Financial Affairs

CHAPTER 2 | FINANCIAL AFFAIRS

1. When was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) nationalized?
a) 1935
b) 1949
c) 1950
d) 1965
Ans (b)
2. Who owns the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
a) Private shareholders
b) Foreign investors
c) State Bank of India
d) The government of India
Ans (d)
3. What is the main function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
a) to manage foreign investments
b) to serve as the secondary bank of India
c) to issue corporate loans
d) to serve as the central bank of India
Ans (d)
4. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?
a) 1935
b) 1949
c) 1951
d) 1960
Ans (a)
5. The Reserve Bank of India was established under _______.
a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
b) Indian Companies Act, 1913
c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
d) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
Ans (c)
6. What role does the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) serve in the Indian banking
system?
a) Commercial bank
b) Apex bank and bankers' bank
c) Union bank
d) Supreme bank Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
7. The Reserve Bank of India is referred to as the "bankers' bank" because it:
a) Provides loans to individuals
b) Regulates foreign trade
c) Provides financial services to commercial banks
d) Invests in private companies
Ans (c)
8. Why is the Reserve Bank of India called the apex bank?
a) It deals with private sector funding
b) It supervises only rural banks
c) It manages the national stock exchange
d) It oversees and regulates all banking institutions in India
Ans (d)

9. Which of the following is a key function of the Reserve Bank of India as a

Monetary Authority?
a) Regulating stock exchanges
b) Formulating and implementing monetary policy
c) Managing government pensions
d) Issuing passports
Ans (b)

10. What role does the Reserve Bank of India play as the Manager of Foreign
Exchange?
a) Setting income tax rates
b) Managing the foreign exchange reserves of the country
c) Regulating international trade agreements
d) Managing foreign tourism policies
Ans (b)

11. As the Issuer of Currency, what responsibility does the Reserve Bank of India
have?
a) Issuing and managing the Indian Rupee
b) Creating new bank accounts
c) Printing international currency
d) Collecting income taxes
Ans (a)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
12. What is the developmental role of the Reserve Bank of India?
a) Regulating all private businesses
b) Supporting economic growth and financial inclusion
c) Promoting foreign direct investments
d) Issuing corporate bonds
Ans (b)

13. What does the Reserve Bank of India regulate as part of its role in Payment and
Settlement Systems?
a) Overseeing the smooth operation of digital and banking payment systems
b) Managing investment portfolios
c) Regulating land purchases
d) Enforcing corporate taxes
Ans (a)

14. On which bank did RBI take supervisory action against, on April 24, 2024?
a) ICICI Bank
b) HDFC Bank
c) Axis Bank
d) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Ans (d)

15. What supervisory action did the Reserve Bank of India take against Kotak
Mahindra Bank in April 2024?
a) Imposed a fine on the bank
b) Directed the bank to stop onboarding new customers online
c) Ordered the closure of several bank branches
d) Suspended the bank's foreign exchange operations
Ans (b)

16. Why did the RBI direct Kotak Mahindra Bank to cease onboarding new
customers and issuing credit cards online in April 2024?
a) Non-compliance with foreign exchange rules
b) Unresolved IT examination concerns from 2022 and 2023
c) Allegations of money laundering
d) Issues with loan disbursements
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
17. Which of the following actions was included in the RBI's directive to Kotak
Mahindra Bank in April 2024?
a) Stop granting home loans
b) Cease issuing fresh credit cards
c) Halt international transactions
d) Close all ATMs across the country
Ans (b)

18. Who was re-appointed as the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) in April 2024?
a) Shaktikanta Das
b) Urjit Patel
c) Shri T. Rabi Sankar
d) N. S. Vishwanathan
Ans (c)

19. When did Shri T. Rabi Sankar's re-appointment as Deputy Governor of the RBI
take effect?
a) April 24, 2024
b) May 31, 2024
c) June 1, 2024
d) May 3, 2024
Ans (d)

20. For how long has Shri T. Rabi Sankar been re-appointed as the Deputy
Governor of the RBI starting from May 3, 2024?
a) Two years
b) Six months
c) One year
d) Three years
Ans (c)
21. What was the theme of Financial Literacy Week 2024?
a) "Invest Wisely, Save Safely"
b) "Manage Your Money"
c) "Make a Right Start – Become Financially Smart"
d) "Financial Planning for Retirement"
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
22. Financial Literacy Week 2024, held from February 26 to March 1, 2024, was
aimed at which target group?
a) Senior citizens
b) Young adults
c) Bank employees
d) Entrepreneurs
Ans (b)

23. When was Financial Literacy Week 2024 observed?

a) January 15 to January 20, 2024
b) March 1 to March 7, 2024
c) February 26 to March 1, 2024
d) April 5 to April 10, 2024
Ans (c)

24. What was the focus of Financial Literacy Week 2024?

a) Financial planning for senior citizens
b) Tax planning for professionals
c) Promoting stock market investments
d) Financial education for young adults
Ans (d)

25. What sentiment did Indian consumers express regarding economic conditions
for the next year in the RBI survey?
a) Pessimism about future growth
b) Optimism about economic conditions
c) Indifference to economic changes
d) Concern about inflation rates
Ans (b)

26. What decision did the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) make regarding the
policy repo rate?
a) Increased it to 7.00%
b) Decreased it to 6.25%
c) Kept it unchanged at 6.50%
d) Increased it to 6.75%
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
27. What was the reason for the MPC's decision to maintain the policy repo rate at
6.50%?
a) To encourage consumer spending
b) To support economic growth while managing inflation
c) To stabilize the stock market
d) To increase government revenues Ans (b)

28. What significant development regarding PhonePe was announced on April

2024?
a) Launch of a new credit card
b) UPI payments accepted in Singapore
c) Introduction of cryptocurrency transactions
d) Partnership with local banks in India
Ans (b)

29. As of April 2024, how many merchants in Singapore accept PhonePe UPI
payments for Indian travellers?
a) Over 8,000
b) Around 5,000
c) Over 10,000
d) Over 15,000
Ans (a)

30. Which payment system is being utilized by Indian travellers in Singapore as of

April 2024?
a) PayPal
b) Visa
c) Mastercard
d) PhonePe UPI
Ans (d)

31. Which of the following is an example of a broad-market index in India?

a) BSE SmallCap
b) NIFTY 50
c) S&P 500
d) Nasdaq Composite
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
32. What do the NIFTY 50 and SENSEX represent in the Indian stock market?
a) Top companies on the NSE and BSE, respectively
b) Only technology companies
c) Top scrips on the FOREX market
d) Small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
Ans (a)

33. Which of the following is an example of a sectoral index under the NIFTY brand?
a) Automobiles
b) NIFTY 50
c) SENSEX
d) BSE MidCap
Ans (a)
34. Which of the following sectors is NOT typically tracked by sectoral indices?
a) Banking
b) IT
c) Agriculture
d) Realty
Ans (c)
35. In addition to Automobiles and IT, which other sector is tracked by NIFTY
sectoral indices?
a) Banking
b) Healthcare
c) Retail
d) Telecommunications
Ans (a)
36. What do strategy indices focus on in their composition?
a) Overall market performance
b) Specific investment strategies
c) International stock trends
d) Government policies
Ans (b)
37. Which of the following is an example of a strategy index?
a) SENSEX
b) NIFTY 50
c) NIFTY Alpha 50
d) BSE Sensex 30
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
38. Which of the following is NOT a strategy index mentioned?
a) NIFTY Low Volatility 30
b) NIFTY 100 Equal Weight
c) NIFTY Growth Index
d) NIFTY Alpha 50
Ans (c)

39. What do fixed income indices measure?

a) Stock market performance
b) Performance of fixed income securities
c) Currency exchange rates
d) Real estate values
Ans (b)

40. Which of the following is an example of a fixed income security included in fixed
income indices?
a) Common stocks
b) Government bonds (T-bills)
c) Real estate investment trusts
d) Mutual funds
Ans (b)
41. Which of the following would NOT be considered a fixed income security?
a) Common shares of a company
b) Treasury bills
c) Corporate bonds
d) Commercial papers
Ans (a)
42. What do hybrid indices combine in their composition?
a) Equity and commodities
b) Equity and fixed income components
c) Real estate and commodities
d) International and domestic stocks Ans (b)

43. What types of entities are included in the Social Stock Exchange (SSE)?
a) Only publicly listed companies
b) Companies registered under the Companies Act, Section 8 companies, trusts,
and societies
c) Private limited companies only
d) Foreign corporations Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
44. What is the primary purpose of the Social Stock Exchange (SSE)?
a) To facilitate mergers and acquisitions
b) To provide investment opportunities in real estate
c) To facilitate fundraising for social enterprises
d) To promote foreign investments in India
Ans (c)
45. Which regulated stock exchanges are associated with the Social Stock Exchange
(SSE)?
a) NSE and BSE
b) NYSE and NASDAQ
c) LSE and ASX
d) HKG and SGX
Ans (a)

46. What kind of companies are specifically recognized under the SSE framework?
a) Only for-profit companies
b) Section 8 companies
c) Companies with a market capitalization above a certain limit
d) Startups only
Ans (b)

