Oh 3
Oh 3
γ κ γ λ , γ µ γ ν = 2η λµ γ κ γ ν − 2η κµ γ λ γ ν + 2η λν γ µ γ κ − 2η κν γ µ γ λ .
(3)
i. Trγ µ = 0
ii. Tr(γ µ γ ν ) = 4η µν
iii. Tr(γ µ γ ν γ ρ ) = 0
2
iv. (γ 5 ) = 1
v. Trγ 5 = 0
vi. p/ q/ = 2p · q − q/ p/ = p · q + 2S µν pµ qν
1
viii. Tr( p/1 . . . p/n ) = 0 if n is odd
ix. Tr( p/1 p/2 p/3 p/4 ) = 4 [(p1 · p2 )(p3 · p4 ) + (p1 · p4 )(p2 · p3 ) − (p1 · p3 )(p2 · p4 )]
xi. γµ p/ γ µ = −2 p/
xiv. Tr(γ 5 p/1 p/2 p/3 p/4 ) = 4i ϵµνρσ pµ1 pν2 pρ3 p4σ
and similarly,
while taking the inner product using † requires an extra minus sign
2
where, rather than being contracted, the two spinors on the left-hand side are placed
back to back to form a 4 × 4 matrix.
6. The Fourier decomposition of the Dirac operator ψ(⃗x) and the conjugate field
ψ † (⃗x) is given by,
2 Z
X d3 p 1 h s s p·⃗
+i⃗ x s† s −i⃗
p·⃗
x
i
ψ(⃗x) = b u (⃗
p )e + c v (⃗
p )e
(2π)3 2Ep⃗ p⃗ p⃗
p
s=1
2 Z
†
X d3 p 1 h s † s † −i⃗p·⃗x s s † +i⃗
p·⃗
x
i
ψ (⃗x) = b u (⃗
p) e + c p
⃗ v (⃗
p) e (11)
(2π)3 2Ep⃗ p⃗
p
s=1
Show that these imply that the field and it conjugate momenta satisfy the anti-
commutation relations,
(Note: The calculation is very similar to that for the bosonic field, but at some point
you will need to make use of the identities (9) and (10)).
(Note: Again, the calculation is very similar to that for the bosonic field. This time
you will need to make use of the identities derived in Questions 4 and 5).
3
8. The purpose of this question is to give you a glimpse into the spin-statistics theorem.
This theorem roughly says that if you try to quantize a field with the wrong statistics,
bad things will happen. Here we’ll see what goes wrong if you try to quantize a spin
1/2 field as a boson. We start with the usual decomposition (11). This time we choose
bosonic commutation relations for the annihilation and creation operators,
with all other commutators vanishing. Note the strange minus sign for the c opera-
tors. Repeat the calculation of Question 6 to show that these are equivalent to the
commutation relations,
Now repeat the calculation of Question 7, to show that, after normal ordering, the
Hamitonian is given by
2 h
d3 p
Z X i
s† s s† s
H= Ep⃗ bp b
⃗ p ⃗ − cp c
⃗ p ⃗ (19)
(2π)3 s=1
This Hamiltonian is not bounded below: you can lower the energy indefinitely by
creating more and more c particles. This is the reason a theory of bosonic spin 1/2
particles is sick.