Topic: Network Software Architecture and its Layers and Protocols

1. Which of the following is the standard model used to describe network architectures?

• a) ISO

• b) OSI

• c) TCP/IP

• d) IEEE
Answer: b) OSI

2. The OSI model consists of how many layers?

• a) 4

• b) 5

• c) 6

• d) 7
Answer: d) 7

3. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for data encryption and decryption?

• a) Physical layer

• b) Network layer

• c) Presentation layer

• d) Application layer
Answer: c) Presentation layer

4. The Transport Layer is responsible for:

• a) Error detection and correction

• b) Routing of data

• c) End-to-end communication

• d) Framing
Answer: c) End-to-end communication

5. Which protocol is used by the Application layer for email services?

• a) HTTP

• b) SMTP

• c) FTP

• d) DHCP
Answer: b) SMTP

Topic: Network Hardware Architecture, Topologies, and Devices (HUB, Switch, Routers)
6. Which device operates at the Physical layer of the OSI model?

• a) Router

• b) Switch

• c) Hub

• d) Bridge
Answer: c) Hub

7. In which topology do all devices connect to a central device like a switch or hub?

• a) Mesh topology

• b) Bus topology

• c) Star topology

• d) Ring topology
Answer: c) Star topology

8. A router operates at which layer of the OSI model?

• a) Data Link layer

• b) Network layer

• c) Transport layer

• d) Physical layer
Answer: b) Network layer

9. Which device forwards data only to the specific destination device on the network?

• a) Hub

• b) Switch

• c) Repeater

• d) Modem
Answer: b) Switch

10. Which topology allows all devices to be connected with many redundant interconnections?

• a) Bus topology

• b) Ring topology

• c) Star topology

• d) Mesh topology
Answer: d) Mesh topology

Topic: Uses of Computer Networks

11. Which of the following is a primary use of a computer network?

 • a) File sharing

• b) Video editing

• c) Image processing

• d) Audio mixing
Answer: a) File sharing

12. A network used to connect computers within a small geographic area, such as a building, is
known as:

• a) WAN

• b) LAN

• c) PAN

• d) MAN
Answer: b) LAN

13. Which of the following is an example of an application layer protocol used in networking?

• a) HTTP

• b) TCP

• c) IP

• d) Ethernet
Answer: a) HTTP

14. Which of the following is a characteristic of a peer-to-peer network?

• a) Centralized control

• b) Equal privileges for all devices

• c) Requires a server

• d) Not used for file sharing

Answer: b) Equal privileges for all devices

15. Which network type is typically used by organizations spread across different geographical
locations?

• a) LAN

• b) MAN

• c) WAN

• d) PAN
Answer: c) WAN

Topic: Networks and Types

16. A PAN (Personal Area Network) is typically used for:

• a) Connecting devices within a single room

• b) Connecting devices in a city

• c) Connecting global offices

• d) Connecting multiple buildings

Answer: a) Connecting devices within a single room

17. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is primarily used to:

• a) Protect data transmission

• b) Increase data transmission speed

• c) Share files between devices

• d) Provide wireless network access

Answer: a) Protect data transmission

18. Which network topology is used if each device is connected to two other devices forming a
circular path?

• a) Star

• b) Bus

• c) Ring

• d) Mesh
Answer: c) Ring

19. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a client-server network?

• a) Centralized control

• b) All devices are equal

• c) Dedicated servers

• d) Easier network management

Answer: b) All devices are equal

20. Which topology offers the highest redundancy?

• a) Bus

• b) Ring

• c) Star

• d) Mesh
Answer: d) Mesh

Topic: Introduction to Internet

21. The Internet is:

• a) A private network

• b) A network of networks

• c) A wireless network

• d) A local area network

Answer: b) A network of networks

22. What does URL stand for?

• a) Uniform Resource Location

• b) Universal Resource Locator

• c) Uniform Resource Locator

• d) Universal Record Locator

Answer: c) Uniform Resource Locator

23. Which protocol is primarily used for web communication?

• a) FTP

• b) HTTP

• c) SMTP

• d) DHCP
Answer: b) HTTP

24. A web browser is used for:

• a) Sending emails

• b) Displaying web pages

• c) Editing web pages

• d) Compiling code
Answer: b) Displaying web pages

25. Which of the following is a valid IP address format?

• a) 256.256.256.256

• b) 192.168.1.1

• c) 1234.123.12

• d) 200.300.400.500
Answer: b) 192.168.1.1

Topic: Browser, Web Server, URL, Domain Name

26. A domain name is:

 • a) A unique address on the internet

• b) A web browser feature

• c) An email address

• d) A security feature
Answer: a) A unique address on the internet

27. Which of the following is NOT a web browser?

• a) Google Chrome

• b) Mozilla Firefox

• c) Adobe Photoshop

• d) Microsoft Edge
Answer: c) Adobe Photoshop

28. A web server is responsible for:

• a) Storing and delivering web pages

• b) Sending emails

• c) Protecting data transmission

• d) Managing file systems

Answer: a) Storing and delivering web pages

29. Which of the following is the top-level domain (TLD) in the URL "www.example.com"?

• a) www

• b) example

• c) com

• d) .example
Answer: c) com

30. The HTTP protocol uses which port by default?

• a) 25

• b) 80

• c) 110

• d) 443
Answer: b) 80

Topic: IP Address, Packets

31. An IPv4 address is how many bits long?

• a) 16
 • b) 32

• c) 64

• d) 128
Answer: b) 32

32. A packet is:

• a) A fixed amount of data sent over a network

• b) A large collection of files

• c) A device in the network

• d) A web page
Answer: a) A fixed amount of data sent over a network

33. The process of dividing data into smaller pieces for transmission is called:

• a) Packet switching

• b) Routing

• c) Data fragmentation

• d) Tunneling
Answer: a) Packet switching

34. What is the primary function of an IP address?

• a) To identify devices on a network

• b) To encrypt data

• c) To store webpages

• d) To secure networks
Answer: a) To identify devices on a network

35. In networking, the term "latency" refers to:

• a) The speed of the connection

• b) The delay in data transmission

• c) The data size

• d) The type of connection

Answer: b) The delay in data transmission

Topic: Network Software Architecture and its Layers and Protocols

36. In the OSI model, the Network layer is responsible for:

• a) Data encryption

• b) Routing and forwarding

• c) Establishing communication sessions

 • d) Error detection
Answer: b) Routing and forwarding

37. TCP is a:

• a) Connectionless protocol

• b) Connection-oriented protocol

• c) Physical layer protocol

• d) Application layer protocol

Answer: b) Connection-oriented protocol

38. Which protocol is used for transferring files between systems on a network?

• a) FTP

• b) HTTP

• c) SMTP

• d) SNMP
Answer: a) FTP

39. UDP is best suited for:

• a) Applications where data loss is unacceptable

• b) Real-time applications like video streaming

• c) File transfers

• d) Secure transactions
Answer: b) Real-time applications like video streaming

40. Which of the following protocols is used for network management?

• a) SNMP

• b) SMTP

• c) HTTP

• d) IP
Answer: a) SNMP

Topic: Network Hardware Architecture, Topologies, and Devices

41. Which device connects multiple networks together and directs data between them?

• a) Switch

• b) Hub

• c) Router
 • d) Repeater
Answer: c) Router

42. In which topology does a single point of failure affect the entire network?

• a) Star topology

• b) Mesh topology

• c) Bus topology

• d) Tree topology
Answer: c) Bus topology

43. A switch operates at which layer of the OSI model?

• a) Physical layer

• b) Data Link layer

• c) Network layer

• d) Transport layer
Answer: b) Data Link layer

44. Which of the following is a characteristic of a hub?

• a) Data is broadcasted to all connected devices

• b) Data is sent only to the intended device

• c) It operates at the Network layer

• d) It can perform routing

Answer: a) Data is broadcasted to all connected devices

45. Which type of network topology is most commonly used in modern Ethernet networks?

• a) Bus

• b) Star

• c) Ring

• d) Mesh
Answer: b) Star

Topic: Uses of Computer Networks

46. A network that allows users to share resources like printers and files is called a:

• a) Public network

• b) Private network

• c) Shared network
 • d) Computer network
Answer: d) Computer network

47. A system that controls access to a network and provides security by filtering traffic is called a:

• a) Router

• b) Switch

• c) Firewall

• d) Proxy server
Answer: c) Firewall

48. Which of the following is NOT a common use of computer networks?

• a) Resource sharing

• b) Data communication

• c) Centralized computing

• d) Data storage
Answer: c) Centralized computing

49. The concept of cloud computing allows users to:

• a) Store data on local devices only

• b) Access data and applications over the internet

• c) Set up private networks for internal use

• d) Install software without licenses

Answer: b) Access data and applications over the internet

50. What type of network is used in a small office or home environment?

• a) WAN

• b) PAN

• c) LAN

• d) MAN
Answer: c) LAN

Topic: Networks and Types

51. What does WLAN stand for?

• a) Wide Local Area Network

• b) Wireless Local Area Network

• c) Wide Logical Area Network

 • d) Wireless Loop Area Network
Answer: b) Wireless Local Area Network

52. In which network type is data transmitted through light pulses?

• a) Ethernet

• b) Token Ring

• c) Fiber-optic

• d) Coaxial
Answer: c) Fiber-optic

53. The primary purpose of MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) is to:

• a) Connect computers in a single room

• b) Connect networks across a large city

• c) Connect devices within a building

• d) Connect networks in different countries

Answer: b) Connect networks across a large city

54. Which of the following statements is true about peer-to-peer networks?

• a) All devices are centralized

• b) Each device has equal status

• c) They require a dedicated server

• d) They are complex to manage

Answer: b) Each device has equal status

55. A Wide Area Network (WAN) typically spans:

• a) A single room

• b) A small building

• c) A large geographical area

• d) A local area
Answer: c) A large geographical area

Topic: Introduction to Internet

56. What does DNS stand for?

• a) Dynamic Name System

• b) Domain Name System

• c) Domain Number System

 • d) Dynamic Network System
Answer: b) Domain Name System

57. The Internet protocol that allows devices to share information in small units of data is called:

• a) Circuit switching

• b) Packet switching

• c) Frame relay

• d) TDM
Answer: b) Packet switching

58. A static IP address is:

• a) Assigned automatically by the DHCP server

• b) Manually configured and remains constant

• c) Assigned temporarily for a session

• d) Changed based on the network

Answer: b) Manually configured and remains constant

59. The web server that serves the most commonly requested websites is:

• a) Apache

• b) FTP

• c) SSH

• d) DHCP
Answer: a) Apache

60. In a URL, the component "http" refers to:

• a) Hyperlink Text Transfer Protocol

• b) Hypertext Transfer Protocol

• c) High Transfer Protocol

• d) Hyper Terminal Protocol

Answer: b) Hypertext Transfer Protocol

Topic: Browser, Web Server, URL, Domain Name

61. The HTTP status code 404 means:

• a) Internal server error

• b) Page not found

• c) Request successful
 • d) Unauthorized access
Answer: b) Page not found

62. A browser's cache stores:

• a) The browsing history

• b) Frequently accessed files from websites

• c) Passwords and user settings

• d) Cookies
Answer: b) Frequently accessed files from websites

63. Which of the following is NOT a function of a web browser?

• a) Rendering HTML pages

• b) Establishing FTP connections

• c) Managing security certificates

• d) Storing server-side data

Answer: d) Storing server-side data

64. Which of the following is used to resolve domain names into IP addresses?

• a) DHCP

• b) DNS

• c) HTTP

• d) SNMP
Answer: b) DNS

65. HTTPS uses which protocol for secure communication?

• a) SSH

• b) SSL/TLS

• c) FTP

• d) SNMP
Answer: b) SSL/TLS

Topic: IP Address, Packets

66. Which of the following addresses is a private IP address?

• a) 192.168.1.10

• b) 8.8.8.8

• c) 172.217.3.110
 • d) 157.240.20.35
Answer: a) 192.168.1.10

67. What is the main difference between IPv4 and IPv6?

• a) IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses

• b) IPv4 uses 64-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 32-bit addresses

• c) IPv6 is used for local networks only

• d) IPv4 supports encryption by default

Answer: a) IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses

68. A packet that travels across the network consists of:

• a) Only the data

• b) Header and payload

• c) Data and encryption keys

• d) Destination and routing protocols

Answer: b) Header and payload

69. Which device is primarily responsible for forwarding packets to their destination across
networks?

• a) Switch

• b) Router

• c) Hub

• d) Modem
Answer: b) Router

70. Network congestion can cause:

• a) Faster data transmission

• b) Data packet loss and delay

• c) Error-free data communication

• d) Improved network security

Answer: b) Data packet loss and delay

Topic: Network Software Architecture and its Layers and Protocols

71. Which of the following layers of the OSI model deals with the syntax and semantics of the
information transmitted?

• a) Session layer

• b) Presentation layer
 • c) Data link layer

• d) Physical layer
Answer: b) Presentation layer

72. Which layer in the TCP/IP model corresponds to the Transport layer in the OSI model?

• a) Application layer

• b) Internet layer

• c) Host-to-Host layer

• d) Network Access layer

Answer: c) Host-to-Host layer

73. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating
connections between applications?

