VITEEE

SOLVED PAPER 2006

4. A current of 5A is passing through a metallic

PART - I (PHYSICS) wire of cross-sectional area 4 × 10–6m2. If the
density of the charge carriers in the wire is 5 ×
1 A potential difference of 300 V is applied to a 1026m–3, the drift speed of the electrons will be
combination of 2.0µF and 8.0 µF capacitors [e = 1.602 × 10–19C]
connected in series. The charge on the 2.0µF (a) 1.56×10–2ms–1 (b) 1.98×10–2ms–1
(c) 2.42×10–2ms–1 (d) 2.84×10–2ms–1
capacitor is
5. The series combination of two capacitors shown
(a) 2.4 × 10–4C (b) 4.8 × 10–4C in figure is connected across 1000V. The
(c) 7.2 × 10 C–4 (d) 9.6 × 10–4 C magnitude of the charges on the capacitors will
2. Two point charges 4 C and – 2 C are separated be
by a distance of 1 m in air. Then the distance of + – + –
+ –
the point on the line joining the charges, where
3pF 6pF
the resultant electric field is zero, is (in metre)
(a) 0.58 (b) 0.75
(c) 0.67 (d) 0.81 1000V
3. Figure shows a triangular array of three point
(a) 3 × 10–9 C (b) 2 × 10–9 C
charges. The electric potential V of these source
(c) 2.5 × 10–9 C (d) 3.5 × 10–9 C
charges at the midpoint P of the base of the 6. Three resistances of values 2 , 3 and 6 are
triangle is to be connected to produce an effective
resistance of 4 . This can be done by
1
9 109 Nm 2 C 2 connecting
4 0 (a) 6 resistance in series with the parallel
combination of 2 and 3
(b) 3 resistance in series with the parallel
–6 combination of 2 and 6
q3 = 3 × 10 C
(c) 2 resistance in series with the parallel
combination of 3 and 6
(d) 2 resistance in parallel with the parallel
combination of 3 and 6
7. The resistance of a field coil measures 50 at
20ºC and 65 at 70ºC. The temperature
0.300 m coefficient of resistance is
(a) 0.0086/ºC (b) 0.0068/ºC
–6 –6 (c) 0.0096/ºC (d) 0.0999/ºC
q1 = 1 × 10 C q2 = –2 × 10 C
0.200 m P 0.200 m 8. The electrolyte used in Lechlanche cell is
(a) copper sulphate solution
(b) ammonium chloride solution
(a) 55kV (b) 45kV (c) dilute sulphuric acid
(c) 63kV (d) 49kV (d) zinc sulphate
9. A galvanometer has a resistance of 50 . If a 17. Our eyes respond to wavelengths ranging from
resistance of 1 is connected across its (a) 400 nm to 700 nm
terminals, the total current flow through the (b) 700 nm to 800 nm
galvanometer is [Ig represents the maximum (c) 0 to
current that can be passed through the (d) – to +
galvanometer] 18. A new system of units is evolved in which the
(a) 42 Ig (b) 53 Ig values of 0 and 0are 2 and 8 respectively. Then
(c) 46 Ig (d) 51 Ig
the speed of light in this system will be
10. In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 1A
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
produces a deflection of 30º. The current required
(c) 0.75 (d) 1
to produce a deflection of 60º is
(a) 3A (b) 2A 19. A ray of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle
(c) 4A (d) 1A of incidence of 60º and the reflected beam is
11. In the presence of magnetic field ‘B’ and electric completely plane polarised. The refractive index
field ‘E’, the total force on a moving charged of glass is
particle is (a) 2 3 (b) 3
(a) F v[(q B) E]
3 1
(b) (c) (d)
F q[(v E) B] 2 2
(c) F q[(v B) E] 20. In an experiment on Newton’s rings, the diameter
of the 20th dark ring was found to be 5.82mm and
(d) F B[(q E) v] that of the 10th ring 3.36 mm. If the radius of the
12. A circular coil of radius 40 mm consists of 250 plano-convex lens is 1 m, the wavelength of light
turns of wire in which the current is 20mA. The used is
magnetic field in the center of the coil is (a) 5646 Aº (b) 5896 Aº
[ = 4 × 10–7 Hm–1] (c) 5406 Aº (d) 5900 Aº
(a) 0.785 G (b) 0.525 G 21. What is the angular momentum of an electron in
(c) 0.629 G (d) 0.900 G the fourth orbit of Bohr’s model of hydrogen
13. RMS value of AC is _______ of the peak value. atom?
(a) 7% (b) 7.7%
(c) 70% (d) 70.7% h 2h
(a) (b)
14. Q-factor can be increased by having a coil of 2
(a) large inductance, small ohmic resistance
(b) large inductance, large ohmic resistance h
(c) h (d)
(c) small inductance, large ohmic resistance 4
(d) small inductance, small ohmic resistance 22. The transition of an electrom from n2 = 5,6, ..........
15. A small piece of metal wire is dragged across the to n1 = 4 gives rise to
gap between the pole pieces of a magnet in 0.5 (a) Pfund series (b) Lyman series
second. The magnetic flux between the pole (c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series
pieces is known to be 8 × 10–4 Wb. The emf 23. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –
induced in the wire is
13.6 eV. What is the potential energy of the
(a) 16 m V (b) 1.6 V
electron in this state?
(c) 1.6 m V (d) 16V
(a) –27.2 eV (b) –13.6 eV
16. Current in the LCR circuit becomes extremely
large when (c) +13.6 eV (d) 0 eV
(a) frequency of AC supply is increased 24. The longest wavelength that can be analysed
(b) frequency of AC supply is decreased by a sodium chloride crystal of spacing d = 2.82
(c) inductive reactance becomes equal to Aº in the second order is
capacitive reactance (a) 2.82 Aº (b) 5.64 Aº
(d) inductance becomes equal to capacitance (c) 8.46 Aº (d) 11.28 Aº
25. Which is the incorrect statement of the 33. When the conductivity of a semiconductor is
following? only due to the breaking up of the covalent
(a) Photon is a particle with zero rest mass bonds, the semiconductor is known as
(b) Photon is a particle with zero momentum (a) donor (b) extrinsic
(c) Photons travel with velocity of light in (c) intrinsic (d) acceptor
vacuum 34. In a P-type semiconductor, the acceptor impurity
(d) Photons even feel the pull of gravity produces an energy level
26. The deBroglie wavelength associated with a (a) just below the valence band
steel ball of mass 1000 gm moving at a speed of (b) just above the conduction band
1 ms–1 is [h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js] (c) just below the conduction band
(a) 6.626 × 10–31m (b) 6.626 × 10–37m (d) just above the valence band
(c) 6.626 × 10–34m (d) 6.626 × 1034m 35. An oscillator is essentially
27. The velocity v, at which the mass of a particle is (a) an amplifier with proper negative feedback
double its rest mass is network circuits
(b) converts alternating current into direct
3 current
(a) v = c (b) v c
4 (c) an amplifier with no feedback network
(d) an amplifier with proper positive feedback
3 network circuits
(c) v c (d) v = 2c 36. Which of the following gates can perform perfect
2
binary addition?
28. How much energy is produced, if 2 kg of a
(a) AND gate (b) OR gate
substance is fully converted into energy?
(c) EXOR gate (d) NAND gate
[c = 3 × 108 ms–1]
37. The frequency of an FM transmitter without
(a) 9 × 1016 J (b) 11 × 1016 J
signal input is called
(c) 15 × 1016 J (d) 18 × 1016 J (a) the centre frequency
29. The difference between the rest mass of the (b) modulation factor
nucleus and the sum of the masses of the (c) the frequency deviation
nucleons composing a nucleus is known as (d) the carrier swing
(a) packing fraction (b) mass defect 38. The fundamental radio antenna is a metal rod
(c) binding energy (d) isotopic mass which has a length equal to
30. The half life period of Radium is 3 minute. Its (a) in free space at the frequency of operation
mean life time is
3 (b) in free space at the frequency of
(a) 1.5 minute (b) minute 2
0.6931 operation

