04/09/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST – 20
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 3. The potential energy of a harmonic oscillator of
2
mass 5 kg in its mean position is 4 J. If its total
1. Dimensional formula of ∫x dx is energy is 12 J and its amplitude is 20 cm, then its
(x is displacement of a particle) time period will be
(1) [M0L2T2] (2) [M0L2T0] π π
(1) s (2) s
(3) [M0L3T0] (4) [M0L2T] 10 50
2. The ratio of velocities of two particles, whose π π
position-time graph is represented by lines A and (3) s (4) s
2 5 40
B as shown in the graph below, is
4. If net torque acting on a system is zero, then
(1) Linear momentum of system will be
conserved
(2) Angular momentum of system will remain
constant
(3) Angular velocity will remain constant
(4) Force acting on the system must be zero
(1) 1 : 1 5. The distance covered by a particle varies with
time as x = k(1 – e–λt), here k and λ are
(2) 1: 3 constants. The speed of particle at time t is
(3) 2 :1 (1) ke–λt (2) – ke–λt
(4) 3 : 1 (3) kλe–λt (4) –kλe–λt

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

6. Dipole moment of a short dipole is P . A point 11. A ball of mass m is projected with velocity u at an
π angle θ with horizontal. What will be its angular
charge q is placed at point A at an angle with momentum at maximum height of journey with
3
respect to projection point?
respect to dipole axis. What will be force on a
charge q at point A? mu 2 sin2 θ mu 3 sin2 θ cos θ
(1) (2)
2g 2g

mu 3 cos θ
(3) (4) Zero
g
12. The length of second’s pendulum at the surface
of earth is 1 m. What will be the length of
(O is the mid-point of dipole) second’s pendulum at the surface of moon?
 ge 
kPq 2kPq  gm = 
(1) (2)  6 
3
r r3
1 1
5 kPq 7 kPq (1) m (2) m
(3) (4) 2 3
2r 3 2r 3
1 1
7. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is (3) m (4) m
 6 12
released from rest in a uniform electric field E .
13. An open organ pipe and a closed organ pipe are
The KE of charged particle after time t is of equal lengths. What will be the ratio of the
qEt 2 q 2E 2t 2 frequencies of their fourth overtone?
(1) (2)
2m 2m (1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 7

q 2E 2t q 2E 2t (3) 10 : 7 (4) 10 : 9
(3) (4)
m 2m 14. Three long straight wires P, Q and R are carrying
currents as shown in the figure. The resultant
8. The ratio of path difference to phase difference is
force on Q is directed
(λ is the wavelength of wave used)

2π λ
(1) (2)
λ 2π
(3) 2π (4) λ
9. A rigid solid sphere is spinning about an axis
without any external torque. Due to increase in (1) Towards P
temperature, the volume of sphere increases by
(2) Towards R
6%. The angular velocity will approximately
(3) Perpendicular to plane of paper and inward
(1) Increase by 2% (2) Decrease by 2%
(4) Perpendicular to plane of paper and outward
(3) Increase by 4% (4) Decrease by 4%
15. What will be the current through a p-n junction
10. A rigid body rolls down on an inclined plane. If its diode made of Germanium shown in figure
kinetic energy of rotational motion is 50% of its below?
kinetic energy of translational motion then the
body is
(1) Solid cylinder
(2) Solid sphere
(3) Hollow sphere (1) 0⋅2 A (2) 0⋅4 A
(4) Ring (3) 0⋅16 A (4) Zero

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-20 (Code-A)

16. Which of the following relationship between 23. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 60 minutes.
change in the internal energy ∆U and ratio of What is the approximate time duration between
molar specific heat γ for an ideal gas is true? 33% decay to 67% decay of the substance?

P ∆V (1) 30 minutes (2) 60 minutes

(1) ∆U = P∆V (2) ∆U =
γ (3) 90 minutes (4) 120 minutes
24. A Capacitor of capacitance C is charged with a
P ∆V γ P ∆V battery of potential V and then disconnected.
(3) ∆U = (4) ∆U =
γ –1 γ –1 Now a charge +Q is given to negative plate, then
17. In young’s double slit experiment, fringe width potential difference between the plates is
observed is β. If the frequency of the source is Q
(1) V (2) V –
tripled, then new fringe width will become C
(1) β/9 (2) 3β Q 2Q
(3) V – (4) V –
(3) β/3 (4) 9β 2C C
18. The angle between transmission axis of a 25. Light appears to travel in straight line since
polarizer and an analyser is 30°. The percentage (1) Its wavelength is very small
of polarized light passing through analyser is:
(2) It is reflected by atmosphere
(Intensity of polarized light = I0)
(3) It is not absorbed by the atmosphere
(1) 75% (2) 25%
(4) Its velocity is very small
(3) 50% (4) 100%
26. A Carnot engine absorbs 2000 J of heat energy
19. The amount of charge Q passing through the
from a reservoir at 127°C and rejects 800 J of
conducting wire in time t through a cross-section
heat energy during each cycle. The efficiency of
of wire is Q = 3t2 + 2t + 1. The magnitude of
engine and temperature of sink will be
current flowing at t = 3 is
(1) 50% and –33°C (2) 60% and –73°C
(1) 10 A (2) 20 A
(3) 60% and –113°C (4) 50% and –83°C
(3) 40 A (4) 5 A
27. If temperature versus density graph is a
20. A magnet of magnetic dipole moment 10 A m2 is rectangular hyperbola, then the process is
placed along the y-axis in uniform magnetic field (consider ideal gas)