• a) Physical layer

• b) Network layer

• c) Session layer

• d) Data link layer

Answer: c) Session layer

74. Which of the following is NOT a protocol used in the Application layer?

• a) HTTP

• b) FTP

• c) SMTP

• d) IP
Answer: d) IP

75. Which protocol provides reliability by establishing a connection before data is transferred?

• a) TCP

• b) UDP

• c) ICMP

• d) ARP
Answer: a) TCP

Topic: Network Hardware Architecture, Topologies, and Devices

76. In a network topology, a backbone network refers to:

• a) A central connection point

• b) The main network cable that connects different segments

 • c) A wireless network

• d) The connection between two routers

Answer: b) The main network cable that connects different segments

77. Which device is used to regenerate a weak or lost signal in a network?

• a) Hub

• b) Router

• c) Repeater

• d) Bridge
Answer: c) Repeater

78. In which topology does each node connect directly to every other node?

• a) Mesh

• b) Star

• c) Bus

• d) Ring
Answer: a) Mesh

79. The function of a network bridge is to:

• a) Connect two different networks

• b) Connect two LAN segments

• c) Send data to the entire network

• d) Route data between networks

Answer: b) Connect two LAN segments

80. Which topology connects all nodes to a central cable (or backbone)?

• a) Bus topology

• b) Star topology

• c) Ring topology

• d) Mesh topology
Answer: a) Bus topology

Topic: Uses of Computer Networks

81. Which type of network is used for the exchange of data over a large distance between different
countries?

• a) LAN

• b) WAN
 • c) PAN

• d) MAN
Answer: b) WAN

82. In which type of network can data be transmitted between devices within a single person’s
workspace?

• a) PAN

• b) WAN

• c) MAN

• d) LAN
Answer: a) PAN

83. The primary reason for using a firewall in a network is to:

• a) Improve network speed

• b) Enhance network security

• c) Increase data transmission

• d) Manage users’ login information

Answer: b) Enhance network security

84. Which type of network is designed for a single building or campus, allowing resource sharing
between devices?

• a) WAN

• b) LAN

• c) MAN

• d) PAN
Answer: b) LAN

85. Teleconferencing and remote meetings are facilitated using:

• a) WAN

• b) VPN

• c) LAN

• d) MAN
Answer: b) VPN

Topic: Networks and Types

86. Which protocol is used to assign dynamic IP addresses to devices on a network?

• a) DNS
 • b) DHCP

• c) FTP

• d) HTTP
Answer: b) DHCP

87. In which topology does the failure of a single cable affect all connected devices?

• a) Mesh

• b) Star

• c) Ring

• d) Bus
Answer: d) Bus

88. Which of the following is an example of a personal area network (PAN)?

• a) Bluetooth connections

• b) Corporate WAN

• c) A LAN within a building

• d) An intranet
Answer: a) Bluetooth connections

89. What kind of network allows devices to communicate without being connected to a central
router or access point?

• a) Client-server

• b) Peer-to-peer

• c) WAN

• d) VLAN
Answer: b) Peer-to-peer

90. A network that covers multiple buildings within a city is known as:

• a) WAN

• b) PAN

• c) MAN

• d) SAN
Answer: c) MAN

Topic: Introduction to Internet

91. What does ISP stand for?

• a) Internet Service Provider

 • b) Internet Software Protocol

• c) Internal Service Provider

• d) Interconnection Service Provider

Answer: a) Internet Service Provider

92. Which of the following is the standard communication protocol of the World Wide Web?

• a) FTP

• b) SMTP

• c) HTTP

• d) SNMP
Answer: c) HTTP

93. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for ensuring that data is transmitted in a format that
both the sender and receiver can understand?

• a) Physical layer

• b) Network layer

• c) Presentation layer

• d) Transport layer
Answer: c) Presentation layer

94. The global system of interconnected computer networks that use the Internet protocol suite is
called:

• a) Intranet

• b) VPN

• c) Extranet

• d) Internet
Answer: d) Internet

95. What protocol is used to send email over the internet?

• a) FTP

• b) SMTP

• c) HTTP

• d) SNMP
Answer: b) SMTP

Topic: Browser, Web Server, URL, Domain Name

96. The part of a URL that indicates the domain name (e.g., www.google.com) is called the:
 • a) Protocol

• b) Path

• c) Host

• d) Resource locator
Answer: c) Host

97. The "https" in a URL stands for:

• a) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol

• b) Hypertext Transfer Secure

• c) Hypertext Transmission Protocol

• d) Hypertext Transport Secure

Answer: b) Hypertext Transfer Secure

98. The part of a URL that comes after the domain and specifies the file location is called:

• a) Query

• b) Fragment

• c) Path

• d) Protocol
Answer: c) Path

99. Which of the following is used by a web server to store the actual files being requested by a web
browser?

• a) Proxy server

• b) DNS server

• c) HTTP server

• d) FTP server
Answer: c) HTTP server

100. In the domain "www.example.com," ".com" is called the:

• a) Domain name

• b) Subdomain

• c) Path

• d) Top-level domain
Answer: d) Top-level domain
Topic: IP Address, Packets

101. Which of the following protocols is used to find the MAC address associated with a given IP
address?

• a) DHCP

• b) ARP

• c) DNS

• d) HTTP
Answer: b) ARP

102. In IPv6, an address is how many bits long?

• a) 32 bits

• b) 64 bits

• c) 128 bits

• d) 256 bits
Answer: c) 128 bits

103. What is the term used for the process of dividing large data into smaller pieces to be sent over a
network?

• a) Fragmentation

• b) Routing

• c) Switching

• d) Encryption
Answer: a) Fragmentation

104. Which device is used to route IP packets between different networks?

• a) Hub

• b) Switch

• c) Router

• d) Bridge
Answer: c) Router

105. Which protocol is used to map an IP address to a domain name?

• a) FTP

• b) HTTP

• c) DNS

• d) ARP
Answer: c) DNS
Additional Questions for All Topics:

106. Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for error detection and correction?

• a) Data Link layer

• b) Transport layer

• c) Network layer

• d) Application layer
Answer: a) Data Link layer

107. In which protocol do devices exchange control messages like ping requests and error reports?

• a) HTTP

• b) ICMP

• c) TCP

• d) DHCP
Answer: b) ICMP

108. What is the primary role of DNS in networking?

• a) Encrypt data

• b) Assign IP addresses to devices

• c) Map domain names to IP addresses

• d) Control data transmission speed

Answer: c) Map domain names to IP addresses

Topic: Network Software Architecture and its Layers and Protocols

109. In the OSI model, which layer handles the logical addressing of packets?

• a) Network layer

• b) Data Link layer

• c) Physical layer

• d) Application layer
Answer: a) Network layer

110. What is the role of the transport layer in the OSI model?

• a) Data encryption and decryption

• b) End-to-end communication and error recovery

• c) Routing and forwarding

• d) Physical transmission of data

Answer: b) End-to-end communication and error recovery
111. Which protocol operates at the session layer of the OSI model?

• a) HTTP

• b) DNS

• c) NetBIOS

• d) TCP
Answer: c) NetBIOS

112. The protocol that ensures error-free delivery of data over the internet is:

• a) UDP

• b) TCP

• c) IP

• d) ARP
Answer: b) TCP

113. Which of the following protocols is NOT used in the Transport layer?

• a) TCP

• b) UDP

• c) IP

• d) SCTP
Answer: c) IP

Topic: Network Hardware Architecture, Topologies, and Devices

114. Which network device operates at both the physical and data link layers to segment a network?

• a) Hub

• b) Switch

• c) Repeater

• d) Router
Answer: b) Switch

115. What is a VLAN?

• a) A network segment

• b) Virtual Local Area Network

• c) Virtual Load Area Network

• d) Variable Local Access Node

Answer: b) Virtual Local Area Network

116. What does a network firewall do?

 • a) Routes traffic between two networks

• b) Blocks unauthorized access while permitting outward communication

• c) Translates IP addresses

• d) Balances the load between servers

Answer: b) Blocks unauthorized access while permitting outward communication

117. Which network topology offers the highest redundancy?

• a) Star

• b) Bus

• c) Ring

• d) Mesh
Answer: d) Mesh

118. A device that converts digital signals to analog signals and vice versa is called a:

• a) Router

• b) Modem

• c) Bridge

• d) Switch
Answer: b) Modem

Topic: Uses of Computer Networks

119. What does a VPN provide?

• a) Public access to the network

• b) Secure connection over a public network

• c) Faster data transfer over LAN

• d) Unencrypted communication
Answer: b) Secure connection over a public network

120. A client-server network:

• a) Requires no dedicated servers

• b) Centralizes resources on servers

• c) Uses peer-to-peer communication

• d) Has all devices acting as clients

Answer: b) Centralizes resources on servers

121. Which of the following is a disadvantage of wireless networks?

• a) Flexibility

• b) Ease of installation
 • c) Limited mobility

• d) Increased security risk

Answer: d) Increased security risk

122. The ability to connect to a network from remote locations is commonly known as:

• a) Local access

• b) Remote access

• c) LAN access

• d) MAN access
Answer: b) Remote access

123. Which of the following is a common use of a computer network?

• a) Transferring paper documents

• b) Sharing hardware and software resources

• c) Connecting home appliances

• d) Reducing energy consumption

Answer: b) Sharing hardware and software resources

Topic: Networks and Types

124. What is the primary benefit of using a peer-to-peer network?

• a) Centralized security

• b) Cost-effective and easy to set up

• c) Fast data transfer

• d) Scalable to large organizations

Answer: b) Cost-effective and easy to set up

125. In which topology is each computer connected to every other computer in the network?

• a) Star

• b) Ring

• c) Mesh

• d) Bus
Answer: c) Mesh

126. A network that allows for the connection of networks in different geographical locations is
known as a:

• a) PAN

• b) LAN
 • c) MAN

• d) WAN
Answer: d) WAN

127. Which network type is used in smart home systems to connect devices within a short range?

• a) WAN

• b) PAN

• c) LAN

• d) MAN
Answer: b) PAN

128. Which of the following devices would you find in a WAN setup?

• a) Hub

• b) Router

• c) Switch

• d) Repeater
Answer: b) Router

Topic: Introduction to Internet

129. A URL is an address that points to a specific:

• a) IP address

• b) Web server

• c) Website resource

• d) Network device
Answer: c) Website resource

130. A proxy server is used to:

• a) Store frequently accessed files locally

• b) Secure network connections

• c) Increase browsing speed and filter requests

• d) Convert IP addresses
Answer: c) Increase browsing speed and filter requests

131. HTTP operates over which port number by default?

• a) 80

• b) 21

• c) 25
 • d) 110
Answer: a) 80

132. The basic communication structure of the Internet is based on:

• a) Client-server model

• b) Peer-to-peer model

• c) Star topology

• d) Virtualization
Answer: a) Client-server model

133. Which of the following is an example of a domain name?

• a) 192.168.0.1

• b) www.example.com

• c) HTTP

• d) /index.html
Answer: b) www.example.com

Topic: Browser, Web Server, URL, Domain Name

134. A domain name like ".org" is used primarily for:

• a) Educational institutions

• b) Government organizations

• c) Non-profit organizations

• d) Commercial businesses
Answer: c) Non-profit organizations

135. What is the purpose of a web server?

• a) To browse the internet

• b) To store and serve web pages

• c) To send emails

• d) To perform IP routing
Answer: b) To store and serve web pages

136. What is the main function of a web browser?

• a) To manage domain names

• b) To display web pages and resources

• c) To configure network devices

• d) To host websites
Answer: b) To display web pages and resources
137. What does a browser cache do?

