00000695-1310 - Enthusiast - Phase-I (A), TNAS, TAAS, TTAS & TOAS1 - (Pre-Score) - Paper-1 - (E) - JA

Test Pattern
(1001CJA106216240137) )1001CJA106216240137)
English
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)

PART TEST
(Academic Session : 2024 - 2025) 13-10-2024
JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE [PHASE : I(A), TNAS, TAAS, TTAS & TOAS1] (PRE-SCORE)
Time : 3 Hours PAPER-1 (OPTIONAL) Maximum Marks : 198

IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No.
in OMR. For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 24 pages and that
all the 18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not, contact
the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or
"un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT :
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
ALLEN® Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/13-10-2024/Paper-1
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140
· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
· Coulomb's law constant
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
· Permittivity of vacuum
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Space for Rough Work
E-2/24 1001CJA106216240137
Enthusiast Course/Phase-I(A), TNAS, TAAS, TTAS & TOAS1/Pre-Score/13-10-2024/Paper-1
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 18)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has Four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. Letters A, B, C and D are written on a cardboard as shown in the picture. The cardboard is kept at a suitable
distance behind a transparent empty glass of cylindrical shape. If the glass is now filled with water, one sees
an inverted image of the pattern on the cardboard when looking through the glass. Ignoring magnification
effects, the image would appear as :-
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. A right-angled isosceles prism is held on the surface of a liquid composed of miscible solvents A and B
of refractive index nA = 1.50 and nB = 1.30, respectively. The refractive index of prism is np = 1.5 and
that of the liquid is given by nL = CAnA + (1 – CA)nB, where CA is the fraction of solvent A in the liquid.
If θ C is the critical angle at prism-liquid interface, the plot which best represents the variation of the
critical angle with the fraction of solvent A is :-
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1001CJA106216240137 E-3/24
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/13-10-2024/Paper-1
3. A light beam is incident on air-medium boundary. To find refractive index of medium, angle of incidence
and angle of refraction are measured with protractor of least count 1°. The angle of incidence is 53° and
that of refraction is 37°. The refractive index of medium is :-
7π
(A) 4
± (B)4
±
25 (C) 4 ± 5 π (D) None of these
3 1620 3 9 3 324
4. 50 solid spheres of volume 1.28 cm3 are melted and formed into a bigger sphere. Considering significant
figures and assuming density to remain constant, what is the volume of bigger sphere ?
(A) 64 cm3 (B) 64.0 cm3 (C) 64.00 cm3 (D) None of these
5. A plane-parallel plate is made up of two glass wedges with a small angle α = 1.8°. Refractive index of
wedges n1 = 1.5 and n2 = 1.2. A parallel beam of light falls on the plate normally to the surface. Behind
the plate is a converging lens with a focal length of f = 100/ π cm. The screen is located in the focal plane
of the lens. How much will the light point on the screen shift if you remove the plate?
(A) 0.2 cm (B) 0.3 cm (C) 0.4 cm (D) 0.5 cm

6. You are given the following circuit and two instruments: a voltmeter of infinite resistance and an ammeter
of zero resistance both with 0.001 % limit of error in their readings. Which of the following methods will
result in the most accurate reading for the current without interrupting the current in the circuit?
(A) Use voltmeter to measure voltage across points B and C

(B) Use the ammeter to measure current at point B
(C) Use voltmeter to measure voltage across points A and B
(D) Use voltmeter to measure voltage across points A and C
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SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.
7. We have a stack of transparent plates. There are N plates in total, the refractive index of the top plate is n.
1
the refractive index of each of the lower plate times the refractive index of the plate above it. Here k >1.
k
n
(A) The ray will definitely pass through the stack into air without total internal reflection if > 1.
kN−1
n
(B) The ray will definitely pass through the stack into air without total internal reflection if < 1.
kN−1
n
(C) The ray will not go into air if sin α <
kN−1
n
(D) The ray will not go into air if sin α <
kN
1001CJA106216240137 E-5/24
8. Consider the following statements regarding the real images formed with a lens.
I- Real images can be seen only if the image is projected onto the screen
II-The real image of lens can be seen only from the same side of the lens as that on which the object is
positioned.
III-Real images produced by converging lenses are not only laterally but also longitudinally
inverted as with mirrors.
IV : The image formed by a concave lens is always virtual.
Choose the incorrect statement(s) among the above statements
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
9. As shown in the figure below, a parallel beam of light is incident on a solid transparent hemisphere of
radius R = 5 cm of refractive index 4/3. A circular part of the flat base is blackened. The blackened part
has a radius h0 = 3 cm. The refracted beam is found to illuminate a certain patch on the x axis. Which of
the following points is illuminated ?
(A) OX = 7.2 cm (B) OX = 7.4 cm (C) OX = 7.6 cm (D) OX = 7.8 cm