(c) 6 minute (d) (3 × 0.6931) minute (c) in free space at the frequency of
31. ‘Pair production’ involves conversion of a 4
photon into operation
(a) a neutron-electron pair 3
(b) a positron-neutron pair (d) in free space at the frequency of
4
(c) an electron-proton pair operation
(d) an electron-positron pair 39. Vidicon works on the principle of
32. The sub atomic particles proton and neutron fall (a) electrical conductivity
under the group of (b) photoconductivity
(a) mesons (b) photons (c) thermal conductivity
(c) leptons (d) baryons (d) SONAR
40. The maximum range, dmax, of radar is 49. How many lattice points belong to a face
(a) proportional to the cube root of the peak centered cubic unit cell?
transmitted power (a) 1 (b) 2
(b) proportional to the fourth root of the peak (c) 4 (d) 3
transmitted power 50. Schottky defect in solids is due to
(a) a pair of cation and anion vacancies
(c) proportional to the square root of the peak
(b) occupation of interstitial site by a pair of
transmitted power
cation and anion
(d) not related to the peak transmitted power (c) occupation of interstitial site by a cation
at all (d) occupation of interstitial site by an anion
51. Which one of the following is amorphous?
PART - II (CHEMISTRY) (a) Polystyrene (b) Table salt
(c) Silica (d) Diamond
41. The equivalent weight of potassium 52. The metal that crystallises in simple cubic system
permanganate when it acts as oxidising agent in is
ferrous ion estimation is (a) Po (b) Na
(c) Cu (d) Ag
(a) 158 (b) 31.6
53. When ideal gas expands in vacuum, the work
(c) 79 (d) 39.5 done by the gas is equal to
42. The magnetic moment of lanthanide ions is (a) PV (b) RT
determined from which one of the following (c) 0 (d) nRT
relation? 54. For a closed system consisting of a reaction
(a) n(n 2) (b) g J(J 1) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g), the pressure
(a) remains constant (b) decreases
(c) g n(n 1) (d) 2 n(n 1) (c) increases (d) becomes zero
55. 6 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and
43. Which one of the following has maximum number
reversibly from a volume of 1 litre to a volume of
of unpaired electrons? 10 litres at 27ºC. What is the maximum work
(a) Mg2+ (b) Ti3+ done?
(c) V 3+ (d) Fe2+ (a) 47 kJ (b) 100 kJ
44. Excess of NaOH reacts with Zn to form (c) 0 (d) 34.465 kJ
(a) ZnH2 (b) Na2ZnO2 56. The reaction,
(c) ZnO (d) Zn(OH)2 Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) is an
45. How many isomers does Co(en)2Cl2+ have? example of a
(a) 1 (b) 3 (a) spontaneous process
(c) 2 (d) 4 (b) isobaric process
46. NH3 group in a coordination compound is named (c) non-spontaneous process
as (d) reversible process
(a) ammonium (b) ammine 57. For the reaction, H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI (g)
(c) amine (d) ammonia (a) Kp = –Kc (b) Kc = 0
47. Name the complex Ni(PF3)4 (c) Kp = Kc (d) Kp = 0
(a) tetrakis (phosphorus (III) fluoride) nickel 58. The increase of pressure on ice water at a
(0) constant temperature will cause
(b) tetra (phosphorus (III) fluoride) nickel (a) water to vaporize (b) water to freeze
(c) Nickel tetrakis phosphorus (III) fluoride (c) no change (d) ice to melt
(d) (phosphorus (III) tetrakis fluoride) nickel 59. The order of the reaction
(0) 1
N2O5 N2O4(g) + O (g) is
48. The purple colour of KMnO4 is due to 2 2
(a) charge transfer (b) d-d transition (a) 3 (b) 2
(c) f-f transition (d) d-f transition (c) 1 (d) 0
60. The reactions with low activation energy are 68. Which one of the following products obtained
always when diethyl ether is boiled with water in
(a) adiabatic presence of dilute acid?
(b) slow (a) Glycol (b) Ethy1 alcohol
(c) non-spontaneous (c) Ethylene oxide (d) Peroxide
(d) fast 69. Identify the product for the following reaction
61. For a cell reaction to be spontaneous, the O
standard free energy change of the reaction must CH2OH HCl
be CH3–C–CH3 + ?
CH2OH
(a) zero (b) positive
(c) infinite (d) negative CH 3
62. Equivalent conductance of an electrolyte COOH
(a) CH3–CHOH +
containing NaF at infinite dilution is 90.1 COOH
Ohm–1cm2. If NaF is replaced by KF what is the
value of equivalent conductance? H3C O–CH2
(b) C
(a) 90.1 Ohm–1cm2 (b) 111.2 Ohm–1cm2 H3C O–CH2
(c) 0 (d) 222.4 Ohm–1cm2
63. The tendencies of the electrodes made up of Cu, H3C
C–OH
Zn and Ag to release electrons when dipped in H3C
their respective salt solutions decrease in the (c) CH3–CHOH
order (d) No reaction
(a) Zn > Ag > Cu (b) Cu > Zn > Ag 70. What is the reaction of acetaldehyde with
(c) Zn > Cu > Ag (d) Ag > Cu > Zn concentrated sulphuric acid?
64. The electrode reaction that takes place at the (a) No reaction
anode of CH4 – O2 fuel cell is (b) Decomposition
(a) 2O2 + 8H+ + 8e– 4H2O (c) Charred to black residue
(b) CH4 + 2H2O CO2 + 8H+ + 8e– (d) Polymerisation
(c) CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O 71. Calcium Acetate on heating under distillation
(d) 2H+ + 2e– H2 gives
65. What is the hybridization of oxygen atom in an (a) Acetaldehyde and Calcium Oxide
alcohol molecule? (b) Calcium Carbonate and Acetic acid
(a) sp 3 (b) sp (c) Acetone and Calcium Carbonate
(c) sp 2 (d) p 2 (d) Calcium Oxide and CO2
72. Identify the correct statement
O LiAlH 4
66. ? (a) Aldehydes on reduction give secondary
R–C–OH
(a) RCH2CH2OH (b) RCHO alcohols
(c) RCOR (d) RCH2OH (b) Ketones on reduction give primary alcohols
67. Which one of the following is correct? (c) Ketones reduce Fehling’s solution and give
red cuprous oxide
(a) RCH2OH KMnO4 No reaction (d) Ketones do not react with alcohols
Na 2Cr2O7 ,H 2SO4 73. The O – H stretching vibration of alcohols
(b) CH3CH2OH No reaction
absorbs in the region 3700 – 3500 cm–1. The O –
H stretching of carboxylic acids absorb in the
(c) CH3CHO Na 2Cr2O7 ,H 2SO4 No reaction region
(a) 3900 – 3700 cm–1 (b) 3000 – 2500 cm–1
CH3 (c) 3700 – 3500 cm–1 (d) 1700 – 2000 cm–1
(d) CH3–C–OH 74. Which among the following reduces Fehling’s
CH3 solution?
(a) Acetic acid (b) Formic acid
alkaline KMnO 4 No reaction (c) Benzoic acid (d) Salicylic acid
75. Determine the experimental condition for the
x 3 7
following reaction
82. If x = –9 is a root of 2 x 2 0 , then other
COOH
7 6 x
+ CO2
OH OH two roots are
(a) 3, 7 (b) 2, 7
(a) in presence of KOH
(c) 3, 6 (d) 2, 6
(b) on heating 83. The values of for which the system of equation
(c) in presence of NaOH x + y + z = 1, x + 2y + 4z = , x + 4y + 10z = 2 is
(d) in presence of HCl consistent are given by
76. Which one of the following is an ingredient of (a) 1, –2 (b) –1, 2
Pthalic acid manufacture by catalytic oxidation (c) 1, 2 (d) 1, 1
(a) Benzene (b) Salicylic acid
1 3 2
(c) Anthranilic acid (d) naphthalene
84. Let A 2 5 t , then the values of t
77. On comparison with H C H bond angle of
4 7 t 6
methane, the C N C bond angle of
trimethylamine is for which inverse of A does not exist
(a) higher (b) no change (a) –2, 1 (b) 3, 2
(c) not comparable (d) lower (c) 2, –3 (d) 3, –1
78. The treatment of acylazide (RCON3) with acidic 85. The non integer roots of
or alkaline medium gives x4 3x 3 2x 2 3x 1 0
(a) RCONH2 (b) R – NH2
1 1
(c) RCH2 NH2 (d) RCOCHNH (a) (3 13), (3 13)
2 2
79. The sequence of basic strength of alky1 amines
follows the order 1 1
(b) (3 13), (3 13)
(a) RNH2 < R2NH > R3N 2 2
(b) R2NH2 < R2NH < R3N
1 1
(c) R2NH < RNH2 < R3N (c) (3 17 ), (3 17 )
2 2
(d) RNH2 < R2NH < R3N
80. Activation of benzene ring in aniline can be 1 1
(d) (3 17), (3 17)
decreased by treating with 2 2
(a) dil. HCl (b) ethyl alcohol
(c) acetic acid (d) acetyl chloride 86. If e x y 1 y2 , then the value of y is
1 x x 1 x x
PART - III (MATHEMATICS) (a) (e e ) (b) (e e )
2 2
x x
81. The value of x, for which the matrix x x 2
(c) e e 2(d) e e
87. Consider an infinite geometric series with the
2 first term a and common ratio r. If its sum is 4 and
1 2
x
3
A 1 x 2x 2 is singular, is the second term is , then
4
1
1 2 4 3 3
x (a) a = ,r= (b) a = 2, r =
7 7 8
(a) ±1 (b) ±2 3 1 1
(c) a = ,r= (d) a = 3, r =
(c) ±3 (d) ±4 2 2 4
88. If and are the roots of the equation 95. If sin , cos , tan are in G.P. then cos9 +
ax2 + bx + c = 0, then the value of 3 + 3 is
cos6 + 3cos5 – 1 is equal to
3abc b3 a 3 b3 (a) –1 (b) 0
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
a3 3abc
96. If in a triangle ABC,
3 3 5cosC + 6cosB = 4 and 6cosA + 4cosC = 5,
3abc b (3abc b )
(c) (d)
a3
a3 A B
then tan tan is equal to
89. The volume of the tetrahedron with vertices 2 2
P (–1, 2, 0), Q ( 2, 1, –3), R (1, 0, 1) and S (3, –2, 3)
is 2 3
(a) (b)
3 2
1 2
(a) (b) 1
3 3
(c) (d) 5
5
1 3
(c) (d) 97. In a model, it is shown that an arc of a bridge is
4 4 semielliptical with major axis horizontal. If the
90. If a iˆ 2jˆ 3k,
ˆ b ˆi 2jˆ kˆ and length of the base is 9m and the highest part of
the bridge is 3m from horizontal; the best
c 3iˆ ˆj then t such that a tb is at right angle approximation of the height of the arch, 2m from
to c will be equal to the centre of the base is
(a) 5 (b) 4 11 8
(c) 6 (d) 2 (a) m (b) m
4 3
91. An equation of the plane passing through the
line of intersection of the planes x + y + z = 6 and 7
(c) m (d) 2 m
2x + 3y + 4z + 5 = 0 and passing through (1, 1, 1) 2
is 98. The number of real tangents through (3,5) that
(a) 2x + 3y + 4z = 9 (b) x + y + z = 3 can be drawn to the ellipses 3x2 + 5y2 = 32 and
(c) x + 2y + 3z = 6 (d) 20x + 23y + 26z = 69 25x2 + 9y2 = 450 is
92. The length of the shortest distance between the (a) 0 (b) 2
lines r 3iˆ 5jˆ 7kˆ (iˆ 2ˆj k)
ˆ and (c) 3 (d) 4
99. If the normal to the rectangular hyperbola xy =
r ˆi ˆj kˆ (7iˆ 6jˆ k)
ˆ is
c
(a) 83 units (b) 6 units c2 at the point ct, meets the curve again at
t
(c) 3 units (d) 2 29 units
c
93. The region of the argand plane defined by ct ', , then
t'
z i z i 4 is (a) t3t' = 1 (b) t3t' = –1
(a) interior of an ellipse (c) tt' = 1 (d) tt' = –1
(b) exterior of a circle 100. An equilateral triangle is inscribed in the
(c) interior and boundary of an ellipse parabola y2 = 4x one of whose vertex is at the
(d) interior of a parabola vertex of the parabola, the length of each side of
13
the triangle is
94. The value of the sum (i n i n 1 ) where 3 3
n 1 (a) (b) 4
2 2
i 1 equals
(a) i (b) i –1 3
(c) 8 (d) 8 3
(c) – i (d) 0 2
101. If f(2) = 4 and f '(2) = 1,
2
xf (2) 2f (x) 106. The value of the integral log(tan x)dx
then lim is equal to 0
x 2 x 2
(a) 0 (b) 1
1
(a) 0 (b) (c) (d)
2 2 4
(c) 1 (d) 2 107. What is the area of a loop of the curve r = asin3 ?
102. What is the least value of k such that the function a2 a2
x2 + kx + 1 is strictly increasing on (1,2) (a) (b)
6 8
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 2 (d) –2 a2 a2
(c) (d)
12 24
x
1 9
103. The maximum value of is
x 108. The value of the integral e t dt
1
(a) e (b) ee
(a) e 3 (b) 4e3
1 1 (c) 4(e3 – e) (d) 4e3 – 2e
1 e 109. The differential equation that represents all
(c) ee (d)
e parabolas each of which has a latus rectum 4a
and whose axes are parallel to the x – axis is