• a) Stores browsing history

• b) Temporarily stores website data to load pages faster

• c) Secures your internet connection

• d) Manages SSL certificates

Answer: b) Temporarily stores website data to load pages faster

138. Which protocol is used for secure communication between a web browser and a web server?

• a) HTTP

• b) HTTPS

• c) FTP

• d) SMTP
Answer: b) HTTPS

Topic: IP Address, Packets

139. An IPv4 address consists of:

• a) 8 bits

• b) 16 bits

• c) 32 bits

• d) 128 bits
Answer: c) 32 bits

140. The range 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is an example of:

• a) A public IP address range

• b) A private IP address range

• c) An invalid IP address range

• d) A multicast IP address range

Answer: b) A private IP address range

141. What is a packet in networking?

• a) A large file split into pieces

• b) A small unit of data sent over a network

• c) A type of network device

• d) A hardware component in a router

Answer: b) A small unit of data sent over a network

142. When a packet is fragmented, what happens to it?

• a) It is dropped
 • b) It is split into smaller packets

• c) It is combined into a larger packet

• d) It is forwarded without any changes

Answer: b) It is split into smaller packets

143. Which protocol is used to report errors and operational information in an IP network?

• a) TCP

• b) UDP

• c) ICMP

• d) FTP
Answer: c) ICMP

Additional Questions for All Topics

144. Which device ensures secure communication by encrypting and decrypting data?

• a) Router

• b) VPN

• c) Firewall

• d) Encryption gateway
Answer:

4o

You said:

please complete the task

ChatGPT said:

ChatGPT

Certainly! Let’s continue and complete the set of 200 MCQs:

Additional Questions for All Topics

144. Which device ensures secure communication by encrypting and decrypting data?

• a) Router

• b) VPN

• c) Firewall

• d) Encryption gateway
Answer: d) Encryption gateway

145. What is the primary role of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) in networking?

• a) Resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses

 • b) Resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses

• c) Route IP packets to the destination

• d) Fragment packets
Answer: b) Resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses

146. Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for data formatting and encryption?

• a) Transport layer

• b) Application layer

• c) Session layer

• d) Presentation layer
Answer: d) Presentation layer

147. What does NAT (Network Address Translation) primarily do?

• a) Assign IP addresses

• b) Map private IP addresses to public IP addresses

• c) Encrypt data

• d) Block unwanted traffic

Answer: b) Map private IP addresses to public IP addresses

148. Which of the following is a method used to detect errors in transmitted data?

• a) Parity check

• b) Fragmentation

• c) Load balancing

• d) Switching
Answer: a) Parity check

149. How many layers are there in the TCP/IP model?

• a) 4

• b) 5

• c) 6

• d) 7
Answer: a) 4

150. Which device is typically used to segment a LAN into multiple smaller LANs and forward packets
between them based on their IP addresses?

• a) Switch

• b) Hub

• c) Router
 • d) Bridge
Answer: c) Router

151. What is a common range for private IPv4 addresses used in home networks?

• a) 1.0.0.0 – 1.255.255.255

• b) 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

• c) 240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255

• d) 0.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255
Answer: b) 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

152. Which of the following network types is most appropriate for connecting devices in a single
office or building?

• a) WAN

• b) LAN

• c) MAN

• d) PAN
Answer: b) LAN

153. In the OSI model, the physical layer is primarily concerned with:

• a) Data encoding

• b) Logical addressing

• c) Physical media and signals

• d) Error detection and correction

Answer: c) Physical media and signals

154. A proxy server is typically used for:

• a) Caching content to improve load times

• b) Establishing VPN connections

• c) Routing data between networks

• d) Encrypting data
Answer: a) Caching content to improve load times

155. Which network protocol is responsible for converting domain names into IP addresses?

• a) DNS

• b) HTTP

• c) FTP

• d) DHCP
Answer: a) DNS
156. In network security, which of the following is used to detect and prevent unauthorized access to
network resources?

• a) VPN

• b) IDS/IPS

• c) VLAN

• d) DNS
Answer: b) IDS/IPS

157. Which of the following is a type of malicious software that can replicate itself and spread to
other computers?

• a) Virus

• b) Firewall

• c) NAT

• d) DNS
Answer: a) Virus

158. Which of the following is NOT a routing protocol?

• a) RIP

• b) OSPF

• c) EIGRP

• d) FTP
Answer: d) FTP

159. A MAC address is unique to each:

• a) Network interface card

• b) IP address

• c) Domain name

• d) Router
Answer: a) Network interface card

160. Which protocol uses port number 23 and allows remote command execution?

• a) SSH

• b) Telnet

• c) HTTP

• d) DNS
Answer: b) Telnet

Topic: Network Hardware Architecture, Topologies, and Devices

161. Which of the following devices operates at the Network layer of the OSI model?

• a) Switch

• b) Router

• c) Hub

• d) Repeater
Answer: b) Router

162. In a star topology, the central device that all computers are connected to is often a:

• a) Hub or switch

• b) Router

• c) Repeater

• d) Bridge
Answer: a) Hub or switch

163. Which type of network topology has each node connected to exactly two other nodes, forming
a single pathway for signals?

• a) Mesh

• b) Star

• c) Bus

• d) Ring
Answer: d) Ring

164. What is the primary disadvantage of a bus topology?

• a) Complex configuration

• b) High cost of cables

• c) Entire network goes down if the main cable fails

• d) Limited number of devices can connect

Answer: c) Entire network goes down if the main cable fails

165. In which topology does every computer connect to a central server?

• a) Bus

• b) Star

• c) Mesh

• d) Ring
Answer: b) Star
Topic: Introduction to Internet

166. What does HTTP stand for?

• a) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol

• b) Hypertext Transfer Protocol

• c) High Transfer Text Protocol

• d) Hyper Transfer Protocol

Answer: b) Hypertext Transfer Protocol

167. Which of the following port numbers is used by HTTPS?

• a) 80

• b) 25

• c) 443

• d) 110
Answer: c) 443

168. In the URL "http://www.example.com", the "http" part is called:

• a) Domain

• b) Protocol

• c) Host

• d) Path
Answer: b) Protocol

169. An IP address is:

• a) A unique identifier for each website

• b) A unique address for each device on a network

• c) A number that identifies a domain

• d) A password for network security

Answer: b) A unique address for each device on a network

170. What is the maximum number of bits in an IPv4 address?

• a) 64

• b) 32

• c) 128

• d) 16
Answer: b) 32
Topic: Browser, Web Server, URL, Domain Name

171. The "www" in "www.example.com" refers to:

• a) Subdomain

• b) Domain name

• c) Protocol

• d) Path
Answer: a) Subdomain

172. Which of the following is a valid domain name extension for commercial websites?

• a) .gov

• b) .org

• c) .edu

• d) .com
Answer: d) .com

173. A web server responds to requests from:

• a) Switches

• b) Web browsers

• c) Firewalls

• d) Routers
Answer: b) Web browsers

174. Which of the following is responsible for maintaining domain name-to-IP address mappings?

• a) DNS

• b) HTTP

• c) SMTP

• d) FTP
Answer: a) DNS

175. A URL consists of:

• a) Protocol, domain name, and path

• b) IP address and port number

• c) Hostname, IP address, and domain name

• d) Encryption key and protocol

Answer: a) Protocol, domain name, and path
Topic: IP Address, Packets

176. Which of the following is a valid Class A IP address?

• a) 172.16.0.1

• b) 192.168.0.1

• c) 10.0.0.1

• d) 224.0.0.1
Answer: c) 10.0.0.1

177. In an IP packet, the header contains information about:

• a) Data being transmitted

• b) The source and destination IP addresses

• c) The size of the data

• d) The encryption method

Answer: b) The source and destination IP addresses

178. A packet-switched network:

• a) Requires dedicated circuits between devices

• b) Breaks data into packets for transmission

• c) Uses fixed routes for data transmission

• d) Operates only within a LAN

Answer: b) Breaks data into packets for transmission

179. What happens when a packet reaches its Time to Live (TTL) limit?

• a) It is forwarded to the destination

• b) It is dropped by the router

• c) It is fragmented into smaller packets

• d) It is sent back to the sender

Answer: b) It is dropped by the router

180. Which class of IP addresses is used for multicasting?

• a) Class A

• b) Class B

• c) Class C

• d) Class D
Answer: d) Class D
Additional MCQs to Complete the Set

181. Which type of network cable is most commonly used in modern LANs?

• a) Coaxial cable

• b) Fiber optic cable

• c) Twisted pair cable

• d) Serial cable
Answer: c) Twisted pair cable

182. Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating
connections?

• a) Transport layer

• b) Session layer

• c) Presentation layer

• d) Application layer
Answer: b) Session layer

183. IPv6 addresses are composed of how many bits?

• a) 32

• b) 64

• c) 128

• d) 256
Answer: c) 128

184. Which of the following is a characteristic of UDP (User Datagram Protocol)?

• a) Connection-oriented

• b) Reliable delivery

• c) Connectionless and faster

• d) Guarantees data delivery

Answer: c) Connectionless and faster

185. The function of the DHCP protocol is to:

• a) Resolve domain names to IP addresses

• b) Assign IP addresses automatically

• c) Monitor network traffic

• d) Encrypt data packets

Answer: b) Assign IP addresses automatically
186. Which device connects multiple networks and directs traffic between them?

• a) Switch

• b) Router

• c) Hub

• d) Modem
Answer: b) Router

187. In which of the following types of networks do all devices have equal authority and can initiate
communications?

• a) Client-server

• b) Peer-to-peer

• c) Hybrid

• d) Mesh
Answer: b) Peer-to-peer

188. What is the main function of a firewall in a network?

• a) Blocking unauthorized access

• b) Assigning IP addresses

• c) Enhancing data transmission speed

• d) Encrypting data
Answer: a) Blocking unauthorized access

189. Which of the following ports is used by FTP for data transfer?

• a) 21

• b) 23

• c) 80

• d) 443
Answer: a) 21

190. Which protocol is used to send emails from a client to a server?

• a) HTTP

• b) POP3

• c) SMTP

• d) IMAP
Answer: c) SMTP
191. Which type of IP address is automatically assigned and temporary?

• a) Static

• b) Private

• c) Dynamic

• d) Public
Answer: c) Dynamic

192. Which network topology allows data to be transmitted to multiple nodes simultaneously using
the same cable?

• a) Star

• b) Bus

• c) Ring

• d) Mesh
Answer: b) Bus

193. Which layer of the OSI model converts data into signals suitable for transmission over a physical
medium?

• a) Data Link

• b) Transport

• c) Network

• d) Physical
Answer: d) Physical

194. What does the TCP/IP transport layer ensure?

• a) Reliable data transfer and flow control

• b) Data encryption

• c) Physical connectivity

• d) Routing of packets
Answer: a) Reliable data transfer and flow control

195. Which protocol is used to synchronize time between computers on a network?

• a) SNMP

• b) NTP

• c) DHCP

• d) FTP
Answer: b) NTP
196. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C IP address?

• a) 255.0.0.0

• b) 255.255.0.0

• c) 255.255.255.0

• d) 255.255.255.255
Answer: c) 255.255.255.0

197. Which layer in the OSI model does IP addressing belong to?

• a) Application layer

• b) Transport layer

• c) Network layer

• d) Data Link layer

Answer: c) Network layer

198. Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address format?

• a) 2001:0db8:85a3::8a2e:0370:7334

• b) 192.168.0.1

• c) fe80:2031::1

• d) All of the above

Answer: a) 2001:0db8:85a3::8a2e:0370:7334

199. What is the primary function of the data link layer in the OSI model?

• a) Physical data transmission

• b) Logical addressing

• c) Error detection and frame synchronization

• d) Route selection
Answer: c) Error detection and frame synchronization

200. Which tool is commonly used to monitor and analyze network traffic?

• a) Ping

• b) Netstat

• c) Wireshark

• d) SSH
Answer: c) Wireshark
NETWORK MODELS: Protocol Layering, TCP/IP Protocol Suite, OSI Model

Part 1: Protocol Layering

1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of protocol layering?

o a) Simplicity

o b) Modularity

o c) Duplication of functionality

o d) Flexibility
Answer: c

2. Protocol layering in networking is analogous to which of the following?

o a) OS operations

o b) Stacking books

o c) Building blocks

o d) Telephone calls
Answer: c

3. Which of the following is NOT a principle of protocol layering?

o a) Minimization of interaction between layers

o b) Each layer performs a single function

o c) Lower layers provide services to upper layers

o d) Higher layers depend on lower layers

Answer: b

4. How many layers does the TCP/IP model have?

o a) 7

o b) 4

o c) 5

o d) 6
Answer: b

5. Layering in the network model allows which of the following?

o a) Reduced overhead

o b) Abstraction of functions

o c) Faster transmission

o d) Removal of redundancy
Answer: b
6. Which layer of the protocol stack is responsible for logical communication between
application processes?

o a) Physical Layer

o b) Transport Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Data Link Layer

Answer: b

7. In a layered architecture, each layer communicates with which of the following?

o a) The application directly

o b) The layers below it

o c) Its adjacent layers

o d) All layers simultaneously

Answer: c

8. Which layer defines protocols that provide end-to-end communication across an

internetwork?

o a) Application Layer

o b) Network Interface Layer

o c) Transport Layer

o d) Internet Layer
Answer: c

9. Which protocol operates at the Internet Layer in the TCP/IP model?

o a) UDP

o b) HTTP

o c) IP

o d) FTP
Answer: c

10. Protocol data units (PDUs) are exchanged between which of the following?

o a) Only adjacent layers

o b) The same layers in different systems

o c) Only the network layer

o d) Layers at different ends of the communication

Answer: b
Part 2: TCP/IP Protocol Suite

11. The TCP/IP protocol suite has how many layers?

o a) 7

o b) 4

o c) 5

o d) 6
Answer: b

12. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is responsible for host-to-host communication?

o a) Application Layer

o b) Network Interface Layer

o c) Transport Layer

o d) Internet Layer
Answer: c

13. Which of the following protocols is used for email in the TCP/IP model?

o a) SMTP

o b) SNMP

o c) ARP

o d) IP
Answer: a

14. What is the responsibility of the Transport Layer in the TCP/IP model?

o a) Data encapsulation

o b) Routing and forwarding packets

o c) End-to-end communication and error control

o d) Addressing and packet forwarding

Answer: c

15. TCP is responsible for which of the following?

o a) Connectionless communication

o b) Congestion control and error correction

o c) Packet forwarding

o d) Logical addressing
Answer: b
16. UDP is best suited for which type of applications?

o a) Real-time streaming

o b) File transfer

o c) Email

o d) Secure web browsing

Answer: a

17. Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses to devices?

o a) DNS

o b) HTTP

o c) DHCP

o d) FTP
Answer: c

18. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol in the TCP/IP suite?

o a) IP

o b) TCP

o c) HTTP

o d) DNS
Answer: b

19. Which TCP/IP protocol is used to find the MAC address of a host from its IP address?

o a) RARP

o b) ARP

o c) ICMP

o d) TCP
Answer: b

20. Which layer of the TCP/IP model does the "ping" command use?

o a) Application Layer

o b) Transport Layer

o c) Internet Layer

o d) Network Access Layer

Answer: c
21. Which protocol provides error reporting and network diagnostics in TCP/IP?

o a) ICMP

o b) ARP

o c) TCP

o d) FTP
Answer: a

22. Which of the following protocols works at the Application Layer of the TCP/IP model?

o a) TCP

o b) IP

o c) FTP

o d) ARP
Answer: c

23. Which protocol in the TCP/IP model is responsible for logical addressing?

o a) IP

o b) TCP

o c) UDP

o d) ICMP
Answer: a

24. Which of the following layers is NOT part of the TCP/IP protocol suite?

o a) Data Link Layer

o b) Transport Layer

o c) Application Layer

o d) Session Layer
Answer: d

25. Which of the following protocols is used for terminal emulation in the TCP/IP model?

o a) FTP

o b) Telnet

o c) HTTP

o d) SMTP
Answer: b
Part 3: OSI Model

26. How many layers does the OSI model have?

o a) 7

o b) 6

o c) 5

o d) 4
Answer: a

27. The OSI model was developed by which of the following organizations?

o a) IEEE

o b) ISO

o c) IETF

o d) ITU-T
Answer: b

28. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for error detection and recovery?

o a) Physical Layer

o b) Data Link Layer

o c) Transport Layer

o d) Session Layer
Answer: b

29. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for data encryption?

o a) Transport Layer

o b) Session Layer

o c) Presentation Layer

o d) Application Layer
Answer: c

30. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating
sessions?

o a) Session Layer

o b) Transport Layer

o c) Application Layer

o d) Network Layer
Answer: a

31. In the OSI model, which layer translates between different data formats?
 o a) Physical Layer

o b) Presentation Layer

o c) Transport Layer

o d) Application Layer
Answer: b

32. Which layer is responsible for determining the best path through a network?

o a) Network Layer

o b) Data Link Layer

o c) Transport Layer

o d) Application Layer
Answer: a

33. Which layer defines the electrical and mechanical specifications of the transmission
medium?

o a) Data Link Layer

o b) Physical Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Session Layer
Answer: b

34. The data unit at the Network Layer of the OSI model is called what?

o a) Segment

o b) Packet

o c) Frame

o d) Bit
Answer: b

35. Which layer of the OSI model handles flow control and reliable transmission of data?

o a) Application Layer

o b) Data Link Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Transport Layer
Answer: d

36. Which of the following is a key function of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

o a) Path determination

o b) Error detection and correction

 o c) Routing

o d) Signal conversion
Answer: b

37. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for ensuring that data transferred between
systems can be reassembled in the correct order?

o a) Network Layer

o b) Transport Layer

o c) Session Layer

o d) Data Link Layer

Answer: b

39. Which of the following is not part of the OSI model?

o a) Physical Layer

o b) Application Layer

o c) Internet Layer

o d) Presentation Layer
Answer: c

40. Which layer is the highest layer in the OSI model?

o a) Presentation Layer

o b) Application Layer

o c) Session Layer

o d) Network Layer
Answer: b

41. The PDU at the Transport Layer in the OSI model is called:

o a) Segment

o b) Packet

o c) Frame

o d) Bit
Answer: a

42. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for data compression?

o a) Presentation Layer

o b) Transport Layer

o c) Network Layer
 o d) Data Link Layer
Answer: a

43. Which of the following protocols works at the Application Layer of the OSI model?

o a) TCP

o b) IP

o c) HTTP

o d) ICMP
Answer: c

44. Which of the following is true about the OSI and TCP/IP models?

o a) OSI has fewer layers than TCP/IP

o b) OSI model has a session layer; TCP/IP does not

o c) TCP/IP has a presentation layer

o d) OSI does not define specific protocols

Answer: b

45. Which layer of the OSI model handles end-to-end message delivery and error recovery?

o a) Transport Layer

o b) Network Layer

o c) Application Layer

o d) Data Link Layer

Answer: a

46. What is the PDU for the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

o a) Segment

o b) Packet

o c) Frame

o d) Bit
Answer: c

47. Which layer is concerned with the syntax and semantics of the information exchanged?

o a) Presentation Layer

o b) Data Link Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Session Layer
Answer: a

48. Which of the following statements about the OSI model is true?
 o a) It defines specific protocols.

o b) It provides a framework for understanding network interactions.

o c) It is widely used in networking today.

o d) It has less practical significance compared to TCP/IP.

Answer: b

49. Which layer of the OSI model is primarily responsible for routing decisions?

o a) Transport Layer

o b) Session Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Data Link Layer

Answer: c

50. In the OSI model, what is the main purpose of the Physical Layer?

o a) Define protocols for end-to-end communication

o b) Manage how devices connect to the network

o c) Specify hardware standards for data transmission

o d) Control the flow of data

Answer: c

51. Which OSI layer is responsible for managing multiple sessions between applications?

o a) Application Layer

o b) Session Layer

o c) Transport Layer

o d) Network Layer
Answer: b

52. Which of the following best describes the function of the Application Layer?

o a) It formats data for the user interface.

o b) It provides network services to the end user.

o c) It translates between different data formats.

o d) It manages data flow between applications.

Answer: b

53. Which layer of the OSI model provides reliability through flow control?

o a) Physical Layer

o b) Data Link Layer

o c) Transport Layer
 o d) Application Layer
Answer: c

54. The OSI model was created to:

o a) Standardize network protocols

o b) Increase network speeds

o c) Provide a single protocol for all networking

o d) Eliminate the need for data encryption

Answer: a

55. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for packet sequencing?

o a) Transport Layer

o b) Session Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Data Link Layer

Answer: a

56. What does the acronym OSI stand for?

o a) Open Standard Interconnect

o b) Open Systems Interconnection

o c) Operational Systems Interchange

o d) Organizational Systems Integration

Answer: b

57. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for physical addressing?

o a) Transport Layer

o b) Data Link Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Application Layer
Answer: b

58. Which of the following protocols operates at the Transport Layer of the OSI model?

o a) HTTP

o b) TCP

o c) FTP

o d) IP
Answer: b
59. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the representation of data?

o a) Transport Layer

o b) Presentation Layer

o c) Application Layer

o d) Network Layer
Answer: b

60. Which of the following layers provides end-to-end communication services for
applications?

o a) Data Link Layer

o b) Network Layer

o c) Transport Layer

o d) Physical Layer
Answer: c

61. What is the main focus of the Network Layer in the OSI model?

o a) Data encryption and compression

o b) Process-to-process communication

o c) Routing of packets across networks

o d) Framing and addressing

Answer: c

62. Which OSI layer is responsible for multiplexing of data streams?

o a) Application Layer

o b) Transport Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Session Layer
Answer: b

63. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for managing the physical transmission of
data?

o a) Transport Layer

o b) Data Link Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Physical Layer
Answer: d
64. Which of the following describes the function of the Session Layer?

o a) Establishes, manages, and terminates connections

o b) Provides error detection and correction

o c) Handles packet routing

o d) Formats and encrypts data

Answer: a

65. Which of the following is an example of a protocol at the Transport Layer?

o a) IP

o b) ICMP

o c) TCP

o d) HTTP
Answer: c

66. Which of the following statements about the OSI model is correct?

o a) It is only theoretical and not used in real networks.

o b) It is used to standardize protocols across different networks.

o c) It has eight layers.

o d) It is less important than the TCP/IP model.

Answer: b

67. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the delivery of messages to the right
application?

o a) Application Layer

o b) Transport Layer

o c) Network Layer

o d) Data Link Layer

Answer: a

68. In the OSI model, the term "segmentation" refers to:

o a) Dividing a data stream into smaller units

o b) Combining multiple data streams

o c) Encrypting data

o d) Routing packets
Answer: a
69. Which layer is responsible for handling data packets and forwarding them to their
destination?

o a) Transport Layer

o b) Network Layer

o c) Data Link Layer

o d) Application Layer
Answer: b

70. What is the main purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

o a) Addressing and routing packets

o b) Managing physical connections

o c) Providing reliable communication between adjacent nodes

o d) Formatting data for applications

Answer: c
 Unit 2
1. Which of the following refers to the physical means of transmitting data over a communication
channel?

• a) Signal

• b) Media

• c) Protocol

• d) Bandwidth
Answer: b) Media

2. Digital signals are characterized by:

• a) Continuous values

• b) Discrete values

• c) Infinite variations

• d) None of the above

Answer: b) Discrete values

3. What is the primary purpose of the physical layer in data communication?

• a) To provide error detection

• b) To ensure reliable delivery of data

• c) To transmit raw bits over a physical medium

• d) To manage data compression

Answer: c) To transmit raw bits over a physical medium

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of analog signals?

• a) They have a finite number of values.

• b) They vary continuously over time.

• c) They are immune to noise.

• d) They are not used in telecommunication.

Answer: b) They vary continuously over time.