47. What does the T+1 system refer to in trading?

a) A one-day delay between trade execution and settlement
b) A two-day delay between trade execution and settlement
c) Immediate settlement on the same day
d) A three-day delay between trade execution and settlement
Ans (a)

48. What new settlement system has BSE and NSE launched in beta version?
a) T+2 settlement
b) T+3 settlement
c) T+1 settlement
d) T+0 settlement
Ans (d)
49. What does the T+0 settlement system imply?
a) A one-day delay between trade execution and settlement
b) Immediate settlement on the same day as trade execution
c) A two-day delay between trade execution and settlement
d) A three-day delay between trade execution and settlement
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
50. What potential benefit does T+0 settlement offer to traders?
a) Longer wait for cash availability
b) Faster access to funds and reduced settlement risk
c) Increased transaction fees
d) More complex trading processes
Ans (b)

51. How does the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) assist in Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR) activities?
a) By providing tax exemptions to companies
b) By enabling companies to fund social initiatives through investments in social
enterprises
c) By regulating CSR spending
d) By offering loans to corporations for CSR activities
Ans (b)

52. Which organization is involved in the MoU with DBS Bank to promote investor
education?
a) RBI
b) IEPFA
c) SEBI
d) Ministry of Finance
Ans (b)

53. What is one of the primary aims of the MoU between IEPFA and DBS Bank?
a) Enhance investor awareness on investment safety and fraudulent schemes
b) Increase interest rates on fixed deposits
c) Promote international investment opportunities
d) Reduce banking fees for customers
Ans (a)

54. What specific topics will the MoU between IEPFA and DBS Bank focus on
educating investors about?
a) Investment safety only
b) Fraudulent schemes only
c) Both investment safety and fraudulent schemes
d) Cryptocurrency investments
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 Financial Affairs
55. What does IEPFA stand for?
a) Indian Employee Provident Fund Authority
b) Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority
c) Indian Economic Policy Framework Association
d) International Equity and Portfolio Fund Association
Ans (b)

56. When was the MoU between IEPFA and DBS Bank signed?
a) January 15, 2024
b) April 7, 2024
c) March 1, 2024
d) February 19, 2024
Ans (d)

57. Which two organizations are involved in the MoU aimed at improving investor
awareness?
a) IEPFA and DBS Bank
b) SEBI and RBI
c) NSE and BSE
d) RBI and NABARD
Ans (a)

58. Which of the following entities is eligible for listing on a Social Stock Exchange?
a) Multinational corporations.
b) Individual investors.
c) Non-profit organizations (NPOs).
d) Start-up companies.
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS

CHAPTER 3 | POLITICAL AFFAIRS

1. Who has been appointed as the Chief of Naval Staff, effective April 30, 2024?
a) Vice Admiral R. Hari Kumar
b) Vice Admiral Karambir Singh
c) Vice Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi
d) Vice Admiral Ajit Kumar
Ans (c)
2. Who are the newly appointed Election Commissioners in the Election
Commission of India?
a) Shri Rajiv Kumar and Dr. Nasim Zaidi
b) Shri Gyanesh Kumar and Dr. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
c) Shri Sunil Arora and Dr. Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi
d) Shri Om Prakash Rawat and Dr. Achal Kumar Joti
Ans (b)

3. Who has been appointed as the Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance
Commission?
a) Shri Rajiv Mehrishi
b) Shri Ajay Kumar Bhalla
c) Shri AS Rajeev
d) Shri Sanjay Kothari
Ans (c)

4. The Grievance Appellate Committees were established under which set of rules?
a) IT Rules 2020
b) IT Rules 2021
c) IT Act 2008
d) Digital Media Guidelines 2019
Ans (b)

5. How many Grievance Appellate Committees were established to address

grievances related to digital platforms?
a) Two
b) Five
c) Three
d) Four
Ans (c)
[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
6. What is the purpose of the Grievance Appellate Committees recently established
in India?
a) To handle grievances related to banking fraud
b) To address complaints regarding public transport
c) To address grievances related to digital platforms
d) To resolve disputes related to employment contracts
Ans (c)

7. What is the vision outlined in the Interim Budget 2024-25 for India by 2047?
a) India becoming a global superpower
b) Achieving 100% literacy by 2047
c) A vision for ‘Shresht Bharat’ by 2047
d) A vision for 'Viksit Bharat' by 2047
Ans (d)

8. What is the primary aim of the Rooftop Solarization Initiative?

a) To reduce electricity consumption in urban areas
b) To provide free solar electricity to one crore households
c) To promote wind energy across the country
d) To install solar panels in government buildings
Ans (b)

9. How much can households potentially save annually through the Rooftop
Solarization Initiative?
a) ₹5,000 to ₹7,000
b) ₹10,000 to ₹12,000
c) ₹15,000 to ₹18,000
d) ₹20,000 to ₹25,000
Ans (c)

10. What additional benefit does the Rooftop Solarization Initiative provide to
households?
a) Access to government subsidies
b) Free maintenance of solar panels
c) Enabling surplus electricity sale
d) Job opportunities in solar energy
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
11. What is the primary focus of the Electric Vehicle (EV) Manufacturing initiative?
a) To expand EV manufacturing
b) To reduce the price of fuel
c) To promote traditional vehicle manufacturing
d) To increase imports of electric vehicles
Ans (a)
12. What infrastructure is being prioritized alongside EV manufacturing?
a) High-speed rail systems
b) Charging infrastructure
c) Gasoline stations
d) Residential power grids
Ans (b)
13. What is the overall aim of the Net Zero Emissions Commitment?
a) To increase emissions from industrial activities
b) To promote the use of single-use plastics
c) To reduce India’s carbon emissions
d) To eliminate all forms of energy consumption
Ans (c)
14. What is one of the measures included in the Net Zero Emissions Commitment?
a) Increasing coal production
b) Viability gap funding for offshore wind energy
c) Expanding oil drilling operations
d) Reducing renewable energy investments
Ans (b)
15. What goal is associated with the commitment to Net Zero Emissions?
a) Reducing water pollution
b) Reducing imports of polluting fuels
c) Increasing carbon emissions
d) Expanding the use of plastics
Ans (b)
16. What is a key focus of the Blue Economy 2.0 initiative?
a) Launching schemes for coastal aquaculture
b) Increasing industrial fishing
c) Promoting oil drilling in coastal areas
d) Reducing marine biodiversity
Ans (a)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
17. What type of activities does Blue Economy 2.0 aim to promote?
a) Urban development projects
b) Increased tourism without regulations
c) Deforestation for coastal resorts
d) Sustainable activities in coastal areas
Ans (d)
18. What is one of the objectives of the Blue Economy 2.0 initiative?
a) To expand pollution in marine environments
b) To protect the marine ecosystem
c) To increase plastic usage in coastal areas
d) To promote overfishing
Ans (b)
19. What overarching goal does Blue Economy 2.0 seek to achieve?
a) To reduce economic activities in coastal regions
b) To promote non-renewable resource exploitation
c) To balance economic growth with environmental sustainability
d) To eliminate all fishing activities
Ans (c)
20. What does PM SVANIDHI stand for?
a) Prime Minister's Street Vendor's Assistance Network for Integrated
Development of Households
b) Prime Minister’s Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi
c) Prime Minister's Support for Vocational and Non-Formal Education
d) Prime Minister’s Sustainable Urban and National Development Initiative
Ans (b)
21. Which group is specifically targeted by the PM SVANIDHI initiative?
a) Street vendors
b) Large-scale industrialists
c) Government employees
d) Students and youth
Ans (a)
22. What kind of support does the PM SVANIDHI scheme offer to street vendors?
a) Free housing
b) Credit and financial assistance
c) Free educational services
d) Employment in government sectors
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
23. How many street vendors get benefited credit assistance under the PM
SVANIDHI scheme?
a) 50 lakh street vendors
b) 30 lakh street vendors
c) 78 lakh street vendors
d) 90 lakh street vendors
Ans (c)
24. Which initiative is responsible for the training and upskilling of youth in India?
a) Yuva Bharat Mission
b) Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
c) Make in India Initiative
d) Skill India Mission
Ans (d)
25. How many youth have been trained and upskilled under the Skill India Mission?
a) 50 lakh youth
b) 1.4 crore youth
c) 80 lakh youth
d) 2 crore youth
Ans (b)
26. What type of training programs does the Skill India Mission provide?
a) Short-term and long-term training programs
b) Only long-term degree programs
c) Exclusive vocational training for women
d) Training for government jobs only
Ans (a)
27. What is the total amount of loans sanctioned under the PM Mudra Yojana?
a) ₹10 lakh crore
b) ₹22.5 lakh crore
c) ₹15 lakh crore
d) ₹5 lakh crore
Ans (b)
28. What is the primary objective of the PM Mudra Yojana?
a) To provide grants to large corporations
b) To reduce imports of goods
c) To foster entrepreneurial aspirations among youth
d) To support only agricultural activities
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
29. What is the target number of houses close to being achieved under the Pradhan
Mantri Awas Yojana (Grameen)?
a) 1 crore houses
b) 2 crore houses
c) 3 crore houses
d) 5 crore houses
Ans (c)

30. How many additional houses are targeted for the next 5 years under the
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Grameen)?
a) 1 crore houses
b) 2 crore houses
c) 3 crore houses
d) 5 crore houses
Ans (b)

