member countries possessing equal rights.
• NDB is headquartered in Shanghai.

• At the Fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi (2012) the possibility of setting up a new
Development Bank was considered to mobilize resources for infrastructure and
sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as
in developing countries.
65. 'Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action', of ten seen in the news, is 2015-I
(a) a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of

the Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(b) a plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific
Region, an outcome of the deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum
(c) an agenda for women's empowerment, an outcome of a World
Conference convened by the United Nations
(d) a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia
Summit
Answer: c
Theory
• The Beijing Declaration and the Platform for Action adopted unanimously by 189
countries at the United Nations World Conference on Women in Beijing in 1995.
• It recognizes women’s rights as human rights and sets out a comprehensive roadmap
for achieving equality between women and men.

• It aims at accelerating the implementation of the Nairobi Forward-looking Strategies

for the Advancement of Women and at removing all the obstacles to women’s active
participation in all spheres of public and private life through a full and equal share in
economic, social, cultural and political decision-making.
• The Platform for Action is an agenda for women’s empowerment.
66. Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the 2015-I
outbreak of Ebola virus recently?
(a) Syria and Jordan
(b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
(c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea
(d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam
Answer: b
Theory
• Ebola virus disease (EVD), formerly known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever, is a severe,
often fatal illness affecting humans and other primates.
• The virus is transmitted to people from wild animals (such as fruit bats, porcupines
and non-human primates) and then spreads in the human population through direct
contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected people,
and with surfaces and materials (e.g. bedding, clothing) contaminated with these
fluids.
• The average EVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have varied from
25% to 90% in past outbreaks.
• The first EVD outbreaks occurred in remote villages in Central Africa, near tropical
rainforests.
• The 2014–2016 outbreak in West Africa was the largest and most complex Ebola
outbreak since the virus was first discovered in 1976. There were more cases and
deaths in this outbreak than all others combined.

• It also spread between countries, starting in Guinea then moving across land borders
to Sierra Leone and Liberia.
67. The area known as 'Golan Heights' sometimes appears in the news in the 2015-I
context of the events related to
(a) Central Asia
(b) Middle East
(c) South-East Asia
(d) Central Africa
Answer: b
Theory
• The Golan Heights is a hilly, 1,200 sq-km rocky plateau in south-western Syria in
the Middle East region overlooking Lebanon, Syria, and the Jordan Valley.
• The Golan was Syrian territory until 1967 when Israel occupied it in the closing stages
of the Six-Day War.
• Most of the Syrian Arab inhabitants fled the area during the conflict and an armistice
line was established and the region came under Israeli military control and almost
immediately Israel began to settle the Golan.
• Syria tried to retake the Golan Heights during 1973 Arab-Israeli or Middle East
war after which both countries signed an armistice in 1974.
• A UN observer force has been in place on the ceasefire line since 1974.
• Israel unilaterally annexed the Golan Heights in 1981 which was not recognized
internationally and UN Security Council Resolutions determined Israeli sovereignty
over the area to be null and void pending negotiations with Syria, although the US
Trump Administration did so unilaterally in March 2019.
• Syria demands the return of all or part of the territory in exchange for any future peace
deal with Israel.
• There are Jewish settlements, Druze (Arabs who practise an offshoot of
Islam and many of them consider themselves Syrian), and a small minority of

Alawites (a branch of Shiite Islam, Syrian President Bashar Assad and key figures in
his regime are Alawites).
• The area is also a key source of water for an arid region where rainwater from
the Golan's catchment feeds into the Jordan River and Sea of Galilee, both major
sources of water for Israel.
• The land is fertile, and the volcanic soil is used to cultivate vineyards and
orchards and raise cattle.
• The Golan is also home to Israel's only ski resort.
68. The term 'Goldilocks Zone' is of ten seen in the news in the context of 2015-I
(a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth
(b) regions inside the Earth where shale gas is available
(c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space

(d) search for meteorites containing precious metals
Answer: c
Theory
• In astronomy and astrobiology, the circumstellar habitable zone (CHZ), or simply

the habitable zone (Goldilocks Zone), is the region around a star.
o Within this region, planetary-mass objects can support liquid water at their
surfaces with sufficient atmospheric pressure.
• The 'Goldilocks Zone,' or habitable zone, is the range of distance with the right
temperatures for water to remain liquid.
• Researchers are finding that life can thrive in some unexpected places.
• In January 2020 NASA reported the discovery of an Earth-size planet, named TOI 700
d, orbiting its star in the “habitable zone”(Goldilocks Zone).
• Terrestrial planets are also more likely to lie in the Goldilocks zone.
69. In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following 2015-I
statements about 'IceCube', a particle detector located at South Pole, which
was recently in the news:
1. It is the world's largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic
kilometre of ice.
2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
3. It is buried deep in the ice.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d

Theory
• The IceCube Neutrino Observatory or simply IceCube is the first detector of its kind,
designed to observe the cosmos from deep within the South Pole ice.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• An international group of scientists responsible for scientific research makes up
the IceCube Collaboration. Approximately 300 physicists from 53 institutions in 12
countries make up the IceCube Collaboration.
• The University of Wisconsin–Madison is the lead institution, responsible for
the maintenance and operations of the detector.
• The international team is responsible for the scientific program, and many of
the collaborators contributed to the design and construction of the detector.
• Encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice, IceCube searches for nearly massless
subatomic particles called neutrinos. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
• Neutrinos: These high-energy astronomical messengers provide information to
probe the most violent astrophysical sources like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts,
and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars.
• The Antarctic neutrino observatory, which also includes the surface array IceTop and
the dense infill array DeepCore, was designed as a multipurpose experiment.
• IceCube collaborators address several big questions in physics, like the nature of dark
matter and the properties of the neutrino itself. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• IceCube also observes cosmic rays that interact with the Earth’s atmosphere, which
have revealed fascinating structures that are not presently understood.
• Exciting new research conducted by the collaboration is opening a new window for
exploring our universe.
• The National Science Foundation (NSF) provided the primary funding for the IceCube
Neutrino Observatory, with assistance from partner funding agencies around the
world.
• Funding Agencies in each collaborating country support their scientific research
efforts.

1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.

2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)
• The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) was one among the 10 agreements of the
deal the WTO members (including India) had agreed upon in December 2013 Bali
Ministerial meeting. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The TFA seeks to speed up global trade by reforming customs procedures and cutting
red tape.
• India had agreed to sign the TFA by July 31st 2014, which aims at easing customs
procedures to boost commerce. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The agreement includes provisions for
o Lowering import tariffs and agricultural subsidies: It will make it easier for
developing countries to trade with the developed world in global markets.
o Abolish hard import quotas: Developed countries would abolish hard import
quotas on agricultural products from the developing world and instead would
only be allowed to charge tariffs on amount of agricultural imports exceeding
specific limits.
o Reduction in red tape at international borders: It aims to reduce red-tapism
to facilitate trade by reforming customs bureaucracies and formalities.
• The ratification will supplement India’s ongoing reforms to bring in simplification and
enhanced transparency in cross border trade in goods.

• It will further help India to boost economic growth by reducing trade costs and
supporting its integration into the global economy.
• The implementation of the TFA has the potential to create US 1 trillion dollars’ worth
of global economic activity which may add 21 million new jobs and lower the cost of
doing international trade by 10 to 15 per cent.
• TFA came into force in February 2017 after the ratification of the 2/3rd members of
the WTO. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
71. The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to 2017-I
(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) EU
(d) G20
Answer: c
Theory
• The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to the EU.
• The 'Digital Single Market Strategy' covers Telecommunication, Digital marketing, and
E-commerce.
• The digital Market was announced in May 2015 by Juncker Commission.
This strategy has three pillars:
• To grow to the condition of digital networks and services.
• European digital economy's growth.

• Access to online products and services.

72. With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider 2014-I
the following statements:
1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and
the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for
regulating intellectual property rights in India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Theory
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy:
• It aims to establish an ecosystem in the country conducive to innovation and creativity

in terms of IP awareness and creation, commercialization, and enforcement.
• The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has been nominated as the
nodal department. So statement 2 is correct.
• This policy was introduced as India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda
and the TRIPS Agreement. So statement 1 is correct.
• National Intellectual Property Rights Policy encompasses and brings to a single
platform all IPRs.
• It aims to incorporate and adapt global best practices to the Indian scenario.
TRIPS Agreement:
• It's an agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

• It is an international legal agreement between all the member nations of the World
Trade Organization (WTO).