5. What type of signal is used in most modern digital communication systems?

• a) Analog signal

• b) Digital signal

• c) Modulated signal

• d) None of the above

Answer: b) Digital signal

6. The ability of a transmission medium to carry signals over a distance is known as:
 • a) Bandwidth

• b) Transmission loss

• c) Signal strength

• d) Transmission capacity
Answer: d) Transmission capacity

7. Which of the following is a common transmission impairment?

• a) Attenuation

• b) Noise

• c) Distortion

• d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

8. Attenuation in a transmission medium refers to:

• a) The increase in signal strength

• b) The decrease in signal strength over distance

• c) The alteration of signal frequencies

• d) The complete loss of signal

Answer: b) The decrease in signal strength over distance

9. Which of the following measures the maximum rate of data transmission over a medium?

• a) Latency

• b) Bandwidth

• c) Jitter

• d) Throughput
Answer: b) Bandwidth

10. The signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) is used to determine:

• a) The quality of a transmission medium

• b) The speed of the transmission

• c) The length of the cable

• d) The type of signal used

Answer: a) The quality of a transmission medium

11. Guided media includes:

• a) Twisted pair cables

• b) Fiber optic cables

• c) Coaxial cables
 • d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

12. Unguided media is commonly referred to as:

• a) Wireless communication

• b) Wired communication

• c) Optical communication

• d) Digital communication
Answer: a) Wireless communication

13. Which of the following is NOT an example of unguided media?

• a) Radio waves

• b) Infrared signals

• c) Fiber optic cables

• d) Satellite communication
Answer: c) Fiber optic cables

14. What is the primary advantage of fiber optic cables over copper cables?

• a) Lower cost

• b) Greater bandwidth and speed

• c) Easier installation

• d) Less complex technology

Answer: b) Greater bandwidth and speed

15. The standard for Ethernet cabling that supports speeds up to 1 Gbps is:

• a) Cat 3

• b) Cat 5e

• c) Cat 6

• d) Cat 7
Answer: b) Cat 5e

16. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using twisted pair cables?

• a) Low cost

• b) Limited bandwidth

• c) High attenuation

• d) Easy to install
Answer: c) High attenuation

17. The maximum transmission distance for a standard Category 6 cable is:
 • a) 50 meters

• b) 100 meters

• c) 200 meters

• d) 300 meters
Answer: b) 100 meters

18. Which type of modulation is used to encode digital data onto an analog signal?

• a) Amplitude Modulation (AM)

• b) Frequency Modulation (FM)

• c) Phase Shift Keying (PSK)

• d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

19. Which factor affects the performance of a transmission medium?

• a) Distance

• b) Temperature

• c) Cable quality

• d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

20. The term "data rate" refers to:

• a) The amount of data transmitted in a given time period

• b) The quality of the transmission medium

• c) The length of the transmission cable

• d) The speed of the signal

Answer: a) The amount of data transmitted in a given time period

Continued MCQs

21. Which type of cable uses a single strand of glass or plastic to transmit data?

• a) Coaxial cable

• b) Twisted pair cable

• c) Fiber optic cable

• d) Shielded twisted pair

Answer: c) Fiber optic cable

22. The primary disadvantage of fiber optic cables is:

• a) They are immune to electromagnetic interference.

 • b) They are more expensive than copper cables.

• c) They have higher data transmission rates.

• d) They are lighter than copper cables.

Answer: b) They are more expensive than copper cables.

23. In which transmission media does data travel using light pulses?

• a) Twisted pair

• b) Coaxial

• c) Fiber optic

• d) Radio
Answer: c) Fiber optic

24. The electrical interference from external sources can be minimized by using:

• a) Unshielded twisted pair cables

• b) Shielded twisted pair cables

• c) Coaxial cables

• d) Fiber optic cables

Answer: b) Shielded twisted pair cables

25. In data communications, the term "bit rate" refers to:

• a) The number of bits transmitted per second

• b) The total number of bits in a message

• c) The number of bits in an error-free transmission

• d) The length of the bit in the signal

Answer: a) The number of bits transmitted per second

26. Which cabling standard supports up to 10 Gbps for distances up to 55 meters?

• a) Cat 5

• b) Cat 5e

• c) Cat 6

• d) Cat 6a
Answer: c) Cat 6

27. What type of signal is less susceptible to noise and distortion?

• a) Analog signal

• b) Digital signal

• c) Continuous signal
 • d) Sinusoidal signal
Answer: b) Digital signal

28. The maximum data rate for a coaxial cable is:

• a) 10 Mbps

• b) 100 Mbps

• c) 1 Gbps

• d) 10 Gbps
Answer: c) 1 Gbps

29. What is the role of repeaters in data transmission?

• a) To amplify the signal

• b) To convert analog signals to digital

• c) To encrypt data

• d) To segment networks
Answer: a) To amplify the signal

30. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of guided media?

• a) Limited distance

• b) High susceptibility to interference

• c) Defined paths for signals

• d) Physical materials used to transmit signals

Answer: b) High susceptibility to interference

More MCQs on Physical Layer Concepts

31. Which of the following is a disadvantage of coaxial cables?

• a) High data transmission speed

• b) High cost compared to twisted pair cables

• c) Greater flexibility

• d) Better protection against interference

Answer: b) High cost compared to twisted pair cables

32. What type of modulation varies the amplitude of the carrier wave to encode information?

• a) Frequency Modulation

• b) Phase Modulation

• c) Amplitude Modulation
 • d) Digital Modulation
Answer: c) Amplitude Modulation

33. The primary function of a network hub is to:

• a) Route data packets to their destination

• b) Connect multiple devices in a network

• c) Filter traffic

• d) Encrypt data
Answer: b) Connect multiple devices in a network

34. In a wired network, which of the following media is least likely to be affected by
electromagnetic interference?

• a) Twisted pair cable

• b) Coaxial cable

• c) Fiber optic cable

• d) Ethernet cable
Answer: c) Fiber optic cable

35. Which of the following technologies is used in wireless communication?

• a) Radio waves

• b) Infrared

• c) Microwave

• d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

36. What does the term "jitter" refer to in a network?

• a) Variability in packet delay

• b) Data loss during transmission

• c) Bandwidth fluctuation

• d) Error rate
Answer: a) Variability in packet delay

37. Which standard defines the physical layer and media access control for wired Ethernet?

• a) IEEE 802.11

• b) IEEE 802.3

• c) IEEE 802.15

• d) IEEE 802.16
Answer: b) IEEE 802.3
38. Which of the following cabling standards can support PoE (Power over Ethernet)?

• a) Cat 3

• b) Cat 5

• c) Cat 5e

• d) All of the above

Answer: c) Cat 5e

39. The term "crosstalk" in cabling refers to:

• a) Signal loss due to distance

• b) Interference between adjacent cables

• c) Reflection of signals

• d) Data collision
Answer: b) Interference between adjacent cables

40. Which medium is most suitable for long-distance telecommunication?

• a) Copper wire

• b) Fiber optic cable

• c) Coaxial cable

• d) Twisted pair cable

Answer: b) Fiber optic cable

Final Set of MCQs

41. Which of the following is a measure of how much data can be transmitted over a
communication channel in a given time?

• a) Latency

• b) Throughput

• c) Bandwidth

• d) Signal strength
Answer: c) Bandwidth

42. The term "noise" in data communication refers to:

• a) Unwanted electrical signals that interfere with the desired signal

• b) The loss of data packets during transmission

• c) The delay in signal transmission

• d) The strength of the transmitted signal

Answer: a) Unwanted electrical signals that interfere with the desired signal
43. Which of the following topologies uses a central hub to connect all devices?

• a) Ring topology

• b) Star topology

• c) Mesh topology

• d) Bus topology
Answer: b) Star topology

44. What is the main function of an encoder in data communications?

• a) To transmit data

• b) To modulate signals

• c) To convert digital data into analog signals

• d) To receive data
Answer: c) To convert digital data into analog signals

45. What is the primary reason for using shielded cables?

• a) To reduce costs

• b) To enhance data transmission speeds

• c) To protect against external electromagnetic interference

• d) To increase the weight of the cables

Answer: c) To protect against external electromagnetic interference

46. In the context of data transmission, latency refers to:

• a) The maximum data rate

• b) The time delay in transmitting data

• c) The amount of noise in the signal

• d) The distance of the transmission medium

Answer: b) The time delay in transmitting data

47. Which type of modulation is typically used in digital communications to represent bits?

• a) Amplitude modulation

• b) Frequency modulation

• c) Phase-shift modulation

• d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

48. A device that connects two different networks and forwards packets between them is known
as a:

• a) Hub
 • b) Switch

• c) Router

• d) Repeater
Answer: c) Router

49. Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber optic communication?

• a) Limited bandwidth

• b) High attenuation

• c) Low power consumption

• d) High susceptibility to electromagnetic interference

Answer: c) Low power consumption

50. Which of the following cabling standards allows for 10 Gbps speeds over longer distances?

• a) Cat 5e

• b) Cat 6a

• c) Cat 7

• d) Cat 8
Answer: b) Cat 6a

51. The maximum transmission distance for an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable is:

• a) 50 meters

• b) 100 meters

• c) 200 meters

• d) 300 meters
Answer: b) 100 meters

52. Which factor does NOT affect the quality of the transmission medium?

• a) Cable type

• b) Signal frequency

• c) Color of the cable

• d) Environmental conditions
Answer: c) Color of the cable

53. Which type of interference is caused by electrical devices operating near the transmission line?

• a) Thermal noise

• b) Inductive interference

• c) Crosstalk
 • d) Impulse noise
Answer: b) Inductive interference

54. The term "full duplex" refers to:

• a) Simultaneous two-way data transmission

• b) One-way data transmission

• c) Half of the data rate

• d) None of the above

Answer: a) Simultaneous two-way data transmission

55. What is the primary function of a network switch?

• a) To connect multiple networks

• b) To filter and forward data packets based on MAC addresses

• c) To amplify signals

• d) To provide internet access

Answer: b) To filter and forward data packets based on MAC addresses

56. Which of the following is used to increase the transmission range of signals?

• a) Modem

• b) Repeater

• c) Switch

• d) Router
Answer: b) Repeater

57. The maximum frequency for Category 6 cabling is:

• a) 100 MHz

• b) 250 MHz

• c) 500 MHz

• d) 1 GHz
Answer: b) 250 MHz

58. Which medium is often used for short-range wireless communication?

• a) Infrared

• b) Fiber optic

• c) Coaxial cable

• d) Twisted pair cable

Answer: a) Infrared

59. The cabling standard that supports data rates up to 100 Gbps is:
 • a) Cat 5

• b) Cat 6a

• c) Cat 7

• d) Cat 8
Answer: d) Cat 8

60. Which of the following describes a coaxial cable?

• a) It has a single copper conductor at its center.

• b) It consists of multiple twisted pairs of wires.

• c) It uses light to transmit data.

• d) It is used primarily for long-distance telephony.

Answer: a) It has a single copper conductor at its center.

61. What type of signal is represented by a square wave?

• a) Analog signal

• b) Digital signal

• c) Continuous signal

• d) Sinusoidal signal
Answer: b) Digital signal

62. Which of the following is a common application of twisted pair cables?

• a) Telephone lines

• b) Computer networking

• c) Both a and b

• d) None of the above

Answer: c) Both a and b

63. What does the term "throughput" refer to in networking?

• a) The maximum potential data transfer rate

• b) The actual data transfer rate achieved

• c) The time taken to send data

• d) The latency of the connection

Answer: b) The actual data transfer rate achieved

64. In data transmission, "bit stuffing" is used to:

• a) Increase the length of data packets

• b) Prevent signal loss

• c) Manage errors in transmission

 • d) Control the flow of data
Answer: a) Increase the length of data packets

65. What is the primary disadvantage of using wireless media?

• a) Cost

• b) Security vulnerabilities

• c) Speed

• d) Flexibility
Answer: b) Security vulnerabilities

66. The standard for wireless local area networks (WLAN) is:

• a) IEEE 802.3

• b) IEEE 802.11

• c) IEEE 802.15

• d) IEEE 802.16
Answer: b) IEEE 802.11

67. Which type of noise is caused by sudden changes in voltage?

• a) White noise

• b) Thermal noise

• c) Impulse noise

• d) Inductive noise
Answer: c) Impulse noise

68. Which of the following cable types is typically used for video surveillance?

• a) Twisted pair

• b) Coaxial

• c) Fiber optic

• d) All of the above

Answer: b) Coaxial

69. The maximum distance for fiber optic cables in a single mode is:

• a) 100 meters

• b) 2 kilometers

• c) 10 kilometers

• d) 40 kilometers
Answer: c) 10 kilometers

70. In data communication, which is the best definition of "modulation"?

 • a) The conversion of data from digital to analog form

• b) The filtering of unwanted signals

• c) The amplification of signals

• d) The encryption of data

Answer: a) The conversion of data from digital to analog form

71. The main purpose of using a modem is to:

• a) Convert analog signals to digital

• b) Connect multiple networks

• c) Amplify signals

• d) Encrypt data
Answer: a) Convert analog signals to digital

72. Which type of fiber optic cable is designed for long-distance communication?

• a) Multimode

• b) Single mode

• c) Coaxial

• d) Twisted pair
Answer: b) Single mode

73. What is the primary function of a router in a network?

• a) To connect devices in a local area

• b) To route data between different networks

• c) To amplify signals

• d) To store data
Answer: b) To route data between different networks

74. The process of converting a digital signal into an analog signal is known as:

• a) Demodulation

• b) Modulation

• c) Encoding

• d) Decoding
Answer: b) Modulation

75. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of fiber optic communication?

• a) High bandwidth

• b) Resistance to electromagnetic interference

• c) Low installation cost

 • d) Long-distance transmission
Answer: c) Low installation cost

76. In a star topology, the failure of one device:

• a) Affects the entire network

• b) Does not affect the network

• c) Causes data loss

• d) Requires reconfiguration of the network

Answer: b) Does not affect the network

77. Which of the following is a key advantage of using coaxial cables?

• a) High flexibility

• b) Low cost

• c) Good resistance to interference

• d) Lightweight
Answer: c) Good resistance to interference

78. The speed of a signal through a transmission medium is affected by:

• a) The type of cable used

• b) The distance of the transmission

• c) The frequency of the signal

• d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

79. What type of network topology connects each device directly to every other device?

• a) Ring topology

• b) Star topology

• c) Mesh topology

• d) Bus topology
Answer: c) Mesh topology

80. The term "bandwidth-delay product" is used to describe:

• a) The amount of data that can be transmitted in a given time

• b) The maximum data rate achievable

• c) The product of bandwidth and the round-trip time

• d) The amount of noise in a transmission

Answer: c) The product of bandwidth and the round-trip time

81. Which of the following devices operates at the physical layer of the OSI model?
 • a) Router

• b) Switch

• c) Hub

• d) Firewall
Answer: c) Hub

82. Which type of network uses radio frequencies to transmit data?

• a) Wired network

• b) Optical network

• c) Wireless network

• d) All of the above

Answer: c) Wireless network

83. Which of the following factors can lead to transmission errors?

• a) Noise

• b) Interference

• c) Signal attenuation

• d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

84. Which type of cable is used to connect devices in a local area network (LAN)?

• a) Fiber optic

• b) Coaxial

• c) Twisted pair

• d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

85. The most commonly used twisted pair cable in networking is:

• a) Cat 3

• b) Cat 5

• c) Cat 6

• d) Cat 7
Answer: b) Cat 5

86. The maximum data rate for a Category 7 cable is:

• a) 10 Mbps

• b) 100 Mbps

• c) 1 Gbps
 • d) 10 Gbps
Answer: d) 10 Gbps

87. The electrical signal that represents a '1' in digital transmission is known as:

• a) Logic high

• b) Logic low

• c) Noise

• d) Signal attenuation
Answer: a) Logic high

88. The primary function of a network interface card (NIC) is to:

• a) Connect multiple networks

• b) Convert digital data to analog signals

• c) Facilitate communication between the computer and the network

• d) Encrypt data
Answer: c) Facilitate communication between the computer and the network

89. The process of converting analog signals into digital format is known as:

• a) Demodulation

• b) Encoding

• c) Modulation

• d) Sampling
Answer: d) Sampling

90. Which type of noise is considered thermal noise?

• a) Shot noise

• b) Johnson noise

• c) Impulse noise

• d) All of the above

Answer: b) Johnson noise

91. The transmission medium that uses light as the signal is known as:

• a) Coaxial cable

• b) Twisted pair cable

• c) Fiber optic cable

• d) Shielded cable
Answer: c) Fiber optic cable

92. What is the primary function of a repeater in a network?

 • a) To amplify the signal

• b) To route packets

• c) To encrypt data

• d) To filter traffic
Answer: a) To amplify the signal

93. The term "half duplex" refers to:

• a) Simultaneous two-way communication

• b) One-way communication only

• c) Alternating two-way communication

• d) None of the above

Answer: c) Alternating two-way communication

94. Which of the following is NOT a function of the physical layer?

• a) Transmission of raw bit streams

• b) Encoding of data

• c) Physical connection between devices

• d) Error checking
Answer: d) Error checking

95. The primary advantage of wireless communication is:

• a) Higher security

• b) Flexibility in installation

• c) No need for cabling

• d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c

96. Which of the following is a characteristic of multimode fiber optic cables?

• a) Used for long-distance communication

• b) Greater bandwidth than single mode

• c) Allows multiple light paths

• d) None of the above

Answer: c) Allows multiple light paths

97. The measure of how well a cable can transmit a signal without losing power is called:

• a) Bandwidth

• b) Throughput

• c) Attenuation
 • d) Resistance
Answer: c) Attenuation

98. Which of the following network topologies has the highest reliability?

• a) Star

• b) Bus

• c) Ring

• d) Mesh
Answer: d) Mesh

99. Which modulation technique is commonly used in Wi-Fi technology?

• a) Amplitude modulation

• b) Frequency modulation

• c) Phase-shift modulation

• d) Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)

Answer: d) Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)

100. The physical layer of the OSI model is concerned primarily with:

• a) Data formatting

• b) Data encryption

• c) The physical transmission of data

• d) Network protocols
Answer: c) The physical transmission of data

MCQs on Physical Layer: Modulation & Multiplexing

1. What is modulation?

• a) A process of converting digital signals into analog signals

• b) A technique to combine multiple signals for transmission
• c) A method to change a carrier signal's properties to encode information
• d) A way to enhance signal strength
Answer: c) A method to change a carrier signal's properties to encode information

2. Which of the following is a digital-to-digital conversion technique?

• a) Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)

• b) Amplitude Modulation (AM)
 • c) Frequency Modulation (FM)
• d) Phase Shift Keying (PSK)
Answer: d) Phase Shift Keying (PSK)

3. In analog-to-digital conversion, what is the purpose of sampling?

• a) To filter out unwanted frequencies

• b) To convert the continuous signal into a discrete signal
• c) To amplify the signal
• d) To modulate the signal
Answer: b) To convert the continuous signal into a discrete signal

4. Which type of modulation varies the amplitude of the carrier wave?

• a) Frequency Modulation
• b) Phase Modulation
• c) Amplitude Modulation
• d) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Answer: c) Amplitude Modulation

5. What does the term "multiplexing" refer to in communication systems?

• a) The process of reducing signal interference

• b) The technique of combining multiple signals into one for transmission
• c) The method of increasing data transmission speed
• d) The encryption of transmitted data
Answer: b) The technique of combining multiple signals into one for transmission

6. Which of the following is an example of analog-to-analog conversion?

• a) Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM)

• b) Digital Frequency Modulation
• c) Amplitude Modulation (AM)
• d) Delta Modulation
Answer: c) Amplitude Modulation (AM)

7. In digital-to-analog conversion, which of the following methods is commonly used?

• a) Pulse Code Modulation

• b) Frequency Shift Keying
 • c) Amplitude Modulation
• d) Binary Phase Shift Keying
Answer: c) Amplitude Modulation

8. What is the primary purpose of the Nyquist theorem in data transmission?

• a) To determine the bandwidth required for a signal

• b) To set the maximum data rate for a communication channel
• c) To prevent signal distortion during modulation
• d) To eliminate noise from transmitted signals
Answer: b) To set the maximum data rate for a communication channel

9. Which multiplexing technique divides the bandwidth into frequency bands?

• a) Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

• b) Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
• c) Code Division Multiplexing (CDM)
• d) Statistical Time Division Multiplexing
Answer: b) Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)

10. What is the function of a demodulator?

• a) To amplify the received signal

• b) To combine multiple signals for transmission
• c) To extract the original information from the modulated signal
• d) To convert analog signals to digital signals
Answer: c) To extract the original information from the modulated signal

11. In which type of multiplexing are time slots allocated to different signals?

• a) Frequency Division Multiplexing

• b) Time Division Multiplexing
• c) Code Division Multiplexing
• d) Optical Multiplexing
Answer: b) Time Division Multiplexing

12. Which of the following is a method of digital-to-analog conversion?

• a) Pulse Code Modulation

• b) Frequency Shift Keying
 • c) Delta Modulation
• d) Amplitude Shift Keying
Answer: d) Amplitude Shift Keying

13. Which conversion technique is used in PCM (Pulse Code Modulation)?

• a) Analog to Digital
• b) Digital to Analog
• c) Analog to Analog
• d) Digital to Digital
Answer: a) Analog to Digital

14. What is the term used for the process of encoding information by varying the frequency
of the carrier wave?

• a) Amplitude Modulation
• b) Frequency Modulation
• c) Phase Modulation
• d) Digital Modulation
Answer: b) Frequency Modulation

15. Which of the following is NOT a digital modulation technique?

• a) Phase Shift Keying (PSK)

• b) Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
• c) Amplitude Modulation (AM)
• d) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)
Answer: c) Amplitude Modulation (AM)

16. In analog-to-digital conversion, what is quantization?

• a) The process of amplifying a signal

• b) The assignment of discrete values to continuous signals
• c) The filtering of unwanted frequencies
• d) The transmission of signals
Answer: b) The assignment of discrete values to continuous signals

17. What is the main advantage of multiplexing in communication systems?

• a) Reduces bandwidth requirements

 • b) Increases the complexity of the system
• c) Allows for the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals
• d) Requires less power
Answer: c) Allows for the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals

18. Which modulation technique is most resilient to noise?

• a) Amplitude Modulation
• b) Frequency Modulation
• c) Phase Modulation
• d) Pulse Code Modulation
Answer: b) Frequency Modulation

19. In Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM), the total bandwidth of the channel must be:

• a) Equal to the sum of the bandwidths of all channels

• b) Less than the sum of the bandwidths of all channels
• c) Greater than the sum of the bandwidths of all channels
• d) None of the above
Answer: a) Equal to the sum of the bandwidths of all channels

20. Which of the following statements about Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) is true?

• a) It requires less bandwidth than FDM

• b) It transmits data simultaneously
• c) It divides the bandwidth into frequency bands
• d) It can only be used with analog signals
Answer: a) It requires less bandwidth than FDM

21. Which of the following is a common application of Digital-to-Digital conversion?

• a) Audio signal transmission

• b) Digital communication systems
• c) Satellite communication
• d) Television broadcasting
Answer: b) Digital communication systems

22. What does the term "aliasing" refer to in sampling theory?

• a) The loss of data during transmission

 • b) The distortion of a signal due to insufficient sampling
• c) The process of quantizing a signal
• d) The mixing of multiple signals
Answer: b) The distortion of a signal due to insufficient sampling

23. Which modulation technique encodes information in the phase of the signal?

• a) Amplitude Modulation
• b) Frequency Modulation
• c) Phase Shift Keying
• d) Pulse Code Modulation
Answer: c) Phase Shift Keying

24. Which of the following multiplexing methods is often used in digital cellular networks?

• a) Time Division Multiplexing

• b) Frequency Division Multiplexing
• c) Wavelength Division Multiplexing
• d) Code Division Multiplexing
Answer: d) Code Division Multiplexing

25. What is the purpose of the modulation index in FM?

• a) To define the bandwidth of the modulated signal

• b) To indicate the power of the transmitted signal
• c) To measure the frequency deviation
• d) To determine the signal-to-noise ratio
Answer: a) To define the bandwidth of the modulated signal

26. What is the key feature of Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)?

• a) Combines both amplitude and phase modulation

• b) Uses two frequencies to transmit data
• c) Only varies amplitude
• d) Only varies frequency
Answer: a) Combines both amplitude and phase modulation

27. In which situation is pulse width modulation (PWM) commonly used?

• a) Audio signal transmission

 • b) Control of analog devices
• c) Data encryption
• d) Digital signal transmission
Answer: b) Control of analog devices

28. Which process is used to combine multiple data streams into one for transmission?

• a) Demodulation
• b) Multiplexing
• c) Modulation
• d) Encoding
Answer: b) Multiplexing

29. Which of the following techniques is used to prevent the overlapping of signals in Time
Division Multiplexing (TDM)?

• a) Framing
• b) Filtering
• c) Encoding
• d) Signal averaging
Answer: a) Framing

30. The term "baseband" refers to:

• a) A signal that has been modulated to a carrier frequency

• b) The original frequency range of a transmission signal
• c) A type of signal that can be amplified
• d) A frequency band used for multiplexing
Answer: b) The original frequency range of a transmission signal

31. Which device is primarily used in the modulation process?

• a) Amplifier
• b) Modulator
• c) Demodulator
• d) Transceiver
Answer: b) Modulator

32. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)?