31. What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Grameen)?
a) To provide housing to rural poor households
b) To build urban infrastructure
c) To promote industrial development
d) To improve public transportation
Ans (a)

32. What has been a significant achievement of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(Grameen) so far?
a) Increasing the number of urban houses
b) Close to achieving the target of 3 crore houses
c) Reducing housing prices in cities
d) Providing free land to all citizens
Ans (b)

33. How much healthcare coverage is provided per family under the Ayushman
Bharat scheme?
a) ₹1 lakh
b) ₹2 lakhs
c) ₹5 lakhs
d) ₹10 lakhs
Ans (c)
[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
34. Who is the primary beneficiary of the Ayushman Bharat scheme?
a) Wealthy families
b) Economically vulnerable families in India
c) Middle-class families
d) Foreign nationals
Ans (b)

35. What type of coverage does the Ayushman Bharat scheme provide?
a) Health insurance for all citizens
b) Free healthcare coverage of up to ₹5 lakhs per family per year
c) Only maternity benefits
d) Coverage for government employees
Ans (b)

36. By what percentage has the capital expenditure outlay increased for
infrastructure development?
a) 5.5%
b) 11.1%
c) 8.2%
d) 12.5%
Ans (b)

37. Which sector is a key focus of the increased capital expenditure outlay?
a) Railway programs
b) Renewable energy projects
c) Highway maintenance
d) IT infrastructure
Ans (a)

38. Apart from railway corridors, what other infrastructure areas are being
emphasized with the increased expenditure?
a) Housing development and malls
b) Airport expansions and metro rail projects
c) Water supply systems and rural roads
d) Telecommunications and internet services
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
39. Which of the following is NOT a focus area of the increased capital expenditure
in Interim Budget 2024-25?
a) Railway corridor programs
b) Metro rail projects
c) Hydroelectric power projects
d) Airport expansions
Ans (c)

40. What is the primary focus of technology and innovation efforts mentioned?
a) Increasing agricultural production
b) Emphasis on deep-tech technologies for defence
c) Promoting e-commerce platforms
d) Expanding digital education systems
Ans (b)

41. What is the estimated fiscal deficit for the financial year 2024-25 as a
percentage of GDP?
a) 3.5%
b) 5.1%
c) 6.2%
d) 4.8%
Ans (b)
42. Which specific type of tourism development is being targeted along with iconic
tourist centers?
a) Rural tourism
b) Medical tourism
c) Island tourism development
d) Space tourism
Ans (c)

43. What is one of the primary goals of developing iconic tourist centers and island
tourism projects?
a) To reduce the number of international tourists
b) To restrict entry to popular tourist destinations
c) To decrease taxes on travel
d) To boost domestic tourism
Ans (d)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
44. Apart from boosting tourism, what other benefit is expected from these tourism
development projects?
a) Reducing environmental impacts
b) Increasing employment opportunities
c) Lowering travel costs
d) Expanding global tourism companies
Ans (b)

45. Which economic corridor is the focus of recent corporate sector initiatives?
a) Asia-Pacific Economic Corridor
b) India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor
c) North America Free Trade Corridor
d) Africa-Europe Trade Corridor
Ans (b)

46. What is one of the primary goals of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic
Corridor?
a) To promote domestic investment
b) To reduce international trade
c) To encourage sustained foreign investment
d) To limit bilateral trade agreements
Ans (c)

47. Along with the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, what other strategy
is being used to boost foreign investment?
a) Bilateral investment agreements
b) Imposing higher tariffs on imports
c) Reducing infrastructure projects
d) Increasing corporate taxes
Ans (a)

48. Who launched the SWAYAM Plus platform?

a) Shri Dharmendra Pradhan
b) Shri Piyush Goyal
c) Shri Rajnath Singh
d) Shri Narendra Modi
Ans (a)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
49. What is the primary purpose of the SWAYAM Plus Platform?
a) Offering free online courses to anyone who wants to learn
b) Providing paid university education
c) Promoting private coaching institutions
d) Offering scholarships to international students
Ans (a)
50. How does the SWAYAM Plus Platform contribute to India's development?
a) By reducing internet access
b) By boosting employment
c) By promoting international trade
d) By lowering taxes on education
Ans (b)
51. Who can access the free courses provided on the SWAYAM Plus Platform?
a) Only students with a university degree
b) Only government employees
c) Anyone who wants to learn
d) Only citizens of India
Ans (c)
52. Which feature of SWAYAM enhances collaboration between education and
industry?
a) Collaboration with industry leaders and big companies
b) Exclusive university partnerships
c) International scholarship programs
d) Government-only certifications
Ans (a)
53. How does SWAYAM make content accessible to a broader audience?
a) By providing only technical courses
b) Offering all courses in English
c) Providing multilingual content
d) Limiting access to urban students
Ans (c)
54. What technological feature does SWAYAM use to assist learners?
a) Virtual reality learning
b) Cloud computing courses
c) AI-enabled guidance
d) Blockchain certification
Ans (c)

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POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
55. What benefit do learners get from completing SWAYAM courses?
a) International internships
b) Credit recognition and pathways to employment
c) Guaranteed government jobs
d) Direct admission to foreign universities
Ans (b)
56. Which of the following statements is true about the focus areas of SWAYAM?
a) It only targets students from urban areas
b) It aims to align educational content with market needs
c) It excludes mentorship programs
d) It focuses solely on academic performance
Ans (b)
57. What type of support does SWAYAM offer to enhance student employability?
a) Mentorship and job placement opportunities
b) Free transportation for students
c) Housing for students in urban areas
d) Only academic counseling
Ans (a)
58. Who inaugurated the Start-up Mahakumbh?
a) Shri Amit Shah
b) Shri Narendra Modi
c) Shri Piyush Goyal
d) Shri Nitin Gadkari
Ans (b)
59. What is the significance of the Start-up Mahakumbh for India?
a) To promote traditional industries
b) To focus only on agriculture
c) To be crucial for India's development roadmap
d) To reduce international trade
Ans (c)
60. By what year does India aim to become a developed nation, as highlighted
during the Start-up Mahakumbh?
a) 2030
b) 2040
c) 2047
d) 2050
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
61. In which sectors has the start-up revolution been noted?
a) Only in technology and finance
b) Across agriculture, textiles, medicine, transport, space, yoga, and ayurveda
c) Exclusively in the service sector
d) Only in manufacturing and exports
Ans (b)
62. What aspect of Digital India was lauded for its transformative impact?
a) Internet accessibility
b) Unified Payments Interface
c) Social media usage
d) E-commerce growth
Ans (b)
63. What is the highest civilian award in India?
a) Padma Vibhushan
b) Padma Shri
c) Padma Bhushan
d) Bharat Ratna
Ans (d)
64. Which of the following awards is the third-highest civilian award in India?
a) Bharat Ratna
b) Padma Bhushan
c) Padma Vibhushan
d) Padma Shri
Ans (b)
65. When was the 7th edition of Pariksha Pe Charcha conducted?
a) January 19, 2024
b) January 10, 2024
c) February 1, 2024
d) December 25, 2023
Ans (a)
66. What is the primary aim of Pariksha Pe Charcha (PPC)?
a) To promote online education
b) To conduct examinations
c) To celebrate and encourage the unique individuality of each child
d) To provide scholarships to students
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
67. Who conducted the 7th edition of Pariksha Pe Charcha?
a) Shri Amit Shah
b) Shri Dharmendra Pradhan
c) Shri Narendra Modi
d) Shri Rahul Gandhi
Ans (c)
68. Who are the key participants involved in Pariksha Pe Charcha?
a) Only students
b) Only teachers
c) Students, parents and teachers.
d) Schools and colleges
Ans (c)
69. What is one of the key themes addressed in Pariksha Pe Charcha?
a) Dealing with External Pressure and Stress
b) Memorization techniques
c) Traditional teaching methods
d) Standardized testing
Ans (a)
70. Which theme specifically addresses coping mechanisms for students during
exams?
a) Coping with Exam Stress
b) Role of Parents
c) Career Progression
d) Intrusion of Technology
Ans (a)

71. What is the primary aim of the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana?
a) To promote urban development
b) To provide comprehensive support to artisans and craftspeople
c) To focus solely on large industries
d) To reduce imports of handicrafts
Ans (b)

72. Who are the main beneficiaries of the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana?
a) Corporate employees
b) Artisans and craftspeople engaged in traditional trades
c) IT professionals
d) Government officials
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
73. How many trades are encompassed in the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana?
a) 10 trades
b) 15 trades
c) 5 trades
d) 18 trades
Ans (d)
74. Which of the following is NOT a trade included in the Pradhan Mantri
Vishwakarma Yojana?
a) Carpenter
b) Boat Maker
c) Software Developer
d) Goldsmith
Ans (c)
75. Which of the following trades is included in the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma
Yojana?
a) Electrician
b) Blacksmith
c) Architect
d) Chef
Ans (b)
76. The Advanced Training is aimed at which of the following?
(Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana)
a) Basic skill development
b) Skill upgrading
c) Financial literacy
d) Marketing strategies
Ans (b)
77. What is the stipend provided during the Basic and Advanced Training?
(Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana)
a) Rs. 500 per day
b) Rs. 300 per day
c) Rs. 750 per day
d) Rs. 1,000 per day
Ans (a)
78. What is the duration of the Advanced Training provided under the Pradhan
Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana?
a) 5 days
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 30 days