• It came into effect on 1 January 1995.
73. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? 2017-I
(a) India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.

(b) India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central
Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline
between Iraq and India.
Answer: c
Chabahar Port
• The Chabahar port project was signed in 2003.

• Chabahar Port is situated in Sistan and Baluchistan province in the Southeastern part
of Iran, on the Gulf of Oman.
• In December 2018, India took over the operations of the Port.
• It was being operated by India Ports Global Private Limited.
• India’s first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan was sent through Chabahar Port.
• India began building a railway line between Chabahar port and Zahedan as a part of
the North-South Transport Corridor.
• It has been a symbol of traditionally important geopolitical significance of Chabahar
port for India-Iran ties
• Boost trade ties, diplomatic ties and military ties with Iran.
• Provides India with better connectivity to Afghanistan bypassing Pakistan. Hence
• It will be the gateway to the International North-South Transport Corridor which is a
combination of road, rail and sea routes connecting Russia, Europe, Central Asia, Iran
and India.
• India can carry out humanitarian operations from this port if the necessity arises.

• This port is simply 170 km away from Gwadar port operated by China in Pakistan,
hence this port would be of strategic importance to Indian Navy and defence
establishment.
• This enhances the connectivity, energy supplies and trade.
74. The terms 'Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue' sometimes mentioned in the 2018-I
news recently are related to
(a) Exo-planets
(b) Crypto-currency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Answer: c
Theory
• The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' are all related to Cyber attacks.
• Wannacry ransomware locks user’s devices and prevents them from accessing data
and software until a certain ransom is paid to its creator.
• Petya spreads rapidly through networks that use Microsoft Windows.
• EternalBlue is the name given to a software vulnerability in Microsoft's Windows
operating system.
75. Among the following, which one of the following is the largest exporter of 2019-I
rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam
Answer: b

Theory
• India’s share in world exports of rice in recent years (2014-18) has stayed at 25-
26% and it emerged the world’s largest rice exporter in 2011-12, displacing
Thailand from its leadership position.
• There were two factors which played a role in this.
o Indian government’s decision in February 2011 to lift a four-year ban on
exports of non-basmati varieties of rice paved the way for a rise in exports of
those varieties.
o Thailand government under Prime Minister Yingluck Shinawatra, in the same
year favoured farmers by strengthening a Rice Pledging Scheme under which
it promised to procure unlimited stocks at an enhanced price that reflected a
50 per cent increase over 2010.
1. Under Ramsar convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government

on India in protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed
by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar
convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also
encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as
determined by the authority
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c

Theory
• Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar and is one of the
oldest inter-governmental accord for preserving the ecological character of
wetlands.
o Article 4 of the Ramsar Convention states that "Each Contracting Party
shall promote the conservation of wetlands and waterfowl by establishing
nature reserves on wetlands, whether they are included in the List or not, and
provide adequately for their wandering." It is not mandatory on the part of the
Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory
of India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Wetlands refer to the transitional areas between the terrestrial and aquatic
ecosystems.
o The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 was notified by
the Ministry of Environment and Forest to ensure better conservation and
management and to prevent degradation of existing wetlands in India.
However, it was not framed on the basis of recommendation of Ramsar
Covention. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o Its objectives were wetland conservation, wetland protection, and wetland
management to ensure that no further degradation of wetlands takes place in
India.
o As per Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010,
a "wetland" means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or
artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh,
brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low
tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes,
reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland
and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area
or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the
authority. Hence, statement 3 is true.

77. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the 2019-I
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: a
Theory
• The AIIB is a multilateral development bank that has now grown to 97 approved
members worldwide. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
• India is the second-largest shareholder of the AIIB. Hence Statement 2 is Not
Correct.
• India is the largest borrower from the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.
• Australia, New Zealand, Qatar, Canada, Cyprus etc are non-regional members.
• The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank
with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia.
• It is established by the AIIB Articles of Agreement (entered into force Dec. 25, 2015)
which is a multilateral treaty.
• The Parties (57 founding members) to agreement comprise the Membership of the
Bank.
• It is headquartered in Beijing and began its operations in January 2016.
• The members of Bank have now grown to 97 approved members worldwide.
• There are 27 prospective members including Armenia, Lebanon, Brazil, South Africa,
Greece, etc.

78. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its 2014-I
citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and
started implementation of its from 25th May 2018
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America
Answer: c
Theory
• The General Data Protection Regulation (EU) (“GDPR”) is a regulation in EU law on

data protection and privacy for its citizens of the European Union (EU) and the
European Economic Area (EEA).
• The EU GDPR replaces the Data Protection Directive and started the implementation
of it from 25th May 2018.
• It also addresses the export of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.
79. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and 2019-I
Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of
the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America
Answer: b

Theory
• India signed a deal known as the Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation
of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field with Russia.
• The two countries intend to develop a project of six nuclear power units of Russian
design at a new site in India, further enhance cooperation in the third countries and
bring the new perspective of nuclear technologies together with the joint construction
of nuclear power plants.
• During the visit of H. E. Vladimir Putin, President of the Russian Federation, the action
plan was signed on 5th October 2018 in New Delhi.
80. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of 2019-I
light-years away from the earth. What is the significance of this
observation?
(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was
confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand to 'singularity'.
Answer: b
Theory
• Billions of light-years away from the earth, two black holes have collided to create a
larger one.
• Gravitational waves are created when two black holes orbit each other and merge.
• It has a mass more than 80 times that of the Sun.
• The resulting energy released in the form gravitational waves as the two holes
spiralled in towards each other.
About Gravitational Waves

• Gravitational waves are 'ripples' in space-time caused by some of the most violent and
energetic processes in the Universe.
• Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general
theory of relativity.
• Einstein's mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (such as neutron
stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that
'waves' of undulating space-time would propagate in all directions away from the
source.
• These cosmic ripples would travel at the speed of light, carrying with them information
about their origins, as well as clues to the nature of gravity itself.
• The strongest gravitational waves are produced by cataclysmic events such
as colliding black holes, supernovae (massive stars exploding at the end of their
lifetimes), and colliding neutron stars.
• Other waves are predicted to be caused by the rotation of neutron stars that are not
perfect spheres, and possibly even the remnants of gravitational radiation created by
the Big Bang.
81. What is cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news ? 2019-I
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing.

(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients.
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops
Answer: a
Theory
• CRISPR technology is a gene-editing technology that can be used for the purpose of
altering genetic expression.
• CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) scans the
genome for the right location and then uses the Cas9 protein as molecular scissors in
targeted DNA.

• The Cas9 protein is an enzyme that cuts the two strands of Double helix DNA at a
specific location in the genome.
• Cas9 is a bacterial RNA-guided endonuclease that uses base pairing to recognize and
cuts the targeted DNAs guided by the RNA.
82. With reference to “Blockchain Technology” consider the following 2020-I

statements:
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user
controls.
2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are
about cryptocurrency only
3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be
developed without anybody’s permission.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: d
Theory
• Blockchain Technology-
o It is referred to as Distributed Ledger Technology.
o It facilitates the process of recording transactions and tracking assets in a
business network.
o It is ideal for delivering the information in business because it provides
immediate, shared, and completely transparent information stored on an
immutable ledger that can be accessed only by permission network members.
o With the shared ledger, transactions are recorded only once, eliminating the
duplication of effort.

o No participant can change or tamper with a transaction after it’s been

recorded to the shared ledger.
• The blocks form a chain of data as the ownership changes hands. Hence, it has no
single user control. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The blocks confirm the exact time and sequence of transactions, and the blocks link
securely together to prevent any block from being altered.
• Each additional block strengthens the verification of the previous block and hence the
entire blockchain is formed.
• The verification of each block make the blockchain tamper-evident and builds a ledger
of transactions that network members can trust.
• The applications that depend on the basic features of the blockchain can be developed
without asking anybody for permission or paying anyone. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
• Since blockchain operates through a decentralized platform requiring no central
supervision, it is used in voting, banking, messaging app, internet advertising, etc.
Hence, it is not restricted to cryptocurrency. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last
decade.
2. “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of the trade
between India and Bangladesh.
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India
in South Asia.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b

Theory
The Indo-Srilanka trade reached its peak in 2013-14 in the last decade. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
• Bangladesh is India’s largest trading partner in South Asia, followed by Nepal, Sri
Lanka, Pakistan, Bhutan, Afghanistan, and the Maldives. Hence statement 3 is
incorrect.
• Cotton is the largest export item to Bangladesh from India, accounting for a fifth of
India’s supplies to Bangladesh, followed by mineral fuels, automobiles and capital
goods. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India’s imports from Bangladesh jumped 22% to $1.2 billion. Garment and textile
products make up for around 40% of the imports
The top four export countries of India are as follows-
• China- trade deficit of 51 bn USD.