x 3 y3 d2 y dy
u u (a) 2 0
104. If u = tan –1 x y , then x x y dx 2 dx
y
3
(a) sin 2u (b) cos 2u d2 y dy
(b) 0
(c) sec2 2u (d) tan 2u dx 2 dx
3
x d2 y dy
105. If f ' x and f(0) = 0, then f(x) = (c) a 0
1 x dx 2 dx
3
3 1 d2 y dy
2 (d) 2a 0
(a) (1 x) 2 6(1 x) 2 1 dx 2 dx
3
y
110. The solution of xcosec y dx + xdy = 0
x
3 1
2 is
(b) (1 x) 2 3(1 x) 2 2
3 x
(a) log x cos c
y
3 1 y
2 (b) log x cos c
(c) (1 x) 2 4(1 x) 2 2 x
3
x
(c) log x sin c
y
3 1
2
(d) (1 x) 2 3(1 x) 2 1 y
3 (d) log x sin c
x
 117. In rolling two fair dice, what is the probability of
d2 y 2 obtaining a sum greater than 3 but not exceeding
111. The particular integral of 2y x is
dx 2 6?
(a) x2 –1 (b) x2 + 1
1 1
(a) (b)
1 2 1 2 2 3
(c) (x 1) (d) (x 1)
2 2
1 1
112. The solution of (D2 + 16) y = cos4x is (c) (d)
4 6
x
(a) Acos4x + Bsin 4x + sin 4x 2
8 118. Team A has probability of winning whenever
3
x it plays. Suppose A plays four games. What is
(b) Acos4x + Bsin 4x sin 4x
8 the probability that A wins more than half of its
games?
x
(c) Acos4x + Bsin 4x sin 4x
4 16 19
(a) (b)
27 27
x
(d) Acos4x + Bsin 4x sin 4x
4 19 32
(c) (d)
113. Determine which one of the following relations 81 81
on X = {1,2,3,4} is not transitive. 119. An unprepared student takes five-questions of
(a) R1= , the empty relation true-false type quiz and guesses every answer.
(b) R2 = X x X, the universal relation What is the probability that the student will pass
(c) R3 = {(1,3), (2,1)} the quiz if at least four correct answers is the
(d) R4 = {(1,1), (1,2), (2,3), (1,3), (4,4)} passing grade?
114. Find the number of ways in which five large
books, four medium-size books, and three small 1 3
(a) (b)
books can be placed on a shelf so that all books 16 16
of the same size are together.
1 3
(a) 5 × 4 × 3 (b) 5! × 4! × 3! (c) (d)
32 32
(c) 3 × 5! × 4! × 3! (d) 3! × 5! × 4! × 3!
115. Consider the set Q of rational numbers. Let be 120. The probability density f(x) of a continuous
the operation on Q defined by a b = a + b – ab. random variable is given by f(x) =
The identity element under is Ke
x
, x . Then the value of K is
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) not exist 1
(a) (b) 2
116. The statement ~ p q is equivalent to 2
(a) p q (b) ~ p q
1
(c) ~p ~q (d) p ~q (c) (d) 4
4
 2006 SOLUTIONS

PART - I (PHYSICS) 3. (b) The net electric potential is algebraic sum

of potential due to individual point charges.
1. (b) V= 300V, C1= 2.0 F, C2= 8.0 F, 1 q1 q2 q3
V
1 1 1 4 0 r1 r2 r3
Net capacitance,
Cs C1 C2 6 6 6
1 1 10 2 10 3 10
V
C1C2 4 0 0.2 0.2 0.3
Cs
C1 C2 9 109 5 –10 10 10 –6
2 8 16 = 1.6 F.. 9 103 5 45 103 V = 45 kV
Cs
2 8 10
4. (a) In a metal, conduction current is due to
Now total charge,
electrons given by
Q = Vs ×Cs= 300 × 1.6 × 10–6 = 4.8 ×10– 4 C.
In series charge is same on capacitors I nAev
Charge on 2 F capacitor is 4.8 × 10– 4C I
drift velocity, v
nAe
2. (a) C P C
x 5
v
Let the point P where resultant field is zero 5 10 26
4 10 6
1.60 2 10 –19
be x m from 4 C charge and (1– x) m distance
apart from –2 C charge. Since field is zero 1
at this point then, 4 1.602 101
E E1 E 2 0
10 –1
=1.56 ×10 –2 m/s
1 q1 1 q2 6.408
E= 2 5. (b) In series combination of capacitors, charges
4 0 r1 4 0 r22
on both capacitors will be same.
Q Q
1 4 C –2 C Vs
0 C1 C2
4 0 x2 1– x
2

1 1
4 C 2 C 2 1 1000 Q
C1 C2
x2 1– x
2
x2 1– x
2

C1 C2
2 2
1000 Q
2 1– x x C1C2

Taking root 2 1– x x 1000 C1C 2

Q
C1 C2
1.414 1– x x 1.414 –1.414x x
3 10 –12 6 10–12 18
1.414 Q 1000 –12
10 –9
1.414 1 1.414 x x 3 6 10 9
2.414
x 0.58m 2 10 –9 C
6. (c) Parallel combination of 3 and 6 gives ( n = no. of turns, I = current through
effective resistance, coil, r = radius of coil)
3 6 18 4 250 20 10 –7 –3 3
Rp 2 . This in series with B
3 6 9 2 40
2 gives net ressistance as 4 .
250 3.14 10 –7
7. (b) The value of temperature coefficient of
resistance is given by 785 10 –7 0.785 10 –4 tesla
R 2 – R1 65 – 50 = 0.785 gauss
13. (d) RMS value of A.C is
R1 t 2 – t1 50 70 – 20
I0
(t1 and t2 are in °C) Iv 0.707I 0
2
15
0.006 / C I0 = peak value
50 50
it is 70.7% of peak value.
8. (b) In Leclanche cell a strong solution of
ammonium chloride acts as an electrolyte. 1 L
14. (a) Q-factor is given by Q
9. (d) In the galvanometer, Ig = max. current R C
th rough galvan ometer, S = shunt If resistance R is decreased, Q increases
resistance, G = galvanometer resistance and inductance L is increased, Q increases.
then
–d
S 15. (c) Induced emf e . Assuming, small
Ig(galvanometer) = I dt
G S
change in flux d =8×10 – 4 Wb
G S 50 1 change in time dt = 0.5s
I Ig Ig 51Ig
S 1
8 10– 4 80 10 – 4
10. (a) Current in tangent galvanometer |e| =
0.5 5
H =16 × 10 =1.6×10–3 V = 1.6 mV
– 4
I tan
G 16. (c) Current through an LCR circuit is maximum
Where G = galvanometer constant when impedance is minimum. Now
H= earth's horizontal field = constant impedance
I1 tan 1 1 tan 30 1
2