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
Ans (c)
79. What type of loans are provided under the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma
Yojana?
a) Collateral-free 'Enterprise Development Loans'
b) Secured business loans
c) Personal loans with collateral
d) Home loans
Ans (a)
80. What is the maximum loan amount available to beneficiaries under the scheme?
(Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana)
a) Rs. 1 lakhs
b) Rs. 3 lakhs
c) Rs. 5 lakhs
d) Rs. 10 lakhs
Ans (b)
81. How does MY Bharat aim to achieve its objectives for youth?
a) By providing only financial aid
b) By leveraging technology
c) By limiting access to education
d) By focusing solely on rural development
Ans (b)
82. What is the primary purpose of the National Turmeric Board established by the
Government of India?
a) To increase the prices of turmeric
b) To promote international trade
c) To oversee and promote the development of turmeric and its products
d) To eliminate the cultivation of turmeric
Ans (c)
83. When was the CSR Portal launched by IREDA?
a) October 15, 2023
b) November 07, 2023
c) December 1, 2023
d) January 5, 2024
Ans (b)
84. What is the primary purpose of the IREDA CSR Portal?
a) To increase salary of employees
b) To enhance transparency in receiving & processing CSR request
c) To manage financial transactions
d) To provide donation to subsidiaries
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
85. Under which ministry does IREDA operate?
a) Ministry of Agriculture
b) Ministry of Finance
c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Ans (c)

86. Which government enterprise launched the CSR portal?

a) Ministry of Power
b) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)
c) National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
d) Renewable Energy Corporation
Ans (b)

87. What category does IREDA fall under as a Mini Ratna enterprise?
a) Category – I
b) Category – II
c) Category – III
d) Category – IV
Ans (a)

88. What is the primary objective of the ESG framework introduced by IFSCA?
a) To reduce environmental regulations
b) To enhance transparency and standardization in ESG disclosures
c) To promote fossil fuel investments
d) To limit foreign investments
Ans (b)
89. What does ESG stand for in the context of the new framework introduced by
IFSCA?
a) Economic, Social, and Governance
b) Economic, Sustainable, and Governance
c) Environmental, Safety, and Growth
d) Environmental, Social, and Governance Ans (d)

90. What initiative is the ESG framework a part of, according to the IFSCA?
a) To increase stock market investments
b) To establish GIFT-IFSC as a hub for sustainable finance
c) To promote traditional finance models
d) To regulate cryptocurrency transactions
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 POLITICAL AFFAIRS
91. What does IFSCA stand for?
a) Indian Financial Services Commission Authority
b) International Financial Services Centres Authority
c) International Financial Securities Compliance Agency
d) Indian Financial Services Centres Association
Ans (b)

92. Which financial products does the framework for ESG scheme disclosures
specifically apply to?
a) Real estate investments
b) Mutual funds
c) Personal loans
d) Government bonds
Ans (b)

93. What is the primary purpose of the ESG framework introduced by IFSCA?
a) To ensure that financial products claiming to focus on ESG are genuine and
consistent
b) To promote high-risk investments
c) To increase the cost of financial products
d) To limit investments in green technologies
Ans (a)

94. How does the framework for ESG scheme disclosures enhance consumer trust?
a) By reducing the number of financial products available
b) By ensuring accuracy, allowing for easy comparison of products based on
international standards
c) By focusing solely on domestic investments
d) By increasing paperwork requirements for financial products
Ans (b)

95. Which of the following is a key benefit of the ESG framework for investors?
a) Increased volatility
b) Restricted access to financial products
c) Ability to trust and compare financial products more easily
d) Mandatory long-term investments only
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS

CHAPTER 4 | LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS

1. What is the Lok Sabha commonly known as?
a) house of states
b) council of people
c) house of the people
d) people's council
Ans (c)
2. What is the Rajya Sabha commonly referred to as?
a) house of the people
b) people's assembly
c) house of representatives
d) council of states
Ans (d)
3. Which of the following statements about the Indian Parliament is true?
a) it consists of the Lok Sabha and the Vidhan Sabha
b) it consists of the Lok Sabha and the Vidhan Parishad
c) it consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
d) it consists of the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assembly
Ans (c)
4. Which of the following is true about the President of India?
a) The President is not a part of the Parliament
b) The President is a part of the Parliament
c) The President only heads the Rajya Sabha
d) The President is not involved in the legislative process
Ans (b)
5. The Indian Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, and which
other entity?
a) The Prime Minister
b) The Supreme Court
c) The Governor
d) The President of India
Ans (d)
6. The President of India holds which of the following positions?
a) Head of Government
b) Head of the Lok Sabha
c) Head of State
d) Head of the Rajya Sabha Ans (c)
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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
7. What are the two houses of a bicameral state legislature in India known as?
a) Lok Sabha (lower house) and Rajya Sabha (upper house)
b) Vidhan Sabha (lower house) and Vidhan Parishad (upper house)
c) Rajya Sabha (lower house) and Lok Sabha (upper house)
d) Gram Sabha (lower house) and Gram Parishad (upper house)
Ans (b)
8. Which article of the Indian Constitution is associated with the legislative powers
of the Union and the State?
a) Article 245
b) Article 247
c) Article 246
d) Article 248
Ans (c)

9. How many subjects are listed in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the
Indian Constitution?
a) 50
b) 66
c) 47
d) 97
Ans (d)

10. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution details the distribution of

responsibilities between the Union and State governments?
a) 3rd Schedule
b) 5th Schedule
c) 7th Schedule
d) 9th Schedule
Ans (c)

11. In the context of the Indian Constitution, what does the term "Union" refer to?
a) The central government of India
b) The state governments
c) Local self-governments
d) The judiciary system
Ans (a)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
12. Which of the following subjects is included in the Union List?
a) Police
b) Agriculture
c) Income tax
d) Trade and commerce
Ans (c)
13. Which subjects are covered under the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule?
a) Defense and foreign affairs
b) Police and trade
c) Education and trade unions
d) Banking and currency
Ans (c)
14. What distinguishes the subjects in the Concurrent List from those in the Union
and State Lists?
a) Only the Union can legislate on them
b) Only the States can legislate on them
c) Both the Union and State legislatures can legislate on them
d) They are of no importance
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following is NOT included in the subjects of the State List?
a) Trade
b) Police
c) Foreign affairs
d) Agriculture
Ans (c)
16. What is the primary function of the Legislative branch of government?
a) Makes laws
b) Enforces laws
c) Interprets the law
d) Administers justice
Ans (a)
17. What role does the Judiciary branch play in the government?
a) Makes laws
b) Interprets the law, administers justice, and ensures laws are upheld
c) Enforces laws
d) Creates policies Ans (b)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
18. Which branch of government is primarily responsible for making policy
decisions?
a) Judiciary
b) Legislative
c) Executive
d) Federal
Ans (c)
19. Which of the following is a key responsibility of the Executive branch?
a) Drafting legislation
b) Implementing laws
c) Deciding cases
d) Conducting trials
Ans (b)
20. What is the primary function of the Judiciary branch?
a) Making laws
b) Enforcing laws
c) Interpreting the law and administering justice
d) Drafting policies
Ans (c)
21. Which court typically serves as the highest authority in interpreting the
Constitution?
a) District Court
b) High Court
c) Family Court
d) Supreme Court
Ans (d)
22. How does the Judiciary branch ensure that laws are upheld?
a) By drafting new legislation
b) By making policy decisions
c) By interpreting the law in individual cases
d) By implementing laws
Ans (c)
23. Which of the following is NOT a role of the Judiciary?
a) Resolving disputes
b) Enforcing laws
c) Protecting individual rights
d) Reviewing the constitutionality of laws Ans (b)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
24. What type of jurisdiction is typically held by a court?
a) General jurisdiction over all matters
b) Limited jurisdiction
c) Exclusive jurisdiction
d) Concurrent jurisdiction
Ans (a)
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding tribunals?
a) They have unlimited jurisdiction
b) They handle all legal matters
c) They focus on specific issues or service matters
d) They are equivalent to a Supreme Court
Ans (c)
26. How does the jurisdiction of a tribunal differ from that of a court of law?
a) Tribunals have no jurisdiction
b) Courts deal with specific issues only
c) Tribunals are vested with limited jurisdiction
d) Both have the same jurisdiction
Ans (c)
27. What is the primary function of a tribunal?
a) To handle criminal cases
b) To deal with service matters and specific issues
c) To interpret constitutional law
d) To draft new legislation
Ans (b)
28. Which is considered the Apex Court in India?
a) High Court
b) District Court
c) Supreme Court
d) NCLT
Ans (c)
29. Which of the following statements about the Supreme Court of India is true?
a) It is subordinate to the High Courts
b) It serves as the highest authority in the judiciary of India
c) It handles only criminal cases
d) It was established in 1947
Ans (b)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
30. When was the Supreme Court of India established?
a) August 15, 1947
b) January 26, 1950
c) November 26, 1949
d) May 1, 1952
Ans (b)
31. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Supreme Court of India?
a) Hearing appeals from lower courts
b) Protecting fundamental rights
c) Appointing members to the Parliament
d) Deciding on the constitutionality of laws
Ans (c)
32. How many judges, including the Chief Justice, currently constitute the Supreme
Court of India?
a) 20
b) 34
c) 25
d) 15
Ans (b)
33. Who is the current Chief Justice of India as of October 2024?
a) Ranjan Gogoi
b) N.V. Ramana
c) D.Y. Chandrachud
d) Sharad Arvind Bobde
Ans (c)
34. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
a) The President of India
b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The Parliament of India
d) The Chief Justice of the High Court
Ans (a)
35. Which body is responsible for appointing the judges of the Supreme Court of
India?
a) The President of India
b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) The Union Cabinet Ans (a)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
36. What is the process for appointing judges to the Supreme Court in India?
a) They are elected by the public
b) They are appointed by the Chief Justice only
c) They are appointed by the President based on recommendations from the
Chief Justice and other senior judges
d) They are appointed by the Parliament
Ans (c)