• The USA - trade surplus of 25 bn USD.
• UAE - trade surplus of 12 bn USD.
• Saudi Arabia trade deficit of 15 bn USD.
The following table shows India's 10 largest destinations for exports in 2019-2020-
Country Value in USD Share of overall exports
USA 52.4 16094%
UAE 24.3 9.2%
China 14.4 5.47%
84. In the union budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty 2011-I
was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance
of this material ?

1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.

2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b
Theory
• Bioasphalt is made from non-petroleum-based renewable resources. Hence,

statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
o These resources are:
▪ lignin,
▪ Palm oil,
▪ Sugar,
▪ Molasses,
▪ Rice,
▪ Vegetable oils.
• Bioasphalt for roads in Zeeland, a Dutch province, is being developed by Wageningen

UR Food & Biobased Research, the Asfalt Kennis Centrum (Asphalt Knowledge Centre,
AKC) and the company H4A from Sluiskil (NL).
• Fossil bitumen – the main ‘glue’ in asphalt roads – is replaced by the biobased
adhesive lignin in this innovative Bioasphalt.
• Lignin is a natural adhesive material that gives structure to all kinds of plants and
trees and is, for example, an important component of straw. Bioasphalt can be made
from organic waste materials. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The first specimens of asphalt concrete based on lignin were recently created and the
involved partners are busy testing and optimizing its properties.
• Advantages:
o Lignin can replace fossil bitumen (currently made from petroleum in a process
that releases a great amount of CO2), substantially reducing the
environmental footprint of asphalt.
o It is also expected to improve functional properties of the asphalt, such as
rolling resistance, and to make roads quieter. Various governments and
companies have already shown a lot of interest in this promising
development. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
85. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance? 2012-I
1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.

2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs
and organic LEDs.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c
Theory
• Graphene is an allotrope of carbon consisting of a single layer of atoms arranged in a

two-dimensional honeycomb lattice.
o The name is a portmanteau of "graphite" and the suffix -ene, reflecting the
fact that the graphite allotrope of carbon consists of stacked graphene layers.
o Graphene is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conduction.

▪ It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.

▪ It can be used for conducting electrodes required for touch screens,
LCDs, and organic LEDs.
86. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are 2012-I
the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Theory
• India’s Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) program was established by the
National Rural Health Mission in 2006 with an aim to improve health outcomes—
particularly among women and children—and to reduce geographic and
socioeconomic disparities.
o ASHAs are recruited and trained to work in their own communities as health
activists, educators and providers of basic essential services.
• Responsibilities of ASHA workers
o Identifying and registering new pregnancies, births, and deaths.
o Mobilizing, counselling and supporting the community to demand and seek
health services.
o Identifying, managing, or referring cases of illness.
o Supporting health service delivery through home visits, first-aid and
immunizations sessions.

o Maintaining data and participating in community-level health planning.
87. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood 2012-I
options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and
agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation
equipment free of cost to farmers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
National Rural Livelihood Mission-
• It was launched in 2011 by the then Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.

• It is a poverty alleviation project under the Ministry of Rural Development of GoI.
• The basic idea behind this program is to organize the poor into SHG (Self Help Groups)
groups and make them capable of self-employment. Hence statement 2 is only
correct.
• The mission of NRLM-

o To reduce poverty by enabling the poor households to access gainful self-
employment and skilled wage employment opportunities resulting in an
appreciable improvement in their livelihoods on a sustainable basis, through
building strong and sustainable grassroots institutions of the poor.
• The scheme was succeeded by Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana on 25 September 2015.

88. The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is 2012-I
1. to promote institutional deliveries

2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
• It is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neonatal mortality
by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• JSY is a 100 % centrally sponsored scheme and it integrates cash assistance with
delivery and post-delivery care. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Yojana has identified ASHA, the accredited social health activist as an effective
link between the Government and the poor pregnant women.
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana-
• To provide compensation for the wage loss in terms of cash incentives so that the
woman can take adequate rest before and after delivery of the first living child. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.
89. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently? 2015-I
(a) Odia
(b) Konkani

(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Assamese
Answer: a
Theory
Classical languages are:
• High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history from 1500 to 2000 years.
• A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by
generations of speakers.
• The literary tradition is original and not borrowed from another speech community.
• The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
• There are 6 classical languages: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005). Kannad (2008), Telugu
(2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
• There are demands to declared Marathi as a classical language.
• A Centre of excellence for studies in classical languages is also there in India.
• All the classical languages are also listed in the 8th schedule of the Indian
Constitution.
• The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry providing guidelines for classical
languages.
90. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was 2015-I
given to which one of the following?
(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Indian Space Research Organization
(d) Tata Institute of Fundamental research
Answer: c

Theory
• The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is the prestigious
award accorded annually by India to individuals or organizations in recognition of
creative efforts toward promoting international peace, development and a new
international economic order; ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the
larger good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of freedom.
• ISRO Received the award in 2014.
• The Indian Space Research Organisation is the space agency of the Government of
India and has its headquarters in the city of Bangalore
o It harnesses space technology for national development while pursuing space
science research and planetary exploration.
• The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is India's premier nuclear research facility,
headquartered in Trombay, Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is a public, deemed, research university for
higher education and research in science, engineering, design, and management.
o The institute was established in 1909 with active support from Jamsetji Tata.
• Tata Institute of Fundamental Research is a public deemed research university
located in Mumbai.
o It is dedicated to basic research in mathematics and the sciences.
o TIFR is considered as one of the outstanding research institutes in India.
91. Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken? 2016-I
(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra

(b) Godavari and Krishna
(c) Mahanadi and Sone
(d) Narmada and Tapti
Answer: b

Theory
• Pattiseema Lift Irrigation project is the first river-linking project in India, connecting
the Godavari with Krishna.
• The project has been launched in Andhra Pradesh.
• River Kaveri:
o It flows through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
o It rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in the state of
Karnataka.
o It is the third-largest river in south India after Godavari and Krishan and drains
into the Bay of Bengal.
o It is also known as the Ganges of the South.
o Hemavati, Harangi, Amaravati, Shimsha are the few important tributaries.
• River Krishna:
o The river extends over the states of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and
Karnataka and finally empties into the Bay of Bengal.
o Krishna river originates in the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar.
o Ghatprabha, Malprabha, Tungabhadra, Bhima, and Musi are the few important
tributaries
• River Godavari:
o The Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of
Maharashtra.
o The basin extends over the states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union
Territory of Puducherry. And finally drains into the Bay of Bengal.
o Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha and Manjira are the few important tributaries.
• River Narmada:
o It is the largest west flowing river.
o It acts as the boundary between North and South India.
o It originates in the Amarkantak plateau, where the Vindhya and Satpura
mountain ranges meet.

o It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat

before emptying into the Arabian sea.
92. Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of 2016-I
constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to sea by a long
navigational channel?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: d
Theory
• Rajasthan has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be

connected to the sea by a long navigational channel.
• The Rajasthan government is exploring ways to develop an artificial inland port in
Jalore by bringing in Arabian Seawater into Rajasthan through Gujarat.
• If implemented, Rajasthan will become accessible by water transport and will be able
to shed the tag of a landlocked state.
• The navigation channel would be at least 300 metres wide and about 25 metres deep.
• It would start from the tip of Lakhpat at Kori Creek in the Arabian Sea, run through the
Rann of Kutch and join Sanchore, 135 km from district headquarters of Jalore.
93. A recent movie titled ‘The Man Who Knew Infinity’ is based on the 2016-I
biography of
(a) S. Ramanujan
(b) S. Chandrasekhar
(c) S. N. Bose
(d) C. V. Raman

Answer: a
Theory
• The Man Who Knew Infinity is a 2015 British biographical film based on
the biography of the Indian mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujan.
o The film was based on the book of the same name written in 1991 by Robert
Kanigel.
• Srinivasa Ramanujan:
o He was a self-taught mathematician who contributed to the theory of
numbers.
o The Abdus Salam International Centre for Theoretical Physics (ICTP) has
established the Srinivasa Ramanujan Prize in honour of him.
▪ The Prize is awarded annually to a mathematician under 45 years of
age.
• C. V. Raman:
o The Nobel Prize in Physics 1930 was awarded to Sir Chandrasekhara
Venkata Raman "for his work on the scattering of light and for the discovery of
the effect named after him."
o He was the first Indian to receive the Nobel prize in physics in 1930.
• S. N. Bose was the Indian mathematician and physicist who was best known for
founding quantum statistics in 1924.
• S. Chandrasekhar:
o He received Nobel Prize in Physics in 1983 "for his theoretical studies of the
physical processes of importance to the structure and evolution of the stars".
o S. Chandrasekhar Prize of Plasma Physics is an award given by Association of
Asia Pacific Physical Societies (AAPS) to outstanding plasma physicists,
94. Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service': 2017-I
1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel

and Training, Government
of India.