B (2iˆ + 3 ˆj )T . What is the torque experienced
= (1) Isochoric (2) Isothermal
by the dipole? (3) Isobaric (4) Adiabatic
(1) 80 N m (2) 60 N m 28. The charge stored in the capacitor of capacitance
(3) 30 N m (4) 20 N m C = 4 µF in the circuit as shown is
21. In an AC circuit, alternating current is given by
I = I0sinωt. Then the time taken by the current to
rise from zero to RMS value of current is (T is
time period of a.c.)
T T
(1) (2)
2 4
T T (1) 20 µC (2) 40 µC
(3) (4)
8 6
(3) 80 µC (4) Zero
22. If V1 and V2 are stopping potentials of
29. In a common emitter amplifier, voltage gain is 40.
photoelectrons emitted when light of wavelength
If input impedance of 80 Ω and an output
λ1 and λ2 are incident on metallic surface
impedance is 160 Ω are present, then the power
respectively. If λ1 = 4λ2, then gain of the amplifier is
(1) V1 > 2V2 (2) V2 = V1 (1) 800 (2) 400
(3) V1 > 4V2 (4) V2 > 4V1 (3) 200 (4) 80
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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

30. The equivalent resistance across P and Q is SECTION-B

36. Two charged spheres having radius a and b are
joined with a conducting wire, then the ratio of
E
(1) 2 Ω (2) 4 Ω electric fields a on their surfaces is
Eb
4
(3) 20 Ω (4) Ω a b
5 (1) (2)
b a
31. The springs in figure A and B are identical but
length in A is two times each of that in B. The a2 b2
(3) (4)
ratio of periods, TA/TB is b2 a2
37. The ratio of intensities of two waves are 16 : 1
then the ratio of their maximum and minimum
equivalent intensities due to interference will be
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
(3) 16 : 9 (4) 25 : 9
(A) (B) 38. A person observes two trains, one of them is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 coming with speed of v/5 and another is going
away with same speed. Here v is speed of sound
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3
in air. If both trains blow whistles each of
32. The equation for the displacement of a stretched frequencies 240 Hz. The difference in frequencies
string is given by
heard by stationary person will be
y = Asin(ωt – kx)
(1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz
The equation of reflected wave from fixed end
(3) 200 Hz (4) 300 Hz
will be
(1) yR = Asin(ωt – kx) (2) yR = –Asin(kx + ωt) 39. The best graph of molar specific heat at constant
volume (CV) versus absolute temperature (T) for
(3) yR = Asin(kx + ωt) (4) yR = Asin(kx – ωt) a monoatomic ideal gas is
33. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a
distances r apart. The gravitational potential at a
point on the line joining them, where the
gravitational field is zero, is (1) (2)
–2Gm –4Gm
(1) (2)
r r
–6Gm –9Gm
(3) (4)
r r
34. Water rises to height h in a capillary tube of (3) (4)
cross-sectional area A. The height to which water
will rise in a capillary tube of cross-sectional area
4A will be
40. What will be the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
h h of proton to photon, when kinetic energy of a
(1) (2)
4 2 proton is equal to energy of a photon? (Symbols
(3) h (4) 2h have their usual meaning)
35. The degree of freedom of an ideal gas molecule
mp c 2 E
is 5. The gas perform 50 J work in expansion at (1) (2)
constant pressure. The heat absorbed by the gas 2E 2mp c 2
during this expansion is
(1) 100 J (2) 125 J E mp c 2
(3) (4)
(3) 150 J (4) 175 J mp c 2 E

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-20 (Code-A)

41. The ratio of stress to strain within proportional (1) 12 cm from P (2) 15 cm from P
limit is called (3) 16 cm from P (4) 18 cm from P
(1) Modulus of elasticity (2) Poisson’s ratio 47. A conducting wire of length 1 m is placed in x-y
(3) Compressibility (4) Permanent set 
plane. It is moved with velocity v = (iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ )
42. A soap bubble is given a negative charge; then m/s through a region of magnetic induction
its radius 
B (4 jˆ + 3kˆ ) . Then potential difference across
=
(1) Increases (2) Decreases between the ends of the wire
(3) Remains same (4) Can’t be predicted
43. Which among the following arrangement can be
used to verify Ohm’s Law?