37. What does the review jurisdiction of the Supreme Court entail?
a) The power to hear appeals from high courts
b) The power to issue writs
c) The power to review laws passed by the legislature
d) The power to transfer cases between lower courts
Ans (c)

38. What authority does the Supreme Court have in relation to contempt of court?
a) To ignore contemptuous acts
b) To advise the government on contempt laws
c) To transfer contempt cases to high courts
d) To punish for contempt of court
Ans (d)
39. Which of the following statements is true about the Appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court?
a) It can only hear civil cases
b) It deals exclusively with constitutional issues
c) Take appeals from High Courts
d) It cannot review the decisions of High Courts
Ans (c)

40. What type of cases can the Supreme Court hear under its original jurisdiction?
a) Cases between state governments and the Union of India
b) All civil cases
c) All criminal cases
d) Cases related to local government
Ans (a)

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Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs

 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
41. What is the status of High Courts in the Indian judicial system?
a) Second highest court in hierarchy
b) A federal court
c) The highest judicial body at the state level
d) Both a & c
Ans (d)
42. What is the appellate jurisdiction of High Courts primarily concerned with?
a) Hearing appeals from lower courts and tribunals
b) Advising the state government
c) Enforcing laws
d) Reviewing laws passed by Parliament
Ans (a)
43. What is the primary function of Administrative Tribunals in India?
a) To legislate new laws
b) To handle criminal cases
c) To deal with service matters of civil servants
d) To advise the President
Ans (c)
44. Under which act are Administrative Tribunals established in India?
a) Service Matters Act of 1980
b) Administrative Service Act of 1990
c) Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985
d) Civil Servants Act of 1975
Ans (c)
45. Which article of the Indian Constitution allows for the establishment of
Administrative Tribunals?
a) Article 136
b) Article 323A
c) Article 323B
d) Article 50
Ans (b)
46. What is one of the main features of the Administrative Tribunals in terms of
representation?
a) Only lawyers can represent the parties
b) Government representation is mandatory
c) Individuals can represent themselves
d) Only judges can represent the government Ans (c)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
47. What is the establishment date of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
a) January 26, 1950
b) July 15, 1980
c) November 1, 1985
d) March 18, 1997
Ans (c)
48. How many organizations are included within the jurisdiction of the Central
Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
a) Around 150 organizations
b) Around 250 organizations
c) Around 209 organizations
d) Around 300 organizations
Ans (c)
49. What is the primary goal of the Administrative Tribunals?
a) To provide swift and cost-effective justice
b) To conduct lengthy trials
c) To impose heavy fines
d) To create new laws
Ans (a)

50. To which body can appeals against decisions made by Administrative Tribunals
be filed?
a) The Supreme Court of India
b) The Division Bench of the concerned High Court
c) The Central Administrative Tribunal
d) A separate Administrative Appellate Authority
Ans (b)

51. If political parties or donors fail to comply with the return and refund of bonds,
where will the amount be credited?
(Case: Association for Democratic Reforms & Anr. v/s Union of India & Ors.)
a) The Election Commission of India’s account
b) The Prime Minister’s Relief Fund
c) The State Bank of India
d) The Ministry of Finance
Ans (b)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
52. What triggered the series of writ petitions filed in the Vishal Tiwari v. Union of
India & Ors. case?
a) Decline in investor wealth and market volatility due to a report by Hindenburg
Research.
b) Decline in Adani Group’s share prices following a report by Hindenburg
Research.
c) Increase in Adani Group's market capitalization after SEBI regulations.
d) Decline in SEBI’s regulatory power over the Adani Group.
Ans (b)

53. What did the Hindenburg Research report accuse the Adani Group of doing?
a) Bribing SEBI officials to avoid investigation.
b) Manipulating share prices and failing to disclose related party transactions.
c) Engaging in insider trading on a massive scale.
d) Hiding income from international business dealings.
Ans (b)
54. What was the Court’s stance on SEBI's investigation into the Adani Group?
a) The Court ordered a new investigation team to handle the matter.
b) The Court directed SEBI to halt the investigation.
c) The Court did not interfere with SEBI’s investigation outcomes.
d) The Court found SEBI’s investigation to be incomplete and unreliable.
Ans (c)

55. What were the Court’s findings on the petitioner’s reliance on the OCCPR
report?
a) The Court found the report to be conclusive proof of SEBI's inaction.
b) The Court rejected the report due to lack of verified authenticity.
c) The Court ordered further investigations based on the OCCPR report.
d) The report was found to be fabricated and unreliable.
Ans (b)
56. When did the Supreme Court deliver its judgment in the Hindenburg Report
case?
a) January 24, 2023
b) February 15, 2023
c) January 3, 2024
d) December 10, 2023
Ans (c)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
57. Under which section of the Companies Act, 2013, was the National Company
Law Tribunal (NCLT) established?
a) Section 409
b) Section 408
c) Section 411
d) Section 410
Ans (b)
58. When did the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) become operational?
a) January 1, 2015
b) June 1, 2016
c) March 31, 2016
d) July 1, 2017
Ans (b)
59. How many initial benches of the NCLT were set up by the Ministry of Corporate
Affairs?
a) 9
b) 12
c) 11
d) 15
Ans (c)

60. Who is the current President of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)?
a) Justice Ashok Bhushan
b) Justice S. Ravindra Bhat
c) Justice Ramalingam Subramanian
d) Chief Justice (Retd) Ramalingam Sudhakar
Ans (d)

61. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013, established the National Company
Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)?
a) Section 409
b) Section 410
c) Section 413
d) Section 408
Ans (b)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
62. Who is the current Chairperson of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
(NCLAT)?
a) Chief Justice (Retd) Ramalingam Sudhakar
b) Hon'ble Justice Shri Ashok Bhushan
c) Justice A.K. Sikri
d) Justice R. Banumathi
Ans (b)
63. Which additional organizations' decisions does NCLAT handle appeals for,
following amendments to the Companies Act and the Finance Act?
a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
b) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India and the Competition Commission of
India (CCI)
c) The Supreme Court
d) The Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Ans (b)
64. What energy source did the Supreme Court judgment emphasize as a priority to
combat the climate emergency?
a) Solar power
b) Wind energy
c) Hydropower
d) Nuclear energy
Ans (a)
65. What solution did the Court suggest to mitigate the environmental impact of
climate change?
a) Transition to biofuels and ethanol-based energy.
b) Adoption of clean energy solutions like solar power.
c) Investing in nuclear energy projects.
d) Reducing urbanization and industrialization.
Ans (b)
66. Who filed the petition that led to the Supreme Court's judgment regarding
climate change and its impact on the right to life?
a) Environmental activists group
b) The Indian National Congress party
c) The Ministry of Environment
d) Wildlife activist MK Ranjitsinh and others
Ans (d)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
67. In which states is the Great Indian Bustard primarily found?
a) Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand
b) Rajasthan and Gujarat
c) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
d) Karnataka and Kerala
Ans (b)
68. On what date did the Supreme Court deliver its judgment regarding the
demonetisation decision?
a) January 2, 2023
b) December 31, 2022
c) January 15, 2023
d) February 1, 2023
Ans (a)
69. What was the Supreme Court's ruling ratio regarding the demonetization
decision?
a) 3:2
b) 4:1
c) 5:0
d) 2:3
Ans (b)
70. What currency denominations were demonetized by the Central Government?
a) Rs 50 and Rs 100 notes
b) Rs 1,000 and Rs 500 notes
c) Rs 10 and Rs 20 notes
d) Rs 2,000 notes
Ans (b)

71. What was the primary action taken by the Supreme Court in relation to the
demonetization decision?
a) Upheld the decision
b) Rejected the decision
c) Called for a review of the decision
d) Recommended amendments to the decision
Ans (a)

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72. What did the Supreme Court clarify regarding the inheritance rights of
daughters under the Hindu Succession Act?
a) Daughters do not have any inheritance rights.
b) Daughters have the right to inherit self-acquired property of a Hindu male
who dies intestate.
c) Daughters can only inherit property if there are no male heirs.
d) Daughters can inherit property only if specified in a will.
Ans (b)

73. How will the self-acquired property of a Hindu male who dies intestate devolve
according to the Supreme Court's ruling?
a) By survivorship to the father's brother's son
b) To the Hindu male's parents
c) To his daughter by inheritance
d) To the government
Ans (c)