2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve

the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Theory
The Hon’ble Prime Minister of India on 20th July 2015 launched National Career Service is a
Five Year Mission Mode Project.
• Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour & Employment are

implementing the project. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• NCS provides a one-stop solution w.r.t career-related and employment services to
the citizens of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It works to bridge the gap between candidates seeking training and career
guidance, job seekers and employers, and agencies providing training and career
counselling.
• It's three essential pillars to reach out to the people are:
o NCS portal i.e. a well-designed ICT based portal.
o Country-wide set up of Model Career Centers and
o Interlinkage with all the states through employment exchanges.
95. With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which 2017-I
of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only
through formal learning.

2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility

between vocational and general education.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF)
• It is a competency-based framework that organizes all qualifications according to

skills, aptitude, and a series of levels of knowledge.
• Levels are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must possess
regardless of whether they are obtained through informal, formal, or non-formal
learning and are graded from one to ten. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• On 27th December 2013, NSQF was notified in India.
Specific outcomes expected from NSQF are:
1. Mobility between general education and vocational by alignment of degrees with

Framework. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
2. Transition from non-formal to organized job market through Recognition of Prior
Learning (RPL).
3. A national quality assurance framework to provide consistent, standardized training
across the country.
4. An international equivalence of NSQF to provide global mobility of skilled workforce
from India.
96. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news 2017-I
with reference to

(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional

channels.
(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector
undertakings.
(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill
Development Programme.
Answer: a
Theory
• Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) Scheme is underway among the construction

sector. So construction workers are certified under RPL.
• Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme:
o RPL is the assessment process of an individual by evaluating their existing skills,
experience gained (may be formal or informal) were certified.
o Hence option 1 is correct.
o RPL is part of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) launched in 2016.
o It comes under the Ministry of Skill Development of Entrepreneurship.
• RPL has five steps as follows:
• 1. Mobilization:
o It involves sorting/grouping the potential and skilled persons who are
uncertified.
• 2. Counseling and Pre-Screening:
o The mobilized persons are assisted with the activities and processes of PMKVY
and RPL.
o Then a pre-screening test is conducted in which information regarding
documents and their self-assessments were collected.
• 3. Orientation:
o Orientation is a mandatory process for all persons for 12 hours. i.e 6 hours for
domain-specific training, 4 hours for soft skills training, and 2 hours for
assessment.

• 4. Final Assessment:
o Final Assessment of candidates is conducted by sector skills council. They were
assessed based on standards of National Occupational Standards (NOS).
o Core NOS should have 70% weightage of marks and non-core NOS requires
30% weightage of marks.
• 5. Certification:
o The successful candidates were certified and a reward also provided of Rs.500.
o The unsuccessful candidates are encouraged to take up short term training.
• In RPL skilled and trained persons were certified whereas trainees who are undergoing
training and not fully skilled were not certified. Hence option 4 is incorrect.
• Options 2 and 3 are not related to any other schemes.
97. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India 2017-I
Hackathon 2017?
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country
into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving
the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our
country completely digital in a
decade.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: b
Theory
• Smart India Hackathon:

o It was launched as a competition to develop innovative digital technologies to

solve the issues of central government and ministries. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
o It was conducted by the Ministry of Human Resource Development since
2017.
o It engages the youth of the country directly in the nation-building process.
o Smart India Hackathon theme is "No problem is too big, No idea is too small".
• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT):
o It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs in 2015. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o The main objective of AMRUT is to provide basic amenities to urban areas and
improve the standard of living and quality of life of the poor and downtrodden
people of urban areas.
o As of the first phase, about 500 cities have been covered. It includes as follows
o Development of green spaces and parks for recreation to reduce pollution,
o To ensure proper supply of drinking water and proper sewage connections in
all household and
o Promoting the usage of public transports and non-motorized transports like
cycling.
• Digital India:
o The program aimed at making all financial transactions in our
country completely digital is part of the Digital India initiative and making
towards a cashless transaction. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
o The money transfer is done through Debit / Credit cards, mobile wallets,
Electronic Clearing Services (ECS), National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT),
and Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), and so on.
o The Ministry responsible for promotions of digital transactions including digital
payments is the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

99. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber 2017-I
security incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Cybersecurity incidents
• Cybersecurity incidents mean any real and suspected adverse event in relation
to cybersecurity that violates an explicitly or implicitly applicable security policy
resulting in unauthorized access, denial of services, unauthorised used of computer
resources for processing or storage of data or changes in data without authorization.
• In India, section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the “IT Act”) gives the
Central Government the power to appoint an agency of the government to be called
the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to report such incidents.
• Rule 12 of the CERT Rules gives every person, company or organisation have the
option to report cybersecurity incidents to the CERT-In. Hence all of the statements
are correct.
• It also places an obligation on them to mandatorily report the following kinds of
incidents as early as possible:
o Targeted scanning/probing of critical networks/systems;
o Compromise of critical system/information;
o Unauthorized access to IT system/data;
o Defacement of website or intrusion into a website and unauthorized changes
such as inserting malicious code, links to external websites, etc.;

o Malicious code attacks such as spreading of

virus/worm/Trojan/botnets/spyware;
o Attacks on servers such as database, mail, and DNS and network devices such
as routers;
o Identity theft, spoofing and phishing attacks;
o Denial of Service (DoS) and Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks;
o Attacks on critical infrastructure, SCADA systems and wireless networks;
o Attacks on applications such as e-governance, e-commerce, etc's.
100. With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online 2018-I
advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim
a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreements".
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Theory
• Equalisation Levy was introduced in India in 2016, with the intention of taxing the
digital transactions i.e. the income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from
India.
• It is aimed at taxing business to business transactions.
• Equalisation Levy is a direct tax, which is withheld at the time of payment by the
service recipient. The two conditions to be met to be liable to equalization levy:

o The payment should be made to a non-resident service provider;

o The annual payment made to one service provider exceeds Rs. 1,00,000 in
one financial year.
• As the levy was not introduced as part of the Income Tax Act but as separate
legislation under the Finance Bill, global firms that offer such services in India cannot
claim a tax credit in their home country under the double taxation avoidance
agreements.
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management ( FRBM) Review

Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the
general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central
Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as
compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the
Central Government's consent for
raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Theory
• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review

Committee chaired by Mr. N.K. Singh submitted its report in January 2017.
• The Committee suggested using debt as the primary target for fiscal policy.

• Debt to GDP ratio of 60% should be targeted with a 40% limit for the center and 20%
limit for the states.
• The targeted debt to GDP ratio should be achieved by 2023. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a
percent of GDP, whereas States’ Government liabilities increased to 23.2 % at end-
March 2016. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Article 293(1) empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources.
• Further, according to Article 293(3) as long as a State has outstanding borrowings
from the Central Government, it is required to obtain Central Government's prior
approval before incurring debt. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the
Issuing Authority.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Theory
• Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 states that “the Aadhaar number or the
authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of,
citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder.” Hence, statement 1
is not correct.
• The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be
“omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification

Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the
database. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
103. The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming 2018-I
Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Theory
• Aadhaar Authentication is the process wherein Aadhaar number, along with other
attributes, including biometrics, are submitted online to the Central Identities Data
Repository for its verification and such a repository verifies the correctness, or the
lack thereof, on the basis of the information available with it.
• An authentication request is entertained by the UIDAI only upon a request sent by a
requesting entity electronically in accordance with its regulations.
• The modes of authentication include Demographic Authentication, one-time pin-
based authentication, Biometric-based authentication, Multi-factor authentication.
• According to Nandan Nilekani’s blog in Times of India in 2016, Aadhaar
provides open Application Programming Interfaces or APIs, which can be integrated
easily into any electronic device.
• These APIs enable online authentication using a fingerprint or iris.
• Hence, both statements are right.

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food
Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the
charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Theory
• The Food Safety and Standards(FSS) Act, 2006 consolidates various acts &
orders that had earlier handled food-related issues in various Ministries and
Departments.
• The acts that were repealed after commencement of FSS Act, 2006 are as follows:
o Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Fruit Products Order, 1955
o Meat Food Products Order, 1973
o Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947
o Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order 1988
o Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992
• Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous statutory
body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
• The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative
Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI.
• Before the formation of FSSAI, from 1954 onwards Prevention of Food Adulteration
was part of the Directorate General of Health Services.

• After having detached from the direct administrative control of the Health Ministry,
this authority is holding independent authority and has attained a special status.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
105. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security 2018-I
Act, 2013 consider the following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only
are eligible to receive subsidised grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the
head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home
ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months
thereafter.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: b
Theory
• The government has notified the National Food Security Act, 2013 on 10th
September 2013.
• The objective is to provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle
approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantities of quality food at affordable
prices to people to live a life with dignity.
• Some of the provisions of the National Food Security Act, 2013 are as follows:
o The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up
to 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized

foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering

about two-thirds of the population. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o It provides that the eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or
above is to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration
cards. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Besides meals to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy
and six months after childbirth, such women will also be entitled to
receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.
o The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition are 500 calories
and 12-15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6
years, 600 (not 1600) calories and 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and
nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm. of protein to malnourished
children.
o Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
106. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the 2018-I
following statements
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills,
entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the
country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c

Theory
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana:

o It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development &
Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
o It is implemented by National Skill Development Corporation.
o Under this Scheme, Training and Assessment fees are completely paid by the
Government.
o The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of
Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in
securing a better livelihood.
o Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and
certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).
o Apart from providing training according to the National Skills
Qualification Framework (NSQF), Training Centres shall also impart
training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy.
o Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and
certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the
Scheme
o RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the
country to the NSQF.
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affair, has announced the Minimum
Support Prick for which of the above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only

(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer: b
Theory
• The government announces, Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for agricultural

commodities each year in both the Crop seasons after taking into account the
recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals
(paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur,
moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, sesamum,
sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton
and raw jute).
108. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India , which one of the 2019-I
following statements is correct?
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into 5 categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns
and all industrial township only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification
of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that thewaste generated
in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Answer: c
Theory
• The correct answer is The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the
identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

• Under the Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have
to be set up by all local bodies having 1 million or more population within two years.
• In case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or stand-
alone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having 0.5 million or more population
and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census
towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years.
Hence Option 2 is Not Correct.
• Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for identification of landfill sites and
waste processing facilities. Hence Option 3 is Correct.
• Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams-
Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, Metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous
waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it
over to the collector. Hence Option 1 is Not Correct.
• It is not mandatory for the waste generator that the waste generated in one district
cannot be moved to another district. Hence Option 4 is Not Correct.
109. As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) 2019-I
Rules, 2018:
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier
for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of
temporary workman
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c

Theory
• The government has notified fixed-term employment for all sectors through an
amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946.
• Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-
fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen. Hence, Statement 1 is
Correct.
• As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules,
2018, a “fixed-term employment workman is a workman who has been engaged on
the basis of a written contract of employment for a fixed period”.
• No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of a temporary
workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or
badli workmen. Hence, Statement 2 is Correct.
1. Most of India's external debt is owed by government entities.

2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Theory
• Commercial borrowings continued to be the largest component of external debt with

a share of 37.4%, followed by NRI deposits (24.1%) and short term trade credit
(19.9%). Hence Statement 1 is Not Correct.
• US dollar-denominated debt continued to be the largest component of India's external
debt with a share of 45.9% at end December 2018, followed by the Indian rupee
(24.8%), SDR (5.1%), yen (4.9%) and euro (3.1%).

111. What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian 2014-I
banks and financial institutions recently?
(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit
and current account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs 50
crore or more
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs 50 crore or more
which are under consortium lending.
Answer: d
Theory
• The inter-creditor agreement is aimed at the resolution of loan accounts with a size
of ₹50 crores and above that are under the control of a group of lenders.
• It has been signed by 22 public sector banks, 19 private sector banks and 32 foreign
banks and 12 major financial intermediaries like LIC, HUDCO etc.
• It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem
of resolving bad loans.
• The Intercreditor Agreement, a recommendation of the Sunil Mehta committee, aims
to deal with bad loans as an attempt to speed up the resolution of stressed assets.
112. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five 2019-I
years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a
Theory
• The area under rice cultivation in India, in 2013-14 was 44.13 million hectares while
in 2015-16, it became 43.39 million hectares and is highest amongst all. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• The annual area under Jowar ranges between 17 and 18 million hectares while the
oilseed area is 28 million hectares (2013-14), 26.1 million hectares (2015-16) i.e area
under the cultivation of Jowar is less than that of oilseeds. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• The area under sugarcane cultivation has not steadily decreased. The area under
sugarcane cultivation 4.99 million hectares (2013-14), 5.066 million hectares (2014-
15), 4.953 million hectares (2015-16). Hence statement 4 is not correct.
• The area under cotton cultivation is 11.96 million hectares (2013-14), 12.81 million
hectares (2014-15), and 11.87 million hectares (2015- 16). Hence the area
under cotton cultivation is more than sugar cultivation. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
113. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the 2019-I
following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five
years?
(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils
Answer: d

Theory
• Vegetable oils account for the highest import in terms of value in the last five years.
• India relies on imports for 70 percent of its edible oil consumption.
• The HIghest import of vegetable oils in terms of value is in December 2018 in the last
five years.
• Pulses account for second-most highest while fresh fruits account for third-
highest and spices account for least imports in terms of value in the last five years
among the following agricultural commodities imported by India.
114. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to 2019-I
(a) fossil of a kind of dinosaurs

(b) an early human species
(c) a cave system found in North-East India
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Answer: b
Theory
• Denisovans are an extinct species of hominid.

• Fossil evidence of the Denisovans first identified in 2010.
• The jawbone discovered in the Tibetan Plateau and dated to more than 160,000 years
ago, is the first Denisovan fossil found outside the Siberian cave.
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months

2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing
of Aadhar data
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidate
fund of India.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
Answer: b
Theory
• Recently the Supreme Court has said that the Aadhaar authentication data can’t
be retained beyond 6 months. Hence Statement 1 is Not Correct.
• The Supreme Court judgement read that
o "The part of the provision which enables body corporate and individuals also to
seek authentication, that too on the basis of a contract between the individual
and such body corporate or person, would impinge upon the right to
privacy of such individuals. This part of the section, thus, is declared
unconstitutional."
o Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
• IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India) has clarified

that Aadhaar is not required to buy an insurance policy.
• Even in the 2018 judgment, the Supreme Court held that Aadhar is not mandatory to
purchase insurance products. Hence Statement 3 is also Not Correct.
• The Supreme Court ruled that any welfare scheme, driving funds out of the
Consolidated Fund of India, would require Aadhar to deliver the benefits to the
intended beneficiaries. Hence Statement 4 is Correct.
Aadhaar
• Aadhaar number is a 12-digit random number issued by the UIDAI (“Authority”) to the
residents of India after satisfying the verification process laid down by the Authority.
• Any individual, irrespective of age and gender, who is a resident of India, may
voluntarily enroll to obtain an Aadhaar number.

• A person willing to enroll has to provide minimal demographic and biometric

information during the enrolment process.
116. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, 2020-I
consider the following statements:
1. A substantial saving in seed material is when ‘bud chip settings’ are raised
in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is
better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-
budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settings prepared from tissue culture.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: c
Theory
• Transplanting sugarcane single-bud/ bud-chip settlings can save seed cane

requirement up to 80 percent besides providing healthy plants and good field
establishment.
• It is less expensive and labour saving in comparison with conventional sett planting.
• Hence statement 1 is correct.
• When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with many
buds setts as compared to setts with single-budded.
• If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, large setts have
better survival as compared to single-budded ones.
• Hence statements 2 and 3 are not correct. Statements are reversed in question.

• Tissue culture or vegetative propagation can be used to germinate and grow these
settlings which can be transplanted in the field later.
• Hence statement 4 is correct.
• The conventional method of sugarcane planting requires 7 to 8 tonnes of seed cane

per hectare and this is the main reason for slow rate of seed and varietal replacement.
• Sugarcane being a long duration crop and heavy biomass producer requires about
1500 to 2500 mm water.
• Keeping in mind the likely to be faced situations in future, the ICAR-Sugarcane
Breeding Institute (ICAR-SBI).
• ICAR has developed an integrated sugarcane cultivation model called Settling
Transplanting Technology (STT).
• Components of the model are listed below:
o High yielding and better quality varieties
o Raising and transplanting of settlings derived from single bud setts/ bud chips
o Sub-surface drip irrigation and fertigation
o Wider row planting
o Intercropping
o Trash mulching
o Multiple ratooning
o Mechanization
• Sugarcane is commercially planted using setts (cuttings which can develop roots) at
the rate of 6-8 tonnes per hectare, amounting to around 10 per cent of the total
production.
• This large mass of planting material creates logistical challenges in transportation and
storage of seed cane.

• The tissue culture technique, owing to its cumbersome outfit and physical limitation,
is turning out to be uneconomical.
• To reduce the mass and improve the quality of seed cane would be to plant excised
axillary buds of canestalk, popularly known as budchips.
• These bud chips are less bulky, easily transportable and more economical seed
material.
• A bud chip nursery can be raised in mini- plot near experimental field.
• Nutrients are sprayed with PGR (plant growth regulator) solution at 3rd week.
• Healthy settlings were transplanted in well prepared field after 4-5 weeks with row
spacing of 90 cm and 30 cm between the two settling (small setts).
• Various research and experiment shows that, germination percentage of 3 bud sets
is higher than the setts having more or less than three buds. Germination percentage
of single bud sett is very low because of moisture loss from other cut end. Also if whole
can stalk is planted without giving any cut, still germination percentage remain low
as only top end will get germinate.
• Various researches found that large setts seeds have better survival as compared to
single- budded seeds when seeds are directly planted in prevailing bad weather
conditions.
• Planting is the most important and labour intensive operation in sugarcane cultivation.
o To rapidly produce and supply disease-free seed cane of existing commercial
varieties Tissue culture is an exciting new way which uses meristem to clone
the mother plant.
o Cane and sugar yield of tissue culture plants similar to conventionally
propagated plants.
117. Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in 2020-I
India in the recent past?
1. Minimum Support Price
2. Government’s trading
3. Government’s stockpiling
4. Consumer subsidies


(a) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Theory
The domestic factors which affect prices of rice in India are as follows-
• The intensity of seasonal monsoon across India and production of Basmati and non-
basmati rice.
• The ratio of full and broken kernels in milling the paddy.
• The government's trading and Minimum support price of rice- it results in the
diversion of stocks from the open market hence driving up the price for the ultimate
consumers. Hence 1 is correct.
• Rice tenders by Food Corporation of India and other organizations
• Consumer subsidies (it lowers the prices for the ultimate consumer) Hence 3 is
correct.
• The government's stockpiling (low stock levels constraint that ability to buffer the
price rise) Hence 4 is correct.
• Climatic shocks determine rice production and prices in the short run due to increasing
demand. Hence 2 is correct.
• Some international factors which affect Indian rice pricing are as follows-
o Global tenders for procurement of rice
o Appreciation or depreciation of USD and Indian Rupees.
o Crude Oil Prices
• The Manipur black rice, called ‘Chakhao’ is the most recent addition to GI tagged rice
varieties of India.
• West Bengal is the largest rice producer in India.

• In 1965, the ICAR launched the AICRIP or All India Coordinated Rice Improvement
Project for R&D for improving rice production.
2021-22
General Knowledge
Statement 1:
The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day
Foundation has recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the
World.
Statement 2:
Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment
to grow and maintaining the Urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the
correct explanation for Statement 1.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not
the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.
Answer: d
Tree Cities of the World Programme:
• It is an international effort to recognize cities and towns committed to ensuring that

their urban forests and trees are properly maintained, sustainably managed, and
duly celebrated.

• At the 2018 World Forum on Urban Forests in Mantova, Italy, world leaders issued
the Mantova Green Cities Challenge and a call-for-action that included joining the
Tree Cities of the World program.
• Hyderabad has become the only city in India to be recognized as a Tree City of the
World by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
of the United Nations. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Hyderabad is placed alongside 119 other cities from 63 countries.
• Hyderabad is the only city in India to have been selected for this recognition in
response to its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forestry through
the Haritha Haram Program and Urban Forest Parks. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Haritha Haram is a flagship program of the Telangana government to increase
the green cover of the State from the present 25.16 to 33% of the total geographical
area.
• Urban forestry helps in ensuring a better future for its residents.
Arbor Day Foundation
• The Arbor Day Foundation is a nonprofit conservation and education organization

founded in 1972 in Nebraska, United States, by John Rosenow.
• It is the largest nonprofit membership organization dedicated to tree planting.
• Its vision is to help others understand and use trees as a solution to many of the global
issues we face today, including air quality, water quality, a changing climate,
deforestation, poverty, and hunger.
Food and Agriculture Organization:
• FAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to
defeat hunger.
• World Food Day is celebrated every year around the world on the 16th of
October. The day is celebrated to mark the anniversary of the founding of the FAO in
1945.
• India released a commemorative coin of Rs. 75 denomination to mark
the 75th Anniversary of the FAO (16th October 2020).

• It is one of the UN food aid organizations based in Rome (Italy). Its sister bodies are
the World Food Programme and the International Fund for Agricultural
Development (IFAD).
Arbor Day Foundation
• The Arbor Day Foundation is a nonprofit conservation and education organization

founded in 1972 in Nebraska, United States, by John Rosenow.
• It is the largest nonprofit membership organization dedicated to tree planting.
• Its vision is to help others understand and use trees as a solution to many of the global
issues we face today, including air quality, water quality, a changing climate,
deforestation, poverty, and hunger.
1. Right to the City is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors
the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. 'Right to the City' gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim
public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. 'Right to the City' means that the State cannot deny any public service or
facility to the unauthorized colonies in World the city.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d). 2 and 3
Answer: d
Right to the City as Human right.
• It is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by
each country in this regard.

• Many countries do not categorically prove that there is an “agreed” right to the city,
they (international organizations) are only proposing to do so, and therefore the first
may be statement is wrong.
Right to the City and Resources
• The right to the city is far more than the individual liberty to access urban resources.
• It is a right to change ourselves by changing the city.
• It is, moreover, a common rather than an individual right since this transformation
inevitably depends upon the exercise of a collective power to reshape the processes
of urbanization.
• The Right to the City means the “right of all inhabitants, present and future,
permanent and temporary to use, occupy and produce just, inclusive and
sustainable cities, defined as a common good essential to a full and decent life.”
• The original definition of the right to the city goes beyond basic human rights and
access to resources.
• It is a renewed access to urban life, one that empowers city dwellers’ to shape the
city as they see fit through rights to participation and active civic
engagement. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• In 1996, the Istanbul Declaration and the Habitat Agenda reinforced the
responsibilities of all governments to the provision of adequate housing, as
exemplified by their creation of ministries or agencies, their allocation of resources,
and their policies, programs, and projects.
• It also stated that the provision of the right to adequate housing required joint action
by government organizations, communities, and local authorities, as well as partner
organizations and entities of the international community.
Unauthorized Colonies and 'Right to the City'
• Unauthorized Colonies (UACs) are a specific form of unplanned housing – built on land
which is either not zoned for residential purposes or does not fall under the ambit of
the development area of the city's master plan.