I2 tan I2 tan 60 Z R2 L– is minimum at

2 C
tan 60 1.7321
I2 2.999Å 1
tan 30 0.5774 resonance frequency when and L
C
I 2 3A Z= R = minium i.e., inductive reactance ( L)
11. (c) Lorentz force on a charged particle in is equal to capacitive reactance (1/ C)
presence of magnetic and electic field is 17. (a) Our eyes respond to visible range from 400
nm to 700 nm
F Fe Fm 18. (a) Velocity of electromagnatic wave in space
F qE q v B 1 1
is c c
12. (a) In a circular coil of n turns, magnetic field is 0 0 2 8

0 nI 4 10 –7 250 20 10 –3 1 1
B 0.25
2r 2 40 10 –3 16 4
19. (b) According to Brewster's law, reflected light 25. (b) Photon moves with speed of light ie,
is plane polarised if unpolarised light falls v = c and rest mass of a particle is
at the interface of air and medium at an angle
m0 m 1 – v2 / c2
ip called polarising angle then
hence m0 (photon)= 0
= tan ip (glass) = tan 60 3 photon has zero rest mass.
20. (a) Newton's ring arrangement is used for
h
determin ing the wavelength of Momentum of photon =
monochromatic light. For this the diameter
of nth dark ring (Dn) and (n + p)th dark ring 26. (c) de Broglie wavelength is given by
(Dn + p) are measured then h 6.626 10 –34
–3
6.626 10 –34 m
D2(n p) 4(n p) R and D2n 4n R mv 1000 10 1
27. (b) Let the velocity of a particle be v where
D2n D2n mass m is double the rest mass i.e., m = 2m0
p
then
4pR
Here, n = 10, n + p = 20; v2 v2
m0 m 1– m0 2m 0 1 –
p = 10; R = 1 m, D10 = 3.96 × 10–3 m, c2 c2
D20 = 5.82 × 10–3 m
1 v2 1 v2
1– =1 – 2
D 220 2
D10 2 c2 4 c
4pR
v2 1 3
3 2 3 2 1–
(5.82 10 ) (3.36 10 ) c2 4 4
4 10 1
3
= 5646 Å v c
4
21. (b) Angular momentum in any stationary orbit
28. (d) By Einstein's equation E= mc2 where
nh m = 2kg
is mvr for 4th orbit, n = 4
2 E = 2×(3 × 10 8 )2
= 2 × 3 × 3× 10 16 = 18 × 1016 J
4h 29. (b) By definition, the difference between the
mvr
2 sum of the masses of neutrons and protons
forming a nucleus and mass of nucleus is
called mass defect
22. (d) According to Bohr's, Brackett series is
30. (b) Mean life time = 1.44 T where T is half
obtained when an electron jumps to 4th orbit
life period of an atom
from any other outer orbit
23. (a) Total energy of electron T 3
= 1.44 T = minute
0.6931 0.6931
KZe 2 31. (d) (by conservation of charge)
E K.E. P.E.
2r 32. (d) Baryons are proton, neutron, lamda,
0 –
–KZe2 sigma ( –), X
i ,
Potential energy in the orbit P.E.
r 33. (c) As donor and acceptor impurities are added
P.E. = 2 × E P.E.=2 × ( –13.6)= –27.2 eV to semiconductor to make an extrinsic semi-
24. (a) Bragg's condition is 2dsin = n for second conductor, intrinsic semiconductor is
order n = 2 , sin =1. For longest d=2 formed by internal generation of e– by
=d breaking up of covalent bonds.
34. (d) In p-type semiconductor, valency = 3, thus
Y
there is one unformed bond or hole created. PART - II (CHEMISTRY)
This hole is in valence band and is able to
cause hole current. The energy levels of 41. (b) The oxidation of ferrous ion by KMnO4
acceptor are in forbidden gap just above takes place in acidic medium as per
valence band following reaction
35. (d) In an oscillator, L-C circuit is coupled with
transistor amplifier in such a way that there 2KMnO4 + 8H2SO4 + 10FeSO4
is a positive feed back to the LC circuit i.e., K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 5Fe2(SO4)3
proper energy supply to LC at proper
Eq. mass of KMnO4
timings. So that total energy of LC circuit
remains same.
Molecular mass
36. (c) The gates AND, OR, NAND do not give
binary addition, however in EXOR gate change in oxidation number

truth table is A B Y
Molecular mass 158
0 0 0 = = 31.6
0 1 1 5 5
1 0 1
42. (b) In case of lanthanoids, 4f orbitals lie too
1 1 0
deep and hence the magnetic effect of the
This shows it gives perfect binary addition motion of the electron in its orbital is not
37. (d) In FM, carrier frequency is the constant quenched out. Here spin contribution S and
frequency which is modulated by signal orbital contribution L couple together to
amplitude. It is also called carrier swing. give a new quantum number J.
(Centre frequency is fc in AM wave,
Thus magnetic moment of lanthanoids is
frequency deviation f max – fc ,
given by, g J(J 1)
max )
mod ulation factor
fc where J = L – S when the shell is less than
38. (c) The common antenna is a straight half fill
J = L + S when the shell is more than half fill
conductor of length l held vertically
4 1 S(S 1) L(L 1)
with its lower end touching the ground. and g 1
2 2J(J 1)
39. (b) The vidicon is a storage-type camera tube
in which a charge-density pattern is formed 43. (d) Mg2+ = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 (No unpaired electrons)
by the imaged scene radiation on a
photoconductive surface which is then Ti3+ = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d1
scanned by a beam of low-velocity (One unpaired electrons)
electrons. The fluctuating voltage coupled
V3+ = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d2
out to a video amplifier can be used to
reproduce the scene being imaged. The (Two unpaired electrons)
electrical charge produced by an image will Fe2+ = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d6
remain in the face plate until it is scanned
or until the charge dissipates. (Four unpaired electrons)