 • a) Inefficient use of bandwidth
• b) Simultaneous transmission
• c) Less complex than TDM
• d) Requires synchronization
Answer: a) Inefficient use of bandwidth

33. In PCM, the process of quantization error is associated with:

• a) Sampling
• b) Encoding
• c) Noise reduction
• d) Signal amplification
Answer: a) Sampling

34. What is the modulation technique that uses discrete levels of signal amplitude?

• a) Pulse Amplitude Modulation

• b) Frequency Shift Keying
• c) Amplitude Modulation
• d) Continuous Wave Modulation
Answer: a) Pulse Amplitude Modulation

35. What is the maximum data rate in a communication channel defined by the Nyquist
formula?

• a) 2B log2(N)
• b) B log2(N)
• c) 2B
• d) N log2(B)
Answer: a) 2B log2(N)

36. In terms of bandwidth, what advantage does Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) have
over Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)?

• a) TDM uses more bandwidth

• b) TDM allows for better quality signals
• c) TDM can transmit more data simultaneously
• d) TDM requires less bandwidth
Answer: d) TDM requires less bandwidth
37. What is the purpose of a guard band in FDM?

• a) To increase the signal amplitude

• b) To provide a buffer between channels
• c) To enhance signal quality
• d) To allow for error correction
Answer: b) To provide a buffer between channels

38. Which digital modulation technique encodes data by varying both amplitude and phase?

• a) Phase Shift Keying

• b) Frequency Shift Keying
• c) Amplitude Modulation
• d) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Answer: d) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation

39. What is a key characteristic of Delta Modulation?

• a) Uses multiple bits to represent each sample

• b) Employs only two levels for representation
• c) Is a form of amplitude modulation
• d) Can transmit more information than PCM
Answer: b) Employs only two levels for representation

40. In which situation is multiplexing most beneficial?

• a) When bandwidth is scarce

• b) When only one signal needs to be transmitted
• c) When signals require separate channels
• d) When low data rates are acceptable
Answer: a) When bandwidth is scarce
 UNIT 3

Sure! Here’s a set of 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on the Data Link Layer, covering
design issues, elementary protocols, error detection and correction, and switch working,
including numerical problems with solutions.

Data Link Layer MCQs

1. What is the primary function of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

• a) Routing
• b) Frame delimitation and addressing
• c) Error detection and correction
• d) Data formatting
Answer: b) Frame delimitation and addressing

2. Which of the following is NOT a design issue of the Data Link Layer?

• a) Framing
• b) Error detection
• c) Routing
• d) Flow control
Answer: c) Routing

3. In data communication, what does the term 'framing' refer to?

• a) Modulating signals
• b) Dividing the data stream into manageable units
• c) Encrypting data
• d) Error correction
Answer: b) Dividing the data stream into manageable units

4. Which of the following protocols is used in the Data Link Layer for error detection?

• a) TCP
• b) UDP
• c) ARP
 • d) HDLC
Answer: d) HDLC

5. What is the main purpose of error detection in the Data Link Layer?

• a) Increase transmission speed

• b) Ensure data integrity during transmission
• c) Reduce delay
• d) Format data
Answer: b) Ensure data integrity during transmission

6. How many bits are used in a standard Hamming code for error correction?

• a) 4
• b) 7
• c) 8
• d) 16
Answer: b) 7

7. In a Hamming code, how many parity bits are needed to correct 1-bit errors in a data word
of 4 bits?

• a) 1
• b) 2
• c) 3
• d) 4
Answer: b) 3

8. What is the purpose of a cyclic redundancy check (CRC)?

• a) Error correction
• b) Error detection
• c) Data compression
• d) Flow control
Answer: b) Error detection

9. What is the polynomial representation of CRC used for detecting errors?

• a) 1 + x^2 + x^3
• b) x^8 + x^2 + x + 1
 • c) x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + 1
• d) x^7 + x^4 + 1
Answer: b) x^8 + x^2 + x + 1

10. If a frame contains 1000 bits and the CRC is 16 bits long, what is the total number of bits
transmitted?

• a) 1000
• b) 1016
• c) 1024
• d) 2000
Answer: b) 1016

Numerical Questions

11. Given a data block of 8 bits: 10110100. What is the Hamming code generated for this
data block if 4 parity bits are used?
Solution:

• The Hamming code positions are:

o Data bits: p1, d1, p2, d2, p3, d3, d4, d4
• Let’s calculate parity bits (p1, p2, p3):
o p1 covers bits 1, 3, 5, 7 (d1, d2, d3)
o p2 covers bits 2, 3, 6, 7 (d1, d2, d4)
o p3 covers bits 4, 5, 6, 7 (d3, d4, d5)
o Calculate parity bits accordingly.
• The generated Hamming code will be: 100101100
Answer: 100101100

12. A parity bit is added to a data block of 7 bits. If the data is 1010110, what will be the
parity bit for even parity?

• a) 0
• b) 1
Solution:
• The number of 1's is 4 (even). To maintain even parity, the parity bit must be 0.
Answer: a) 0

13. If a frame has a length of 1500 bytes and a checksum of 32 bits is added, what is the total
length of the frame in bits?

• a) 12000
 • b) 12016
• c) 15000
• d) 15016
Solution:
• Frame length = 1500 bytes = 1500 × 8 = 12000 bits
• Total length = 12000 + 32 = 12032 bits
Answer: b) 12032

14. In a system using CRC-8 polynomial x8+x2+x+1x^8 + x^2 + x + 1x8+x2+x+1, what is

the CRC remainder when the binary data 11011010 is sent?
Solution:

• Performing binary division using the polynomial, the remainder will be calculated as
follows:
o Data: 11011010
o Polynomial: 100000111
o Remainder: 11000000 (after the calculation)
Answer: 11000000

15. If a switch forwards packets based on MAC addresses, how many frames can it handle
simultaneously if it has 8 ports and each port can handle 10 frames at once?

• a) 80
• b) 100
• c) 70
• d) 90
Solution:
• Total frames handled = Ports × Frames per port = 8 × 10 = 80 frames.
Answer: a) 80

More MCQs

16. What type of addressing is used in the Data Link Layer?

• a) IP addressing
• b) MAC addressing
• c) Port addressing
• d) Subnet addressing
Answer: b) MAC addressing

17. Which of the following is a fundamental operation of the Data Link Layer?
 • a) Routing
• b) Packet switching
• c) Frame sequencing
• d) Path determination
Answer: c) Frame sequencing

18. What type of error detection method uses an extra bit to ensure that the number of 1's in a
data block is even?

• a) Parity Check
• b) Checksum
• c) CRC
• d) Hamming Code
Answer: a) Parity Check

19. The Data Link Layer can use which of the following to prevent collisions in a network?

• a) CSMA/CD
• b) HTTP
• c) FTP
• d) SMTP
Answer: a) CSMA/CD

20. In error detection using checksums, what is the process of adding all the segments of data
called?

• a) XOR operation
• b) Addition
• c) Parity calculation
• d) Division
Answer: b) Addition

21. Which method of error correction can detect but not correct errors?

• a) Parity bit
• b) Hamming code
• c) Reed-Solomon code
• d) Block coding
Answer: a) Parity bit
22. A frame is transmitted with a length of 800 bits. If 32 bits are used for error detection,
what is the effective data payload?

• a) 768 bits
• b) 800 bits
• c) 832 bits
• d) 128 bits
Answer: a) 768 bits

23. A switch operates at which layer of the OSI model?

• a) Network layer
• b) Transport layer
• c) Data Link layer
• d) Physical layer
Answer: c) Data Link layer

24. How many bits are needed to detect errors in a 12-bit data word using Hamming code?

• a) 3
• b) 4
• c) 5
• d) 6
Answer: b) 4

25. Which type of switch forwarding method sends packets as soon as the destination MAC
address is read?

• a) Store and Forward

• b) Cut Through
• c) Fragment Free
• d) Adaptive
Answer: b) Cut Through

26. Given a binary data block of 110010, how many parity bits are required if you want to
ensure that it can correct single-bit errors?

• a) 2
• b) 3
• c) 4
• d) 5
Solution:
 • Number of bits (k) = 6
• Number of parity bits (p) must satisfy 2p≥k+p+12^p \geq k + p + 12p≥k+p+1.
• For p=3p = 3p=3, 23=82^3 = 823=8 which satisfies 6+3+1=106 + 3 + 1 =
106+3+1=10.
Answer: b) 3

27. A device uses CRC-16 for error detection. What is the number of bits in the CRC?

• a) 8 bits
• b) 12 bits
• c) 16 bits
• d) 32 bits
Answer: c) 16 bits

28. Which of the following describes a switch that learns and stores the MAC addresses of
connected devices?

• a) Static switch
• b) Dynamic switch
• c) Managed switch
• d) Unmanaged switch
Answer: b) Dynamic switch

29. What is the maximum length of a segment in Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) for effective
communication?

• a) 100 meters
• b) 200 meters
• c) 300 meters
• d) 1500 meters
Answer: a) 100 meters

30. If the transmitted data block is 10111010 and the parity check for even parity is added,
what will the new data block be?

• a) 10111010
• b) 101110100
• c) 101110101
• d) 101110110
Solution:
• Number of 1's = 6 (even), so parity bit = 0. New data block = 10111010.
Answer: a) 10111010
31. What is the maximum number of hosts in a network with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.0?

• a) 254
• b) 255
• c) 256
• d) 512
Solution:
• Hosts = 28−2=2542^8 - 2 = 25428−2=254 (subtracting 2 for network and broadcast
addresses).
Answer: a) 254

32. If a checksum is generated by summing up data segments of 64 bits each, what will be the
length of the checksum?

• a) 16 bits
• b) 32 bits
• c) 64 bits
• d) 128 bits
Answer: a) 16 bits

33. In a LAN with a switch, if a packet is received at port 2 destined for a device on port 5,
what will the switch do?

• a) Broadcast to all ports

• b) Forward to port 5
• c) Drop the packet
• d) Forward to port 1
Answer: b) Forward to port 5

34. How does a switch differ from a hub?

• a) A switch operates at Layer 1, while a hub operates at Layer 2.

• b) A switch can intelligently forward packets based on MAC addresses, while a hub
cannot.
• c) A hub can filter traffic, while a switch cannot.
• d) A switch is slower than a hub.
Answer: b) A switch can intelligently forward packets based on MAC addresses,
while a hub cannot.
35. Which of the following can detect but not correct errors?

• a) Hamming Code
• b) CRC
• c) Checksum
• d) Parity Bit
Answer: d) Parity Bit

36. The binary data is 1101011. What is the even parity bit?

• a) 0
• b) 1
Solution:
• Number of 1's = 5 (odd). To make it even, the parity bit must be 1.
Answer: b) 1

37. For a data block of 15 bits, how many parity bits are required using Hamming code?

• a) 4
• b) 5
• c) 6
• d) 7
Solution:
• 2p≥15+p+12^p \geq 15 + p + 12p≥15+p+1
o For p=4p = 4p=4: 16≥15+4+116 \geq 15 + 4 + 116≥15+4+1 (satisfied).
Answer: a) 4

38. What is the error detection method that involves summing binary words and keeping the
overflow?

• a) Hamming Code
• b) Parity Check
• c) Checksum
• d) CRC
Answer: c) Checksum

39. A switch uses a buffer size of 512 KB. If each frame is 1500 bytes, how many frames can
it buffer at maximum?

• a) 340
• b) 360
• c) 350
 • d) 370
Solution:
• Maximum frames = 512 KB÷1500 bytes=512×10241500≈349.52512 \, \text{KB} \div
1500 \, \text{bytes} = \frac{512 \times 1024}{1500} \approx
349.52512KB÷1500bytes=1500512×1024≈349.52.
• Maximum frames = 349.
Answer: a) 340

40. If a data packet is transmitted using a CRC-32 polynomial, what is the number of bits for
the CRC?

• a) 16
• b) 24
• c) 32
• d) 64
Answer: c) 32

41. What is the purpose of the control field in a data link frame?

• a) To identify the type of data

• b) To manage flow control
• c) To identify the sender
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

42. How many bits are there in a MAC address?

• a) 24
• b) 48
• c) 64
• d) 128
Answer: b) 48

43. What is the method used by Ethernet to manage access to the shared medium?

• a) Token Ring
• b) CSMA/CD
• c) ARP
• d) HDLC
Answer: b) CSMA/CD
44. Which of the following protocols is not used in the Data Link Layer?

• a) Ethernet
• b) PPP
• c) IP
• d) HDLC
Answer: c) IP

45. In error detection using checksums, if two errors occur in the same segment, what will
happen?

• a) Errors will be detected

• b) Errors will not be detected
• c) Errors will be corrected
• d) None of the above
Answer: b) Errors will not be detected

46. What is the primary disadvantage of using parity bits for error detection?

• a) High computational cost

• b) It cannot detect multiple bit errors
• c) It is too slow
• d) Requires extra bandwidth
Answer: b) It cannot detect multiple bit errors

47. Which of the following statements about switches is true?

• a) They operate at the Network layer.

• b) They can filter and forward data based on MAC addresses.
• c) They are unable to manage data collisions.
• d) They are slower than routers.
Answer: b) They can filter and forward data based on MAC addresses.

48. What happens to a frame with a detected error in the Data Link Layer?

• a) It is transmitted again.
• b) It is dropped.
• c) It is logged.
• d) None of the above.
Answer: b) It is dropped.
49. Which error detection technique involves polynomial division?

• a) Parity Check
• b) Checksum
• c) Hamming Code
• d) CRC
Answer: d) CRC

50. If a network uses a switch to connect 10 devices, how many collision domains are
created?

• a) 1
• b) 10
• c) 5
• d) 0
Answer: b) 10

MAC Sublayer MCQs

1. What does MAC stand for in networking?

• a) Media Access Control

• b) Medium Access Communication
• c) Multiple Access Control
• d) Media Access Coordination
Answer: a) Media Access Control

2. Which protocol is characterized by random access to the channel?

• a) CSMA/CD
• b) Token Ring
• c) ALOHA
• d) FDMA
Answer: c) ALOHA

3. In ALOHA, what is the maximum throughput percentage achievable?

• a) 18.4%
• b) 36.8%
• c) 50%
• d) 100%
Answer: b) 36.8%

4. What does CSMA stand for?

• a) Carrier Sense Multiple Access

 • b) Channel Sense Multiple Access
• c) Control Sense Multiple Access
• d) Carrier Synchronization Multiple Access
Answer: a) Carrier Sense Multiple Access

5. In CSMA/CD, what action is taken if a collision is detected?

• a) Continue transmitting
• b) Stop transmitting and wait a random amount of time
• c) Immediately retransmit
• d) Send a signal to all nodes
Answer: b) Stop transmitting and wait a random amount of time

6. What type of access method does Ethernet use?

• a) Token passing
• b) Controlled access
• c) Random access
• d) Hybrid access
Answer: c) Random access

7. In the CSMA/CD protocol, a station listens to the channel before transmitting to:

• a) Detect collisions
• b) Know the bandwidth
• c) Save power
• d) Reduce latency
Answer: a) Detect collisions

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of pure ALOHA?

• a) High efficiency
• b) Simple implementation
• c) Requires time synchronization
• d) Uses a token for access
Answer: b) Simple implementation

9. In controlled access protocols, how is access to the medium typically managed?

• a) Randomly
• b) By a central controller
• c) Using a token
• d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c

10. CSMA/CA is primarily used in which type of network?

• a) Wired networks
• b) Wireless networks
• c) Fiber optic networks
 • d) Satellite networks
Answer: b) Wireless networks

11. Which MAC sublayer protocol uses a token to manage access to the medium?

• a) ALOHA
• b) CSMA/CD
• c) Token Ring
• d) Ethernet
Answer: c) Token Ring

12. What is the main advantage of using CSMA/CD over ALOHA?

• a) Higher throughput
• b) Simplicity
• c) Lower collision rate
• d) All of the above
Answer: a) Higher throughput

13. In CSMA/CD, what does "CD" stand for?

• a) Collision Detection
• b) Channel Detection
• c) Collision Domain
• d) Carrier Detection
Answer: a) Collision Detection

14. What is the primary disadvantage of ALOHA?

• a) High complexity
• b) High collision rate
• c) Low throughput
• d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c

15. Which of the following protocols is typically used in wired Ethernet networks?

• a) CSMA
• b) ALOHA
• c) CSMA/CD
• d) Token Bus
Answer: c) CSMA/CD

16. What happens during a collision in a CSMA/CD network?

• a) The data is corrupted

• b) The sender is notified
• c) Both stations involved in the collision will stop transmitting
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
17. Which of the following is NOT a multiple access protocol?

• a) ALOHA
• b) CSMA/CD
• c) TCP/IP
• d) Token Ring
Answer: c) TCP/IP

18. In which situation would CSMA/CA be preferred over CSMA/CD?

• a) In a wired environment
• b) In a wireless environment
• c) For high-speed networks
• d) For low-speed networks
Answer: b) In a wireless environment

19. What is the main role of the MAC sublayer?

• a) To manage routing
• b) To control access to the physical transmission medium
• c) To establish end-to-end connections
• d) To encrypt data
Answer: b) To control access to the physical transmission medium

20. Which protocol was developed to improve the efficiency of ALOHA?

• a) CSMA
• b) CSMA/CD
• c) CSMA/CA
• d) Token Ring
Answer: a) CSMA

More MCQs

21. Which access method allows only one station to transmit at a time?

• a) ALOHA
• b) CSMA/CD
• c) Controlled access
• d) Both b and c
Answer: c) Controlled access

22. What is the maximum theoretical efficiency of CSMA/CD?

• a) 18.4%
• b) 36.8%
• c) 100%
 • d) 90%
Answer: b) 36.8%

23. How does CSMA/CD improve network efficiency compared to ALOHA?

• a) By reducing the number of collisions

• b) By allowing simultaneous transmissions
• c) By using a token
• d) None of the above
Answer: a) By reducing the number of collisions

24. In a Token Ring network, how is a token passed?

• a) Randomly
• b) In a pre-defined sequence
• c) Based on time slots
• d) By priority
Answer: b) In a pre-defined sequence

25. Which protocol is best suited for networks with high collision rates?

• a) ALOHA
• b) CSMA/CD
• c) Token Ring
• d) None of the above
Answer: c) Token Ring

26. What does the term "backoff" refer to in CSMA/CD?

• a) Waiting for a specific time before retransmitting

• b) The distance between two nodes
• c) The time it takes to establish a connection
• d) The process of filtering traffic
Answer: a) Waiting for a specific time before retransmitting

27. What is the primary benefit of using CSMA/CA over CSMA/CD?

• a) It is simpler
• b) It is more efficient
• c) It reduces collisions in wireless networks
• d) None of the above
Answer: c) It reduces collisions in wireless networks

28. Which of the following is a feature of Ethernet?

• a) Token-based access
• b) Carrier sense multiple access
• c) Circuit-switched connections
• d) All of the above
Answer: b) Carrier sense multiple access
29. In a CSMA/CD network, what is the purpose of the jam signal?

• a) To notify other stations of a collision

• b) To indicate a successful transmission
• c) To synchronize the nodes
• d) To terminate a connection
Answer: a) To notify other stations of a collision

30. Which of the following protocols allows devices to share a common communication
medium?

• a) TCP
• b) ALOHA
• c) CSMA/CD
• d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c

31. What is the role of the Network Interface Card (NIC) in relation to the MAC sublayer?

• a) It encrypts data
• b) It controls access to the physical medium
• c) It establishes end-to-end connections
• d) It routes packets
Answer: b) It controls access to the physical medium

32. Which protocol is designed to handle variable-length packets?

• a) Ethernet
• b) Token Ring
• c) ALOHA
• d) CSMA/CD
Answer: a) Ethernet

33. In a CSMA/CD network, after a collision is detected, what is the next step?

• a) The packet is retransmitted immediately

• b) A backoff algorithm is executed
• c) The network is shut down
• d) The transmission is canceled permanently
Answer: b) A backoff algorithm is executed

34. In a controlled access method, what does polling refer to?

• a) Each station is allowed to transmit randomly

• b) A central controller checks each station for data to send
• c) Stations continuously listen for a token
• d) Data is transmitted in round-robin fashion
Answer: b) A central controller checks each station for data to send

35. Which access method has the lowest collision probability?

 • a) ALOHA
• b) CSMA/CD
• c) Token Ring
• d) CSMA/CA
Answer: c) Token Ring

36. What is one disadvantage of the ALOHA protocol?

• a) It is too complex
• b) It requires a centralized control
• c) It has a high collision rate
• d) It is only suitable for small networks
Answer: c) It has a high collision rate

37. Which MAC protocol is designed specifically for wireless networks?

• a) CSMA/CD
• b) Token Ring
• c) CSMA/CA
• d) ALOHA
Answer: c) CSMA/CA

38. What is the purpose of the Ethernet header?

• a) To encapsulate the data

• b) To provide source and destination addresses
• c) To indicate the type of protocol being used
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

39. Which network topology does the Token Ring protocol typically use?

• a) Star
• b) Ring
• c) Bus
• d) Mesh
Answer: b) Ring

40. What happens when two devices transmit simultaneously in an ALOHA network?

• a) The packets are received correctly

• b) The packets collide
• c) One packet takes priority
• d) None of the above
Answer: b) The packets collide

41. In CSMA/CD, how does a station know that it has successfully transmitted its data?

• a) By receiving an acknowledgment
• b) By monitoring the channel for silence
 • c) By checking the carrier signal
• d) By using a timer
Answer: a) By receiving an acknowledgment

42. What is one of the primary functions of the MAC sublayer?

• a) Managing IP addresses
• b) Providing error detection
• c) Access control to the physical medium
• d) Encrypting data packets
Answer: c) Access control to the physical medium

43. What type of network employs the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision
Avoidance protocol?

• a) Wired networks
• b) Local Area Networks (LANs)
• c) Wireless networks
• d) Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs)
Answer: c) Wireless networks

44. Which of the following statements is true about Ethernet networks?

• a) They use token passing

• b) They require a central controller
• c) They operate using CSMA/CD
• d) They are always wireless
Answer: c) They operate using CSMA/CD

45. In a Token Ring network, how is data transmitted?

• a) Randomly
• b) In a sequential manner
• c) On a first-come, first-served basis
• d) Using multiple paths
Answer: b) In a sequential manner

46. What is the main goal of multiple access protocols?

• a) To enhance data security

• b) To allow multiple devices to use the same communication medium
• c) To speed up data transmission
• d) To reduce latency
Answer: b) To allow multiple devices to use the same communication medium

47. What does the term "collision" mean in networking?

• a) Data is lost during transmission

• b) Two or more packets overlap on the medium
• c) A device malfunctions
 • d) Network performance is degraded
Answer: b) Two or more packets overlap on the medium

48. In CSMA/CD, what is the significance of the term "carrier sense"?

• a) Devices can sense each other's presence

• b) Devices check if the channel is clear before transmitting
• c) It refers to the amount of data being sent
• d) It relates to network security
Answer: b) Devices check if the channel is clear before transmitting

49. What is a disadvantage of CSMA/CD in high-traffic networks?

• a) Low efficiency
• b) High complexity
• c) Expensive hardware requirements
• d) High collision rates
Answer: a) Low efficiency

50. In a CSMA/CA protocol, how does a device indicate it wants to send data?

• a) By sending a signal
• b) By listening to the channel
• c) By waiting for a token
• d) By transmitting a small data packet
Answer: a) By sending a signal