• UN-Habitat in India is working closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban
Affairs for championing India’s New Urban Agenda and has crafted a new strategic
partnership with the Government of India on mutually agreed technical cooperation
initiatives in support of sustainable urbanization in India.
• Many changes happening in this regard and the state should not deny any public
service or facilities to the unauthorized colonies in the city. Hence, Statement 3 is can
be considered correct.
Counterarguments for Unauthorized Colonies and Right to the City:
• The state has denied public services or facilities to the unauthorized colonies in the
city.
• Many court judgments are also in support of the state's steps in the denial of services
or facilities to the unauthorized colonies. (Ex. The Supreme Court of India on August
31, 2021, ordered the removal of about 48,000 slum dwellings situated along the
railway tracks in Delhi.)
1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by

UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages were
raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b

Theory
• The Constituent Assembly of Pakistan was in session at Karachi-then the capital of

Pakistan-from 23 February 1948.
• It was proposed that the members would have to speak either in Urdu or in English
at the Assembly. Dhirendra Nath Datta, a member of the East Pakistan Congress
Party, moved an amendment motion to include Bangla as one of the languages of
the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In the same year, the Government of the Dominion of Pakistan ordained Urdu as the
sole national language, sparking extensive protests among the Bengali-speaking
majority of East Bengal.
• Facing rising sectarian tensions and mass discontent with the new law, the
government outlawed public meetings and rallies.
• The students of the University of Dhaka and other political activists defied the law and
organised a protest on 21 February 1952.
• The movement reached its climax when police killed student demonstrators on that
day.
• The deaths provoked widespread civil unrest. After years of conflict, the central
government relented and granted official status to the Bengali language in 1956.
• In Bangladesh, 21 February (Ekushey February) is observed as Language Movement
Day, a national holiday.
• In 1999, UNESCO declared 21 February as International Mother Language Day, in
tribute to the Language Movement and the ethnolinguistic rights of people around
the world. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
4. "Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the 2022-I
provisions of lending by which one of the following?
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
(d) World Bank

Answer: b
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI)
• It provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries

facing an urgent balance of payments need.
• It was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more
flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries.
• It replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide
range of circumstances.
Rapid Credit Facility (RCF)
• It provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs)

facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex-post conditionality
where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible.
• It was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a
broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored
to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis.
There are three windows under RCF:
• A regular window for urgent BoP needs to be caused by a wide range of sources
including domestic instability, emergencies and fragility;
• An exogenous shock window for urgent BoP needs to be caused by a sudden,
exogenous shock; and
• A large natural disaster window for urgent BoP needs arising from natural disasters
where damage is assessed to be equivalent to or exceeding 20 percent of the
member’s GDP.
Access under the RCF is subject to annual and cumulative limits, with higher access limits
applying for the large natural disaster window.
For non-PRGT eligible countries, a similar Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is available for
higher-income countries.

Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• International Monetary Fund (IMF):

o The formation of the IMF was initiated in 1944 at the Bretton Woods
Conference.
o IMF came into operation on 27th December 1945 and is today an international
organization that consists of 190 member countries.
o Headquartered in Washington, D.C., IMF focuses on fostering global monetary
cooperation, securing financial stability, and facilitating and promoting
international trade, employment, and economic growth around the world.
o The IMF is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
5. With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following 2022-I
statements:
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable
debt
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Theory
• G20 Common Framework

o Chad has become the first country to officially request a debt restructuring
under a new common framework “G20 Common Framework” introduced by
China and other groups of 20 countries last year with the help of the Paris
Club.

o It is the Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service
Suspension Initiative (DSSI).
o Initiative endorsed by G20 together with Paris Club. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
o The Common Framework is intended to deal with insolvency and protracted
liquidity problems, along with the implementation of an IMF-supported reform
program.
o It was announced in November 2020 to deal with the issue of unsustainable
debts faced by various countries as an impact of COVID-19. Hence, Statement
2 is correct.
o Paris Club is a club or group of officials from major creditor countries.
o It was established in the year 1956.
o It aims to find sustainable solutions to the difficulties faced by debtor countries
in payments.
• G20
o It is an international forum for global economic cooperation.
o It has 20 members, and these countries are as follows- Argentina, Australia,
Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic
of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United
Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union.
o G20 members account for 85 percent of the world economy, 75 percent of
global trade, and two-thirds of the world's population.
o G20 was formed in 1999 and its present chairman is Joko Widodo, President
of Indonesia
o Canadian finance minister Paul Martin was chosen as the first chairman and
German finance minister Hans Eichel hosted the inaugural meeting.
6. Consider the following countries: 2022-I
1. Armenia
2. Azerbaij

3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above are members of the organization of Turkic States?
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3,4 and 5
Answer: c
The organisation of Turkic States
• In 1992, the then Turkish President convened the first Turkish summit with some
central Asian states.
• The Organization of Turkic States, formerly called the Turkic Council or the
Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States, is an international organization
comprising prominent independent Turkic countries: Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan. Therefore, Armenia, Croatia, and Romania are
not members of the Organisation of Turkic States. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• During the Istanbul summit, the forum has been elevated to an “Organisation of Turkic
States”.
• With the formation of the Organisation of Turkic States, Turkey is determined to
rewrite the geopolitics of Eurasia.
The potential of the Organisation of Turkic States includes
• Could become an economic and political community like the European Union,
• Could emerge as an “Army of Turan”,
• Possibility to become an EU-like federation or NATO-like military alliance.
• In Persian, “Turan” refers to Central Asian regions to the north of Iran.

7. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, 2022-I
consider the following statements :
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea
up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline
determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or landlocked, enjoy the right of
innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond ' 200 nautical miles
from the baseline from which the: breadth of the territorial sea is
measured.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
• The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982 is an
international agreement that establishes the legal framework for marine and
maritime activities.
• It is also known as the Law of the Sea. It divides marine areas into five main
zones namely- Internal Waters, Territorial Sea, Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic
Zone (EEZ) and the High Seas.
• Every state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit
not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baselines determined in accordance
with this Convention. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for
state jurisdiction in maritime spaces. It provides a different legal status to different
maritime zones.

• The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the
baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Hence,
Statement 3 is correct.
• It provides the backbone for offshore governance by coastal states and those
navigating the oceans.
• It not only zones coastal states’ offshore areas but also provides specific guidance for
states’ rights and responsibilities in the five concentric zones.
• While UNCLOS has been signed and ratified by nearly all the coastal countries in
the South China Sea, its interpretation is still hotly disputed.
• There is a maritime dispute in the East China Sea as well.
• The innocent passage has been codified in the United Nations Convention on the
Law of the Sea (UNCLOS III) was adopted in 1982, it is also known as the Law of the
Sea Treaty. Its purpose is to establish a comprehensive set of rules governing the
oceans and to replace previous U.N. Conventions on the Law of the Sea, 1958 (UNCLOS
I) which was adopted in 1958 and another in 1960 (UNCLOS II) since these two
conventions were believed to be inadequate.
• Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent
passage through the territorial sea. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Region often mentioned in the news Country

1. Anatolia - Turkey
2. Amhara - Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado - Spain
4. Catalonia - Italy
How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: b

Anatolia
• Anatolia is a large peninsula in Western Asia and covers a major part of Turkey. Hence,
pair 1 is correct.
• Anatolia can be defined in geographic terms as the area bounded to the north by the
Black Sea, to the east and south by the Southeastern Taurus Mountains and the
Mediterranean Sea, and to the west by the Aegean Sea and Sea of Marmara.
• culturally the area also includes the islands of the eastern Aegean Sea.
• In most prehistoric periods the regions to the south and west of Anatolia were under
the influence of, respectively, Syria and the Balkans.
Amhara
• The Amhara Region officially the Amhara National Regional State is a regional state in
northern Ethiopia and the homeland of the Amhara people.
• The Amhara are one of the two largest ethnolinguistic groups in Ethiopia. Hence, pair
2 is correct.
• They constitute more than one-fourth of the country's population.
• The Amharic language is an Afro-Asiatic language belonging to the Southwest Semitic
group.
Cabo Delgado
• Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique. Hence, pair 3 is

incorrect.
• It has an area of 82,625 square kilometers and a population of 2,320,261.
• As well as bordering Mtwara Region in the neighboring country of Tanzania, it borders
the provinces of Nampula and Niassa.
Catalonia
• The Catalonia region, in northeastern Spain. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.

• is known for the lively beach resorts of Costa Brava as well as the Pyrenees Mountains.
• Languages spoken here are the Catalan language and Spanish Language.