40. (b) Maximum range of radar d max Fe2+has highest number of unpaired
l and
electrons.
power transmitted by antenna of length l is
44. (d) Zn + 2NaOH Na2ZnO2 + H2
2 1/ 4
p l/ l p and d p Sod. zincate
 54. (b) As the system is closed, hence the reaction
45. (c) + + will be reversible, hence according to
en en
Le-chatelier principle pressure decreases
Cl Cl since the volume is increasing.
Co Co V2
55. (d) W = – 2.303 nRT log
V1
Cl Cl
en en Given n = 6, T = 27°C = 273 + 27 = 300 K
V1 = 1 L, V2 = 10 L
d - cis form l - cis form
10
W = – 2.303 × 6 × 8.314 × 300 log
1
Cl +
= 34.465 kJ
56. (a) It is spontaneous process because zinc is
more reactive than copper, hence can easily
en Co en
repace Cu from CuSO4.
57. (c) Kp = Kc (RT) n
n = np(g) – nr(g) = 2 – 2 = 0
Cl
Kp = Kc
trans form (meso)
46. (b) Neutral ligands are given the same names 58. (d) Ice Water
as the neutral molecule. However, two very The volume of ice is more than water.
important exceptions to this rule are: Therefore when pressure is increased the
H2O Aquo (Aqua) NH3 Ammine. equilibrium shifts in forward direction. It
47. (a) Ni(PF3)4 – tetrakis phosphours (III) fluoride favoures melting of ice.
nickel (0). 59. (c) It is a first order reaction because
48. (a) The colour of KMnO4 is due to charge
rate of reaction [N2O5]
transfer. The configuration of manganese
in permagnate ion is d0 but it is coloured 60. (d) The reactions with low activation energies
because its electrons are photo-exited. are always fast whereas the reactions with
49. (c) In face centred cubic lattice, the atoms are high activation energy are always slow.
present at eight corners of faces and one 61. (d) For spontaneous reaction free energy
each at 6 faces. change is negative.
Lattice points belonging to face centred G = – nFE
62. (a) Because at infinite dilution the equivalent
1 1
cubic unit cell = 8 6 4 conductance of strong electrolytes
8 2 furnishing same number of ions is same.
50. (a) Schottky defect is caused when equal 63. (c) Reducing character i.e tendency to loose
number of cations and anions are missing electron decreases down the series, hence
from their lattice sites. the correct order is Zn > Cu > Ag.
51. (a) Polystyrene is thermoplastic substance.
64. (b) At anode the following reaction takes place
52. (a) Po – Simple cubic lattice
CH4 + 2H2O CO2 + 8H + + 8e –
Na – bcc
Cu – fcc 65. (a) Oxygen atom in alcohol molecule is sp3
hybridised.
R P1T2 P2 T1 66. (d) In this reaction LiAlH4 acts as reducing
53. (c) Wirr Pext
P1P2 O
During expansion in vaccum Pext = 0 || LiAlH4
agent. R C OH RCH2OH
work done = 0.
67. (d) 3° alcohols are resistant to oxidation and 73. (d) The O – H strecting of carboxylic acid
are oxidised only by strong oxidising agents absorb in region of 1700-2000 cm–1
like conc. HNO3. They are resistant to
oxidation in neutral or alkaline KMnO4. O
||
68. (b) C2H5 – O – C2H5
H 2O
2C2H5OH 74. (b) Formic acid H C OH has – CHO
boil, dil.acid
ethyl alcohol group and therefore it reduces Fehling
solution.
O
|| CH 2OH HCl COOH
69. (b) CH3 C CH3 + | NaOH
CH 2OH 75. (c)
OH OH
H3C O – CH2 + CO2
This is decarboxylation reaction.
H3C O – CH2
cyclic ketal Catalytic
76. (d)
70. (b) oxidation

CH3 Napthalene
Conc. H 2SO4 drops
Room temp. CH
O O COOH
3 CH3CHO
Dil. H2SO4 CH CH
H3C O CH3 COOH
Para aldehyde Phthalic acid
(pleasant smelling liquid,
used as hypnotic and soporofic) 77. (b) In both the cases carbon is sp3 hybridised
(sleep producing) and bond angle is 109°28'.
78. (b) This reaction is known as curtius
Conc. H 2SO4 H3C – CH – O – CH – CH3 rearrangement.
or HCl gas
4 CH3CHO O O N2 2NaOH
dil H 2SO 4
RCON3 RNCO
H3C – CH – O – CH – CH3
Na2CO3 + RNH2
Metaldehyde
(used as solid fuel in spirit lamps) 1° amine is formed.
79. (a) It is expected that the basic nature of
distillation
71. (c) 2(CH3COO)2Ca amines should be in order tertiary >
CH3COCH3 + 2CaCO3 secondary > primary but the observed
Acetone Calcium order in the case of lower members is found
carbonate to be as secondary > Primary > tetriary. This
72. (d) Ketones do not react with alcohol. anomalous behaviour of tetriary amines is
reduction due to steric factors i.e crowding of alkyl
(i) Aldehydes 1° alcohol
groups cover nitrogen atom from all sides
e.g., CH3CHO CH 3CH 2OH thus makes the approach and bonding by a
reduction proton relatively difficult which results the
(ii) Ketones 2° alcohol maximum steric strain in tetiary amines. The
CH3 CH3 electrons are there but the path is blocked,
C=O CHOH
CH3 CH3 resulting the reduction in basicity.
(iii) Ketones do not reduce Fehling solution but Thus the correct order is
aldehydes do so. R2 NH > R NH2 > R3N.
80. (d) On acetylation aniline is converted into
(x 9)(x 2 9x 14) 0
acetamide which is resonance stablised and
therefore less reactive. (x 9) (x 2 7x 2x 14) 0
NH2 NHCOCH3
(x 9) (x 7) (x 2) 0

+ CH3COCl x 9, 7, 2
83. (c) We have
Acetanilide
1 1 1 : 1
PART - III (MATHEMATICS) A:B 1 2 4 :
2
1 4 10 :
81. (a) We know that, A is singular if |A| = 0

2 1 1 1 : 1
1 2
x ~ 0 1 3 : 1
2 2
|A| 1 x 2x 0 0 3 9 : 1
1
1 2
x applying R 2 R2 R1
& R3 R 3 R1
2 2 1
|A| 2x 2x 1 2 2x 2 x 0
x x
1 1 1 : 1
2 2 2 ~ 0 1 3 : 1
[0] 2 2x 2x 0
x x 2
0 0 0 : 3 2
3 2
2x 2x 2 2x 0
applying R 3 R 3 3R 2
x3 x2 x 1 0
But the system is consistent
2
x (x 1) 1(x 1) 0 2
3 2 0
(x 1) (x 2 1) 0 ( 2) ( 1) 0 2 or 1
x 1 84. (c) We know that inverse of A does not exist
only when |A| = 0
x 3 7
1 3 2
82. (b) Given 2 x 2 0
2 5 t 0
7 6 x
4 7 t 6
x[x 2 12] 3[2x 14] 7[12 7x] 0
( 30 7t t 2 ) 3( 12 4t)
x 3 67x 126 0 2(14 2t 20) 0
But given (x = 9) is a root of given
determinant. 30 7t t 2 36 12t 12 4t 0
(x + 9) is a factor
t2 t 6 0 t 2 3t 2t 6 0
x 3 9x 2 9x 2 81x 14x 126 0
t(t 3) 2(t 3) 0
2
x (x 9) 9x(x 9) 14(x 9) 0 (t 3)(t 2) 0 t 2, 3
85. (a) Given x4 – 3x3 – 2x2 + 3x + 1 = 0
3
By using Hit & trial method, we have Equation (1) becomes 4
4r(1 r)
(x – 1) is a factor of given equation
(x – 1) (x3 – 2x2 – 4x – 1) = 0
16r 2 16r 3 0
3 2 2
(x 1) [x x 3x 3x x 1] 0
(4r 3) (4r 1) 0
2
(x 1) x (x 1) 3x(x 1) 1(x 1) 0 3 1
r or r
4 4
(x 1) (x 1) (x 2 3x 1) 0
1 3
x = 1, – 1 or x2 – 3x – 1 = 0 when r then a 3
Now x2 – 3x – 1 = 0 4 1
4
4
3 9 4
x 1
2 a 3 & r
4
b b2 4ac 88. (c) Given : & are roots of equation
x ax2 + bx + c = 0
2a
b c
&
3 13 a a
x
2 Now, 3 3
( )3 3 ( )
non-integer roots of given equation are
3
1 1 3 3 b c b
(3 13), (3 13) 3 .
2 2 a a a