10. A student described a combination of two converging lenses which produces an inverted, virtual image
at the position of the object of the same size as the object. The distance between the lens is 30 cm and the
distance a is 10 cm.
(A) Focal length f1 is 3.75 cm

(B) Focal length f2 is 60 cm
(C) The image due to the first lens is inverted, magnified and real
(D) The image due to the second lens is erect, virtual and magnified
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11. The inner dimensions of a cuboidal cup ABCDEFGH are being measured using a vernier calipers. The
vernier calipers is a standard one with one main scale division measuring 1mm and 10 vernier scale
divisions matching with 9 main scale divisions.
The readings are shown below
For AB
For BC
For BG
Choose the correct reading(s) in the reading shown below
1001CJA106216240137 E-7/24
For AC
(A)
For BE
(B)
For BD
(C)
For AG
(D)
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12. The observer's eye on principal axis is positioned so that the ant and its image in a "curved" (spherical)
mirror for the observer have the same angular sizes and completely overlap each other. The observer
moved away from the mirror at a distance L along the principal axis and now sees that angular size of ant
is 75% of the angular size of its image. Then the observer moved away in the same direction another L,
and the angular size of the ant became 2 times the angular size of the image. The transverse magnification
3
is m. The modulus of radius of curvature of the mirror is R. The ant is perpendicular to the principal axis.
(A) Initially observer was at centre of curvature.
(B) m = +2
(C) R = 4L/3
(D) The mirror must be concave
1001CJA106216240137 E-9/24
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. Above the water at a height h1 = 1.0 m, a concave spherical mirror of radius of curvature 1.0 m was
placed horizontally facing the water. At what height h (in m) above the water (n =4/3) the fish will see its
own reflection if the fish is located at depths of h2 = 0.50 m ?
2. How far (in cm) from the silvered lens shown below can we put a real object so that the final image is
formed at object focus of the lens? The focal length of the lens is 10 cm.
3. The parabolic mirror of the Canadian Large Zenith Telescope is created by a uniformly spinning pan
filled with liquid mercury under gravity. The diameter of the telescope is 6 m, and the pan revolves at the
rate of 1 rad/s. Determine the focal length (in m) of the parabolic mirror. (g = 10 m/s2)
4. 10 divisions on vernier scale coincide with 11 divisions on main scale in an error free Vernier calliper.
Each main scale division is 0.5 mm. When the thickness of plywood is measured using this calliper, the
zero of vernier scale lies between 1.50 and 1.55 cm and 4th vernier scale division coincides exactly with
one of the main scale divisions. What is the thickness of plywood? (in cm)
E-10/24 1001CJA106216240137
5. As shown in the figure, we have two glass lens (refractive index = 1.6) mounted in a cylindrical tube. When
the distance between them is L, A beam parallel to the common principal axis emerges parallel to the
principal axis. When the space between them is filled with a liquid of refractive index µ, the emergent beam
is parallel to the principal axis if the distance between the lens is 1.5L. What is the refractive index μ ?
6. The International Avogadro Coordination project created the world's most perfect sphere using Silicon in
its crystalline form. The diameter of the sphere is 9.4 cm with an uncertainty of 0.2 nm. The atoms in the
crystals are packed in cubes of side a. The side is measured with a relative error of 2 × 10 –9, and each
cube has 8 atoms in it. Then, the relative error in the mass of the sphere is (assume molar mass of Silicon
and Avogadro's number to be known precisely) n × 10 –8. Find the value of n.
1001CJA106216240137 E-11/24
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
1. In which complex coordination isomerism is NOT possible?
(A) [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] (B) [Ag(NH3)2] [AgCl2]
(C) [Pt(en)2][PtBr4] (D) [Co(NH3)6][Co(C2O4)3]
2. Match the List.
List-I List-II
(P) Ligands that cannot produce synergic bonding (1) NMe3
(Q) Species which can act as an ambidentate ligand (2) CN –
Species which have the ability to form synergic bonding
(R) (3) PR3
due to vacant π * M.O.
(S) Species which can act as chelating ligand (4) Glycinate
(5) CO
The CORRECT match is :
(A) P → 3 ; Q → 2 ; R → 5 ; S → 4
(B) P → 4 ; Q → 2 ; R → 5 ; S → 4
(C) P → 3 ; Q → 4 ; R → 1 ; S → 1
(D) P → 1 ; Q → 2 ; R → 2 ; S → 1
3.
Find out (A).

(A) SO2−
3 ,S
2−
(B) CO2− 2−
3 , SO3
(C) SO2− Θ
3 , HCO3
(D) S 2− , HCO−3
E-12/24 1001CJA106216240137
4. Pyrolusite (MnO2) is not converted to Manganate by using :-
(A) Alkaline oxidation fusion
(B) Heating of KOH with KNO3(s)
(C) H2O2
(D) Heating of KOH with KClO3(s)
5. Which of the given reaction H2S gas is NOT evolved?
Zn dust + dil. HCl
3 −−−−−−−−−−→
(I) SO2−
Zn dust+ NaOH
3 −−−−−−−−→
(II) SO2−
dil. H2SO4
(III) F eS −−−−→
dil. H2SO4
(IV) CuS −−−−→
(A) I, III (B) II, IV
(C) II, III, IV (D) II, III
6. Which of the following redox reaction is correct? (only redox products are given)
(A) Al + conc. HNO3 → Al(NO3)3 + NO2
(B) Sn + conc. HNO3 → Sn(NO3)2 + NO2
(C) Cu + conc. HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + NO
(D) Zn + conc. HNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + NO2
1001CJA106216240137 E-13/24
answer(s).
correct option.
7.
Select CORRECT statement(s).
(A) Central metal ion in F is sp hybridized

(B) B is orange solution
(C) G is yellow precipitate
(D) E when reacted with excess NaOH do not gives precipitate
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8.
[Given Z is uninegative ion]

Select the CORRECT option(s) :
(A) P is blood red in colour
(B) Z is SCN –
(C) P can have d2sp3 hybridisation of central metal atom
(D) Q is blood red compound
9.
Select correct statements.

(A) A is Cu3[Fe(CN)6]2
(B) C is [Fe(CN)6]4–
(C) D is black precipitate
(D) B is [Cu(NH3)4]2+
10. Select correct statement(s).
500o C
(A) NaNO3 −−−→ Na2 O + O2 + N2
350o C 1
(B) NH4 NO3 −−−→ N2 + O2 + H2 O
2
(C) Δ
Na(NH4 )HP O4 .4H2 O −→ Yellow residue
(D) Δ
(NH4 )2 MoO4 −→ MoO3 (s) + NH3 + H2 O
1001CJA106216240137 E-15/24
11.
Select CORRECT statement(s).

(A) Complex formed by reactions of "D" & excess KCN remains unaffacted by H2S.
(B) In (B) & (C) oxidation number of metal is different.
(C) D & F are white precipitate
(D) If E is like X2 , then X – is paramagnetic
12. Select CORRECT statement(s).
(A) Order of stability of complex [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(ox)3]3–
(B) Jahn Teller distortion is observed in d7 configuration when ligand is a SFL.
(C) Brown ring complex is weakly attracted by magnetic field.
(D) In the IUPAC nomenclature of brown ring complex, nitrosonium is used instead of nitrosyl.
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1. Number of correct statements.
(a) Cr+3 is more stable than V+3 , Mn+3 , Ti+3 in aqueous solution
(b) Electrode potential does not depend on enthalpy of atomisation
(c) Titanium and Vanadium are passive to dilute non oxidising acids at room temperature.
(d) IE2 of Mn is less than IE2 of Cr & Fe
(e) Cr+2 is reducing agent and it converts to Cr+1 (d5 configuration)
(f) TiF2 & FeI3 do not exist.
(g) Co+3 & Mn+3 are strong reducing agent in aqueous solution
(h) Aquated Cr+3 (i.e. [Cr(H2O)6]+3) is green colored.
2. A metal X exists as X+2 in a non-chelating complex having effective atomic number (EAN) is 34. Find the
number of monodentate ligands in complex, where atomic number of metal is 28.
3. Calculate the number of chemical entities given below, in which central atom has dx −y orbital in hybridized
2 2
state?
[Cr(NH3)6]3+ , XeF5− , Ni(CO)4 , [Ni(CN)4]2– , Cr2 O2−
7 , IF3 , [Pt(Br)2(en)] , SF4 , [Ni(dmg)2] , Fe(CO)5
4. Lithophone is mixture of "d block metal sulphide" and "BaSO4" and it is used as a white pigment.
This d-block metal sulphide on roasting gives white residue (A) on cooling. (A) undergoes dry test to
give residue due to formation of compound (B) having green color.
What is the sum of atomic number of d-block elements in (B).
1001CJA106216240137 E-17/24
5. How many statements among the following are correct?
(i) PbSO4 is insoluble in excess NaOH solution
(ii) HgS is soluble in HNO3
(iii) Catalytic Iodine-Azide test occurs in the presence of S2 O2−
3
4–
(iv) Cu2S2O3 convert to [Cu6(S2O3)5] in excess hypo solution
(v) Sodium thiosulphate on heating gives Na2S5 + Na2SO4
(vi) CH3Cl respond to chromyl chloride test
(vii) Canary yellow precipitate is obtained in test of P O3−
4 in boiling conditions only.
NaOH excess
6. Cation −−−−→ precipitate −−−−→ soluble
NaOH
Number of cations given below that follows the condition given above.
Pb+2 , Hg22+ , Ag+ , Cu+2 , Al+3 , Hg2+ , Cd+2 , Mn+2 , Zn+2
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PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
1. Let O denote null matrix and I denote a unit matrix of order 3 × 3. If A is a 3 × 3 nilpotent matrix such
that A2 = O, det(A – 3I) = 27 and det(A + 3I) = k, then the value of |k| equals
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 9 (D) 27
2. Let A = [aij]3×3 be a matrix such that AAT = 4I and 2aij + cij = 0 where cij is the cofactor of aij ∀ i and j
and I is the unit matrix of order 3.
If , then the value of 5 λ is equal to
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 11 (D) 15
3. Let A = {k ∈ N : k < 40}. The number of ordered pairs (a,b) ∈ A × A such that a4 – b4 is divisible by 5
is equal to
(A) 1088 (B) 574 (C) 978 (D) 974
4. Students numbered 1,2,3,4,5 and 6 are seated in a row containing 6 chairs such that students numbered i
and i + 1 do not sit together (for all i). Let n be the number of ways in which this can be done. Then the
digit in units place of n4 is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 6 (D) 9
5. Number of possible real values of x, such that the ninth term in the expansion of
11
(3 )
1
log3 (9x−1 +7) 1
3 + 1 x−1
is 660, is equal to
3 8 log3 (3 +1)
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3

6. Coefficient of x11 in the expansion of (1 + x2)4 (1 + x3)7(1 + x4)12 is
(A) 1051 (B) 1106 (C) 1113 (D) 1120
1001CJA106216240137 E-19/24
answer(s).
correct option.
⎡ b1 b2 ⎤
a1 a2 a3 ⎢ ⎥
7. A=[ ], B=⎢
⎢ b3 b4 ⎥
⎥, ai,bi ∈ R.
⎢ ⎥
Let and Then, which of the following options is/are
⎣b b ⎦
a4 a5 a6
5 6
correct for all possible matrices A and B?