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
India is a member of which of the above ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Theory
o Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

o It is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and
economic outcomes in Asia.
o It aims to connect people, services and markets that over time will impact the
lives of billions and build a better future by investing in sustainable
infrastructure and other productive sectors.
o It is established by the AIIB Articles of Agreement (entered into force in
December 2015) which is a multilateral treaty.
o It is headquartered in Beijing (China) and began its operations in January
2016.
o On 24 October 2014, twenty-one countries signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MOU) regarding the AIIB in Beijing, China: Bangladesh,
Brunei, Cambodia, India, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar,
Mongolia, Nepal, Oman, Pakistan, Philippines, Qatar, Singapore, Sri Lanka,
Thailand, Uzbekistan and Vietnam.
o Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)

o It is a group of 35 nations that control the export of missile technology,

including drones and UAVs.
o Setup in 1987 by the G7 countries
o Aims to limit the proliferation of missiles and other unmanned delivery
systems that could be used for chemical or nuclear attacks.
o It is an informal and voluntary partnership between 35 countries which urge
each other to restrict their missile export and technologies capable of carrying
a 500-kilogram payload a minimum of 300 kilometres.
o The decisions are taken by the consensus of all the members.
o India has become the 35th member of MTCR in June 2016.
o Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

o It is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation.
o It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organisation aiming to
maintain peace, security and stability in the region.
o It was created in 2001.
o The SCO Charter was signed in 2002 and entered into force in 2003.
o It is a statutory document which outlines the organisation's goals and
principles, as well as its structure and core activities.
o The SCO's official languages are Russian and Chinese.
o The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan).
o Hence, Option 4 is correct.
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable

sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health
Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and provides
innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
The India Sanitation Coalition
• It was launched on June 25, 2015, at FICCI, New Delhi.

• It is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector,
government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bi-
lateral/multilateral, experts, etc. to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable
sanitation through a partnership model. The vision of the alliance is to enable and
support an ecosystem for sustainable sanitation through a partnership mode. Hence,
Statement 1 is not correct.
• It currently has over 150 organizations that are engaging with it in various capacities.
We have been awarded as a top contributor in the “Corporate Category” for
the Swachh Bharat Mission by The Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation,
Government of India in 2018.
The National Institute of Urban Affairs
• It is an institute for research, training, and information dissemination in urban

development and management.
• It is located in New Delhi, India.
• It was established in 1976 as an autonomous body under the Societies Registration
Act.
• The Institute is supported by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, the
Government of India, State Governments, urban and regional development
authorities, and other agencies concerned with urban issues.

• As a hub for the generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban
sector, NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast
urbanising India, and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the
future.
• It was appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its
urban development plans. Since then, it has worked closely with the Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairs, alongside other government and civil sectors, to identify
key areas of research. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
11. With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider 2022-I
the following statements :
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its
supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June, and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report
to the General Assembly for approval.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: a
United Nations Credentials Committee
• A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the

General Assembly. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the
proposal of the President.
• The Committee reports to the Assembly on the credentials of representatives.

• Usually, the committee meets in November, with the report presented before the
general body in December. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Structure and Functions
• The credentials of representatives and the names of members of the delegation of
each Member State are submitted to the Secretary-General and are issued either by
the Head of the State or Government or by the Minister for Foreign Affairs.
• It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the
General Assembly for approval. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Special and emergency special sessions of the General Assembly as well as
conferences convened under its auspices also appoint a Credentials Committee having
the same composition as that of the Credentials Committee at its most recent regular
session.
12. Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code'? 2022-I
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the
demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries around the north pole
regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region
(d) It is a trade and security agreement between the member countries of
the Arctic Council.
Answer: a
Polar Code
• The Polar Code came into force on 1 January 2017.

• The International Maritime Organization has adopted a mandatory Polar Code to
provide for safe ship operation and environmental protection in the polar
regions. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• If you operate a SOLAS or MARPOL ship in Arctic or Antarctic waters, then your ship
will need to comply with all or part of this Code.

• The International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (the Polar Code) is a new
code adopted by the IMO.
• The Code acknowledges that polar waters may impose additional demands on ships
beyond those normally encountered.
• It provides a mandatory framework for ships operating in polar waters.
• The main requirements are related to safety, protection of the environment, and
seafarer competence, and it is implemented through amendments to International
Maritime Conventions such as SOLAS, MARPOL, and the STCW.
• IMO's International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code)
is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
(SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL).
• The Polar Code covers the full range of environmental protection matters relevant to
the design, construction, equipment, operation, training, search and rescue, and ships
operating in the inaccessible waters around the two poles.
• The Polar Code applies to certain ships that will operate on domestic or international
voyages in Arctic or Antarctic waters.
13. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the 2022-I
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the Non-member
States.
2. Inter-Governmental organizations can seek observer status in the UN
General Assembly
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions
at the UN headquarters
Which of the statement given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, and 3

Answer: d
United Nations General Assembly
• The General Assembly is the main deliberative, policymaking and representative organ
of the UN.
• All 193 Member States of the UN are represented in the General Assembly, making it
the only UN body with universal representation.
• Each year, in September, the full UN membership meets in the General Assembly Hall
in New York for the annual General Assembly session, and general debate, which
many heads of state attend and address.
• Decisions on important questions, such as those on peace and security, admission of
new members, and budgetary matters, require a two-thirds majority of the General
Assembly.
• The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member states, international
organizations, and other entities Permanent Observer Status. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
• Decisions on other questions are by simple majority.
• General Assembly decided that observer status would be confined to States and
intergovernmental organizations whose activities cover matters of interest to the
Assembly. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The President of the General Assembly is elected each year by the assembly to serve
a one-year term of office.
• Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General
Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters. Hence, Statement 3 is
correct.
Sports and Game

14. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports 2022-I
Award which was instituted in the year 2000:
1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of compared to
others,
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, and 3
Answer: c
Laureus World Sports Award
• The award event was first held in 2000.

• The annual event honors the greatest and most inspirational sporting triumphs of
the year and showcases the work of Laureus Sport for Good.
• Shortlists for six categories (Sportswoman, Sportsman, Team, Breakthrough,
Comeback, and Action) are created by votes from more than 1,000 sports media from
over 70 countries.
• The shortlist for World Athlete of the Year with a Disability is provided by the
International Paralympic Committee.
• The Laureus World Sports Academy (a unique group of sporting legends) votes for the
winners in each shortlisted category.
• The Academy also can grant discretionary awards, such as the Laureus Lifetime
Achievement Award.
• The American golfer was the first winner of this award. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
• The award was received mostly by ‘Tennis player’ (11 awards) whereas ‘Formula one’
and ‘athletes’ have won four. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times (5 times) compared
to others. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
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Miscellaneous, Current Affairs and GK 1

Miscellaneous, Current Affairs and GK

1. Consider the following countries : 2014-I

o It is a high-level intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa

PRELIMS PYQ NOTES DISTILLED IAS

(c) 31st March (or 30th March)

National Calendar of India – Saka Calendar

3. Consider the following countries 2015-I

PRELIMS PYQ NOTES DISTILLED IAS

• The objective of Non-Proliferation treaty is to inhibit the spread of nuclear

4. Amnesty International is 2015-I

(a) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars

PRELIMS PYQ NOTES DISTILLED IAS

• Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization with its headquarters in

Global Economic Prospects

• 'Global Economic Prospects' is a World Bank Group flagship report.

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• World Bank Group is a unique global partnership of five institutions working

6. ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an 2016-I

(a) agency created by EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees

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European Stability Mechanism

• European Stability Mechanism (ESM) was an international financial institution set up

7. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in 2016-I

RCEP: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership

o Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed trade

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• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental

World Trade Organisation (WTO) - Boxes

• In WTO terminology, domestic subsidies in agriculture are identified by “Boxes”

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• It refers to a category of domestic support or subsidies under the WTO's Agreement

Special Drawing Rights

• The SDR is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969.

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• The World Bank Group (WBG) consists of five organizations -

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11. Consider the following statements : 2016-I

1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.

New Development Bank

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PRELIMS PYQ NOTES DISTILLED IAS

Ease of Doing Business

• Ease of Doing Business Index is released by the World Bank annually.

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15. Consider the following statements: 2016-I

The India-Africa Summit

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• The first India-Africa Summit was held in 2008 in New Delhi.

• Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF) or Doctors without Borders is a Non-governmental

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Gulf Cooperation Council

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19. Consider the following pairs : 2016-I

Community sometimes in the affairs of mentioned in the news

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o The Madhesi also referred to as Teraibasi Nepali are an indigenous ethnic

• Organization for the Prohibitions of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is an

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• It oversees the global endeavour to permanently and verifiably eliminate chemical