86. (b) Given e x y 1 y2 3 3 b3 3bc

3
a a2
x 2
e y 1 y
3 3 b 3 3abc
Squaring both side, we have
e2x + y2 – 2exy = 1 + y2 a3
2ex y = e2x – 1 89. (b) Given : The vertices of tetrahedron are
P(–1, 2, 0), Q(2, 1, –3), R(1, 0, 1) & S(3, –2, 3)
e 2x 1 1
y y ex e x
1
x 2 Volume of tetrahedron PQ PR PS
2e
6
87. (d) First term = a & common ratio = r
Now,
3
Given S 4 & a2 PQ (2 1)iˆ (1 2)ˆj ( 3)kˆ 3iˆ ˆj 3kˆ
4
Similarly, PR 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ
a
4 ...(1)
1 r & PS 4iˆ 4jˆ 3kˆ
3 a Volume of tetrahedron
& ar S & an ar n 1
4 1 r 3 1 3
1 2
3 2 2 1
a 6 3
4r 4 4 3
90. (a) We have, a tb (iˆ 2ˆj 3k) ˆ
ˆ t( ˆi 2ˆj k) b1 b2 ˆi( 2 6) ˆj(1 7) k(
ˆ 6 14)

(1 t)iˆ (2 2t)ˆj (3 t)kˆ b1 b2 4iˆ 6jˆ 8kˆ

It is to c 3iˆ ˆj Shortest distance
If 3(1 t) (2 2t) (3 t) (0) 0 (4iˆ 6ˆj 8k)
ˆ . ( 4iˆ 6ˆj 8k)
ˆ
PQ
3 3t 2 2t 0 t 5 16 36 64
91. (d) The equation of the plane through the line
of intersection of the given planes is 16 36 64
(x + y + z – 6) + (2x + 3y + 4z + 5) = 0 ... (1) PQ
116
If equation (1) passes through (1, 1, 1), we
have
116
3 116 2 29
3 14 0 116
14
3 PQ 2 29 units
Putting in (1), we obtain the
14 93. (c) Given, | z i | | z i | 4
equation of the required plane as
| z (0 i) | | z (0 i) | 0
3
(x y z 6) (2x 3y 4z 5) 0 This equation represent the interior and
14
boundary of ellipse with foci at (0, 1) &
20x 23y 26z 69 0 (0, –1), whose major axis is along the y-axis.
13 13 13
b1 b 2 . a 2 a1
92. (d) Shortest distance PQ 94. (b) in in 1
in in 1

b1 b 2 n 1 n 1 n 1

Now, a 2 a1 ˆi ˆj kˆ 3iˆ 5jˆ 7kˆ 1 i13 i13

i i2
1 i 1 i
a 2 a1 4iˆ 6jˆ 8kˆ
(1 i) (1 i)
i i 1
B (a 2) (1 i) (1 i)
>

6j + k)
>
>

( 7i –
>

j–k+ µ
>
>

r = –i – Q
95. (b) Given : sin , cos , tan are in G.P..
L2
cos 2 sin tan cos3 sin 2

cos3 1 cos 2

(cos3 cos 2 ) 1 ...(1)

P A (a1) Cubic both sides, we have
L1
>

>

>

>

>
>

r = (3i + 5j + 7k) + (i – 2j + k)
cos cos6 3cos5 . (cos3 cos2 ) 1

ˆi ˆj kˆ cos cos 6 3cos5 1

And b1 b2 1 2 1 [Using equation (1)]
7 6 1 cos cos6 3cos5 1 0
96. (c) Given : 5cosC + 6cosB = 4 ...(1)
6cosA + 4cosC = 5 ...(2) 4x 2 y2
1 ....... (2)
Adding eq. (1) & (2), we have 81 9
9cosC + 6(cosA + cosB) = 9
A B A B
9cos C 6 2cos . cos 9 Y
2 2
P(2, y)1
C A B y1
9 cos C 9 12cos . cos 0
2 2 2 X' O 2m Q X
C A B
9(cos C 1) 12sin . cos 0 Y'
2 2
C C A B
9 1 2sin 2 1 12sin .cos 0
2 2 2 Here, OQ = 2 m, let PQ = y1
P(2, y1)
C C A B
18sin 2 12sin .cos 0 Since point P lies on the ellipse (2)
2 2 2
C A B 4 4 y12
3sin 2 cos 1
2 2 81 9
B A B
3cos 2cos
2 2 y12 16 81 16 65
1
A B A B 9 81 81 81
3 cos .cos sin .sin
2 2 2 2
65 65 8
A B A B y12 y1 m
2 cos .cos sin .sin 9 3 3
2 2 2 2
Hence, best approximation of the height of
A B A B
5sin . sin cos . cos 8
2 2 2 2 the arch m.
3
A B
5 tan . tan 1 98. (c) Given : Equations of ellipses
2 2
3x2 + 5y2 = 32 ...(1)
A B 1
tan .tan & 25x2 + 9y2 = 450 ...(2)
2 2 5
97. (b) Equation of the semielliptical bridge Tangents to the ellipse (1) & (2) are passing
through the point (3, 5)
x2 y2
1 ....... (1) 3(3)2 + 5(5)2 – 32 = 27 + 75 – 32 > 0
a2 b2
So the given point lies outsides the ellipse.
Here, 2a = 9
Hence, two real tangents can be drawn from
9 the point to the ellipse,
a , b= 3
2 & 25(3)2 + 9(5)2 – 450 = 225 + 225 – 450 = 0
x2 y2 The point lie on the ellipse. Hence one
1
81 9 real tangent can be drawn.
4 No. of real tangents = 3
 & f '(x) = a f '(2) = a = 1 a = 1
c
99. (b) The equation of tangent at ct, is 2 × 1 + b = 4 b = 2 [using equation (1)]
t
f(x) = x + 2
ty = t3x – ct4 + c
xf (2) 2f (x)
c Now, lim
If it passes through ct ', then x 2 x 2
t'
4x 2(x 2) 2x 4
tc 3 4
lim lim
t ct ' ct c x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2
t'
2(x 2)
t t 3 t '2 t 4 t ' t ' lim 2
x 2 (x 2)
t . t ' t 3 t '(t '.t) t 3 t ' 1 102. (d) Let f(x) = x2 + kx + 1
Note : If we take the co-ordinate axes along f '(x) = 2x + k
the asymptotes of a rectangular hyperbola, f(x) is strictly increasing on (1, 2)
then the general equation x2 – y2 = a 2 if f '(x) > 0 for x (1, 2)
becomes xy = c2, where c is a constant. 2x + k > 0 for x (1, 2)
k > –2x for x (1, 2)
3
100. (d) Let AB = , then AM cos 30º Now, 1 < x < 2 2 < 2x < 4
2 –2 > –2x > –4
– 4 < –2x < –2
& BM sin 30º
2 k 2
Hence least value of k = –2.
Y
x
1 x
103. (c) Let y y x
B x
Then log y = –x log x
A 30º M 1 dy
X´ X (1 log x)
30º
y dx

C dy
or y(1 log x)
dx
Y´
d y 1 dy
& y. (1 log x).
2 x dx
3 dx
So, the coordinates of B are ,
2 2 x 1
d y 1 dy
(1 log x).
Since, B lies on y2 = 4x dx 2 x dx
2
3 dy
4 0 1 log x 0
4 2 Now,
dx

216 1
. 3 8 3 l og x 1 log e log
2 e
101. (d) Let f(x) = ax + b
Given f(2) = 4 & f '(2) = 1 1
x
f(2) = a . 2 + b = 4 2a + b = 4 ...(1) e
 1 Let 1 + x = t2 x = t2 – 1
d2 y 1 1
dx = 2t . dt
Also, at x is e e 0
dx 2 e
t2 1
dy f (x) . 2t dt 2 (t 2 1)dt
0 t
dx
t3
1 f (x) 2 t c
So, x is a point of local maxima. 3
e
Maximum value
(1 x)3/ 2
1 f (x) 2 (1 x)1/ 2 c
1 3
= value of y when x ee
e
.......... (1)
z z 1
104. (a) Euler's theorem x y nz But f (0) 0 2 1 c 0
x y 3

x3 y3 4 4
Given : U = tan–1 c 0 c
x y 3 3
Equation (1) becomes
x3 y3
tan U z (let)
x y (1 x)3/ 2 4
f (x) 2 (1 x)1/ 2
n= 3–1=2 3 3

z z 2
x y 2z f (x) (1 x)3 / 2 3(1 x)1/ 2 2
x y 3

x tan U y .tan U 2 tan U

x y 2
106. (a) Let I log(tan x)dx ...(1)
2 U U
2 0
x . sec U . y.sec U . 2 tan U
x y

U U
sec 2 U . x y 2 tan U 2
x y Then, I log tan x dx
2
0
U U sin U
x. y 2. . cos2 U
x y cos U a a
f (x)dx f (a x)dx
U U 0 0
x y sin 2U
x y

x 2
105. (b) Given : f '(x) , f (0) 0 I log(cot x)dx
1 x
0
x
f '(x)dx dx
1 x
2
1
x I log dx
f (x) dx 0
tan x
1 x
 2 2
1 a2 2
I log tan x dx log(tan x)dx sin 2 d
0 0 6
0
I I 2I 0 I 0
[Using eq. (1)]
a 2 2 1 cos 2
107. (d) If curve r = a sin 3 . d
To trace the curve, we consider the 6 2
0
following table :
cos 2 1 2sin
3 5
3 0 2 3
2 2 2
2 5 a2 sin 2 2
0 .
6 3 2 3 6 12 2 0
r 0 a 0 a 0 a 0
a2 a2
. sin
Thus there is a loop between 12 2 24

0& as r varies from r = 0 to r = 0. 9

3 108. (b) Let I e t dt
1
Put t = x2 dt = 2x . dx
For limit : x = 1 & x = 3
3 3
I e x . 2x dx 2 e x . x dx
1 1
X 3
3
I 2 x . ex e x dx
1
1

3 3
2 xe x ex
1 1

I 2 3e3 e1 e3 e1 2e3 .2 4e3

Hence, the area of the loop lying in the
109. (d) Equation of the family of such parabolas is
(y – k)2 = 4a(x – h) ...(1)
13 2 where h & k are arbitrary constants
positive quadrant r d
2 Differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
0
dy
(y k) 2a ...(2)
dx
3
1 1
sin 2 . d Differentiating again
2 3
0
2
1 d2 y dy
[On putting, 3 d d ] (y k) 0 ...(3)
3 dx 2 dx
 Putting value of (y – k) from (2) in (3), we
1
get Particular integral (P.I.) 2
.x 2
D 2
3
d2 y dy
2a 0 , which is required 1
dx 2 dx 1 2 1 D2
.x . 1 . (x 2 )
2 2 2
equation. D
2 1
2
y
110. (b) Given : x cos ec y dx x dy 0
x 1
(1 D) 1 D D2 D3 ......
2
1 D2 D2
x P.I. . 1 ..... (x 2 )
y dx x dy 0 2 2 2
y
sin
x
1 D2 2
P.I. . x2 (x )
2 2
y y
x y . sin dx x sin dy 0
x x 1
P.I. . x2 1
2
y 112. (a) If (D2 + 16)y = cos 4x
ysin x
dy x Here the auxiliary equation is m2 + 16 = 0
...(1)
dx y m =±4
x sin
x Complementary function
= (A cos 4x + B sin 4x)
y & Particular Integral (P.I.)
Put z y zx
x 1
2
.cos 4x
D 16
dy dz dz
z.1 x. z x
dx dx dx 1 x
But 2 2
cos ax sin ax
Equation (1) becomes D a 2a

dz zx.sin z x x x
z x z cosec z P.I. .sin 4x sin 4x
dx x sin z 2 4 8
Solution y = Complementary function
dz dx + Particular Integral
x cos ecz sin z dz
dx x
x
y = A cos 4x + B sin 4x + sin 4x
log | x | cos z c 8
113. (c)
y 114. (d) Let us make one packet for each of the
log | x | cos c
x books on the same size. Now, 3 packets can
be arranged in P(3, 3) = 3! ways
d2 y 5 large books can be arranged in 5! ways
111. (c) If 2y x2 4 medium size books can be arranged in
dx 2
4! ways
d 3 small books can be arranged in 3! ways
(D2 2)y x2 D Required number of ways
dx
= 3! × 5! × 4! × 3! ways
115. (a) An identity relation is one in which every
3 4 3 4 4 4
element of a set is related to itself only. 4 2 1 4 2 1
a * b = a + b – ab C3 . C4 .
3 3 3 3
As in identity relation 'a' is related to 'a', so
the correct option will be the one which 4! 8 1 4! 16
. . .
gives the value of the relation = 'a'. So, 3!1! 27 3 4! 0! 81
equating a + b – ab = a, we get b(1 – a) = 0.
Now putting the values of a, we find b and 32 16 48 16
the option in which a = b, will be the answer. 81 81 81 27
For a = 0, b = 0, so the correct option. 119. (b) n = total number of ways = 25 = 32
For a = 1, b(1 – 1) = 0 b can have multiple Since each answer can be true or false
values. & m = favourable number of ways
For a = 2, b(1 – 2) = 0 b = 0 but a = 2. = 5C4 + 5C5
116. (a) p q ~p ~ pvq p q
T T F T T 5! 5!
5 1 6 m 6
T F F F F 4!1! 5! 0!
F T T T T Since to pass the quiz, student must give 4
F F T T T or 5 true answers.
117. (b) Let S be the sample space
m 6 3
n(S) 36 Hence, p p p
n 32 16
Events
[sum greater than 3 but not exceeding 6] 120. (a) Since f(x) is the probability density function
= {(2, 2), (3, 1), (1, 3), (4, 1), (1, 4), (5, 1) (1, 5), of random variable X.
(3, 2), (2, 3), (4, 2), (2,4), (3, 3)}
n(E) 12 f (x) 1

n(E) 12 1 Now we have

Required probability =
n(S) 36 3
118. (a) Let 'p' denote the probability of winning of Ke | x | dx 1 2 K . e | x | dx 1
team A whenever it plays 0
2 2 1
p &q 1
3 3 3 2 K . e x dx 1
Let X denotes the number of winning games 0
out of 4 games i.e. n = 4
The probability of r success 2K . e x
1 2K 1
P(X = r) = ncr pr qn – r, r = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 0
Probability of winning more than half 1
games = P(X > 2) K
= P (X = 3) + P(X = 4) 2