(A) If (AB)2 = 0, then (BA)3 = 0 (B) If (BA)2 = 0, then (AB)3 = 0
(C) det(BA) = 0 (D) det(AB) = 0
⎡α a a⎤ ∣ α+x a+xa+x ∣
⎢ ⎥
∣ ∣
8. Let A = ⎢
⎢b ⎥
a ⎥ , f (x) = ∣∣ b + xβ + x a + x ∣∣
⎢ ⎥
β
⎣b γ⎦
∣ ∣
b ∣ b+x b+x γ+x ∣
g(x) = α β γ – ( α β + β γ + γ α )x + ( α + β + γ )x2 – x3,
3 3
adj(A) = [aij]3 × 3,∑ ∑ aij = 18, |adj (A)| = 576.
i=1 j=1
If |A| > 0, then, which of the following options is/are correct (here |A| denotes the determinant of matrix A) ?
(A) f(30) = 564 (B) f(50) = 924
(C) bg(a) – ag(b) = 24(b – a) (D) g(a) – g(b) = 18(a – b)
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9. If the number of functions f : A → A, where A = {1,2,3,4,5} satisfying f(f(x)) = f(x) is 'k', then k is
divisible by which of the following options :
(A) 4 (B) 21
(C) 49 (D) 14
10. Which of the following is/are correct ?
(A) Product of all positive divisors of N = 15! is(15!)2016
(B) Sum of all odd positive divisors of N = 15! is (37 – 1) (54 – 1) (73 – 1) 7
2
(C) Product of all positive divisors of N = 15! which are not divisible by 5, is (15!)1008
(D) Sum of all odd positive divisors of 15! is (37 – 1)(54 – 1) (73 – 1)7
11. Let 'n' be an integer with n > 6. Let P1P2P3.... Pn be a regular n – sided polygon inscribed in a circle.
Three points Pi, Pj and Pk are randomly chosen, where i,j and k are distinct integers from 1 to n. The
number of possible ways such that the triangle PiPjPk is obtuse is
(A) 60, if n = 10
(B) 945, if n = 21
(C) 855, if n = 20
(D) 286, if n = 11
12. If (1 + x + x2 + x3)100 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 +.... a300x300 ; ai ∈ R ∀ i, then which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) a2 + a6 + a10 + a14 +... + a298 = 499
(B) a0 + a1 + a2 +...+ a149= 4100 − a150
2
(C) a0 + a1 + a2 + .... + a149 = 4100 + a150

2
(D) a0 + a2 + a4+.... + a300 = a1 + a3 + a5+.... + a299 = 2100
1001CJA106216240137 E-21/24
1. If |A| denotes the determinant of matrix A, where A is a square matrix of order 3, satisfying
tr(A) = 4, tr(A2) = 10, and tr(A3) = 28, then find the value of |A|
⎡ −1 12 7⎤
⎢ ⎥
2. Let A and B are two matrices, such that A = [aij]3×2, B = [bij]2×3, AB = ⎢
⎢ 0 5⎥
⎥.
⎢ ⎥
7
⎣ 5 −11 0⎦
Then det(BA) + det(AB) is equal to
3. Let (a1,a2,....a12) be a permutation of (1,2,.......12) for which a1 > a2 > a3 > a4 > a5 > a6 and a6 < a7 < ..... < a12.
An example of such a permutation is (6,5,4,3,2,1,7,8,9,10,11,12). If the number of such permutations is K,
K
then [ ] = ........... ([.] denotes greatest integer function)
100
4. Let A = {1,2,3,4,5} and B = {0,1,2,3,4,5} then the number of one-one function f : A → B can be define
so that f(i) ≠ i ∀ i = 2,3,4,5 and f(1) ≠ 0 or 1 is k whose digit in the ten's place is
5. Given (1 – 2x + 5x2 + 10x3) (1 + x)n = 1 + a1x + a2x2+...+an+3.xn+3; ai ∈ R ∀ i and that a21 = 2a2 , then the
value of n ( ∈ N) is
f (x)
6. If f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2 +...+ anxn+... and = b0 + b1 x + b2 x2 +. . . +bn xn +. . . If a0 = 1 and b1 = 3 and
1−x
b10 = k11 – 1, then k is ____ (Given that a0,a1,a2,..... are in G.P.)
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Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)

Time : 3 Hours PAPER-1 (OPTIONAL) Maximum Marks : 198

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m2 kg–2

· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

Space for Rough Work

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 0.2 cm (B) 0.3 cm (C) 0.4 cm (D) 0.5 cm

(A) Use voltmeter to measure voltage across points B and C

(A) OX = 7.2 cm (B) OX = 7.4 cm (C) OX = 7.6 cm (D) OX = 7.8 cm

(A) Focal length f1 is 3.75 cm

The readings are shown below

Find out (A).

Select CORRECT statement(s).

(A) Central metal ion in F is sp hybridized

[Given Z is uninegative ion]

Select correct statements.

Select CORRECT statement(s).

If , then the value of 5 λ is equal to

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3

correct for all possible matrices A and B?

(C) a0 + a1 + a2 + .... + a149 = 4100 + a150

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................

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Space for Rough Work

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