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(1) 5 V (2) 2 V
(3) 3 V (4) 4 V
(2)
48. What is the value of current just after pressing
the key k through the circuit shown in figure?

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(1) 0 A (2) 1 A
1
(3) 2 A (4) A
(4) 2
49. A black body at 400 K, is found to have
maximum energy at a wavelength of 20 µm.
44. Surface tension of water is 0.072 N m–1. The When its temperature is raised to 1000 K, the
excess pressure inside a water drop of radius wavelength at which maximum energy emitted
2 mm is will be
(1) 48 Pa (2) 72 Pa (1) 8 µm (2) 12 µm
(3) 96 Pa (4) 124 Pa
(3) 16 µm (4) 24 µm
45. Which among the following is self adjusting
50. The r.m.s. value of an alternating voltage V, as
force?
shown in the figure, is:
(1) Limiting friction (2) Kinetic friction
(3) Static friction (4) All of these
46. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image will formed at
V0 V0
(1) (2)
2 2 2

V0 V0
(3) (4)
2 4

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. Which compound is not a component of
51. The correct order of oxidation state of nitrogen in photochemical smog?
the given compounds is (1) HCHO (2) PAN
(1) N2 < NH3 < HNO2 < HNO3
(3) C2H5OH (4)
(2) HNO2 < HNO3 < N2 < NH3
(3) NH3 < N2 < HNO3 < HNO2 60. The correct order of electron affinity of the given
(4) NH3 < N2 < HNO2 < HNO3 elements is
(1) F > Cl > O > S (2) F > O > Cl > S
52. The ∆G° for a reversible reaction at 25°C whose
Keq = 10 is (3) O > Cl > F > S (4) Cl > F > S > O
61. The orbital angular momentum of 3p electron is
(1) – 298 × R (2) 2.303 × R
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 2.303 × 298 × R (4) –2.303 × 298 × R
53. Which of the following salts will undergo anionic (3) 5 (4) 3
hydrolysis only? 62. Consider the following reactions sequence
(1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl H O
2 → A 
CaC2 
Re d hot iron tube
→B
(3) CH3COONa (4) BaCl2
The compound B is
54. The most basic hydroxide among the following is
(1) C2H4 (2) C2H2
(1) Ce(OH)3 (2) Lu(OH)3
(3) C2H6 (4) C6H6
(3) Gd(OH)3 (4) Er(OH)3
63. Which among the following is non-benzenoid
55. Identify the correct statement from the following aromatic compound?
(1) Lithium is softer among all alkali metals
(2) All alkali metal nitrates decompose to give (1) (2)
the corresponding nitrite
(3) Magnesium nitrate crystallises with six
molecules of water (3) (4)
(4) Calcium hydroxide is highly soluble in water
at room temperature 64. The correct order of bond order of the given
56. Negative hydration enthalpy of which ion is species is
highest?
(1) N2+ > N2− > N2 (2) N2 > N2+ =
N2−
(1) Li+ (2) Na+
(3) N2+ > N2 =
N2− (4) N2 > N2+ > N2−
(3) K+ (4) Rb+
57. The complex having magnetic moment value
5.92 BM is
65.
(1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [FeF6]3–
(3) [Mn(CN)6]3– (4) [MnCl6]3-
Above reaction proceeds via formation of which
58. Which among the following is a square planar electrophile?
complex?
(1) :CH2 (2) :CCl2
(1) [NiCl4]2– (2) [Ni(CO)4]
+ +
(3) [PtCl4]2– (4) [CoCl4]2– (3) Cl (4) CCl3

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-20 (Code-A)

66. Alkyl fluorides can be prepared by 73. Standard enthalpy of formation is zero for
(1) Swarts reaction (1) O3(g) (2) Cl2(g)
(2) Finkelstein reaction (3) Br2(g) (4) Diamond
(3) Hunsdiecker reaction 74. When 5 moles of an ideal gas is expanded at
(4) Sandmeyer reaction 350 K reversibly from 5 L to 50 L, then the
entropy change for the process is
(R = 2 cal mol–1K–1)

67. (1) 2.3 cal K–1 (2) 4.6 cal K–1

(3) 23.03 cal K–1 (4) 46.06 cal K–1
Product (P) is 75. Which of the following molecules in a pair are
diamagnetic and ferromagnetic substances
respectively?
(1) (2)
(1) C6H6 and MnO
(2) MnO and C6H6
(3) C6H6 and CrO2
(3) (4) (4) CrO2 and MnO
76. Which of the following order is incorrect?
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 – Bond dissociation energy
68. In diborane(B2H6), maximum number of atoms lie (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 – Oxidising power
in one plane is (3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI – Acidic strength
(1) 2 (2) 4 (4) F > Cl > Br > I – Electronegativity
(3) 6 (4) 8 77. The freezing point of 0.02 m solution of glucose
69. The strongest oxidising agent among the in water is (Kf = 1.86°C m–1)
following is (1) 0.0372°C (2) –1.86°C
(1) ln3+ (2) Tl3+ (3) –0.93°C (4) –0.0372°C
(3) Al3+ (4) Ga3+ 78. Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, E° = Y1 volt
70. Total number of electrons in 1 mole N3– ions is Cu+ + e– → Cu, E° = Y2 volt, then for
(1) 10 (2) 7 NA Cu2+ + e– → Cu+, E° (volt) will be
(3) 10 NA (4) 18 NA (1) Y2 – 2Y1 (2) Y1 – Y2
71. Consider three sealed jars of equal volume. First (3) 2Y1 – Y2 (4) Y2 – Y1
jar contains 2 g of H2 at 200 K, second one
1
contains 32 g of O2 at 400 K and the third one 79. The plot of ln k versus is linear with slope of
contains 28 g of N2 at 800 K. The gases in the T
three jars will have −Ea
(1) ln A (2)
(1) The same number of molecules R
(2) The same pressure Ea Ea
(3) (4)
(3) The same average speed R 2.303R
(4) The same average kinetic energy 80. Which of the following is lyophilic sol?
72. The suitable thermodynamic conditions for a (1) Starch sol
spontaneous reaction at all temperatures are (2) Silver sol
(1) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0 (2) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0 (3) As2S3 sol
(3) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 (4) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0 (4) Sulphur sol

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

81. The most stable carbocation among the given 87. Novestrol is used as
species is (1) Antiseptic (2) Tranquilizer
(3) Analgesic (4) Antifertility drug
88. The compound which does not react with
NaHCO3 is
(1) (2)

(1) CH3COOH (2)

(3) HCOOH (4) CH3–CH2–OH

89. The compound which will not give positive
(3) (4) Fehling test is
(1) Propanal (2) Formaldehyde
(3) Propanone (4) Acetaldehyde
82. The correct order of increasing acidic character is 90. Product obtained in the reaction is
(1) HC ≡ CH < CH3C ≡ CH < H2C = CH2
(2) H2C = CH2 < HC ≡ CH < CH3C ≡ CH
(3) H2C = CH2 < CH3C ≡ CH < HC ≡ CH
(1)
(4) CH3C ≡ CH < H2C = CH2 < HC ≡ CH
83. (2)

Major product, X is (3)

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(1) (2)
91. Arrange the following compounds in order of
increasing reactivity towards nucleophilic addition
reaction.
(3) (4)

84. Bakelite is an example of

(1) Branched chain polymer (1) I < II < III (2) II < I < III
(2) Linear polymer (3) III < II < I (4) I < III < II
(3) Cross linked polymer 92. Major product formed in the following reaction is

(4) Thermoplastic polymer

85. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI, forms (1)
(1) Gluconic acid (2) n-pentane
(3) n-hexane (4) Iodohexane
SECTION-B (2)
86. The base which is absent in DNA is (3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH
(1) Guanine (2) Cytosine (4)
(3) Adenine (4) Uracil

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-20 (Code-A)

93. Arrange the following compounds in order of 97. CaC2 on reaction with D2O gives
ease of dehydrohalogenation by using alcoholic
(1) CD4 (2) C2D2
KOH
(3) C2D4 (4) C2D6
98. The element which cannot be detected by
Lassaigne’s test is
(1) Sulphur (2) Nitrogen
(1) X < Z < Y (2) Z < Y < X
(3) Y < X < Z (4) Z < X < Y (3) Oxygen (4) Chlorine

94. Strongest acid among the following is 99. Major product (P) of the given reaction is
(1) HOCl (2) HClO2 3 ( CH
2
COO ) Mn
CH3 CH3 + O2 →P
∆
(3) HClO3 (4) HClO4
95. Among the following, which ore is concentrated (1) CH3CH2OH
by froth flotation process? (2) CH3COCH3
(1) Sphalerite (2) Cuprite (3) CH3COOH
(3) Bauxite (4) Zincite
(4) CH3CHO
96. The half life (in seconds) for a first order reaction
100. Which among the following is a paramagnetic?
which takes 10 seconds for 90% completion is
(1) 2.3 (2) 3 (1) N2O3 (2) N2O
(3) 6 (4) 4.6 (3) NO2 (4) N2O5

BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. The site of active rRNA synthesis is
101. Genetic material is not naked in (1) Ribosome (2) Nucleolus
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Blue green algae (3) Cytoplasm (4) Nuclear membrane

(3) Bacteria (4) Plants 105. The stage of interphase in which DNA synthesis
occurs is also related with
102. Identify the statement which is incorrect for golgi
(1) Tubulin protein formation
apparatus.
(2) Golgi duplication
(1) Cis face of golgi apparatus is also called
(3) Chromatin condensation
maturing face
(4) Centriole duplication
(2) Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged
106. Metaphase I differs from metaphase II as the
near nucleus
former
(3) Golgi vesicles pinch off from tubules
(1) Involves formation of double metaphasic
(4) Some of the golgian vacuoles function as plates
lysosomes (2) Occurs in haploid cells
103. The inner membrane of mitochondria (3) Lacks pairing of homologous chromosome
(1) Forms infoldings called thylakoids (4) Involves splitting of centromeres
(2) Contains enzymes and electron carriers for 107. Bivalents are clearly visible as tetrad in
ATP formation (1) Zygotene stage
(3) Contains 80% lipids and 20% proteins (2) Pachytene stage

(4) Forms infoldings towards perimitochondrial (3) Diplotene stage

space (4) Diakinesis stage

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

108. Characteristic of living beings which is not seen 116. Which one is not true for Chlorophyceae
in worker honey bees is members?
(1) Growth (2) Metabolism (1) Main photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll
a and b
(3) Consciousness (4) Reproduction
(2) Inner layer of cell wall is composed of pectin
109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. eubacteria
(3) Produce zoospores with 2-8 flagella
(1) Heterotrophs are the most abundant in
(4) Stored material is starch and protein
nature
117. Gemmae are
(2) Some members can have chlorophyll a
similar to plants (1) Unicellular

(3) Some members play great role in recycling of (2) Non-green structures
nutrients (3) Sexual buds
(4) Chemosynthetic autotrophs are involved in (4) Produced in small receptacles
fixation of nitrogen in legume plants 118. Transpiration pull
110. Chief producers in the oceans are (1) Is positive hydrostatic pressure
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates (2) Provides pushing force for water transport
(3) Euglenoids (4) Protozoans (3) Results from active absorption of water
111. Members of Basidiomycetes (4) Accounts majority of water transport
(1) Lack dikaryophase in their life 119. Active transport of molecules does not

(2) Form fruiting bodies that produce mitospores (1) Require ATP
(2) Occur from their high to low concentration
(3) Produce meiospores endogenously
(3) Saturate
(4) Lack sex organs but not sexual reproduction
(4) Show response to protein inhibitors
112. Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in
120. The element required for pollen germination is
(1) Alstonia (2) Mustard
(1) B (2) Cl
(3) China rose (4) Guava
(3) S (4) P
113. Choose the odd one for monocot seeds.
121. In chromatogram, the primary photosynthetic
(1) Seed coat is generally fused with fruit wall pigment appears
(2) Aleurone layer separates endosperm from (1) Blue yellow in colour
embryo (2) Yellow in colour
(3) Contain single cotyledon called scutellum (3) Yellow-Orange in colour
(4) Plumule and radical are covered by (4) Blue green in colour
coleorhiza and coleoptiles respectively
122. The primary acceptor molecule during C3 cycle is
114. The only dead component of phloem tissue is/are (1) 5C compound
(1) Phloem parenchyma (2) Sieve tubes (2) A ketose sugar
(3) Companion cells (4) Bast fibres (3) Phosphoglyceric acid
115. Select the wrong match. (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Protonema — Juvenile stage of 123. Enzyme of TCA cycle i.e., found attached to
Polytrichum inner mitochondrial membrane catalyse the
conversion of
(2) Marchantia — Asexually reproduce by
gemmae (1) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(3) Liverworts — Unicellular rhizoids (2) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
(4) Funaria — Main plant body is (3) α-ketoglutaric acid → Succinyl CoA
sporophyte (4) Oxalosuccinic acid → α-ketoglutaric acid

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-20 (Code-A)

124. Complex IV of electron transport system is (1) Given pedigree is applicable for haemophilia
(1) Cytochrome bc1 complex (2) For a sex linked character, genotype of I b is
XcY
(2) Contains cytochromes a, a3 and two copper
centres (3) This pedigree is not applicable for any
autosomal dominant disorder
(3) Known as NADH dehydrogenase
(4) For a sex linked character, genotype of II b is
(4) Consist of F0 and F1 parts XX
125. The hormone known as antagonist of gibberellins 132. Genetic disorder which is a classical example of
point mutation is
(1) Breaks seed dormancy
(1) Down’s syndrome
(2) Is a terpene derivative
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Induce closure of stomata
(3) Sickle cell anaemia
(4) Delays senescence process
(4) Turner’s syndrome
126. In plants, sites of light/dark perception for 133. Find the incorrect match.
flowering is/are
(1) Ligase – Joins Okazaki fragments
(1) Embryo (2) Shoot apex
(2) Helicase – Unwinds DNA during
(3) Floral meristem (4) Leaves transcription only
127. Which one produces heterogametes? (3) DNA polymerase – Polymerise DNA
(1) Rhizopus (2) Cladophora (4) Topoisomerase – Releases tension in helix
produced during
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chara replication
128. In flowering plants, the female gametophyte 134. Read the statement and select the wrong one.
(1) Is produced from microspore (1) In prokaryotes, single RNA polymerase
(2) Is located in the ovule transcribes all RNAs.
(2) In eukaryotes RNA polymerase III forms
(3) Is 3 celled and 3 nucleate
SnRNAs
(4) Is diploid
(3) Sigma factor acts as termination factor during
129. Water is the medium for pollination in prokaryotic transcription
(1) Water lily (2) Eichhornia (4) Eukaryotes have 3 types of RNA polymerases
in the nucleus to transcribe different types of
(3) Zostera (4) Amorphophallus
RNAs.
130. Which of the given is true w.r.t. a test cross? 135. All of the given are salient features of human
(1) TT × Tt (2) Tt × Tt genome project, except

(3) tt × tt (4) Tt × tt (1) Human genome contains 3164.7 million

nucleotide bases
131. Consider the pedigree chart and select the
(2) Functions of over 50% of discovered genes
correct option.
are unknown
(3) Less than 2% of genome codes for proteins
(4) Repeated sequences make up very small
portion of human genome
SECTION-B
136. Wheat variety which is developed to make it
resistant against hill bunt and stripe rust is
(1) Sonalika (2) Himgiri
(3) Atlas 66 (4) Pusa sawani

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137. Statins are produced by 143. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
(1) Streptococcus (1) Increase in productivity
(2) Monascus purpureus (2) Reduced resistance to environmental
perturbations
(3) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) Reduced variability in pest and disease cycle
(4) Azotobacter
(4) Decreased variability in water use
138. All of the below given are xerophytic adaptations
in plants, except 144. Find the wrong one for catalytic converters.

(1) Sunken stomata on leaf surface (1) It has costly metals like platinum-palladium
and rhodium
(2) CAM pathway
(2) Converts unburnt hydrocarbons into CO2 and
(3) Thick cuticle on leaf surface H2O
(4) Reduced size of stem and roots (3) Automobile fitted with catalytic converter
139. Mark the wrong match. uses leaded petrol

(1) Barnacles and whale – Commensalism (4) Reduces emission of CO, NOx and
hydrocarbons
(2) Streptococus and Penicillium – Amensalism
145. Eutrophicated lakes are usually
(3) Orchid and mango – Mutualism
(1) Shallower with cold water
(4) Abingdon tortoise and goat – Competition
(2) With high pesticide concentration
140. Decomposition
(3) With low nutrients than fresh and clean lake
(1) Is favoured in anaerobic conditions
(4) Shallower with warmer water
(2) Of water soluble carbohydrates occur at 146. Choose odd one w.r.t. the parts of flowering
faster rate than lignin and chitin plant regarding its ploidy
(3) Occurs at faster rate when soil temperature is (1) Embryo sac (2) Pollen
below 20°C
(3) Perisperm (4) Antipodals
(4) Is favoured by warm and dry atmosphere
147. Select the wrong match.
141. Select the correct option for given food chain
(1) Seed bank – Ex situ conservation
Plant → Rat → Snake → Eagle (2) Indo-Burma – Biodiversity hot spot of India
1000 J
(3) National park – In-situ conservation
(1) Energy available for rat is 1000 J
(4) National park – 14 in India
(2) Energy provided by snake to eagle is 1 J
148. The UTRs are
(3) Rat is acting as transducer
(1) Present at 5′ end after start codon
(4) GPP of crop is available for consumption to
rat (2) Present at 3′ end before stop codon

142. Select the correct statement(s). (3) Some additional sequences that are
translated into proteins
a. Area with more species diversity shows much
(4) Required for efficient translational process
variation in total biomass year to year.
149. Members of family Liliaceae show/have
b. A stable community should show resistance
to disturbances. (1) Imbricate aestivation of perianth
c. As per rivet-popper hypothesis, rivets on the (2) Parietal placentation
wings represent key species. (3) Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(1) a and c (4) Epipetalous stamens
(2) b and c 150. All are spermatophytes with archegonia, except
(3) a and b (1) Pinus (2) Cycas
(4) All a, b and c (3) Cedrus (4) Eucalyptus

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ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. Match the column-I with column-II and choose
151. Choose the correct statement. the correct answer.

(1) Platyhelminths are pseudocoelomates Column-I Column-II

(2) Metamerism is exhibited by chordates a. Cuboidal (i) Inner lining of
(3) True coelom and bilateral symmetry is epithelium blood vessels
exhibited by aschelminthes
b. Brush bordered (ii) Inner lining of small
(4) Mesoglea is present between body wall and columnar intestine
gut wall in annelids epithelium
152. Identify the below given diagram of an animal
c. Ciliated epithelium (iii) Inner lining of
and select the correct statement about it
oviduct

d. Squamous (iv) Present in tubular

epithelium parts of nephrons

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
156. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. connective tissue.
(1) It contains ciliated choanocytes
(2) It is a dioecious animal which exhibits (1) Loose connective – Structural proteins
external fertilisation tissue called collagen and
elastin are present
(3) It is a primitive multicellular animal which
have cellular level of organisation (2) Adipose tissue – Located beneath the
(4) It possess bilateral symmetry skin

153. Paired fins or limbs are present in all except (3) Dense irregular – Mostly contains
connective tissue elastin fibres
(1) Branchiostoma
(2) Labeo (4) Tendons – Attached skeletal
muscles to bones
(3) Hyla
(4) Testudo 157. Communication junctions in the intercalated disc
regions are found in
154. Read the following statements.
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle
A. Some mammals have adapted to fly or live in
water. (3) Cardiac muscle (4) Voluntary muscle

B. Long bones are hollow with air cavities in 158. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Periplaneta
birds. americana

C. Tympanum represents ear in reptiles and (1) The entire foregut is lined by cuticle
pisces. (2) Heart is consist of elongated muscular tube
From above lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and
abdomen
(1) A and B are correct
(3) In male, the genital pouch lies in thorax
(2) B and C are correct
region
(3) A and C are correct
(4) Malpighian tubules help in removal of
(4) A, B and C all are correct excretory products from haemolymph
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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

159. Choose the odd one w.r.t. paired structures 164. Pepsinogen changes into active pepsin by
present in female Periplaneta americana (1) Enterokinase
(1) Spermatheca (2) Collaterial glands (2) HCl
(3) Alary muscles (4) Vagina (3) Trypsin
160. How many molecule(s) from given below in box (4) Proteins present in food
have molecular weight more than 800 Dalton?
165. Every 1000 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver
Adenine, Lecithin, DNA, Glycine, Glucose around______ ml of O2 to the tissues under
normal physiological conditions
(1) One (2) Two
(1) 5 (2) 15
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) 50 (4) 100
161 Match the column-I with column-II and choose
166. Complete the analogy w.r.t. respiratory
the correct answer.
volumes/capacities
Column-I Column-II FRC : ERV + RV : : VC : ____
Component % of the total
(1) TV + IRV (2) TLC – RV
cellular mass
(3) TV + ERV (4) IRV + ERV
a. Proteins (i) 10-15
167. Identify the X, Y and Z in given below table and
b. Lipids (ii) 3 choose the option with all correct identification.

c. Nucleic acid (iii) 2 Antibodies in Donor’s blood

blood plasma group
(iv) 5-7
X A, O
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i) c(iii)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv) Y B, O

162. Read the following statements and choose the Nil Z

correct answer
X Y Z
A. As living organisms work continuously, they
cannot afford to reach equilibrium. (1) Anti-A Anti-B AB, A, B, O
B. Ligases enzymes are involved in catalysis of (2) Anti-B Anti-A AB, A, B, O
joining of C–O, C–S, C–N, P–O etc. bonds
(3) Anti-A Anti-B A, AB
(1) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect
(2) Statement B is correct, A is incorrect (4) Anti-A Anti-B O, AB

(3) Both statements are correct 168. During joint diastole

(4) Both statements are incorrect (1) AV valves remain close
163. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. (2) Semilunar valves remain open
Kwashiorkor (3) Blood flows from left ventricle to aorta
(1) It is produced by protein deficiency (4) Ventricles receive the blood from atria
accompanied by calorie deficiency
169. In ECG, the T-wave represents
(2) It occurs in children more than one year in
(1) Depolarisation of the atria
age
(2) Depolarisation of the ventricles
(3) It shows wasting of muscles and failure of
growth and brain development (3) Return of the ventricles from excited to
normal state (repolarisation)
(4) Extensive oedema and swelling of body parts
are seen in it (4) Repolarisation of the atria

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170. The part of renal tubule which allows transport of 176. Choose the mismatch.
only electrolytes is
(1) Cornea – Anterior portion of external layer
(1) PCT of eye
(2) DCT
(2) Fovea – Thinned-out portion of retina
(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
where only cones are present
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Retinal – An aldehyde of vitamin A,
171. The portion of myofibril between two successive
present in only rods
‘Z’ lines is
(1) Called light band (4) Labyrinth – Fluid filled inner ear

(2) Consist of one A band and one half I band 177. Addison’s disease is associated with
(3) Considered as functional unit of contraction (1) Over production of mineralocorticoids
(4) Consist of only thin filaments (2) Over production of thymosin
172. During muscle constriction (3) Under production of cortisol and
(1) The over lapping area between actin and mineralocorticoids
myosin increases (4) Under production of glycogen
(2) The length of A band increases 178. Match the columns and choose the correct
(3) The length of sarcomere increases answer.
(4) The length of I band increases Column-I Column-II
173. Choose the odd one w.r.t. facial bones Hormones Chemical nature
(1) Maxilla (2) Zygomatic a. CCK (i) Catecholamine
(3) Lacrimal (4) Ethmoid
b. Thyroxine (ii) Lipid soluble
174. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human
skeleton. c. Epinephrine (iii) Peptide
(1) Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
of thorax
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(2) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum
179. Choose the odd one w.r.t. number of
together form the ribcage
chromosomes in meiocyte of following animals.
(3) Each half of the pelvic girdle consists of one
coxal bone Organisms Number of chromosome
(4) The number of girdle bones is equal to in meiocyte
number of cranial bones (1) House fly – 12
175. Read the following statements and choose the
(2) Dog – 78
correct answer.
A. Fluid filled synaptic cleft is present in (3) Fruit fly – 8
chemical synapse.
(4) Butterfly – 190
B. All myelinated nerve fibres found in CNS and
PNS are enveloped with schwann cells. 180. Middle piece of sperm contains
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) Mitochondria and centriole
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) Acrosome and axial filament
(3) Both statements are incorrect (3) Centriole and axial filament
(4) Both statements are correct (4) Mitochondria and axial filament

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181. 1000 primary spermatocytes and 4000 primary 188. Which is the particular type of drug that is
oocytes will form obtained from the given below plant?
(1) 1000 spermatids and 4000 ova
(2) 4000 spermatids and 16000 ova
(3) 2000 spermatids and 1000 ova
(4) 4000 spermatids and 4000 ova
182. Which of the following are associated with
Graafian follicle?
(1) Antrum and primary oocyte
(2) Zona pellucida and secondary oocyte
(3) Theca and primary oocyte (1) Cannabinoids (2) Opioids
(4) Zona pellucida and primary oocyte (3) Cocaine (4) LSD
183. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. IUDs 189. In filariasis, the pathogens are transmitted
(1) LNG-20 and progestasert are included in through female
hormonal IUDs (1) Culex mosquito (2) Aedes mosquito

(2) Cu IUDs release Cu ions which suppress the (3) Anopheles mosquito (4) Xenopsylla
motility and fertilising capacity of sperms 190. Which of the following is an exotic breed of
poultry birds?
(3) Non-medicated IUDs prevent ovulation and
implantation (1) Karan swiss (2) Jersey

(4) Insertion of IUDs within 72 hours of (3) Leghorn (4) Hisardale

unprotected coitus have been found to be 191. Choose the restriction endonuclease which
very effective emergency contraceptive produces blunt ends
method (1) EcoR I (2) Hind II
184. All of the following are included in test tube baby (3) BamH I (4) Hind III
programme except 192. How many from given below in box are required
(1) ZIFT (2) IUT in amplification of DNA fragment by PCR?

(3) ET (4) IUI dATP, Primers, dUTP, DNA ligase, Taq

185. Complete the analogy w.r.t. convergent evolution polymerase, dGTP
of Australian marsupials and placental mammals (1) One (2) Two
Lemur : Spotted Cuscus : : Bobcat : ____ (3) Three (4) Four
(1) Bandicoot (2) Koala 193. Term used to refer to the use of bioresources by
(3) Wombat (4) Tasmanian tiger cat multinational companies without prior permission
from countries and people concerned is
SECTION-B
(1) Biopatent (2) Biopiracy
186. Tuataras evolved from
(3) Bioethics (4) GEAC
(1) Sauropsids (2) Thecodonts
194. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and
(3) Pelycosaurs (4) Therapsids flavour, and X documented varieties of
187. Immunoglobulin which is mainly present in basmati are grown in India.
mucous secretions of the respiratory tract is Choose the option that correctly fills the blank X
(1) IgA (2) IgD (1) 200,000 (2) 25
(3) IgE (4) IgG (3) 27 (4) 200

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195. Brazzein is a 198. The opening of common hepatopancreatic duct is

(1) Carbohydrate (2) Protein guarded by

(3) Nucleic acid (4) Lipid (1) Sphincter of Boyden (2) Sphincter of Oddi

196. Consider the features/characters given in box (3) Ileo-caecal valve (4) Pyloric sphincter
below 199. Which of the following factor cannot activate
RAAS mechanism?
Choanocytes, Cnidocytes, Spongocoel,
Hypostome, Ostia (1) Decrease in body fluid volume/blood volume

How many features/characters are associated (2) Low glomerular blood pressure
with the members of Phylum Porifera? (3) Low osmolarity
(1) 3 (2) 2 (4) Low GFR
(3) 1 (4) 4 200. If alien DNA is ligated at BamH I site in pBR322
197. Choose the odd one w.r.t. secondary metabolites vector, the transformant recombinants will be

(1) Cellulose (1) Sensitive to ampicillin

(2) Curcumin (2) Resistant to tetracycline
(3) Concanavalin A (3) Sensitive to tetracycline
(4) Chlorophyll (4) Resistant to chloramphenicol

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Edition: 2020-21