74. What was the key conclusion drawn by the Supreme Court in this case?
a) Daughters will inherit self-acquired property rather than it devolving to a male
relative.
b) Daughters cannot inherit self-acquired property at all.
c) Property should be divided equally among all male relatives.
d) Self-acquired property cannot be inherited by anyone.
Ans (a)
75. What does the ruling signify for the rights of daughters in Hindu families?
a) Daughters have limited rights compared to sons.
b) Daughters have no rights in ancestral property.
c) Daughters have equal rights to inherit self-acquired property.
d) Daughters can only inherit property with prior consent from male relatives.
Ans (c)
76. When did the Supreme Court deliver its verdict regarding the abrogation of
Article 370?
a) November 15, 2023
b) December 5, 2023
c) December 11, 2023
d) January 1, 2024
Ans (c)

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77. What did the Court find regarding the President’s 2019 orders related to Article
370?
a) They were made under duress.
b) They violated the Constitution.
c) There was no prima facie case of mala fide or extraneous exercise of power.
d) They were influenced by external factors.
Ans (c)

78. How did the Supreme Court characterize the reorganization of Jammu and
Kashmir into Union Territories?
a) As a temporary move.
b) As a permanent change.
c) As a necessary evil.
d) As a constitutional mandate.
Ans (a)

79. Under which Act was the Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI)
established?
a) Companies Act, 1956
b) Company Secretaries Act, 1980
c) Companies Act, 2013
d) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
Ans (b)

80. Who is the current President of ICSI for the year 2024?
a) CS Dhananjay Shukla
b) CS B. Narasimhan
c) CS Rajesh Kumar
d) CS Anita Singh
Ans (b)

81. Who is the current Vice President of ICSI for the year 2024?
a) CS Dhananjay Shukla
b) CS B. Narasimhan
c) CS Rajesh Kumar
d) CS Anita Singh
Ans (a)

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82. Where is the headquarters of the Institute of Company Secretaries of India
located?
a) Mumbai
b) Chennai
c) New Delhi
d) Kolkata
Ans (c)
83. How many members and students does ICSI currently have approximately?
a) 50,000 members and 200,000 students
b) 72,000 members and 200,000 students
c) 72,000 members and 150,000 students
d) 60,000 members and 250,000 students
Ans (b)
84. Which of the following countries does not have an ICSI Overseas Centre?
a) Australia
b) Canada
c) Singapore
d) Germany
Ans (d)
85. How many international centres does ICSI have as mentioned?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Ans (b)
86. What was the theme of the 2nd National Women’s Conference held in
Bengaluru?
a) Empowering Women Entrepreneurs
b) Women in Leadership Roles
c) Inspire Women Leadership - Accelerate Progress
d) Celebrating Women in Business
Ans (c)
87. When was the 3rd International Conference hosted by ICSI in Singapore?
a) April 1-2, 2024
b) April 3-4, 2024
c) April 5-6, 2024
d) April 7-8, 2024 Ans (c)

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88. What date marked the 55th Foundation Day Celebrations of ICSI?
a) October 4, 2023
b) October 5, 2023
c) November 4, 2023
d) December 5, 2023
Ans (a)
89. What was the main theme of the 3rd International Conference in Singapore?
a) Economic Growth in Asia
b) Building Resilient & Sustainable Economies
c) Innovation in Business Practices
d) Corporate Governance
Ans (b)
90. On which dates was the 2nd National Women’s Conference held in Bengaluru?
a) March 20-21, 2024
b) March 22-23, 2024
c) March 24-25, 2024
d) March 26-27, 2024
Ans (b)
91. Who graced the 55th Foundation Day Celebrations of ICSI?
a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
b) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
c) Smt. Droupadi Murmu
d) Both a & c
Ans (d)
92. When was the Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) setup?
a) October 4, 1965
b) October 4, 1968
c) October 4, 1971
d) October 4, 1981
Ans (b)
93. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the 3rd International
Conference?
a) Celebrating ICSI's anniversary
b) Addressing challenges in achieving sustainable economies
c) Launching new policies by the government
d) Promoting individual companies
Ans (b)

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94. What is the primary focus of the first ICSI International ADR Centre inaugurated
in Noida?
a) Promote Company Secretaries' roles
b) Conduct corporate training
c) Promote ADR methods
d) Facilitate government contracts
Ans (c)

95. When was the first International ADR Centre inaugurated in Noida?
a) February 28, 2024
b) February 29, 2024
c) March 1, 2024
d) February 20, 2024
Ans (b)

96. At which event was the resolution on promoting sustainable lifestyles adopted?
a) COP26
b) United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA)
c) G20 Summit
d) World Economic Forum
Ans (b)

97. When did the Sixth Session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA)
take place?
a) January 15 - 20, 2024
b) February 26 - March 1, 2024
c) March 5 - 10, 2024
d) February 20 - 25, 2024
Ans (b)
98. Where was the UNEA's Sixth Session held?
a) Nairobi, Kenya
b) New York, USA
c) Paris, France
d) New Delhi, India
Ans (a)

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99. What is the initial focus of the Green Credit Programme (GCP)?
a) Urban afforestation
b) Voluntary tree plantation on degraded and wasteland
c) Carbon credit trading
d) Renewable energy projects
Ans (b)
100. Which organization is designated as the GCP administrator?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Central Pollution Control Board
c) National Biodiversity Authority
d) ICFRE
Ans (d)
101. What is the initial target for reducing emissions intensity of GDP set by India
for 2030?
a) 20-25%
b) 33-35%
c) 40-45%
d) 50%
Ans (b)
102. What updated target was set in August 2022 for reducing GDP emissions
intensity by 2030?
a) 30%
b) 35%
c) 45%
d) 50%
Ans (c)
103. What significant plan did India develop as the first country in the world?
a) National Water Policy
b) National Energy Policy
c) Comprehensive Cooling Action Plan
d) National Forest Policy Ans (c)
104. What percentage reduction in Hydro Chlorofluorocarbon (HCFC) emissions has
India achieved by surpassing the 2020 target?
a) 35%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 44%

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
Ans (d)
105. What percentage of electric power capacity from non-fossil fuels did India
achieve as of October 31, 2023?
a) 40%
b) 38%
c) 43.81%
d) 45%
Ans (c)
106. At which event was the Green Credit Initiative launched?
a) COP 28
b) COP 27
c) COP 26
d) G20 Summit
Ans (a)

107. What is the initial target for reduction of use of fossil fuel for electricity
generation by 2030?
a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 35%
Ans (b)

108. What is the updated target for reduction of use of fossil fuel for electricity
generation by 2030?
a) 60%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 70%
Ans (c)
109. What is one of the key projects under India's Presidency related to land
management?
a) Global Initiative on Soil Health
b) Global Alliance on Land Restoration and Forest Fire Management
c) International Water Conservation Program
d) Global Biodiversity Fund
Ans (b)

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110. What does HLPSRBE stand for in the context of sustainable economies?
a) High-Level Principles for a Sustainable and Resilient Blue/Ocean-based
Economy
b) High-Level Policies for Sustainable Resource Management
c) High-Level Program for Blue Economy Initiatives
d) High-Level Principles for Sustainable Development Goals
Ans (a)

111. What is the Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) comprised of?
a) 20 founding members
b) 40 founding members
c) 30 founding members
d) 50 founding members
Ans (b)

112. How many countries participated in the mega beach cleaning event organized
under India's Presidency?
a) 15 countries
b) 20 countries
c) 25 countries
d) 18 countries
Ans (d)

113. What issue does embracing a circular economy primarily aim to tackle?
a) Economic growth at any cost
b) Overpopulation
c) Resource scarcity and environmental degradation
d) Global trade restrictions
Ans (c)
114. What organization introduced the Corporate Governance Charter for startups?
a) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI)
b) National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM)
c) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Ans (c)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
115. What is a key feature of the Corporate Governance Charter for startups?
a) Mandatory registration with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
b) An online self-evaluative governance scorecard
c) Government grants for startups
d) Tax incentives for compliance
Ans (b)
116. What is the purpose of the online self-evaluative governance scorecard
included in the Corporate Governance Charter?
a) To assess market trends
b) To measure and improve governance practices over time
c) To evaluate financial performance
d) To track employee performance
Ans (b)
117. Where was the COP28 UN Climate Change Conference held?
a) Paris, France
b) New York, USA
c) Dubai, UAE
d) Tokyo, Japan
Ans (c)
118. How many participants attended the COP28 conference?
a) Around 50,000
b) Around 85,000
c) Around 100,000
d) Around 75,000
Ans (b)
119. What is the primary goal of the Paris Agreement?
a) To limit global warming to well below 2°C
b) To eliminate fossil fuels by 2030
c) To support technological advancements
d) To create financial aid programs Ans (a)
120. What is the future limit set under the Paris Agreement with respect to global
warming?
a) 0.5°C
b) 1°C
c) 1.8°C
d) 1.5°C
Ans (d)

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121. What significant event marked the conclusion of COP28?
a) The signing of a new treaty
b) The opening of a new office
c) The first 'global stocktake' under the Paris Agreement
d) The establishment of a new organization
Ans (c)
122. Which of the following was a major outcome of COP28?
a) Creation of a new carbon tax
b) Approval of the Loss and Damage Fund
c) Agreement to cease all fossil fuel use
d) Establishment of a new environmental organization
Ans (b)
123. How much funding has been pledged for the Loss and Damage Fund so far?
a) Around USD 700 million
b) Around USD 1 billion
c) Around USD 500 million
d) Around USD 300 million
Ans (a)
124. Which countries have announced financial contributions to the Santiago
Network?
a) India, UK and Brazil
b) Canada, Japan, Spain, Switzerland, and the USA
c) Australia, Pakistan and New Zealand
d) South Africa, West Indies and Mexico
Ans (b)
125. When did COP28 take place?
a) November 1-15, 2023
b) December 1-15, 2023
c) November 30 - December 13, 2023
d) November 25 - December 13, 2023
Ans (c)
126. What did the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration highlight as necessary for
effective climate action by 2030?
a) Use of only renewable energy
b) Trillions of dollars in climate finance
c) Ban on fossil fuels
d) New global energy sources

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
Ans (b)

127. Who emphasized the importance of a steady flow of climate finance from
developed nations at the G20?
a) The Prime Minister of India
b) The President of India
c) The Finance Minister of India
d) The Union Minister of Environment
Ans (a)

128. Until when has the Rooftop Solar Programme been extended?
a) March 31, 2024
b) March 31, 2025
c) March 31, 2026
d) March 31, 2027
Ans (c)

129. Who can benefit from subsidies under the Rooftop Solar Programme?
a) Industrial consumers
b) Residential consumers
c) Commercial consumers
d) Agricultural consumers
Ans (b)
130. Which ministry is responsible for implementing the Rooftop Solar Programme?
a) Ministry of Power
b) Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change
c) Ministry of Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Ans (b)

131. What is the name of the first lunar railway system NASA plans to build?
a) MOONRAIL
b) FLOAT
c) LUNATRACK
d) ASTRO-TRAIN
Ans (b)

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132. What does the acronym FLOAT stand for in NASA's lunar railway project?
a) Flexible Levitation on a Track
b) Fast Lunar Orbital Automated Transport
c) Functional Lift for Operational Astronaut Tasks
d) Flexible Load and Transport
Ans (a)

133. What is one optional feature that the track of the FLOAT system can include
for power generation?
a) Wind turbines
b) Thin-film solar panels
c) Nuclear reactors
d) Fuel cells
Ans (b)

134. When did NASA announce its plan to build the first lunar railway system,
FLOAT?
a) May 15, 2024
b) May 04, 2024
c) March 14, 2024
d) May 14, 2024
Ans (d)
135. When did India deliver the first batch of BrahMos missiles to the Philippines?
a) April 14, 2024
b) January 22, 2024
c) March 10, 2023
d) April 1, 2023
Ans (a)
136. What is the value of the deal under which India supplied BrahMos missiles to
the Philippines?
a) $250 million
b) $400 million
c) $375 million
d) $500 million
Ans (c)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
137. How many BrahMos missile batteries will India supply to the Philippines?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Ans (b)
138. When did ISRO announce preparations for the Chandrayaan-4 mission?
a) January 8, 2024
b) March 8, 2024
c) February 15, 2024
d) April 2, 2024
Ans (b)
139. What amount did the Union Cabinet approve for the India AI mission?
a) ₹5,000 crore
b) ₹7,500 crore
c) ₹10,300 crore
d) ₹12,000 crore
Ans (c)
140. When did the Union Cabinet approve funds for the India AI mission?
a) March 8, 2024
b) March 7, 2024
c) March 18, 2024
d) May 7, 2024 Ans (b)
141. What is the primary purpose of the Chakshu facility?
a) To provide internet access
b) To allow citizens to report suspected fraud communication
c) To facilitate online payments
d) To offer customer service support
Ans (b)
142. When was the Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP) and Chakshu facility launched?
a) March 4, 2024
b) March 1, 2024
c) March 10, 2024
d) March 15, 2024
Ans (a)

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143. Which portal hosts the Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP) and Chakshu facility?
a) e-Governance Portal
b) Sanchar Saathi portal
c) Digital India Portal
d) MyGov Portal
Ans (b)
144. When was Chandrayaan-3 launched?
a) July 14, 2022
b) August 14, 2023
c) July 14, 2024
d) July 14, 2023
Ans (d)
145. Which vehicle was used to launch Chandrayaan-3?
a) PSLV
b) GSLV
c) LVM3
d) RLV
Ans (c)
146. From which location was Chandrayaan-3 launched?
a) Thumba
b) Sriharikota
c) Bengaluru
d) Ahmedabad
Ans (b)
147. What cross-border payment systems were linked between India and
Singapore?
a) India’s RTGS and Singapore’s FAST
b) India’s NEFT and Singapore’s PayNow
c) India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Singapore’s PayNow
d) India’s IMPS and Singapore’s PayNow
Ans (c)

148. What is the primary focus of Google’s Anti-Misinformation Campaign in India?

a) Promoting social media platforms
b) Preventing misleading information that incites violence
c) Enhancing digital advertising
d) Supporting online gaming communities Ans (b)

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149. At which airports was the DigiYatra facility initially launched?
a) Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata
b) New Delhi, Varanasi, and Bengaluru
c) Hyderabad, Jaipur, and Pune
d) Ahmedabad, Chandigarh, and Cochin
Ans (b)

150. Which additional airports are planned for expansion of the DigiYatra facility?
a) Jaipur, Pune, and Ahmedabad
b) Vijayawada, Kolkata, Hyderabad, and Pune
c) Chandigarh, Cochin, and Bhubaneswar
d) Surat, Agra, and Dehradun
Ans (b)

151. When were 5G services officially launched in India?

a) August 15, 2022
b) November 1, 2022
c) October 1, 2022
d) December 5, 2022
Ans (c)

152. What does IMEI stand for?

a) International Mobile Equipment Identifier
b) Indian Mobile Equipment Identification
c) International Mobile Electronic Identifier
d) Indian Mobile Equipment Identifier
Ans (a)

153. When did the Indian government mandate the registration of IMEI numbers for
mobile phones?
a) September 27, 2022
b) March 1, 2023
c) December 31, 2022
d) January 1, 2023
Ans (d)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
154. What is the primary aim of mandating the registration of IMEI numbers?
a) To increase mobile phone prices
b) To combat counterfeit devices and block lost handsets
c) To promote international mobile sales
d) To enhance mobile phone features
Ans (b)

155. What does NITI Aayog stand for?

a) National Institute for Technological Innovations
b) National Institute for Transforming India
c) National Institute for Technical Integration
d) National Institute for Trade and Industry
Ans (b)

156. Who launched the G20 report titled "A Green and Sustainable Growth Agenda
for the Global Economy"?
a) Shri Amit Shah
b) Shri Bhupendra Yadav
c) Shri Narendra Modi
d) Shri Piyush Goyal
Ans (b)

157. When was the G20 report launched by NITI Aayog?*

a) December 1, 2023
b) December 10, 2023
c) December 20, 2023
d) December 30, 2023
Ans (c)

158. Which organizations collaborated on the G20 report launched by NITI Aayog?
a) Ministry of Environment and Climate Change
b) International Development Research Centre (IDRC)
c) Global Development Network (GDN)
d) Both (b) & (c)
Ans (d)

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 LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS
159. To which authority did the Ministry submit the proposal for MISHTI funds?
a) Ministry of Environment and Forests
b) National CAMPA Authority
c) Ministry of Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Finance
Ans (b)

160. What is the total project outlay proposed under the MISHTI funds for FY
2023-24?
a) Rs. 50 crores
b) Rs. 75 crores
c) Rs. 100 crores
d) Rs. 150 crores
Ans (c)
161. What does MISHTI stand for?
a) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes
b) Mission for Integrated and Sustainable Habitat
c) Mission for Integrated and Sustainable Development
d) Mission for Innovative Solutions in Health and Technology
Ans (a)
162. How many Blue Flag-certified beaches did India have in 2014?
a) 0
b) 5
c) 8
d) 10
Ans (a)
163. How many Blue Flag beaches were certified in India by the year 2020?
a) 6
b) 10
c) 8
d) 12
Ans (c)
164. By 2022, the number of Blue Flag-certified beaches in India increased to:
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
Ans (b)

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165. By what year does Apple aim for 95% of its supply chain to commit to using
100% renewable energy?
a) 2025
b) 2027
c) 2030
d) 2032
Ans (c)
166. What percentage of Apple's supply chain is expected to use 100% renewable
energy by 2030?
a) 80%
b) 85%
c) 95%
d) 100%
Ans (c)
167. How many suppliers are represented in Apple's supply chain commitment to
renewable energy?
a) Over 250
b) Over 320
c) Over 350
d) Over 400
Ans (b)
168. What is the main focus of Apple's commitment regarding its supply chain?
a) Transitioning to renewable energy
b) Reducing product prices
c) Increasing manufacturing speed
d) Expanding product lines
Ans (a)

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 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY

CHAPTER 5 | BUSINESS AND ECONOMY

1. What is the primary purpose of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs)?
a) To reduce or eliminate customs tariffs
b) To increase customs tariffs
c) To restrict trade between countries
d) To impose trade barriers
Ans (a)

2. Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) are arrangements between how many entities?
a) Only two countries
b) Two or more countries or trading blocs
c) Only trading blocs
d) Only neighboring countries
Ans (b)

3. Which of the following is NOT a goal of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs)?

a) To increase customs tariffs
b) To reduce customs tariffs
c) To promote exports
d) To promote trade between countries
Ans (a)
4. Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) usually cover trade in which of the following?
a) Services only
b) Currency exchange
c) Specific goods only
d) Intellectual property rights
Ans (c)

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 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY

5. Which of the following is typically included in FTAs?

a) Agricultural Products
b) Real estate
c) Legal services
d) Military equipment
Ans (a)
6. India signed the TEPA in 2024 with EFTA, which consists of Switzerland, Iceland,
Norway, and:
a) Finland
b) Denmark
c) Sweden
d) Liechtenstein
Ans (d)
7. What does TEPA stand for?
a) Trade and Environmental Partnership Agreement
b) Technology and Economic Policy Agreement
c) Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement
d) Transport and Energy Partnership Agreement
Ans (c)
8. In addition to non-agricultural products, what other types of products are
covered under the TEPA agreement?
a) Digital services
b) Energy resources
c) Agricultural and gold products
d) Pharmaceuticals only
Ans (c)

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 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
9. Which two organizations signed an MoU to reduce CO2 emissions in aviation?
a) United Nations and International Maritime Organization
b) World Health Organization and Airbus
c) International Solar Alliance and International Civil Aviation Organization
d) European Union and Boeing
Ans (c)

10. Which sector is targeted by the MoU signed between the International Solar
Alliance and ICAO?
a) Shipping industry
b) Aviation sector
c) Railways
d) Automobile industry
Ans (b)

11. Which company is involved in the $34 billion deal alongside Air India?
a) Airbus
b) Lockheed Martin
c) Boeing
d) Raytheon
Ans (c)
12. How much is the deal between Air India and Boeing worth?
a) $20 billion
b) $34 billion
c) $50 billion
d) $15 billion
Ans (b)

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 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
13. How many aircraft will Air India purchase from Boeing?
a) 220
b) 180
c) 150
d) 300
Ans (a)
14. What type of deal did President Joe Biden describe as historic?
a) A technology partnership
b) A military agreement
c) A purchase agreement between Air India and Boeing
d) A trade agreement
Ans (c)
15. What is the significance of the deal between Air India and Boeing as noted by
US President Joe Biden?
a) It focuses on military cooperation
b) It represents a major investment in aviation
c) It aims to reduce travel costs
d) It emphasizes environmental sustainability
Ans (b)

16. Which two countries are involved in the agreement to enhance airline
connectivity?
a) India and Canada
b) India and Brazil
c) India and the United States
d) India and Guyana
Ans (d)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
17. The agreement between India and Guyana aims to enhance:
a) Connectivity and provide commercial opportunities for airlines
b) Agricultural trade only
c) Military collaboration
d) Educational exchange programs
Ans (a)
18. Which agreement aims to strengthen economic ties between India and
Australia?
a) Australia-India Free Trade Agreement
b) India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement
c) Indo-Pacific Trade Agreement
d) India-Australia Investment Treaty
Ans (b)
19. Which two countries are involved in the Economic Cooperation and Trade
Agreement?
a) India and Australia
b) India and New Zealand
c) Australia and Canada
d) India and the United Kingdom
Ans (a)
20. Which two entities are involved in the Trade and Technology Council
mentioned?
a) India and the United States
b) European Union and India
c) Australia and India
d) European Union and Japan
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
21. What does the foreign trade policy emphasize for enhancing exports?
a) Creating District Export Hubs (DEH)
b) Increasing tariffs on imports
c) Reducing production costs
d) Promoting domestic consumption
Ans (a)

22. The District Export Hubs (DEH) aim to assist:

a) Large multinational companies
b) Local vendors in the district
c) Foreign investors
d) Government agencies
Ans (b)

23. The initiative to promote exports at the district level primarily involves which
level of government?
a) District 9
b) Local municipalities
c) State government
d) International organizations.
Ans (c)
24. The goal of establishing District Export Hubs (DEH) is to:
a) Limit exports to foreign countries
b) Enhance exports at the district level
c) Increase imports from other countries
d) Promote only agricultural exports
Ans (b)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
25. Who launched the "E-Commerce Exports Handbook for MSMEs"?
a) Shri Narendra Modi
b) Shri Piyush Goyal
c) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
d) Shri Amit Shah
Ans (b)
26. The "E-Commerce Exports Handbook for MSMEs" aims to serve as a:
a) Definitive guide for MSMEs
b) Marketing tool for large corporations
c) Financial report for investors
d) Regulatory framework for e-commerce
Ans (a)

27. What is the purpose of the "E-Commerce Exports Handbook for MSMEs"?
a) To restrict e-commerce activities
b) To guide MSMEs in harnessing e-commerce platforms for expanding their
exports
c) To promote only domestic sales
d) To provide tax incentives for e-commerce
Ans (b)

28. Which organization prepared the "E-Commerce Exports Handbook for MSMEs"?
a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
b) Export Promotion Council
c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
Ans (d)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
29. What recent amendment has the Government of India made to the Foreign
Trade Policy?
a) To increase export tariffs
b) To allow rupee settlement for international trade in exports
c) To restrict imports
d) To eliminate all trade agreements
Ans (b)
30. This amendment to the Foreign Trade Policy is aimed at benefiting which of the
following?
a) Only large corporations
b) Exporters engaged in international trade
c) Importers only
d) Government agencies
Ans (b)
31. The National Level Multi-State Cooperative Export Society is intended to focus
on:
a) Domestic consumer markets
b) Export-related schemes and policies
c) Financial aid for urban development
d) Agricultural production only
Ans (b)
32. Who approved the establishment of National Level Multi-State Cooperative
Export Society?
a) Respective State Governments
b) Local Authorities
c) Panchayats
d) Union Cabinet
Ans (d)
[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
33. Which ministry has developed a strategy to promote Indian millets exports?
a) Ministry of Agriculture
b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
c) Ministry of Food Processing
d) Ministry of Finance
Ans (b)

34. The initiative to promote Indian millets exports focuses on:

a) Increasing domestic consumption
b) Expanding exports to various countries
c) Limiting exports to neighboring countries
d) Reducing production costs
Ans (b)

35. What does ODOP stand for in the context of the initiative?
a) One District One Project
b) One District One Program
c) One District One Product
d) One District One Partnership
Ans (c)

36. The ODOP initiative has been integrated with which initiative?
a) Districts as Export Hubs (DEH)
b) Districts for Domestic Production
c) Districts for Local Markets
d) Districts for International Trade
Ans (a)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
37. What is the primary aim of the One District One Product (ODOP) initiative?
a) To reduce import reliance
b) To unlock the economic potential of districts
c) To limit product diversity
d) To focus solely on urban development
Ans (b)

38. The ODOP initiative is designed to foster:

a) Urban migration
b) Growth, employment generation, and rural entrepreneurship
c) Exclusively industrial development
d) High-tech exports
Ans (b)

39. The ODOP initiative aligns with which national vision?

a) Digital India
b) Aatmanirbhar Bharat
c) Make in India
d) Skill India
Ans (b)

40. The ODOP initiative aims to promote which type of entrepreneurship?

a) Urban entrepreneurship
b) Global entrepreneurship
c) Rural entrepreneurship
d) Digital entrepreneurship
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
41. Who is the chairman of HDFC Life Insurance Company Limited?
a) Amitabh Chaudhry
b) R. Venkataramani
c) Sanjaya Kumar Mishra
d) Keki Mistry
Ans (d)
42. Who is the CEO of Oxford University?
a) Sanjaya Kumar Mishra
b) Meghana Pandit
c) R. Venkataramani
d) Anil Chauhan
Ans (b)
43. Who is the President of the GST Appellate Tribunal?
a) R. Venkataramani
b) Sanjaya Kumar Mishra
c) Justice Dinesh Kumar
d) Justice Ritu Awasthi
Ans (b)
44. Who is the current Attorney-General for India?
a) R. Venkataramani
b) Keki Mistry
c) Justice Dinesh Kumar
d) Anil Chauhan
Ans (a)
45. Who is the current Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India?
a) Justice Dinesh Kumar Sharma
b) Lieutenant General Anil Chauhan

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs
 BUSINESS AND ECONOMY
c) R. Venkataramani
d) Sanjaya Kumar Mishra
Ans (b)
46. Who is the officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)?
a) Justice Ritu Awasthi
b) Justice Dinesh Kumar
c) Anil Chauhan
d) Neal Mohan
Ans (b)
47. Who chairs the Law Commission of India?
a) Justice Dinesh Kumar Sharma
b) Justice Ritu Awasthi
c) Keki Mistry
d) R. Venkataramani
Ans (b)
48. Who is the Presiding Officer of the UAPA Tribunal?
a) Justice Dinesh Kumar Sharma
b) Anil Chauhan
c) Sanjaya Kumar Mishra
d) Neal Mohan
Ans (a)
49. Who is the CEO of YouTube?
a) Susan Wojcicki
b) R. Venkataramani
c) Neal Mohan
d) Keki Mistry
Ans (c)

[DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA

BUSINESS AND ECONOMY Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs