Introduction to Networks (Version 7.

00) – Modules 1 – 3: Basic Network

Connectivity and Communications Exam
1. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was
installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that
were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this
computer?
 DoS attack
 identity theft
 spyware
 zero-day attack
2. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the
corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
 Internet
 intranet
 extranet
 extendednet
3. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access
network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which
networking trend does this describe?
 cloud computing
 online collaboration
 bring your own device
 video conferencing
4. What is an ISP?
 It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
 It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
 It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to
connect to the Internet.
 It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking
devices in one.
5. Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network
architecture. (Not all options are used.)
6. An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order
to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information
from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the
employee access?
 an intranet
 the Internet
 an extranet
 a local area network
Explanation: Intranet is a term used to refer to a private connection of LANs and WANs that
belongs to an organization. An intranet is designed to be accessible only by the organization’s
members, employees, or others with authorization.

7. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

 New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.
 A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.
 A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an
existing electrical outlet.
 Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.
Explanation: Powerline networking adds the ability to connect a device to the network using an
adapter wherever there is an electrical outlet. The network uses existing electrical wiring to send
data. It is not a replacement for physical cabling, but it can add functionality in places where
wireless access points cannot be used or cannot reach devices.
8. A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical
clinic. The technician accidentally sets up the wireless network so that
patients can see the medical records data of other patients. Which of the four
network characteristics has been violated in this situation?
 fault tolerance
 scalability
 security
 Quality of Service (QoS)
 reliability
Explanation: Network security includes protecting the confidentiality of data that is on the
network. In this case, because confidential data has been made available to unauthorized users,
the security characteristic of the network has failed.
9. Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet connectivity type.
(Not all options are used.)
 ITN (Version 7.00) – Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 5
Explanation: DSL is an always-on, high bandwidth connection that runs over telephone lines.
Cable uses the same coaxial cable that carries television signals into the home to provide Internet
access. Dialup telephone is much slower than either DSL or cable, but is the least expensive option
for home users because it can use any telephone line and a simple modem. Satellite requires a
clear line of sight and is affected by trees and other obstructions. None of these typical home
options use dedicated leased lines such as T1/E1 and T3/E3.
10. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various
network media? (Choose two.)
 the types of data that need to be prioritized
 the cost of the end devices utilized in the network
 the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
 the number of intermediate devices installed in the network
 the environment where the selected medium is to be installed
Explanation: Criteria for choosing a network medium are the distance the selected medium can
successfully carry a signal, the environment in which the selected medium is to be installed, the
amount of data and the speed at which the data must be transmitted, and the cost of the medium
and its installation.
11. What type of network traffic requires QoS?
 email
 on-line purchasing
 video conferencing
 wiki
12. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two
actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network?
(Choose two.)
 implementing a firewall
 installing a wireless network
 installing antivirus software
 implementing an intrusion detection system
 adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device
Explanation: Technically complex security measures such as intrusion prevention and intrusion
prevention systems are usually associated with business networks rather than home networks.
Installing antivirus software, antimalware software, and implementing a firewall will usually be the
minimum requirements for home networks. Installing a home wireless network will not improve
network security, and will require further security actions to be taken.
13. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS.
Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords.
(Choose three.)
 VTY interface
 console interface
 Ethernet interface
 boot IOS mode
 privileged EXEC mode
 router configuration mode
Explanation: Access to the VTY and console interfaces can be restricted using passwords. Out-
of-band management of the router can be restricted in both user EXEC and privileged EXEC
modes.

14. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

 the AUX interface
 the console port interface
 the switch virtual interface
 the first Ethernet port interface
Explanation: In a Layer 2 switch, there is a switch virtual interface (SVI) that provides a means
for remotely managing the device.
15. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command
in IOS?
 It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
 It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
 It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
 It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.
Explanation: Pressing the Tab key after a command has been partially typed will cause the IOS
to complete the rest of the command.
16. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes
to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the
problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard
the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?
 Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.
 Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.
 Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.
 Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.
Explanation: The technician does not want to make any mistakes trying to remove all the
changes that were done to the running configuration file. The solution is to reboot the router without
saving the running configuration. The copy startup-config running-config command does not
overwrite the running configuration file with the configuration file stored in NVRAM, but rather it just
has an additive effect.
17. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after
issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
 to restart the ping process
 to interrupt the ping process
 to exit to a different configuration mode
 to allow the user to complete the command
Explanation: To interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute, a user enters the Ctrl-Shift-
6 key combination. Tab completes the remainder of parameters or arguments within a command.
To exit from configuration mode to privileged mode use the Ctrl-Z keystroke. CTRL-R will redisplay
the line just typed, thus making it easier for the user to press Enter and reissue the ping command.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch
SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which
password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
 CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam
Answers 14
 letmein
 secretin
 lineconin
 linevtyin
Explanation: Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the
line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC
mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through
the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the
privileged EXEC mode.
19. A technician configures a switch with these commands:

SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the technician configuring?

 Telnet access
 SVI
 password encryption
 physical switchport access
Explanation: For a switch to have an IP address, a switch virtual interface must be configured.
This allows the switch to be managed remotely over the network.
20. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the
previous level in the command hierarchy?
 end
 exit
 Ctrl-Z
 Ctrl-C
Explanation: End and CTRL-Z return the user to the privileged EXEC mode. Ctrl-C ends a
command in process. The exit command returns the user to the previous level.
21. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
 RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
 The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in
RAM.
 The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.
 RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
 RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.
Explanation: RAM stores data that is used by the device to support network operations. The
running configuration is stored in RAM. This type of memory is considered volatile memory because
data is lost during a power cycle. Flash memory stores the IOS and delivers a copy of the IOS into
RAM when a device is powered on. Flash memory is nonvolatile since it retains stored contents
during a loss of power.
22. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS
devices? (Choose two.)
 Branch2!
 RM-3-Switch-2A4
 Floor(15)
 HO Floor 17
 SwBranch799
Explanation: Some guidelines for naming conventions are that names should:
Start with a letter
Contain no spaces
End with a letter or digit
Use only letters, digits, and dashes
Be less than 64 characters in length
23. How is SSH different from Telnet?
 SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.
 SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages
and using user authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and
sends messages in plaintext.
 SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used
to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.
 SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to
connect to a device from a console connection.
Explanation: SSH is the preferred protocol for connecting to a device operating system over the
network because it is much more secure than Telnet. Both SSH and Telnet are used to connect to
devices over the network, and so are both used in-band. PuTTY and Terra Term can be used to
make both SSH and Telnet connections.
24. An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In
what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation
in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be
entered? (Not all options are used.)
 CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam
Answers 24
Explanation: The configuration mode that the administrator first encounters is user EXEC mode.
After the enable command is entered, the next mode is privileged EXEC mode. From there,
the configure terminal command is entered to move to global configuration mode. Finally, the
administrator enters the line console 0 command to enter the mode in which the configuration
will be entered.
25. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)
 It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
 It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.
 It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
 It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
 It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.
 It is associated with VLAN1 by default.
Explanation: Switches have one or more switch virtual interfaces (SVIs). SVIs are created in
software since there is no physical hardware associated with them. Virtual interfaces provide a
means to remotely manage a switch over a network that is using IP. Each switch comes with one
SVI appearing in the default configuration “out-of-the-box.” The default SVI interface is VLAN1.
26. What command is used to verify the condition of the switch interfaces,
including the status of the interfaces and a configured IP address?
 ipconfig
 ping
 traceroute
 show ip interface brief
Explanation: The show ip interface brief command is used to display a brief synopsis of the
condition of the device interfaces. The ipconfig command is used to verify TCP/IP properties on a
host. The ping command is used to verify Layer 3 connectivity. The traceroute command is used to
trace the network path from source to destination.
27. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are
used.)
28. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not
all options are used.)

Explanation: The shortcuts with their functions are as follows:

– Tab – Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword
– Space bar – displays the next screen
– ? – provides context-sensitive help
– Up Arrow – Allows user to scroll backward through former commands
– Ctrl-C – cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC
mode
– Ctrl-Shift-6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute
29. In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax is
represented by running-config ?
 the command
 a keyword
 a variable
 a prompt
Explanation: The first part of the syntax, show, is the command, and the second part of the
syntax, running-config, is the keyword. The keyword specifies what should be displayed as the
output of the show command.
30. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network
administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is
the result of issuing this command?
 The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
 The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
 The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
  The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
Explanation: With the copy running-config startup-config command, the content of the current
operating configuration replaces the startup configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration
file saved in NVRAM will be loaded when the device is restarted.
31. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in
plain text in a configuration file?
 (config)# enable password secret
 (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
 (config-line)# password secret
 (config)# service password-encryption
 (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
Explanation: To prevent all configured passwords from appearing in plain text in configuration
files, an administrator can execute the service password-encryption command. This command
encrypts all configured passwords in the configuration file.

32. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the
configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
 This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.
 This command prevents someone from viewing the running
configuration passwords.
 This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password
command.
 This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently
stored in NVRAM.
 This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel
who are required to do router maintenance.
Explanation: The startup-config and running-config files display most passwords in plaintext.
Use the service password-encryption global config command to encrypt all plaintext passwords in
these files.
33. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are
not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?
 encapsulation
 flow control
 access method
 response timeout
Explanation: In order for two computers to be able to communicate effectively, there must be a
mechanism that allows both the source and destination to set the timing of the transmission and
receipt of data. Flow control allows for this by ensuring that data is not sent too fast for it to be
received properly.
34. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process
when a PC is sending data to the network?
 Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
 Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
 Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.
 Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
Explanation: When the data is traveling from the PC to the network, the transport layer sends
segments to the internet layer. The internet layer sends packets to the network access layer, which
creates frames and then converts the frames to bits. The bits are released to the network media.
35. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol
suite? (Choose three.)
 ARP
 DHCP
 DNS
 FTP
 NAT
 PPP
Explanation: DNS, DHCP, and FTP are all application layer protocols in the TCP/IP protocol
suite. ARP and PPP are network access layer protocols, and NAT is an internet layer protocol in the
TCP/IP protocol suite.
36. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: The EIA is an international standards and trade organization for electronics
organizations. It is best known for its standards related to electrical wiring, connectors, and the 19-
inch racks used to mount networking equipment.
37. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?
 bits
 data
 frame
 packet
 segment
Explanation: Application data is passed down the protocol stack on its way to be transmitted
across the network media. During the process, various protocols add information to it at each level.
At each stage of the process, a PDU (protocol data unit) has a different name to reflect its new
functions. The PDUs are named according to the protocols of the TCP/IP suite:
Data – The general term for the PDU used at the application layer.
Segment – transport layer PDU
Packet – network layer PDU
Frame – data link layer PDU
Bits – A physical layer PDU used when physically transmitting data over the medium
38. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which
property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for
an IPv4 address?
 DNS server address
 subnet mask
 default gateway
 DHCP server address
Explanation: There are several components that need to be entered when configuring IPv4 for
an end device:
IPv4 address – uniquely identifies an end device on the network
Subnet mask – determines the network address portion and host portion for an IPv4 address
Default gateway – the IP address of the router interface used for communicating with hosts in
another network
DNS server address – the IP address of the Domain Name System (DNS) server
DHCP server address (if DHCP is used) is not configured manually on end devices. It will be
provided by a DHCP server when an end device requests an IP address.
39. What process involves placing one PDU inside of another PDU?
 encapsulation
 encoding
 segmentation
 flow control
Explanation: When a message is placed inside of another message, this is known as
encapsulation. On networks, encapsulation takes place when one protocol data unit is carried inside
of the data field of the next lower protocol data unit.
40. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork
in the TCP/IP model?
 internet
 transport
 network access
 session
Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and
network access. Of these four layers, it is the internet layer that is responsible for routing messages.
The session layer is not part of the TCP/IP model but is rather part of the OSI model.
41. For the TCP/IP protocol suite, what is the correct order of events when a
Telnet message is being prepared to be sent over the network?

CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam

Answers 41
42. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network
medium by the NIC of a host?
 file
 frame
 packet
 segment
Explanation: When received at the physical layer of a host, the bits are formatted into a frame at
the data link layer. A packet is the PDU at the network layer. A segment is the PDU at the transport
layer. A file is a data structure that may be used at the application layer.
43. Refer to the exhibit. ServerB is attempting to contact HostA. Which two
statements correctly identify the addressing that ServerB will generate in the
process? (Choose two.)

 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchB.
 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.
 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of
RouterB.
 ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of
HostA.
 ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.
Explanation: In order to send data to HostA, ServerB will generate a packet that contains the IP
address of the destination device on the remote network and a frame that contains the MAC
address of the default gateway device on the local network.
44. Which method allows a computer to react accordingly when it requests
data from a server and the server takes too long to respond?
 encapsulation
 flow control
 access method
 response timeout
Explanation: If a computer makes a request and does not hear a response within an acceptable
amount of time, the computer assumes that no answer is coming and reacts accordingly.
45. A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server.
From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol
stack that is used to decode the received transmission?
 Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
 HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
 Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
 HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP
Explanation:
1. HTTP governs the way that a web server and client interact.
2. TCP manages individual conversations between web servers and clients.
3. IP is responsible for delivery across the best path to the destination.
4. Ethernet takes the packet from IP and formats it for transmission.
46. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer
of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
 data link
 network
 physical
 session
 transport
Explanation: The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the TCP/IP
network access layer. The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the TCP/IP transport
layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI application,
presentation, and session layers are functionally equivalent to the application layer within the
TCP/IP model.
47. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during
encapsulation?
 physical layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 transport layer
Explanation: Logical addresses, also known as IP addresses, are added at the network layer.
Physical addresses are edded at the data link layer. Port addresses are added at the transport
layer. No addresses are added at the physical layer.
48. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?
 They are sent to a select group of hosts.
 They are sent to all hosts on a network.
 They must be acknowledged.
 They are sent to a single destination.
Explanation: Multicast is a one-to-many type of communication. Multicast messages are
addressed to a specific multicast group.
49. Which statement is correct about network protocols?
 Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in
racks.
 They define how messages are exchanged between the source and
the destination.
 They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
 They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
Explanation: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or both. They interact
with each other within different layers of a protocol stack. Protocols have nothing to do with the
installation of the network equipment. Network protocols are required to exchange information
between source and destination devices in both local and remote networks.
50. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?
 Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same
vendor.
 A client host and a server running different operating systems can
successfully exchange data.
 Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.
 Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.
Explanation: An advantage of network devices implementing open standard protocols, such as
from the TCP/IP suite, is that clients and servers running different operating systems can
communicate with each other. Open standard protocols facilitate innovation and competition
between vendors and across markets, and can reduce the occurrence of monopolies in networking
markets.
51. Which device performs the function of determining the path that
messages should take through internetworks?
 a router
 a firewall
 a web server
 a DSL modem
Explanation: A router is used to determine the path that the messages should take through the
network. A firewall is used to filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A DSL modem is used to provide
Internet connection for a home or an organization.
52. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and
then answer the question.
 CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam
Answers 52

Modules 1 - 3: Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam - Packet

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What is the IP address of the switch virtual interface (SVI) on Switch0?

 192.168.5.10
 192.168.10.5
 192.168.10.1
 192.168.5.0
Explanation: After the enable command is issued, the show running-configuration command or
the show ip interfaces brief command will display the IP address of the switch virtual interface (SVI).
53. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
 to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
 to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
 to enable the switch to be managed remotely
 to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to
attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have
a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical
interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.
54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but
receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the
problem?

CCNA-1-v7-Modules-1-3-Basic Network Connectivity and Communications Exam

Answers 54
 The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before
issuing the command.
 The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
Explanation: In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure terminal, or a
shortened version such as config t, must be entered from privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario
the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the hostname. The
administrator would need to use the enable command to move into privileged EXEC mode before
entering the configure terminal command.
55. What term describes a network owned by one organization that provides
safe and secure access to individuals who work for a different organization?
 extranet
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
56. What term describes storing personal files on servers over the internet to
provide access anywhere, anytime, and on any device?
 cloud
  BYOD
 quality of service
 converged network
57. What term describes a network where one computer can be both client
and server?
 peer-to-peer
 cloud
 BYOD
 quality of service
58. What term describes a type of network used by people who work from
home or from a small remote office?
 SOHO network
 BYOD
 quality of service
 converged network
59. What term describes a computing model where server software runs on
dedicated computers?
 client/server
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
61. What term describes a technology that allows devices to connect to the
LAN using an electrical outlet?
 powerline networking
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
62. What term describes a policy that allows network devices to manage the
flow of data to give priority to voice and video?
 quality of service
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
63. What term describes a private collection of LANs and WANs that belongs
to an organization?
 intranet
 internet
 extranet
 peer-to-peer
64. What term describes the ability to use personal devices across a business
or campus network?
 BYOD
 internet
 intranet
 extranet
65. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
 data link layer
 transport layer
 application layer
66. At which OSI layer is a destination port number added to a PDU during
the encapsulation process?
 transport layer
 data link layer
 network layer
 application layer
67. At which OSI layer is data added to a PDU during the encapsulation
process?
 application layer
 data link layer
 network layer
transport layer
68. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
 data link layer
 application layer
 presentation layer
69. Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a
network that participate directly in network communication?
 Servers
 Intermediary device
 Host
 media
Explanation: Hosts are all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network
communication.
70. At which OSI layer is a destination IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 network layer
 application layer
 transport layer
 presentation layer
71. At which OSI layer is a source MAC address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 data link layer
 application layer
 transport layer
 presentation layer
72. At which OSI layer is a source port number added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?
 transport layer
 application layer
 network layer
 presentation layer
 data link layer
73. At which OSI layer is a destination MAC address added to a PDU during
the encapsulation process?
 data link layer
 transport layer
 application layer
 network layer
74. When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to
transmit the data?
 Wireless
 Fire optic cable
 Copper cable
Explanation: Fiber-optic cable is the media is being used to transmit the data when data is
encoded as pulses of light.
75. Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)
 Host
 Router
 Switch
 Servers
Explanation: Routers and switches are intermediary devices.

1.10.2 Module Quiz – Networking Today (Answers)

1.10.2 Module Quiz – Networking Today (Answers)
Mar 30, 2020 Last Updated: Jun 5, 2022 CCNA v7.0, CCNA v7 Course #1 1 Comment
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1.10.2 Module Quiz – Networking Today Answers – CCNA 1 v7

Module 1 Quiz

1. How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?
 BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.
 BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the need for
organizational security policies.
 BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an organization.
 BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network
resources.
Explanation: A BYOD environment requires an organization to accommodate a variety of
devices and access methods. Personal devices, which are not under company control, may be
involved, so security is critical. Onsite hardware costs will be reduced, allowing a business to focus
on delivering collaboration tools and other software to BYOD users.
2. An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in
the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to
gain secure remote access to a company network?
 ACL
 IPS
 VPN
 BYOD
Explanation: Virtual private networks (VPN) are used to provide secure access to remote
workers.
3. What is the Internet?
 It is a network based on Ethernet technology.
 It provides network access for mobile devices.
 It provides connections through interconnected global networks.
 It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.
Explanation: The Internet provides global connections that enable networked devices
(workstations and mobile devices) with different network technologies, such as Ethernet,
DSL/cable, and serial connections, to communicate. A private network for an organization with LAN
and WAN connections is an intranet.
4. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)
 They originate the data that flows through the network.
 They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.
 They filter the flow of data to enhance security.
 They are the interface between humans and the communication
network.
 They provide the channel over which the network message travels.
Explanation: End devices originate the data that flows through the network. Intermediary devices
direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures and filter the flow of data to enhance
security. Network media provide the channel through which network messages travel.
5. In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?
 an Internet cafe in a city
 a farm in a rural area without wired broadband access
 any home with multiple wireless devices
 an apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet
Explanation: Wireless Internet Service Providers (WISPs) are typically found in rural areas
where DSL or cable access is not available. A dish or antenna on the property of the subscriber
connects wirelessly to a WISP transmitter, eliminating the need for physical cabling outside the
building.
6. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new
users and applications without impacting the performance of the service
being delivered to existing users?
 reliability
 scalability
 quality of service
 accessibility
Explanation: Networks must be able to quickly grow to support new users and services, without
impacting existing users and services. This ability to grow is known as scalability.
7. A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging
in the ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker
accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing
dormitories to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut,
students in the dormitories only experience a very short interruption of
network services. What characteristic of the network is shown here?
 quality of service (QoS)
 scalability
 security
 fault tolerance
 integrity
Explanation: Fault tolerance is the characteristic of a network which allows it to quickly respond
to failures of network devices, media, or services. Quality of service refers to the measures taken to
ensure that network traffic requiring higher throughput receives the required network resources.
Scalability refers to the ability of the network to grow to accommodate new requirements. Security
refers to protecting networks and data from theft, alteration, or destruction. Integrity refers to the
completeness of something and is generally not used as a characteristic of networks in the same
way as the other terms.
8. What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)
 easily overloaded with increased traffic
 grows in size without impacting existing users
 is not as reliable as a small network
 suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion
 offers limited number of applications
Explanation: Scalable networks are networks that can grow without requiring costly replacement
of existing network devices. One way to make a network scalable is to buy networking devices that
are modular.
9. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages
should take through internetworks?
 a router
 a firewall
 a web server
 a DSL modem
Explanation: A router is used to determine the path that the messages should take through the
network. A firewall is used to filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A DSL modem is used to provide
Internet connection for a home or an organization.
10. Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables
be run to the building? (Choose two.)
 DSL
 cellular
 satellite
 dialup
 dedicated leased line
Explanation: Cellular connectivity requires the use of the cell phone network. Satellite
connectivity is often used where physical cabling is not available outside the home or business.
11. What type of network must a home user access in order to do online
shopping?
 an intranet
 the Internet
 an extranet
 a local area network
Explanation: Home users will go online shopping over the Internet because online vendors are
accessed through the Internet. An intranet is basically a local area network for internal use only. An
extranet is a network for external partners to access certain resources inside an organization. A
home user does not necessarily need a LAN to access the Internet. For example, a PC connects
directly to the ISP through a modem.
12. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that
was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that
were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this
computer?
 DoS attack
 identity theft
 spyware
 zero-day attack
Explanation: Spyware is software that is installed on a network device and that collects
information.
13. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the
corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
 Internet
 intranet
 extranet
 extendednet
Explanation: The term Internet refers to the worldwide collection of connected networks. Intranet
refers to a private connection of LANs and WANS that belong to an organization and is designed to
be accessible to the members of the organization, employees, or others with authorization.
Extranets provide secure and safe access to suppliers, customers, and collaborators. Extendednet
is not a type of network.
14. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access
network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which
networking trend does this describe?
 cloud computing
 online collaboration
 bring your own device
 video conferencing
Explanation: BYOD allows end users to use personal tools to access the corporate network.
Allowing this trend can have major impacts on a network, such as security and compatibility with
corporate software and devices.
15. What is an ISP?
 It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
 It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
 It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to
connect to the Internet.
 It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking
devices in one.

2.9.4 Module Quiz – Basic Switch and End Device

Configuration (Answers)
2.9.4 Module Quiz – Basic Switch and End Device
Configuration (Answers)
Mar 30, 2020 Last Updated: Jun 5, 2022 CCNA v7 Course #1, CCNA v7.0 1 Comment
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2.9.4 Module Quiz – Basic Switch and End Device Configuration

Answers
1. Which functionality is provided by DHCP?
 automatic assignment of an IP address to each host
 remote switch management
 translation of IP addresses to domain names
 end-to-end connectivity test
Explanation: DHCP provides dynamic and automatic IP address assignment to hosts.
2. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help
feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
 providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted
 displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode
 allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB
key
 determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the
entered command
 selecting the best command to accomplish a task
Explanation: Context-sensitive help provides the user with a list of commands and the
arguments associated with those commands within the current mode of a networking device.
A syntax checker provides error checks on submitted commands and the TAB key can be used for
command completion if a partial command is entered.
3. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup
configuration file?
 RAM
 ROM
 NVRAM
 flash
Explanation: The startup configuration file of a Cisco router or switch is stored in NVRAM, which
is nonvolatile memory.
4. To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of
255.255.0.0 is used?
 10.1.0.0
 10.0.0.0
 10.1.100.32
 10.1.100.0
Explanation: The purpose of a subnet mask is to separate the network portion of the address
from the host portion of the IP address. The network portion of the IP address is identified by all
binary 1s in the subnet mask. Using a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 identifies the first two octets of
the IP address as the network portion.
5. When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming
conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)
 the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length
 the hostname should be written in all lower case characters
 the hostname should contain no spaces
 the hostname should end with a special character
 the hostname should begin with a letter
Explanation: A hostname can be configured with upper or lower case characters and should end
with a letter or digit, not a special character. A hostname should start with a letter and no space is
allowed for a hostname.
6. What is the function of the shell in an OS?
 It interacts with the device hardware.
 It interfaces between the users and the kernel.
 It provides dedicated firewall services.
 It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.
Explanation: Most operating systems contain a shell and a kernel. The kernel interacts with the
hardware and the shell interfaces between the kernel and the users.
7. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored
in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no
console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
 global configuration mode
 setup mode
 Oprivileged EXEC mode
 user EXEC mode
Explanation: If a Cisco IOS device has a valid IOS and a valid configuration file, it will boot into
user EXEC mode. A password will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.
8. An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS
device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the
device?
 Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.
 Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running configuration.
 Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration.
 Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device
take effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter
key has been pressed.
Explanation: Changes to router and switch configurations take effect as soon as the command is
entered. For this reason, it is very important that changes to live production devices are always
carefully planned before being implemented. If commands are entered that render the device
unstable or inaccessible, the device may have to be reloaded, resulting in network downtime.
9. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content
when the device is restarted?
 ROM
 flash
 NVRAM
 RAM
Explanation: RAM is volatile memory and will lose all contents if the router or switch is restarted
or shutdown.
10. Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-
config?
 to remove all configurations from the switch
 to save an active configuration to NVRAM
 to copy an existing configuration into RAM
 to make a changed configuration the new startup configuration
Explanation: Usually, changes are made to a running configuration in RAM and copied
to NVRAM. However, in this case, the technician wants to copy a previously saved configuration
from NVRAM into RAM in order to make changes to it.?
11. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco
IOS device?
 It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
 It is stored in NVRAM.
 It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
 It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
Explanation: As soon as configuration commands are entered into a router, they modify the
device immediately. Running configuration files can not be deleted nor are they saved
automatically.
12. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose
two.)
 All router commands are available.
 Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
 The device prompt for this mode ends with the “>” symbol.
 Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
 Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
Explanation: User EXEC mode limits access to some show and debug commands. It is the
first level of user interface encountered when configuring a router and is intended for investigation of
certain functions of the device. The User EXEC prompt is identified with the “>” symbol.
13. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with
the enable secret command?
 virtual terminal
 privileged EXEC
 AUX port
 console line
Explanation: The enable secret command secures access to the privileged EXEC mode of a
Cisco router or switch.
14. What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?
 VLAN1
  VLAN99
 VLAN100
 VLAN999
Explanation: Layer 2 switches use switch virtual interfaces (SVIs) to provide a means for remote
access over IP. The default SVI on a Cisco switch is VLAN1.

3.8.2 Module Quiz – Protocols and Models (Answers)

1. What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a
readable message?
 access control
 decoding
 encapsulation
 flow control
Explanation: Decoding is the process of receiving transmitted data and reversing the encoding
process to interpret the information. An example is a person that listens to a voicemail and decodes
the sounds to understand the received message.
2. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical
medium?
 It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
 It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
 It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
 It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.
Explanation: When messages are sent on a network, the encapsulation process works from the
top of the OSI or TCP/IP model to the bottom. At each layer of the model, the upper layer
information is encapsulated into the data field of the next protocol. For example, before an IP packet
can be sent, it is encapsulated in a data link frame at Layer 2 so that it can be sent over the physical
medium.
3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for
transfer from the source to the destination?
 access control
 decoding
 encapsulation
 flow control
Explanation: Encapsulation is the process of placing one message format into another message
format. An example is how a packet is placed in its entirety into the data field as it is encapsulated
into a frame.
4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the
perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that
is used to prepare the request for transmission?
 HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
 HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
 Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
 Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
Explanation:
1. HTTP governs the way that a web server and client interact.
2. TCP manages individual conversations between web servers and clients.
3. IP is responsible for delivery across the best path to the destination.
4. Ethernet takes the packet from IP and formats it for transmission.
5. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)
 It assists in protocol design.
 It speeds up packet delivery.
 It prevents designers from creating their own model.
 It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
 It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
Explanation: Some vendors have developed their own reference models and protocols. Today, if
a device is to communicate on the Internet, the device must use the TCP/IP model. The benefits of
using a layered model are as follows:
 assists in protocol design
  fosters competition between vendors
 prevents a technology that functions at one layer from affecting any other layer
 provides a common language for describing network functionality
 helps in visualizing the interaction between each layer and protocols between each layer
6. What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?
 specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication
 specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication
 providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to
occur
 dictating the content of the message sent during communication
Explanation: Protocols provide rules that define how a message is transmitted across a network.
Implementation requirements such as electronic and bandwidth details for data communication are
specified by standards. Operating systems are not specified by protocols, but will implement
protocols. Protocols determine how and when to send a message but they do not control the
contents of a message.
7. Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?
 destination MAC address
 destination IP address
 destination port number
 source MAC address
 source IP address
Explanation: The destination IP address is used for end-to-end delivery of data to a remote
network. The destination MAC address is used for delivery on a local network. The destination port
number identifies the application that should process the data at the destination. Source addresses
identify the sender of the data.
8. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any
layer of a networking model?
 frame
 packet
 protocol data unit
 segment
Explanation: The term protocol data unit (PDU) is used to describe a piece of data at any layer
of a networking model. A packet is the PDU at the network layer. A frame is the data link layer PDU.
A segment is the PDU at the transport layer.
9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)
 POP
 BOOTP
 ICMP
 IP
 PPP
Explanation: ICMP and IP both function at the internet layer, whereas PPP is a network access
layer protocol, and POP and BOOTP are application layer protocols.
10. Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble
data for individual communications between end devices?
 application
 presentation
 session
 transport
 network
Explanation: The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session,
transport, network, data link, and physical. The transport layer defines services to segment, transfer,
and reassemble the data for individual communications between the end devices.
11. Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host
destinations simultaneously?
 broadcast
 multicast
 unicast
 anycast
Explanation: Multicast is a one-to-many communication where the message is delivered to a
specific group of hosts. Broadcast communication is a one-to-all communication. A unicast
communication is a one-to-one communication. Anycast is an IPv6 term and is the sending of data
in a one-to-nearest communication.
12. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations?
(Choose three.)
 IANA
 TCP/IP
 IEEE
 IETF
 OSI
 MAC
Explanation: TCP/IP is a protocol stack that contains a lot of other protocols such as HTTP,
FTP, and DNS. The TCP/IP protocol stack is required to be used when communicating on the
Internet. A MAC address is an address that is burned into an Ethernet network card. OSI is the 7
layer model that is used to explain how networking works.
13. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local
area network?
 broadcast
 multicast
 unicast
 allcast
Explanation: Broadcast communication is a one-to-all communication. A unicast communication
is a one-to-one communication. Multicast is a one-to-many communication where the message is
delivered to a specific group of hosts. Allcast is not a standard term to describe message delivery.
14. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?
 to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
 to interpret information
 to break large messages into smaller frames
 negotiate correct timing for successful communication
Explanation: Before a message is sent across a network it must first be encoded. Encoding is
the process of converting the data message into another format suitable for transmission across the
physical medium. Each bit of the message is encoded into a pattern of sounds, light waves, or
electrical impulses depending on the network media over which the bits are transmitted. The
destination host receives and decodes the signals in order to interpret the message.
15. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive
the same message simultaneously?
 duplex
 unicast
 multicast
 broadcast
Explanation: When all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously, the message
would be delivered as a broadcast. Unicast delivery occurs when one source host sends a message
to one destination host. The sending of the same message from a host to a group of destination
hosts is multicast delivery. Duplex communications refers to the ability of the medium to carry
messages in both directions.
16. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network
communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose
three.)
 connector specifications
 message encoding
 media selection
 message size
 delivery options
 end-device installation
17. What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?
 remote delivery
 local and remote delivery
 local delivery
 remote delivery using routers
18. What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path
through the network?
 application
 transport
 internet
 network access

Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 4 – 7: Ethernet

Concepts Exam
1. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?
 controlling access to media
 transmitting bits across the local media
 performing error detection on received frames
 exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media
2. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
 The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
 They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
 They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
 They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
3. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?
 the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
 the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in
adjacent wires
 the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
 the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point
4. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
 requiring proper grounding connections
 twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
 wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
 designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
 avoiding sharp bends during installation
5. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.
6. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the
company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The
administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the
bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in
throughput? (Choose three.)
 the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
 the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
 the type of traffic that is crossing the network
 the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the
data is crossing
 the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
 the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
Explanation: Throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth of physical links due to
multiple factors. These factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic, and latency created by
the network devices the data has to cross.

7. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

 It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
 Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
 It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
 It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
 It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.
Explanation: Fiber-optic cabling supports higher bandwidth than UTP for longer distances. Fiber
is immune to EMI and RFI, but costs more, requires more skill to install, and requires more safety
precautions.

8. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
 create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the
media
 provide physical addressing to the devices
 determine the path packets take through the network
 control data access to the media
Explanation: The OSI physical layer provides the means to transport the bits that make up a
frame across the network media. This layer accepts a complete frame from the data link layer and
encodes it as a series of signals that are transmitted to the local media.
9. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what
causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
 the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
 the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
 the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
 the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
Explanation: Crosstalk is a type of noise, or interference that occurs when signal transmission
on one wire interferes with another wire. When current flows through a wire a magnetic field is
produced. The produced magnetic field will interface the signal carried in the adjacent wire.
10. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP

UTP

coax

fiber

Explanation: Network cabling include different types of cables:
  UTP cable consists of four pairs of color-coded wires that have been twisted together and
then encased in a flexible plastic sheath.
 STP cable uses four pairs of wires, each wrapped in a foil shield, which are then wrapped
in an overall metallic braid or foil.
 Coaxial cable uses a copper conductor and a layer of flexible plastic insulation surrounds
the copper conductor.
 Fiber cable is a flexible, extremely thin, transparent strand of glass surrounded by plastic
insulation.
11. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the
communication carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)
 crosstalk
 bandwidth
 size of the network
 signal modulation technique
 electromagnetic interference
Explanation: Copper media is widely used in network communications. However, copper media
is limited by distance and signal interference. Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical
pulses. The electrical pulses are susceptible to interference from two sources:
 Electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference
(RFI) – EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt the data signals being carried by
copper media.
 Crosstalk – Crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of a
signal on one wire interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire.
12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

 STP
 UTP
 coax
 fiber
13. Which two devices commonly affect wireless networks? (Choose two.)
 Blu-ray players
 home theaters
 cordless phones
 microwaves
 incandescent light bulbs
 external hard drives
Explanation: Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) is the interference that is caused by radio
transmitters and other devices that are transmitting in the same frequency.
14. Which two statements describe the services provided by the data link
layer? (Choose two.)
 It defines the end-to-end delivery addressing scheme.
 It maintains the path between the source and destination devices during the data
transmission.
 It manages the access of frames to the network media.
 It provides reliable delivery through link establishment and flow control.
 It ensures that application data will be transmitted according to the prioritization.
 It packages various Layer 3 PDUs into a frame format that is
compatible with the network interface.
Explanation: The data link layer is divided into two sub layers, namely Logical Link Control (LLC)
and Media Access Control (MAC). LLC forms a frame from the network layer PDU into a format that
conforms to the requirements of the network interface and media. A network layer PDU might be for
IPv4 or IPv6. The MAC sub layer defines the media access processes performed by the hardware.
It manages the frame access to the network media according to the physical signaling requirements
(copper cable, fiber optic, wireless, etc.)
15. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a
frame?
 to verify the integrity of the received frame
 to verify the physical address in the frame
 to verify the logical address in the frame
 to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame
Explanation: The CRC value in the FCS field of the received frame is compared to the computed
CRC value of that frame, in order to verify the integrity of the frame. If the two values do not match,
then the frame is discarded.
16. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
 logical address
 physical address
 data
 error detection
Explanation: The trailer in a data-link frame contains error detection information that is pertinent
to the frame included in the FCS field. The header contains control information, such as the
addressing, while the area that is indicated by the word “data” includes the data, transport layer
PDU, and the IP header.
17. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of
the data link layer?
 They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
 Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination addresses.
 They vary depending on protocols.
 They include information on user applications.
Explanation: All data link layer protocols encapsulate the Layer 3 PDU within the data field of the
frame. However, the structure of the frame and the fields that are contained in the header vary
according to the protocol. Different data link layer protocols may use different fields, like
priority/quality of service, logical connection control, physical link control, flow control, and
congestion control.
18. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting
remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high
availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?
 mesh
 partial mesh
 hub and spoke
 point-to-point
Explanation: Partial mesh topologies provide high availability by interconnecting multiple remote
sites, but do not require a connection between all remote sites. A mesh topology requires point-to-
point links with every system being connected to every other system. A point-to-point topology is
where each device is connected to one other device. A hub and spoke uses a central device in a
star topology that connects to other point-to-point devices.
19. Which two fields or features does Ethernet examine to determine if a
received frame is passed to the data link layer or discarded by the NIC?
(Choose two.)
 auto-MDIX
 CEF
 Frame Check Sequence
 minimum frame size
 source MAC address
Explanation: An Ethernet frame is not processed and is discarded if it is smaller than the
minimum (64 bytes) or if the calculated frame check sequence (FCS) value does not match the
received FCS value. Auto-MDIX (automatic medium-dependent interface crossover) is Layer 1
technology that detects cable straight-through or crossover types. The source MAC address is not
used to determine how the frame is received. CEF (Cisco Express Forwarding) is a technology used
to expedite Layer 3 switching.
20. Which media communication type does not require media arbitration in
the data link layer?
 deterministic
 half-duplex
 full-duplex
 controlled access
Explanation: Half-duplex communication occurs when both devices can both transmit and
receive on the medium but cannot do so simultaneously. Full-duplex communication occurs when
both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time and therefore does not
require media arbitration. Half-duplex communication is typically contention-based, whereas
controlled (deterministic) access is applied in technologies where devices take turns to access the
medium.
21. Which statement describes an extended star topology?
 End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn
connects to other central intermediate devices.
 End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central
intermediate device.
 Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.
 All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.
Explanation: In an extended star topology, central intermediate devices interconnect other star
topologies.
22. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
 It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
 It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the
medium.
 It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols
to use the same network interface and media.
 It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
Explanation: The Logical Link Control (LLC) defines the software processes that provide
services to the network layer protocols. The information is placed by LLC in the frame and identifies
which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3
protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.
23. What are three ways that media access control is used in networking?
(Choose three.)
 Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.
 Media access control provides placement of data frames onto the
media.
 Contention-based access is also known as deterministic.
 802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.
 Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different
media.
 Networks with controlled access have reduced performance due to data collisions.
Explanation: Wired Ethernet networks use CSMA/CD for media access control. IEEE 802.11
wireless networks use CSMA/CA, a similar method. Media access control defines the way data
frames get placed on the media. The controlled access method is deterministic, not a contention-
based access to networks. Because each device has its own time to use the medium, controlled
access networks such as legacy Token Ring do not have collisions.
24. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a
PC connected to an Ethernet network?
 An IP address is added.
 The logical address is added.
 The physical address is added.
 The process port number is added.
Explanation: The Ethernet frame includes the source and destination physical address. The
trailer includes a CRC value in the Frame Check Sequence field to allow the receiving device to
determine if the frame has been changed (has errors) during the transmission.
25. What three items are contained in an Ethernet header and trailer?
(Choose three.)
 source IP address
 source MAC address

 destination IP address
 destination MAC address
 error-checking information
Explanation: Layer 2 headers contain the following:
 Frame start and stop indicator flags at the beginning and end of a frame
 Addressing – for Ethernet networks this part of the header contains source and
destination MAC addresses
 Type field to indicate what Layer 3 protocol is being used
 Error detection to determine if the frame arrived without error

26. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

 access method
 flow control
 message encapsulation
 message encoding
Explanation: Carrier sense multiple access collision detection (CSMA/CD) is the access method
used with Ethernet. The access method rule of communication dictates how a network device is
able to place a signal on the carrier. CSMA/CD dictates those rules on an Ethernet network and
CSMA/CA dictates those rules on an 802.11 wireless LAN.
27. Which three basic parts are common to all frame types supported by the
data link layer? (Choose three.)
 header
 type field
 MTU size
 data
 trailer
 CRC value
Explanation: The data link protocol is responsible for NIC-to-NIC communications within the
same network. Although there are many different data link layer protocols that describe data link
layer frames, each frame type has three basic parts:
 Header
 Data
 Trailer

28. Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD access method that is used in
Ethernet?
 When a device hears a carrier signal and transmits, a collision cannot occur.
 A jamming signal causes only devices that caused the collision to execute a backoff
algorithm.
 All network devices must listen before transmitting.
 Devices involved in a collision get priority to transmit after the backoff period.
Explanation: Legacy bus-topology Ethernet LAN uses CSMA/CD as network media access
control protocol. It works by detecting a collision in the medium and backing off (after transmitting a
jam signal) as necessary. When one host wants to transmit a frame, it listens on the medium to
check if the medium is busy. After it senses that no one else is transmitting, the host starts
transmitting the frame, it also monitors the current level to detect a collision. If it detects a collision, it
transmits a special jam signal so that all other hosts can know there was a collision. The other host
will receive this jam signal and stop transmitting. After this, both hosts enter an exponential backoff
phase and retry transmission.
29. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
 the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
 the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or
a crossover Ethernet cable connection
 the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or
optical cable
 the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is
detected
Explanation: The auto-MDIX enables a switch to use a crossover or a straight-through Ethernet
cable to connect to a device regardless of the device on the other end of the connection.
30. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet
frame as it leaves the web server if the final destination is PC1?

 00-60-2F-3A-07-AA
 00-60-2F-3A-07-BB
 00-60-2F-3A-07-CC
 00-60-2F-3A-07-DD
Explanation: The destination MAC address is used for local delivery of Ethernet frames. The
MAC (Layer 2) address changes at each network segment along the path. As the frame leaves the
web server, it will be delivered by using the MAC address of the default gateway.
31. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T
port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory
buffering would work best for this task?
 port-based buffering
 level 1 cache buffering
 shared memory buffering
 fixed configuration buffering
Explanation: With shared memory buffering, the number of frames stored in the buffer is
restricted only by the of the entire memory buffer and not limited to a single port buffer. This permits
larger frames to be transmitted with fewer dropped frames. This is important to asymmetric
switching, which applies to this scenario, where frames are being exchanged between ports of
different rates. With port-based memory buffering, frames are stored in queues that are linked to
specific incoming and outgoing ports making it possible for a single frame to delay the transmission
of all the frames in memory because of a busy destination port. Level 1 cache is memory used in a
CPU. Fixed configuration refers to the port arrangement in switch hardware.

32. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)
 store-and-forward switching
 fast-forward switching
 CRC switching
 fragment-free switching
 QOS switching
Explanation: Store-and forward switching accepts the entire frame and performs error checking
using CRC before forwarding the frame. Store-and-forward is often required for QOS analysis. Fast-
forward and fragment-free are both variations of the cut-through switching method where only part
of the frame is received before the switch begins to forward it.

33. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to
detect errors before forwarding the frame?
 cut-through switching
 store-and-forward switching
 fragment-free switching
 fast-forward switching
Explanation: Fast-forward and fragment-free switching are variations of cut-through switching,
which begins to forward the frame before the entire frame is received.
34. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?
  to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
 to verify the logical address of the sending node
 to compute the CRC header for the data field
 to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception
Explanation: The FCS field in a frame is used to detect any errors in the transmission and
receipt of a frame. This is done by comparing the CRC value within the frame against a computed
CRC value of the frame. If the two values do not match, then the frame is discarded.
35. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?
 cut-through
 store-and-forward
 fragment-free
 fast-forward
Explanation: Fast-forward switching begins to forward a frame after reading the destination MAC
address, resulting in the lowest latency. Fragment-free reads the first 64 bytes before forwarding.
Store-and-forward has the highest latency because it reads the entire frame before beginning to
forward it. Both fragment-free and fast-forward are types of cut-through switching.
36. A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a
straight-through cable. The switches are new and have never been
configured. Which three statements are correct about the final result of the
connection? (Choose three.)
 The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is
supported by both switches.
 The link between switches will work as full-duplex.
 If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.
 The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the
need for a crossover cable.
 The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a
crossover cable.
 The duplex capability has to be manually configured because it cannot be negotiated.
Explanation: Modern switches can negotiate to work in full-duplex mode if both switches are
capable. They will negotiate to work using the fastest possible speed and the auto-MDIX feature is
enabled by default, so a cable change is not needed.
37. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have
compared with the cut-through switching method?
 collision detecting
 frame error checking
 faster frame forwarding
 frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information
Explanation: A switch using the store-and-forward switching method performs an error check on
an incoming frame by comparing the FCS value against its own FCS calculations after the entire
frame is received. In comparison, a switch using the cut-through switching method makes quick
forwarding decisions and starts the forwarding process without waiting for the entire frame to be
received. Thus a switch using cut-through switching may send invalid frames to the network. The
performance of store-and-forward switching is slower compared to cut-through switching
performance. Collision detection is monitored by the sending device. Store-and-forward switching
does not use IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information for its forwarding decisions.
38. When the store-and-forward method of switching is in use, what part of
the Ethernet frame is used to perform an error check?
 CRC in the trailer
 source MAC address in the header
 destination MAC address in the header
 protocol type in the header
Explanation: The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) part of the trailer is used to determine if the
frame has been modified during transit. If the integrity of the frame is verified, the frame is
forwarded. If the integrity of the frame cannot be verified, then the frame is dropped.

39. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?

 cut-through
 fast-forward
  fragment-free
 store-and-forward
Explanation: When the store-and-forward switching method is used, the switch receives the
complete frame before forwarding it on to the destination. The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) part
of the trailer is used to determine if the frame has been modified during transit. In contrast, a cut-
through switch forwards the frame once the destination Layer 2 address is read. Two types of cut-
through switching methods are fast-forward and fragment-free.
40. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
 building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
 using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a
MAC address table
 forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
 utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination
MAC address
 examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table
Explanation: Important actions that a switch performs are as follows:
 When a frame comes in, the switch examines the Layer 2 source address to build and
maintain the Layer 2 MAC address table.
 It examines the Layer 2 destination address to determine how to forward the frame.
When the destination address is in the MAC address table, then the frame is sent out a
particular port. When the address is unknown, the frame is sent to all ports that have
devices connected to that network.
41. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link
control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
 Logical link control is implemented in software.
 Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.
 The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.
 The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of
the protocol suite.
 The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the
media.
Explanation: Logical link control is implemented in software and enables the data link layer to
communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite. Logical link control is specified in the IEEE
802.2 standard. IEEE 802.3 is a suite of standards that define the different Ethernet types. The
MAC (Media Access Control) sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on
and off the media. The MAC sublayer is also responsible for adding a header and a trailer to the
network layer protocol data unit (PDU).
42. What is the auto-MDIX feature?
 It enables a device to automatically configure an interface to use a
straight-through or a crossover cable.
 It enables a device to automatically configure the duplex settings of a segment.
 It enables a device to automatically configure the speed of its interface.
 It enables a switch to dynamically select the forwarding method.
Explanation: The auto-MDIX feature allows the device to configure its network port according to
the cable type that is used (straight-through or crossover) and the type of device that is connected
to that port. When a port of a switch is configured with auto-MDIX, this switch can be connected to
another switch by the use of either a straight-through cable or a crossover cable.

43. What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-
and-forward switching method?
 has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
 makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
 has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing
applications
 provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds
Explanation: Cut-through switching provides lower latency switching for high-performance
computing (HPC) applications. Cut-through switching allows more invalid frames to cross the
network than store-and-forward switching. The cut-through switching method can make a
forwarding decision as soon as it looks up the destination MAC address of the frame.
44. Which is a multicast MAC address?
 FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
 5C-26-0A-4B-19-3E
 01-00-5E-00-00-03
 00-26-0F-4B-00-3E
Explanation: Multicast MAC addresses begin with the special value of 01-00-5E.
45. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

 The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

 The wrong type of connector is being used.
 The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
 The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
Explanation: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the
untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped
down and not the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the
jack.
46. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the
switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which
types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?

1 - rollover, 2 - crossover, 3 - straight-through

1 - rollover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - crossover

1 - crossover, 2 - rollover, 3 - straight-through
1 - crossover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - rollover
Explanation: A straight-through cable is commonly used to interconnect a host to a switch and a
switch to a router. A crossover cable is used to interconnect similar devices together like switch to a
switch, a host to a host, or a router to a router. If a switch has the MDIX capability, a crossover
could be used to connect the switch to the router; however, that option is not available. A rollover
cable is used to connect to a router or switch console port.
47. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and
then answer the question.

Modules 4 - 7: Ethernet Concepts Exam - Packet Tracer 0.00 KB 13342 downloads

...
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Which port does Switch0 use to send frames to the host with the IPv4 address 10.1.1.5?
 Fa0/1
 Fa0/5
 Fa0/9
 Fa0/11
Explanation: Issuing the command ipconfig /all from the PC0 command prompt displays the
IPv4 address and MAC address. When the IPv4 address 10.1.1.5 is pinged from PC0, the switch
stores the source MAC address (from PC0) along with the port to which PC0 is connected. When
the destination reply is received, the switch takes the destination MAC address and compares to
MAC addresses stored in the MAC address table. Issuing the show mac-address-table on the
PC0 Terminal application displays two dynamic MAC address entries. The MAC address and port
entry that does not belong to PC0 must be the MAC address and port of the destination with the
IPv4 address 10.1.1.5.
48. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
 loss of signal strength as distance increases
 time for a signal to reach its destination
 leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
 strengthening of a signal by a networking device
Explanation: Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. A detector in the network
interface of a destination device must receive a signal that can be successfully decoded to match
the signal sent. However, the farther the signal travels, the more it deteriorates. This is referred to
as signal attenuation.
49. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting
buildings? (Choose three.)
 greater distances per cable run
 lower installation cost
 limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
 durable connections
 greater bandwidth potential
 easily terminated
Explanation: Optical fiber cable transmits data over longer distances and at higher bandwidths
than any other networking media. Unlike copper wires, fiber-optic cable can transmit signals with
less attenuation and is completely immune to EMI and RFI.
50. What OSI physical layer term describes the process by which one wave
modifies another wave?
 modulation
 IEEE
 EIA/TIA
  air
51. What OSI physical layer term describes the capacity at which a medium
can carry data?
 bandwidth
 IEEE
 EIA/TIA
 air
53. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of
bits across a medium over a given period of time?
 throughput
 bandwidth
 latency
 goodput
54. What OSI physical layer term describes the amount of time, including
delays, for data to travel from one point to another?
 latency
 bandwidth
 throughput
 goodput
55. What OSI physical layer term describes the amount of time, including
delays, for data to travel from one point to another?
 latency
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 copper cable
56. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of usable data
transferred over a given period of time?
 goodput
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 copper cable
57. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium which uses
electrical pulses?
 copper cable
 fiber-optic cable
 air
 goodput
58. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium that uses
the propagation of light?
 fiber-optic cable
 goodput
 latency
 throughput
59. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium for
microwave transmissions?
 air
 goodput
 latency
 throughput
60. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI data
link layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used
for the frame.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the
physical medium.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
Case 2:
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
  Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the device
hardware at the lower layers.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
Case 3:
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used
for the frame.
Case 4:
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the device
hardware at the lower layers.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
Case 5:
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used
for the frame.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the
physical medium.
 Communicates between the networking software at the upper layers and the device
hardware at the lower layers.
Case 6:
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the
physical medium
 Provides a mechanism to allow multiple devices to communicate over
a shared medium.
61. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI data
link layer? (Choose two.)
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and
media.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer
protocol is being used for the frame.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Implements a process to delimit fields within a Layer 2 frame.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium.
64. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI data
link layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer
protocol is being used for the frame.
 Performs data encapsulation.
 Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
66. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI data
link layer? (Choose two.)
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and
media.
 Provides data link layer addressing.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
68. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI data
link layer? (Choose two.)
 Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and
media.
 Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
 Integrates various physical technologies.
 Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
 Provides synchronization between source and target nodes.
71. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame with the destination
MAC address FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
 The switch forwards it out all ports except the ingress port.
 The switch shares the MAC address table entry with any connected switches.
 The switch does not forward the frame.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination MAC address
is not local.
73. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame with the destination
MAC address 01:00:5E:00:00:D9?
 The switch forwards it out all ports except the ingress port.
 The switch does not forward the frame.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination MAC address
is not local.
 The switch shares the MAC address table entry with any connected switches.
74. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a destination MAC
address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
 The host will process the frame.
 The host forwards the frame to the router.
 The host sends the frame to the switch to update the MAC address table.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.
75. What action will occur if a switch receives a frame and does have the
source MAC address in the MAC table?
 The switch refreshes the timer on that entry.
 The switch adds it to its MAC address table associated with the port number.
 The switch forwards the frame to the associated port.
 The switch sends the frame to a connected router because the destination MAC address
is not local.
76. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a destination MAC
address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
 The host will process the frame.
 The host returns the frame to the switch.
 The host replies to the switch with its own IP address.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.
78. What action will occur if a host receives a frame with a destination MAC
address it does not recognize?
 The host will discard the frame.
 The host replies to the switch with its own IP address.
 The host forwards the frame to all other hosts.
 The host returns the frame to the switch.
79. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?
 console
 rollover
 crossover
 straight-through
Explanation: A rollover cable is a Cisco proprietary cable used to connect to a router or switch
console port. A straight-through (also called patch) cable is usually used to interconnect a host to a
switch and a switch to a router. A crossover cable is used to interconnect similar devices together,
for example, between two switches, two routers, and two hosts.

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10: Communicating Between Networks

Exam Answers
Dec 18, 2019 Last Updated: Jul 28, 2023 CCNA v7 Course #1 34 Comments
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Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 8 – 10:

Communicating Between Networks Exam
1. Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its
destination?
 source IP address
 destination IP address
 source data-link address
 destination data-link address
2. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN.
How will the packet be sent?
 The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response
from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
 The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
 The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it
will be sent directly to the destination host.
 The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.
3. A router receives a packet from the Gigabit 0/0 interface and determines
that the packet needs to be forwarded out the Gigabit 0/1 interface. What
will the router do next?
 route the packet out the Gigabit 0/1 interface
 create a new Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be sent to the destination
 look into the ARP cache to determine the destination IP address
 look into the routing table to determine if the destination network is in the routing table
4. Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?
 126.0.0.1
 127.0.0.0
 126.0.0.0
 127.0.0.1
5. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access
devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
 The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
 The computer has an invalid IP address.
 The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
 The computer has an invalid default gateway address.
6. Which statement describes a feature of the IP protocol?
 IP encapsulation is modified based on network media.
 IP relies on Layer 2 protocols for transmission error control.
 MAC addresses are used during the IP packet encapsulation.
 IP relies on upper layer services to handle situations of missing or
out-of-order packets.
Explanation: IP protocol is a connection-less protocol, considered unreliable in terms of end-to-
end delivery. It does not provide error control in the cases where receiving packets are out-of-order
or in cases of missing packets. It relies on upper layer services, such as TCP, to resolve these
issues.
7. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?
 Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of
internal networks.
 Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the
number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.
 The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header
improves packet handling by intermediate routers.
  The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the
number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet.
Explanation: The large number of public IPv6 addresses eliminates the need for NAT. Sites from
the largest enterprises to single households can get public IPv6 network addresses. This avoids
some of the NAT-induced application problems that are experienced by applications that require
end-to-end connectivity.
8. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination
when there are multiple routes available?
 the lower metric value that is associated with the destination
network
 the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
 the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
 the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
9. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)
 performing error detection
 routing packets toward the destination
 encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer
 placement of frames on the media
 collision detection
Explanation: The OSI network layer provides several services to allow communication between
devices:
 addressing
 encapsulation
 routing
 de-encapsulation
Error detection, placing frames on the media, and collision detection are all functions of the data ink
layer.
10. Within a production network, what is the purpose of configuring a switch
with a default gateway address?
 Hosts that are connected to the switch can use the switch default gateway address to
forward packets to a remote destination.
 A switch must have a default gateway to be accessible by Telnet and SSH.
 The default gateway address is used to forward packets originating
from the switch to remote networks.
 It provides a next-hop address for all traffic that flows through the switch.
Explanation: A default gateway address allows a switch to forward packets that originate on the
switch to remote networks. A default gateway address on a switch does not provide Layer 3 routing
for PCs that are connected on that switch. A switch can still be accessible from Telnet as long as
the source of the Telnet connection is on the local network.
11. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?
 connectionless
 media dependent
 user data segmentation
 reliable end-to-end delivery
Explanation: Internet Protocol (IP) is a network layer protocol that does not require initial
exchange of control information to establish an end-to-end connection before packets are
forwarded. Thus, IP is connectionless and does not provide reliable end-to-end delivery by itself. IP
is media independent. User data segmentation is a service provided at the transport layer.
12. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing
a network endlessly?
 Time-to-Live
 Sequence Number
 Acknowledgment Number
 Differentiated Services
Explanation: The value of the Time-to-Live (TTL) field in the IPv4 header is used to limit the
lifetime of a packet. The sending host sets the initial TTL value; which is decreased by one each
time the packet is processed by a router. If the TTL field decrements to zero, the router discards the
packet and sends an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Time Exceeded message to the
source IP address. The Differentiated Services (DS) field is used to determine the priority of each
packet. Sequence Number and Acknowledgment Number are two fields in the TCP header.
13. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?
 smaller-sized header
 little requirement for processing checksums
 smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses
 efficient packet handling
Explanation: The IPv6 simplified header offers several advantages over IPv4:
 Better routing efficiency and efficient packet handling for performance and forwarding-
rate scalability
 No requirement for processing checksums
 Simplified and more efficient extension header mechanisms (as opposed to the IPv4
Options field)
 A Flow Label field for per-flow processing with no need to open the transport inner packet
to identify the various traffic flows
14. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the
packet?
 Protocol
 Identification
 Version
 Differentiated Services
Explanation: It is the Protocol field in the IP header that identifies the upper-layer protocol the
packet is carrying. The Version field identifies the IP version. The Differential Services field is used
for setting packet priority. The Identification field is used to reorder fragmented packets.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address
to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)
Explanation: Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15 are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets
with a destination of 172.17.10.5 are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of
172.17.12.10 are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8 are forwarded
through Fa0/1. Because network 172.17.8.0 has no entry in the routing table, it will take the
gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20 are forwarded
through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.
16. What information does the loopback test provide?
 The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
 The device has end-to-end connectivity.
 DHCP is working correctly.
 The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
 The device has the correct IP address on the network.
Explanation: Because the loopback test sends packets back to the host device, it does not
provide information about network connectivity to other hosts. The loopback test verifies that the
host NIC, drivers, and TCP/IP stack are functioning.
17. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a
destination network?
 directly-connected routes
 local routes
 remote routes
 C and L source routes
Explanation: Routing table entries for remote routes will have a next hop IP address. The next
hop IP address is the address of the router interface of the next device to be used to reach the
destination network. Directly-connected and local routes have no next hop, because they do not
require going through another router to be reached.
18. How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct
network destination?
 They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route
to the loopback interface, a local network route, and a remote
default route.
 They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible for the
packet delivery.
 They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination address
and pass this information to the default gateway.
 They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.
Explanation: Hosts must maintain their own local routing table to ensure that network layer
packets are directed to the correct destination network. This local table typically contains a route to
the loopback interface, a route to the network that the host is connected to, and a local default
route, which represents the route that packets must take to reach all remote network addresses.
19. When transporting data from real-time applications, such as streaming
audio and video, which field in the IPv6 header can be used to inform the
routers and switches to maintain the same path for the packets in the same
conversation?
 Next Header
 Flow Label
 Traffic Class
 Differentiated Services
Explanation: The Flow Label in IPv6 header is a 20-bit field that provides a special service for
real-time applications. This field can be used to inform routers and switches to maintain the same
path for the packet flow so that packets will not be reordered.
20. What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution
Protocol?
 ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network.
 ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network.
 ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network.
 ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local
network.
Explanation: When a PC wants to send data on the network, it always knows the IP address of
the destination. However, it also needs to discover the MAC address of the destination. ARP is the
protocol that is used to discover the MAC address of a host that belongs to the same network.
21. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every
port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)
 The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.
 The destination address is unknown to the switch.
 The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
 The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
 The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.
Explanation: A switch will flood a frame out of every port, except the one that the frame was
received from, under two circumstances. Either the frame has the broadcast address as the
destination address, or the destination address is unknown to the switch.
22. Which statement describes the treatment of ARP requests on the local
link?
 They must be forwarded by all routers on the local network.
 They are received and processed by every device on the local
network.
 They are dropped by all switches on the local network.
 They are received and processed only by the target device.
Explanation: One of the negative issues with ARP requests is that they are sent as a broadcast.
This means all devices on the local link must receive and process the request.
23. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
 0.0.0.0
 255.255.255.255
 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
 AAAA.AAAA.AAAA
 the physical address of the destination host
Explanation: The purpose of an ARP request is to find the MAC address of the destination host
on an Ethernet LAN. The ARP process sends a Layer 2 broadcast to all devices on the Ethernet
LAN. The frame contains the IP address of the destination and the broadcast MAC address,
FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. The host with the IP address that matches the IP address in the ARP request will
reply with a unicast frame that includes the MAC address of the host. Thus the original sending host
will obtain the destination IP and MAC address pair to continue the encapsulation process for data
transmission.
24. A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the
router that is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result after
this command is issued?
 The ARP cache is cleared.
 The current content of the ARP cache is displayed.
 The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed.
 The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface.
Explanation: Issuing the arp –d * command on a PC will clear the ARP cache content. This is
helpful when a network technician wants to ensure the cache is populated with updated information.
25. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the
contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame
addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

 The switch will discard the frame.

 The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
 The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
 The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
 The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
Explanation: The MAC address of PC3 is not present in the MAC table of the switch. Because
the switch does not know where to send the frame that is addressed to PC3, it will forward the
frame to all the switch ports, except for port 4, which is the incoming port.
26. Which two types of IPv6 messages are used in place of ARP for address
resolution?
 anycast
 broadcast
 echo reply
 echo request
 neighbor solicitation
 neighbor advertisement
Explanation: IPv6 does not use ARP. Instead, ICMPv6 neighbor discovery is used by sending
neighbor solicitation and neighbor advertisement messages.
27. What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?
 to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts
 to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses
 to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address
 to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests
Explanation: In an ARP spoofing attack, a malicious host intercepts ARP requests and replies to
them so that network hosts will map an IP address to the MAC address of the malicious host.
28. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends
an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will
PC1 receive in the ARP reply?
  the MAC address of S1
 the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1
 the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2
 the MAC address of S2
 the MAC address of File_server1
Explanation: PC1 must have a MAC address to use as a destination Layer 2 address. PC1 will
send an ARP request as a broadcast and R1 will send back an ARP reply with its G0/0 interface
MAC address. PC1 can then forward the packet to the MAC address of the default gateway, R1.
29. Where are IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet address mappings
maintained on a host computer?
 neighbor table
 ARP cache
 routing table
 MAC address table
Explanation: The ARP cache is used to store IPv4 addresses and the Ethernet physical
addresses or MAC addresses to which the IPv4 addresses are mapped. Incorrect mappings of IP
addresses to MAC addresses can result in loss of end-to-end connectivity.
30. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by
a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?
 source MAC address
 source IP address
 destination MAC address
 Ethernet type
 destination IP address
Explanation: The Layer 2 device, such as a switch, uses the destination MAC address to
determine which path (interface or port) should be used to send the data onward to the destination
device.
31. Match the commands to the correct actions. (Not all options are used.)
32. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message
on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test
whether the banner is properly configured?
 Reboot the device.
 Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
 Exit global configuration mode.
 Power cycle the device.
 Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.
Explanation: While at the privileged mode prompt such as Router#, type exit,press
Enter, and the banner message appears. Power cycling a network device that has had
the banner motd command issued will also display the banner message, but this is not a quick
way to test the configuration.
33. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches
locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all
options are used.)
Explanation: Both the console and AUX ports can be used to directly connect to a Cisco network
device for management purposes. However, it is more common to use the console port. The AUX
port is more often used for remote access via a dial up connection. SSH and Telnet are both remote
access methods that depend on an active network connection. SSH uses a stronger password
authentication than Telnet uses and also uses encryption on transmitted data.
34. Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco
router. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: There are three major phases to the bootup process of a Cisco router:
1. Perform the POST and load the bootstrap program.
2. Locate and load the Cisco IOS software.
3. Locate and load the startup configuration file
If a startup configuration file cannot be located, the router will enter setup mode by displaying the
setup mode prompt.
35. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is
entered. (Not all options are used.)
Explanation: The enable command is entered in R1> mode. The login command is entered
in R1(config-line)# mode. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered in
R1# mode. The ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 command is entered in R1(config-
if)# mode. The service password-encryption command is entered in global configuration
mode.
36. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
 to store the routing table
 to retain contents when power is removed
 to store the startup configuration file
 to contain the running configuration file
 to store the ARP table
Explanation: NVRAM is permanent memory storage, so the startup configuration file is
preserved even if the router loses power.
37. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
 The IOS image is corrupt.
 Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
 The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
 The POST process has detected hardware failure.
Explanation: If a router cannot locate the startup-config file in NVRAM, it will enter setup mode
to allow the configuration to be entered from the console device.
38. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is
applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?
 The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
 The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another
network.
 The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
 The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway
172.16.100.1.
Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to
communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip
default-gateway <ip address>.
39. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the
switch vty lines?
 The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
 Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
  The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
 The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.
Explanation: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual
terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.
40. Refer to the exhibit. A user PC has successfully transmitted packets to
www.cisco.com. Which IP address does the user PC target in order to forward
its data off the local network?

 172.24.255.17
 172.24.1.22
 172.20.0.254
 172.24.255.4
 172.20.1.18
41. Match the configuration mode with the command that is available in that
mode. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: The enable command is entered at the R1> prompt. The login command is
entered at the R1(config-line)# prompt. The copy running-config startup-config command
is entered at the R1# prompt. The interface fastethernet 0/0 command is entered at the
R1(config)# prompt.
42. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router
through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)
 interface fastethernet 0/0
 line vty 0 4
 line console 0
 enable secret cisco
 login
 password cisco
Explanation: The three commands needed to password protect the console port are as follows:
 line console 0
 password cisco
  login
The interface fastethernet 0/0 command is commonly used to access the configuration
mode used to apply specific parameters such as the IP address to the Fa0/0 port. The line vty 0
4 command is used to access the configuration mode for Telnet. The0and 4 parameters specify
ports 0 through 4, or a maximum of five simultaneous Telnet connections. The enable
secret command is used to apply a password used on the router to access the privileged mode.
43. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from
PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1
LAN to Router1.
 It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
 It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
Explanation: The default gateway is used to route packets destined for remote networks. The
default gateway IP address is the address of the first Layer 3 device (the router interface) that
connects to the same network.
44. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
 packet forwarding
 microsegmentation
 domain name resolution
 path selection
 flow control
Explanation: A router accepts a packet and accesses its routing table to determine the
appropriate exit interface based on the destination address. The router then forwards the packet out
of that interface.
45. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-
config command on a router?
 The contents of ROM will change.
 The contents of RAM will change.
 The contents of NVRAM will change.
 The contents of flash will change.
Explanation: The command copy running-config startup-config copies the running-
configuration file from RAM into NVRAM and saves it as the startup-configuration file. Since
NVRAM is none-volatile memory it will be able to retain the configuration details when the router is
powered off.
46. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured
on a host?
 The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
 The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
 The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
 The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
  A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
Explanation: When a host needs to send a message to another host located on the same
network, it can forward the message directly. However, when a host needs to send a message to a
remote network, it must use the router, also known as the default gateway. This is because the data
link frame address of the remote destination host cannot be used directly. Instead, the IP packet
has to be sent to the router (default gateway) and the router will forward the packet toward its
destination. Therefore, if the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the host can communicate
with other hosts on the same network, but not with hosts on remote networks.
47. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP
operation? (Choose two.)
 Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC
address spoofing.
 On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts
could cause data communication delays.
 Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address
mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network
traffic.
 Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to
overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
 Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match
the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
Explanation: Large numbers of ARP broadcast messages could cause momentary data
communications delays. Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address
mappings in ARP messages with the intent to intercept network traffic. ARP requests and replies
cause entries to be made into the ARP table, not the MAC address table. ARP table overflows are
very unlikely. Manually configuring static ARP associations is a way to prevent, not facilitate, ARP
poisoning and MAC address spoofing. Multiple ARP replies resulting in the switch MAC address
table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of connected nodes and are associated with
the relevant switch port are required for normal switch frame forwarding operations. It is not an ARP
caused network problem.
48. Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and
then answer the question.

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 8 – 10 Communicating Between Networks Exam

Modules 8 - 10 Communicating Between Networks Packet Tracer file 235.82 KB 7476

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Which interfaces in each router are active and operational?
R1: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R2: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R1: G0/1 and S0/0/1
R2: G0/0 and S0/0/1
R1: G0/0 and S0/0/0
R2: G0/1 and S0/0/0
R1: G0/0 and S0/0/1
R2: G0/1 and S0/0/1
Explanation: The command to use for this activity is show ip interface brief in each router.
The active and operational interfaces are represented by the value “up” in the “Status” and
“Protocol” columns. The interfaces in R1 with these characteristics are G0/0 and S0/0/0. In R2 they
are G0/1 and S0/0/0.
49. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to identify
the next level protocol?
 protocol
 destination IPv4 address
 source IPv4 address
 TTL
50. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains an 8-
bit binary value used to determine the priority of each packet?
 differentiated services
 destination IPv4 address
 source IPv4 address
 protocol
51. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 32-
bit binary value associated with an interface on the sending device?
 source IPv4 address
 destination IPv4 address
 protocol
 TTL
52. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to detect
corruption in the IPv4 header?
 header checksum
 source IPv4 address
 protocol
 TTL
Explanation: The header checksum is used to determine if any errors have been introduced
during transmission.
53.

RTR1(config)# interface gi0/1

RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Marketing LAN

RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.27.15.17 255.255.255.0

RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown

RTR1(config-if)# interface gi0/0

RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Payroll LAN

RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.27.14.148 255.255.255.0

RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown

RTR1(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

RTR1(config-if)# ip address 10.14.15.254 255.255.255.0

RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown

RTR1(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

RTR1(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

RTR1(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.39 255.255.255.0

RTR1(config-if)# no shutdown

RTR1(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Payroll LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 10.27.14.148
 10.27.14.1
 10.14.15.254
 203.0.113.39
 10.27.15.17
54. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a
unicast, multicast, or broadcast address?
 destination IPv4 address
 protocol
 TTL
 header checksum
55. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to limit the
lifetime of a packet?
 TTL
 source IPv4 address
 protocol
 header checksum
56. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 4-
bit binary value set to 0100?
 version
 source IPv4 address
 protocol
 TTL
57. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to identify
the next level protocol?
 protocol
 version
 differentiated services
 header checksum
58. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 4-
bit binary value set to 0100?
 version
 differentiated services
 header checksum
 TTL
59. What property of ARP causes cached IP-to-MAC mappings to remain in
memory longer?
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the
timeout expires.
 A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an ARP table.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the
switch.
60. What property of ARP allows MAC addresses of frequently used servers to
be fixed in the ARP table?
 A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be entered manually into an

ARP table.
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the
switch.
62. What property of ARP allows hosts on a LAN to send traffic to remote
networks?
 Local hosts learn the MAC address of the default gateway.
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet
frame.
 The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the
switch.
63.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.235.234 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.234.114 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.234.235.254 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.3 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What
IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.235.234
 192.168.235.1
 10.234.235.254
 203.0.113.3
 192.168.234.114
64. What property of ARP forces all Ethernet NICs to process an ARP request?
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the
header of the Ethernet frame.
 The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.
65. What property of ARP causes a reply only to the source sending an ARP
request?
 The source MAC address appears in the header of the Ethernet
frame.
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet
frame.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.
66. What property of ARP causes the request to be flooded out all ports of a
switch except for the port receiving the ARP request?
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the
header of the Ethernet frame.
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.
67. What property of ARP causes the NICs receiving an ARP request to pass
the data portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP process?
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet
frame.
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 ARP replies are broadcast on the network when a host receives an ARP request.
68. What property of ARP causes the NICs receiving an ARP request to pass
the data portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP process?
 The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
 The destination MAC address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet
frame.
 Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
 The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the
switch.
69.

Main(config)# interface gi0/1

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Service LAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.29.157.156 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Engineering LAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.29.156.36 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Main(config-if)# ip address 10.156.157.254 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.177 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# end
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the
Service LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 172.29.157.156
 172.29.157.1
 10.156.157.254
 198.51.100.177
 172.29.156.36
70.

BldgA(config)# interface gi0/1

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Medical LAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.191.189 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface gi0/0

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Client LAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.190.70 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 10.190.191.254 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.213 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# end
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the
Medical LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.191.189
 192.168.191.1
 10.190.191.254
 198.51.100.213
 192.168.190.70
71.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.225.223 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.224.103 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.224.225.254 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.246 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What
IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.225.223
 192.168.225.1
 10.224.225.254
 203.0.113.246
 192.168.224.103
72.

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.118.63.65 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.118.62.196 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.62.63.254 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 209.165.200.87 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Manager LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 10.118.62.196
 10.118.62.1
  10.62.63.254
 209.165.200.87
 10.118.63.65
73.

HQ(config)# interface gi0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Branch LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.19.99.99 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface gi0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Store LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.19.98.230 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

HQ(config-if)# ip address 10.98.99.254 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 209.165.200.120 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Store LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 172.19.98.230
 172.19.98.1
 10.98.99.254
 209.165.200.120
 172.19.99.99
74.

HQ(config)# interface gi0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Branch LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.20.133.132 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface gi0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Store LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.20.132.13 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

HQ(config-if)# ip address 10.132.133.254 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.156 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Store LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 172.20.132.13
 172.20.132.1
 10.132.133.254
 198.51.100.156
 172.20.133.132
75.

Main(config)# interface gi0/1

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Service LAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 192.168.167.166 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Engineering LAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 192.168.166.46 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Main(config-if)# ip address 10.166.167.254 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Main(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Main(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.189 255.255.255.0

Main(config-if)# no shutdown

Main(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the

Service LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.167.166
 192.168.167.1
 10.166.167.254
 198.51.100.189
 192.168.166.46
76.
BldgA(config)# interface gi0/1

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Medical LAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.201.200 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface gi0/0

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Client LAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.200.80 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 10.200.201.254 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown

BldgA(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

BldgA(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

BldgA(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.222 255.255.255.0

BldgA(config-if)# no shutdown
BldgA(config-if)# end
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the
Medical LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
 192.168.201.200
 192.168.201.1
 10.200.201.254
 203.0.113.222
 192.168.200.80

Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 11 – 13: IP

Addressing Exam
1. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
 /25
 /26
 /27
 /28
Explanation: The binary format for 255.255.255.224 is
11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000. The prefix length is the number of consecutive 1s in the
subnet mask. Therefore, the prefix length is /27.
2. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is
configured with a /26 mask?
 254
 190
 192
 62
 64
3. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240
4. A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets
with /26 masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?
 1
 2
 4
 8
 16
 64
5. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the
subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: Subnet 192.168.1.32/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.33 –
192.168.1.62 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.63
Subnet 192.168.1.64/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.65 – 192.168.1.94 with the
broadcast address as 192.168.1.95
Subnet 192.168.1.96/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.97 – 192.168.1.126 with the
broadcast address as 192.168.1.127
6. An administrator wants to create four subnetworks from the network
address 192.168.1.0/24. What is the network address and subnet mask of the
second useable subnet?
 subnetwork 192.168.1.64
subnet mask 255.255.255.192
 subnetwork 192.168.1.32
subnet mask 255.255.255.240
 subnetwork 192.168.1.64
subnet mask 255.255.255.240
 subnetwork 192.168.1.128
subnet mask 255.255.255.192
 subnetwork 192.168.1.8
subnet mask 255.255.255.224
Explanation: The number of bits that are borrowed would be two, thus giving a total of 4 useable
subnets:
192.168.1.0
192.168.1.64
192.168.1.128
192.168.1.192
Because 2 bits are borrowed, the new subnet mask would be /26 or 255.255.255.192
7. How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to
accommodate a router with five connected networks?
 two
 three
 four
 five
Explanation: Each network that is directly connected to an interface on a router requires its own
subnet. The formula 2n, where n is the number of bits borrowed, is used to calculate the available
number of subnets when borrowing a specific number of bits.
8. How many host addresses are available on the 192.168.10.128/26
network?
 30
 32
 60
 62
 64
Explanation: A /26 prefix gives 6 host bits, which provides a total of 64 addresses, because 26 =
64. Subtracting the network and broadcast addresses leaves 62 usable host addresses.
9. How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with
a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?
 510
 512
 1022
 1024
 2046
 2048
Explanation: A mask of 255.255.252.0 is equal to a prefix of /22. A /22 prefix provides 22 bits for
the network portion and leaves 10 bits for the host portion. The 10 bits in the host portion will
provide 1022 usable IP addresses (210 – 2 = 1022).
10. Match each IPv4 address to the appropriate address category. (Not all
options are used.)

11. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private
network use? (Choose three.)
 10.0.0.0/8
  172.16.0.0/12
 192.168.0.0/16
 100.64.0.0/14
 169.254.0.0/16
 239.0.0.0/8
Explanation: RFC 1918, Address Allocation for Private Internets, defines three blocks of IPv4
address for private networks that should not be routable on the public Internet.
 10.0.0.0/8
 172.16.0.0/12
 192.168.0.0/16

12. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone

on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network
172.16.16.0/22?

 172.16.16.255
 172.16.20.255
 172.16.19.255
 172.16.23.255
 172.16.255.255
Explanation: The 172.16.16.0/22 network has 22 bits in the network portion and 10 bits in the
host portion. Converting the network address to binary yields a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. The
range of addresses in this network will end with the last address available before 172.16.20.0. Valid
host addresses for this network range from 172.16.16.1-172.16.19.254, making 172.16.19.255 the
broadcast address.
13. A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site
must accommodate 126 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that
contains the required number of host bits?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240
Explanation: The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 8 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.128
results in 7 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.224 has 5 host bits. Finally, 255.255.255.240
represents 4 host bits.
14. Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having
to remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address
could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?
  10.16.10.160/26
 10.16.10.128/28
 10.16.10.64/27
 10.16.10.224/26
 10.16.10.240/27
 10.16.10.240/28
Explanation: Addresses 10.16.10.0 through 10.16.10.63 are taken for the leftmost network.
Addresses 10.16.10.192 through 10.16.10.207 are used by the center network.The address space
from 208-255 assumes a /28 mask, which does not allow enough host bits to accommodate 25 host
addresses.The address ranges that are available include 10.16.10.64/26 and10.16.10.128/26. To
accommodate 25 hosts, 5 host bits are needed, so a /27 mask is necessary. Four possible /27
subnets could be created from the available addresses between 10.16.10.64 and 10.16.10.191:
10.16.10.64/27
10.16.10.96/27
10.16.10.128/27
10.16.10.160/27
15. What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has
a /26 mask?
 256
 254
 64
 62
 32
 16
Explanation: A /26 mask is the same as 255.255.255.192. The mask leaves 6 host bits. With 6
host bits, 64 IP addresses are possible. One address represents the subnet number and one
address represents the broadcast address, which means that 62 addresses can then be used to
assign to network devices.
16. Which address prefix range is reserved for IPv4 multicast?
 240.0.0.0 – 254.255.255.255
 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255
 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255
 127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255
Explanation: Multicast IPv4 addresses use the reserved class D address range of 224.0.0.0 to
239.255.255.255.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and
prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each
network.
Explanation: Network A needs to use 192.168.0.128 /25, which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.0 /26, which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.96 /27, which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.80/30, which yields 4 host addresses.
18. A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing
technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school
B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices
through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the
end device with the IP address 209.165.201.10. The administrator sends a
request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is
192.168.25.10. Neither school is using a VPN. The administrator knows
immediately that this IP will not work. Why?
 This is a loopback address.
 This is a link-local address.
 This is a private IP address.
 There is an IP address conflict.
19. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)
 198.133.219.17
 192.168.1.245
 10.15.250.5
 128.107.12.117
 172.31.1.25
 64.104.78.227
Explanation: The ranges of private IPv4 addresses are as folllows:
10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
20. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of
message is it?
 limited broadcast
 multicast
 directed broadcast
 unicast
Explanation: A directed broadcast is a message sent to all hosts on a specific network. It is
useful for sending a broadcast to all hosts on a nonlocal network. A multicast message is a
message sent to a selected group of hosts that are part of a subscribing multicast group. A limited
broadcast is used for a communication that is limited to the hosts on the local network. A unicast
message is a message sent from one host to another.
21. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would
contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would
achieve that? (Choose two.)
 192.168.1.16/28
 192.168.1.64/27
 192.168.1.128/27
 192.168.1.96/28
 192.168.1.192/28
Explanation: Subnet 192.168.1.64 /27 has 5 bits that are allocated for host addresses and
therefore will be able to support 32 addresses, but only 30 valid host IP addresses. Subnet
192.168.1.96/28 has 4 bits for host addresses and will be able to support 16 addresses, but only 14
valid host IP addresses.
22. Which address is a valid IPv6 link-local unicast address?
 FEC8:1::FFFF
 FD80::1:1234
 FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
 FE0A::100:7788:998F
 FC90:5678:4251:FFFF
Explanation: IPv6 LLAs are in the fe80::/10 range. The /10 indicates that the first 10 bits are
1111 1110 10xx xxxx. The first hextet has a range of 1111 1110 1000 0000 (fe80) to 1111 1110
1011 1111 (febf).
23. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:
3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB:0000:0000:0057?
 3FFE:1044::AB::57
 3FFE:1044::00AB::0057
 3FFE:1044:0:0:AB::57
 3FFE:1044:0:0:00AB::0057
 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::57
 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::0057
Explanation: The rules for reducing the notation of IPv6 addresses are:
1. Omit any leading 0s (zeros) in any hextet.
2. Replace any single, contiguous string of one or more 16-bit hextets consisting of all zeros with a
double colon (::) .
3. The double colon (::) can only be used once within an address.
24. A network administrator has received the IPv6 prefix 2001:DB8::/48 for
subnetting. Assuming the administrator does not subnet into the interface ID
portion of the address space, how many subnets can the administrator create
from the /48 prefix?
 16
 256
 4096
 65536
Explanation: With a network prefix of 48, there will be 16 bits available for subnetting because
the interface ID starts at bit 64. Sixteen bits will yield 65536 subnets.
25. Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that
is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?
 2001:db8:0:f00::/52
 2001:db8:0:8000::/52
 2001:db8:0:f::/52
 2001:db8:0:f000::/52
Explanation: Prefix 2001:db8::/48 has 48 network bits. If we subnet to a /52, we are moving the
network boundary four bits to the right and creating 16 subnets. The first subnet is 2001:db8::/52 the
last subnet is 2001:db8:0:f000::/52.
26. Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
…
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60 .
Explanation: All the addresses have the part 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A in common. Each number or
letter in the address represents 4 bits, so the prefix-length is /60.
27. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
 loopback
 link-local
 multicast
 global unicast
Explanation: Link-local IPv6 addresses start with FE80::/10, which is any address from FE80:: to
FEBF::. Link-local addresses are used extensively in IPv6 and allow directly connected devices to
communicate with each other on the link they share.
28. Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme
for its network. The company design document indicates that the subnet
portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network
design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of
the company, the sub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each
site, and the subnet section to indicate each network segment separated by
routers. With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets
achieved per sub-site?

Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for

its network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion
of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with
the s ite subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company,
the s ub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the s
ubnet section to indicate each network segment separated by routers. With
such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-
site ?
 0
 4
 16
 256
Explanation: Because only one hexadecimal character is used to represent the subnet, that one
character can represent 16 different values 0 through F.
29. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an
IPv6 enabled interface?
 the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
 a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address
 an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server
 an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface
Explanation: The EUI-64 process uses the MAC address of an interface to construct an interface
ID (IID). Because the MAC address is only 48 bits in length, 16 additional bits (FF:FE) must be
added to the MAC address to create the full 64-bit interface ID.
30. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
 2001:DB8:BC15
 2001:DB8:BC15:A
 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1
 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12
Explanation: The network portion, or prefix, of an IPv6 address is identified through the prefix
length. A /64 prefix length indicates that the first 64 bits of the IPv6 address is the network portion.
Hence the prefix is 2001:DB8:BC15:A.
31. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address
of FF02::1. What is the target of this packet?
 the one IPv6 device on the link that has been uniquely configured with this address
 all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link or network
 only IPv6 DHCP servers
 only IPv6 configured routers
Explanation: This address is one of the assigned IPv6 multicast addresses. Packets addressed
to FF02::1 are for all IPv6 enabled devices on the link or network. FF02::2 is for all IPv6 routers that
exist on the network.
32. Match the IPv6 address with the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are
used.)

Explanation: FF02::1:FFAE:F85F is a solicited node multicast address.

2001:DB8::BAF:3F57:FE94 is a global unicast address.
FF02::1 is the all node multicast address. Packets sent to this address will be received by all IPv6
hosts on the local link.
::1 is the IPv6 loopback address.
There are no examples of link local or unique local addresses provided.
33. Which IPv6 prefix is reserved for communication between devices on the
same link?
 FC00::/7
 2001::/32
 FE80::/10
 FDFF::/7
Explanation: IPv6 link-local unicast addresses are in the FE80::/10 prefix range and are not
routable. They are used only for communications between devices on the same link.
34. Which type of IPv6 address refers to any unicast address that is assigned
to multiple hosts?
 unique local
 global unicast
 link-local
 anycast
Explanation: The IPv6 specifications include anycast addresses. An anycast address is any
unicast IPv6 address that is assigned to multiple devices.
35. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)
  multicast
 loopback
 link-local
 anycast
 broadcast
Explanation: Multicast, anycast, and unicast are types of IPv6 addresses. There is no broadcast
address in IPv6. Loopback and link-local are specific types of unicast addresses.
36. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices
without using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?
 stateful DHCPv6
 SLAAC
 static IPv6 addressing
 stateless DHCPv6
Explanation: Using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC), a PC can solicit a router and
receive the prefix length of the network. From this information the PC can then create its own IPv6
global unicast address.
37. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for
dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?
 ARPv6
 DHCPv6
 ICMPv6
 UDP
Explanation: SLAAC uses ICMPv6 messages when dynamically assigning an IPv6 address to a
host. DHCPv6 is an alternate method of assigning an IPv6 addresses to a host. ARPv6 does not
exist. Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) provides the functionality of ARP for IPv6 networks. UDP
is the transport layer protocol used by DHCPv6.
38. Three methods allow IPv6 and IPv4 to co-exist. Match each method with
its description. (Not all options are used.)

39. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician
testing?
 the TCP/IP stack on a network host
 connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
 connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
 connectivity between two PCs on the same network
 physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
40. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot
connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1
to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator
begin troubleshooting?
  PC2
 R1
 SW2
 R2
 SW1
41. Which protocol is used by the traceroute command to send and receive
echo-requests and echo-replies?
 SNMP
 ICMP
 Telnet
 TCP
Explanation: Traceroute uses the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) to send and receive
echo-request and echo-reply messages.
42. Which ICMPv6 message is sent when the IPv6 hop limit field of a packet is
decremented to zero and the packet cannot be forwarded?
 network unreachable
 time exceeded
 protocol unreachable
 port unreachable
Explanation: ICMPv6 uses the hop limit field in the IPv6 packet header to determine if the packet
has expired. If the hop limit field has reached zero, a router will send a time exceeded message
back towards the source indicating that the router cannot forward the packet.
43. A user executes a traceroute over IPv6. At what point would a router in
the path to the destination device drop the packet?
 when the value of the Hop Limit field reaches 255
 when the value of the Hop Limit field reaches zero
 when the router receives an ICMP time exceeded message
 when the target host responds with an ICMP echo reply message
Explanation: When a traceroute is performed, the value in the Hop Limit field of an IPv6 packet
determines how many router hops the packet can travel. Once the Hop Limit field reaches a value
of zero, it can no longer be forwarded and the receiving router will drop the packet.
44. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
 to inform routers about network topology changes
 to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
 to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
 to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
Explanation: The purpose of ICMP messages is to provide feedback about issues that are
related to the processing of IP packets.
45. What source IP address does a router use by default when the traceroute
command is issued?
 the highest configured IP address on the router
 a loopback IP address
  the IP address of the outbound interface
 the lowest configured IP address on the router
Explanation: When sending an echo request message, a router will use the IP address of the
exit interface as the source IP address. This default behavior can be changed by using an extended
ping and specifying a specific source IP address.
46. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options
are used.)

Explanation: Link-Local addresses are assigned automatically by the OS environment and are
located in the block 169.254.0.0/16. The private addresses ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12,
and 192.168.0.0/16. TEST-NET addresses belong to the range 192.0.2.0/24. The addresses in the
block 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254 are reserved as experimental addresses. Loopback addresses
belong to the block 127.0.0.0/8.
47. A user issues a ping 192.135.250.103 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 1. What does this code represent?
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 port unreachable
 network unreachable
48. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host
address?
 192.168.1.64/26
 192.168.1.32/27
 192.168.1.32/28
 192.168.1.64/29
Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64
possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses
for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to
192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.
49. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and
then answer the question.
 CCNA 1 v7 Modules 11 – 13 IP Addressing Exam Answers Full
What are the three IPv6 addresses displayed when the route from PC1 to PC2
is traced? (Choose three.)
 2001:DB8:1:1::1
 2001:DB8:1:1::A
 2001:DB8:1:2::2
 2001:DB8:1:2::1
 2001:DB8:1:3::1
 2001:DB8:1:3::2
 2001:DB8:1:4::1
Explanation: Using the ipv6config command on PC2 displays the IPv6 address of PC2, which
is 2001:DB8:1:4::A. The IPV6 link-local address, FE80::260:70FF:FE34:6930, is not used in route
tracing. Using the tracert 2001:DB8:1:4::A command on PC1 displays four addresses:
2001:DB8:1:1::1, 2001:DB8:1:2::1 , 2001:DB8:1:3::2, and 2001:DB8:1:4::A.
50. A host is transmitting a broadcast. Which host or hosts will receive it?
 all hosts in the same subnet
 a specially defined group of hosts
 the closest neighbor on the same network
 all hosts on the Internet
Explanation: A broadcast is delivered to every host that has an IP address within the same
network.
51. A host is transmitting a unicast. Which host or hosts will receive it?
 one specific host
 a specially defined group of hosts
 all hosts on the Internet
 the closest neighbor on the same network
52. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command and receives a
response that includes a code of 3. What does this code represent?
 address unreachable
 network unreachable
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
53. A host is transmitting a multicast. Which host or hosts will receive it?
 a specially defined group of hosts
 the closest neighbor on the same network
 one specific host
 directly connected network devices
60. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:a0b0:0008:0001?
 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
 2001:db80:0:1::80:1
 2001:db80:::1::80:1
61. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
fe80:09ea:0000:2200:0000:0000:0fe0:0290?
 fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
 fe80:9:20::b000:290
 fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
 fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290
62. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2002:0042:0010:c400:0000:0000:0000:0909?
 2002:42:10:c400::909
 200:420:110:c4b::910:0:90
 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99
 2002:42::25:1090:0:99
63. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0ab8:0001:0000:1000?
 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
 2001:db8:1::ab8:0:1
 2001:db8:0:1::8:1
64. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2002:0420:00c4:1008:0025:0190:0000:0990?
 2002:420:c4:1008:25:190::990
 2002:42:10:c400::909
 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99
 2002:42::25:1090:0:99
65. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:a0b0:0008:0001?
 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
 2001:db8:1::ab8:0:1
 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
 2001:db8:0:1::8:1
66. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029?
 fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29
 fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
 fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
 fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290
67. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:a0b0:0008:0001?
 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
 2001:db80:0:1::80:1
 2001:db8:0:1::8:1
68. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
2002:0042:0010:c400:0000:0000:0000:0909?
 2002:42:10:c400::909
 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99
 2002:420:c4:1008:25:190::990
 2002:42::25:1090:0:99
69. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
fe80:09ea:0000:2200:0000:0000:0fe0:0290?
 fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
 fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
 fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29
 fe80::0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029
70. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command and receives a
response that includes a code of 2 . What does this code represent?
 beyond scope of the source address
 communication with the destination administratively prohibited
 address unreachable
 no route to destination
71. A user issues a ping 192.135.250.103 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 1 . What does this code represent?
 host unreachable
 beyond scope of the source address
 address unreachable
 communication with the destination administratively prohibited
72. A user issues a ping fe80:65ab:dcc1::100 command and receives a
response that includes a code of 3 . What does this code represent?
 address unreachable
 communication with the destination administratively prohibited
 beyond scope of the source address
 no route to destination
73. A user issues a ping 10.10.14.67 command and receives a response that
includes a code of 0 . What does this code represent?
 network unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 port unreachable
 host unreachable
74. A user issues a ping fe80:65ab:dcc1::100 command and receives a
response that includes a code of 4. What does this code represent?
A user issues a ping fe80:65ab:dcc1::100 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 4 . What does this code represent?
 port unreachable
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 network unreachable
75. A user issues a ping 198.133.219.8 command and receives a response
that includes a code of 0 . What does this code represent?
 network unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 port unreachable
 host unreachable
76. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:3040:114::88 command and receives a
response that includes a code of 4 . What does this code represent?
 port unreachable
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 network unreachable
77. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command and receives a
response that includes a code of 2. What does this code represent?
 beyond scope of the source address
 host unreachable
 protocol unreachable
 network unreachable

Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 14 – 15: Network

Application Communications Exam
1. Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication
with a server via the use of UDP at the transport layer?
 The client sets the window size for the session.
 The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake.
 The client randomly selects a source port number.
 The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session.
2. Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?
 UDP ACK flag
 TCP 3-way handshake
 UDP sequence number
 TCP port number
3. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?
  0 to 255
 0 to 1023
 256 – 1023
 1024 – 49151
4. What is a socket?
 the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination
Ethernet address
 the combination of a source IP address and port number or a
destination IP address and port number
 the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers
 the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers
5. A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000
bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many
segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the
PC?
 1 segment
 10 segments
 100 segments
 1000 segments
Explanation: With a window of 1000 bytes, the destination host accepts segments until all 1000
bytes of data have been received. Then the destination host sends an acknowledgment.

6. Which factor determines TCP window size?

 the amount of data to be transmitted
 the number of services included in the TCP segment
 the amount of data the destination can process at one time
 the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time
Explanation: Window is the number of bytes that the sender will send prior to expecting an
acknowledgement from the destination device. The initial window is agreed upon during the session
startup via the three-way handshake between source and destination. It is determined by how much
data the destination device of a TCP session is able to accept and process at one time.
7. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?
 It just sends the datagrams.
 It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
 It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.
 It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.
Explanation: When a client has UDP datagrams to send, it just sends the datagrams.
8. Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header? (Choose three.)
 Window Size
 Length
 Source Port
 Acknowledgment Number
 Checksum
 Sequence Number
Explanation: A UDP header consists of only the Source Port, Destination Port, Length, and
Checksum fields. Sequence Number, Acknowledgment Number, and Window Size are TCP header
fields.
9. What are two roles of the transport layer in data communication on a
network? (Choose two.)
 identifying the proper application for each communication stream
 tracking the individual communication between applications on the
source and destination hosts
 providing frame delimiting to identify bits making up a frame
 performing a cyclic redundancy check on the frame for errors
 providing the interface between applications and the underlying network over which
messages are transmitted
Explanation: The transport layer has several responsibilities. The primary responsibilities include
the following:
  Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the source and
destination hosts
 Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
 Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the use of port
numbers
10. What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received
segments?
 port numbers
 sequence numbers
 acknowledgment numbers
 fragment numbers
Explanation: At the transport layer, TCP uses the sequence numbers in the header of each TCP
segment to reassemble the segments into the correct order.

11. What important information is added to the TCP/IP transport layer header to ensure
communication and connectivity with a remote network device?
 timing and synchronization
 destination and source port numbers
 destination and source physical addresses
 destination and source logical network addresses
12. Which two characteristics are associated with UDP sessions? (Choose
two.)
 Destination devices receive traffic with minimal delay.
 Transmitted data segments are tracked.
 Destination devices reassemble messages and pass them to an application.
 Received data is unacknowledged.
 Unacknowledged data packets are retransmitted.
Explanation:
TCP:
 Provides tracking of transmitted data segments
 Destination devices will acknowledge received data.
 Source devices will retransmit unacknowledged data.
UDP
 Destination devices will not acknowledge received data
 Headers use very little overhead and cause minimal delay.

13. A client application needs to terminate a TCP communication session with

a server. Place the termination process steps in the order that they will
occur. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: In order to terminate a TCP session, the client sends to the server a segment with
the FIN flag set. The server acknowledges the client by sending a segment with the ACK flag set.
The server sends a FIN to the client to terminate the server to client session. The client
acknowledges the termination by sending a segment with the ACK flag set.

14. Which flag in the TCP header is used in response to a received FIN in order to terminate
connectivity between two network devices?
 FIN
 ACK
 SYN
 RST
Explanation: In a TCP session, when a device has no more data to send, it will send a segment
with the FIN flag set. The connected device that receives the segment will respond with an ACK to
acknowledge that segment. The device that sent the ACK will then send a FIN message to close the
connection it has with the other device. The sending of the FIN should be followed with the receipt
of an ACK from the other device.

15. Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-server communication and TCP for
server-to-server communication?
 HTTP
 FTP
 DNS
 SMTP
Explanation: Some applications may use both TCP and UDP. DNS uses UDP when clients send
requests to a DNS server, and TCP when two DNS serves directly communicate.
16. What is a characteristic of UDP?
 UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.
 Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.
 UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were
received.
 UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.
Explanation: UDP has no way to reorder the datagrams into their transmission order, so UDP
simply reassembles the data in the order it was received and forwards it to the application.
17. What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a
specific application?
 registered port
 private port
 dynamic port
 source port
Explanation: Registered ports (numbers 1024 to 49151) are assigned by IANA to a requesting
entity to use with specific processes or applications. These processes are primarily individual
applications that a user has chosen to install, rather than common applications that would receive a
well-known port number. For example, Cisco has registered port 1985 for its Hot Standby Routing
Protocol (HSRP) process.
18. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
 SMTP
 FTP
 SNMP
 HTTP
 TFTP
 DHCP
Explanation: Some protocols require the reliable data transport that is provided by TCP. In
addition, these protocols do not have real time communication requirements and can tolerate some
data loss while minimizing protocol overhead. Examples of these protocols are SMTP, FTP, and
HTTP.
19. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
 UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.
 UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
 UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
 UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or
flow control mechanisms.
 UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
 UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
Explanation: UDP is a simple protocol that provides the basic transport layer functions. It has
much lower overhead than TCP because it is not connection-oriented and does not offer the
sophisticated retransmission, sequencing, and flow control mechanisms that provide reliability.

20. Which two fields are included in the TCP header but not in the UDP header? (Choose
two.)
 window
 checksum
 source port
 destination port
 sequence number
Explanation: The sequence number and window fields are included in the TCP header but not in
the UDP header.
21. Which field in the TCP header indicates the status of the three-way
handshake process?
 window
 reserved
 checksum
  control bits
Explanation: The value in the control bits field of theTCP header indicates the progress and
status of the connection.
22. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?
 to ensure the fastest possible download speed
 because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
 because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
 because HTTP requires reliable delivery
Explanation: When a host requests a web page, transmission reliability and completeness must
be guaranteed. Therefore, HTTP uses TCP as its transport layer protocol.

23. Which two types of applications are best suited for UDP? (Choose two.)
 applications that need data flow control
 applications that require reliable delivery
 applications that handle reliability themselves
 applications that need the reordering of segments
 applications that can tolerate some data loss, but require little or no
delay
Explanation: Applications that can tolerate some data loss, require a simple request and reply,
and handle reliability themselves are best suited for UDP. UDP has low overhead and no
requirement of reliability. TCP provides services for reliability, controlling data flow, and the
reordering of segments.
24. How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?
 Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the
transport layer protocol being used for the communication.
 Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.
 If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the
source port number is used to track the separate conversations.
 Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.
Explanation: Both UDP and TCP use port numbers to provide a unique identifier for each
conversation. Source port numbers are randomly generated and are used to track different
conversations. Destination port numbers identify specific services by using either a default port
number for the service or a port number that is assigned manually by a system administrator.
25. In what two situations would UDP be better than TCP as the preferred
transport protocol? (Choose two.)
 when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and
unduplicated
 when a faster delivery mechanism is needed
 when delivery overhead is not an issue
 when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data
 when destination port numbers are dynamic
Explanation: UDP is a very simple transport layer protocol that does not guarantee delivery.
Devices on both ends of the conversation are not required to keep track of the conversation. UDP is
used as the transport protocol for applications that need a speedy, best-effort delivery.
26. What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)
 meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any
 multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or
applications on the same network
 identifying the applications and services on the client and server that
should handle transmitted data
 directing packets towards the destination network
 formatting data into a compatible form for receipt by the destination devices
 conducting error detection of the contents in frames
Explanation: The transport layer has several responsibilities. Some of the primary
responsibilities include the following:
Tracking the individual communication streams between applications on the source and destination
hosts
Segmenting data at the source and reassembling the data at the destination
Identifying the proper application for each communication stream through the use of port numbers
Multiplexing the communications of multiple users or applications over a single network
Managing the reliability requirements of applications

27. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
 The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
 The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
 The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
 The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
 All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
 Only the DHCP server receives the message.
Explanation: When a host configured to use DHCP powers up on a network it sends a
DHCPDISCOVER message. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF is the L2 broadcast address. A DHCP server
replies with a unicast DHCPOFFER message back to the host.
28. Which two protocols may devices use in the application process that
sends email? (Choose two.)
 HTTP
 SMTP
 POP
 IMAP
 DNS
 POP3
Explanation: POP, POP3, and IMAP are protocols that are used to retrieve email from servers.
SMTP is the default protocol that is used to send email. DNS may be used by the sender email
server to find the address of the destination email server.
29. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?
 Different SMB message types have a different format.
 Clients establish a long term connection to servers.
 SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
 SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.
Explanation: The Server Message Block protocol is a protocol for file, printer, and directory
sharing. Clients establish a long term connection to servers and when the connection is active, the
resources can be accessed. Every SMB message has the same format. The use of SMB differs
from FTP mainly in the length of the sessions. SMB messages can authenticate sessions.
30. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?
 to request an HTML page from a web server
 to send error information from a web server to a web client
 to upload content to a web server from a web client
 to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110
Explanation: There are three common HTTP message types:
 GET – used by clients to request data from the web server
 POST – used by clients to upload data to a web server
 PUT – used by clients to upload data to a web server

31. Which OSI layer provides the interface between the applications used to
communicate and the underlying network over which messages are
transmitted?
 application
 presentation
 session
 transport
Explanation: The application layer is the layer that is closest to the end user and provides the
interface between the underlying network and the applications used to communicate.
32. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one
chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?
 peer-to-peer
 master-slave
 client/server
 point-to-point
Explanation: In the client/server network model, a network device assumes the role of server in
order to provide a particular service such as file transfer and storage. In the client/server network
model, a dedicated server does not have to be used, but if one is present, the network model being
used is the client/server model. In contrast, a peer-to-peer network does not have a dedicated
server.
33. What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in
common?
 Both models have dedicated servers.
 Both models support devices in server and client roles.
 Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols.
 Both models are used only in the wired network environment.
Explanation: In both the client/server and peer-to-peer network models, clients and servers
exist. In peer-to-peer networks, no dedicated server exists, but a device can assume the server role
to provide information to a device serving in the client role.
34. In what networking model would eDonkey, eMule, BitTorrent, Bitcoin, and
LionShare be used?
 peer-to-peer
 client-based
 master-slave
 point-to-point
Explanation: In a peer-to-peer networking model, data is exchanged between two network
devices without the use of a dedicated server. Peer-to-peer applications such as Shareaz, eDonkey,
and Bitcoin allow one network device to assume the role of server, while one or more other network
devices assume the role of client using the peer-to-peer application.
35. What is a common protocol that is used with peer-to-peer applications
such as WireShare, Bearshare, and Shareaza?
 Ethernet
 Gnutella
 POP
 SMTP
Explanation: The Gnutella protocol is used when one user shares an entire file with another
user. A person would load a Gnutella-based application such as gtk-gnutella or WireShare and use
that application to locate and access resources shared by others.

36. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?

 wireless networking
 social networking without the Internet
 network printing using a print server
 resource sharing without a dedicated server
Explanation: The peer-to-peer (P2P) networking model allows data, printer, and resource
sharing without a dedicated server.
37. The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of what
three layers of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
 physical
 session
 network
 presentation
 data link
 transport
 application
Explanation: The network access layer of the TCP/IP model performs the same functions as the
physical and data link layers of the OSI model. The internetwork layer equates to the network layer
of the OSI model. The transport layers are the same in both models. The application layer of the
TCP/IP model represents the session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model.
38. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server
model?
 A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is
determined.
  A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
 A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a
coworker.
 A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types
www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.
Explanation: When a user types a domain name of a website into the address bar of a web
browser, a workstation needs to send a DNS request to the DNS server for the name resolution
process. This request is a client/server model application. The eMule application is P2P. Sharing a
printer on a workstation is a peer-to-peer network. Using ARP is just a broadcast message sent by a
host.
39. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and
encrypting data?
 internetwork
 session
 presentation
 application
 network access
Explanation: The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of three layers of
the OSI model – application, presentation, and session. The application layer of the TCP/IP model
is the layer that provides the interface between the applications, is responsible for formatting,
compressing, and encrypting data, and is used to create and maintain dialogs between source and
destination applications.
40. What is an advantage of SMB over FTP?
 Only with SMB can data transfers occur in both directions.
 Only SMB establishes two simultaneous connections with the client, making the data
transfer faster.
 SMB is more reliable than FTP because SMB uses TCP and FTP uses UDP.
 SMB clients can establish a long-term connection to the server.
Explanation: SMB and FTP are client/server protocols that are used for file transfer. SMB allows
the connecting device to access resources as if they were on the local client device. SMB and FTP
use the TCP protocol for connection establishment and they can transfer data in both directions.
FTP requires two connections between the client and the server, one for commands and replies, the
other for the actual file transfer.
41. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from its
ISP. The services that are required include hosted world wide web, file
transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications?
(Choose three.)
 FTP
 HTTP
 DNS
 SNMP
 DHCP
 SMTP
Explanation: The ISP uses the HTTP protocol in conjunction with hosting web pages, the FTP
protocol with file transfers, and SMTP with e-mail. DNS is used to translate domain names to IP
addresses. SNMP is used for network management traffic. DHCP ic commonly used to manage IP
addressing.

42. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?
 DNS
 DHCP
 SMTP
 HTTP
 POP3
Explanation: The GET command is a client request for data from a web server. A PUT command
uploads resources and content, such as images, to a web server. A POST command uploads data
files to a web server.
43. What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?
 the FQDN of the alias used to identify a service
  the IP address for an FQDN entry
 the domain name mapped to mail exchange servers
 the IP address of an authoritative name server
Explanation: MX, or mail exchange messages, are used to map a domain name to several mail
exchange servers that all belong to the same domain.
44. Which three protocols operate at the application layer of the TCP/IP
model? (Choose three.)
 ARP
 TCP
 UDP
 FTP
 POP3
 DHCP
Explanation: FTP, DHCP, and POP3 are application layer protocols. TCP and UDP are transport
layer protocols. ARP is a network layer protocol.
45. Which protocol is used by a client to communicate securely with a web
server?
 SMTP
 SMB
 IMAP
 HTTPS
Explanation: HTTPS is a secure form of HTTP used to access web content hosted by a web
server.
46. Which applications or services allow hosts to act as client and server at
the same time?
 client/server applications
 email applications
 P2P applications
 authentication services
Explanation: P2P applications allow the clients to behave as servers if needed. When using
authentication services, email exchange, and client/server applications, one host acts as server and
the other acts as client at all times.

47. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

 scalability
 one way data flow
 decentralized resources
 centralized user accounts
 resource sharing without a dedicated server
Explanation: Peer-to-peer networks have decentralized resources because every computer can
serve as both a server and a client. One computer might assume the role of server for one
transaction while acting as a client for another transaction. Peer-to-peer networks can share
resources among network devices without the use of a dedicated server.
48. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
 A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned
into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the
same network.
 A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are
encoded within the transport layer header.
 A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two
web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is
delivered to the correct browser window.
 A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The
transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what
device is being used to view the web site.
Explanation: The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct
application and window within that application.
49. Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to
those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
 physical layer
 session layer
 transport layer
 application layer
 presentation layer
 data link layer
Explanation: The three upper layers of the OSI model, the session, presentation, and application
layers, provide application services similar to those provided by the TCP/IP model application layer.
Lower layers of the OSI model are more concerned with data flow.
50. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of
6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte
of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received two
packets of data from the PC?
 3001
 6001
 4500
 6000
51. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of
6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte
of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received three
packets of data from the PC?
 4501
 6001
 6000
 4500
52. A PC that is communicating with a web server has a TCP window size of
6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. Which byte
of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received four
packets of data from the PC?
 6001
 3001
 1501
 1500
53. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting
TFTP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in
the sending packet?
 69
 67
 53
 80
54. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting FTP
service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the
sending packet?
 21
 69
 67
 80
55. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting SSH
service. What number will be used as the destination port number in the
sending packet?
 22
 69
 67
 80
56. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting
HTTP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in
the sending packet?
 80
 67
  53
 69
57. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting
POP3 service. What number will be used as the destination port number in
the sending packet?
 110
 67
 53
 69
 443
 161
 80
58. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting
telnet service. What number will be used as the destination port number in
the sending packet?
 23
 443
 161
 110
59. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting
SNMP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in
the sending packet?
 161
 443
 110
 80
60. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting
SMTP service. What number will be used as the destination port number in
the sending packet?
 25
 443
 161
 110
61. A client creates a packet to send to a server. The client is requesting
HTTPS service. What number will be used as the destination port number in
the sending packet?
 443
 161
 110
 80

Introduction to Networks ( Version 7.00) – Modules 16 – 17: Building and

Securing a Small Network Exam
1. Which component is designed to protect against unauthorized
communications to and from a computer?
 security center
 port scanner
 antimalware
 antivirus
 firewall
2. Which command will block login attempts on RouterA for a period of 30
seconds if there are 2 failed login attempts within 10 seconds?
 RouterA(config)# login block-for 10 attempts 2 within 30
 RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10
 RouterA(config)# login block-for 2 attempts 30 within 10
 RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 10 within 2
3. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
 to require users to prove who they are
 to determine which resources a user can access
  to keep track of the actions of a user
 to provide challenge and response questions
4. What type of attack may involve the use of tools such as nslookup and
fping?
 access attack
 reconnaissance attack
 denial of service attack
 worm attack
5. Match each weakness with an example. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: An employee who is trying to guess the password of another user exemplifies not a
weakness but an attack.
6. Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all
options are used.)

Explanation:
After an intruder gains access to a network, common network threats are as follows:
 Information theft
 Identity theft
 Data loss or manipulation
 Disruption of service
Cracking the password for a known username is a type of access attack.
7. Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?
 malware that was written to look like a video game
 malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
 malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when
launched
 malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a
vulnerability in the target
Explanation: A Trojan horse is malicious code that has been written specifically to look like a
legitimate program. This is in contrast to a virus, which simply attaches itself to an actual legitimate
program. Viruses require manual intervention from a user to spread from one system to another,
while a worm is able to spread automatically between systems by exploiting vulnerabilities on those
devices.
8. What is the difference between a virus and a worm?
 Viruses self-replicate but worms do not.
 Worms self-replicate but viruses do not.
 Worms require a host file but viruses do not.
 Viruses hide in legitimate programs but worms do not.
Explanation: Worms are able to self-replicate and exploit vulnerabilities on computer networks
without user participation.
9. Which attack involves a compromise of data that occurs between two end
points?
 denial-of-service
 man-in-the-middle attack
 extraction of security parameters
 username enumeration
Explanation: Threat actors frequently attempt to access devices over the internet through
communication protocols. Some of the most popular remote exploits are as follows:
 Man-In-the-middle attack (MITM) – The threat actor gets between devices in the
system and intercepts all of the data being transmitted. This information could simply be
collected or modified for a specific purpose and delivered to its original destination.
 Eavesdropping attack – When devices are being installed, the threat actor can
intercept data such as security keys that are used by constrained devices to establish
communications once they are up and running.
 SQL injection (SQLi) – Threat actors uses a flaw in the Structured Query Language
(SQL) application that allows them to have access to modify the data or gain
administrative privileges.
 Routing attack – A threat actor could either place a rogue routing device on the
network or modify routing packets to manipulate routers to send all packets to the chosen
destination of the threat actor. The threat actor could then drop specific packets, known
as selective forwarding, or drop all packets, known as a sinkhole attack.
10. Which type of attack involves an adversary attempting to gather
information about a network to identify vulnerabilities?
 reconnaissance
 DoS
 dictionary
 man-in-the-middle
Explanation: Reconnaissance is a type of attack where the intruder is looking for wireless
network vulnerabilities.
11. Match the description to the type of firewall filtering. (Not all options are
used.)

Explanation: Stateful packet inspection: Prevents or allows access based on whether the
traffic is in response to requests from internal hosts.
URL filtering: Prevents or allows access based on web addresses or keywords.
Application filtering: Prevents or allows access based on the port numbers used in the
request.
Packet filtering: Prevents or allows access based on the IP or MAC addresses of the source
and destination.
12. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?
 to require users to prove who they are
 to determine which resources a user can access
 to keep track of the actions of a user
 to provide challenge and response questions
Explanation: Authentication, authorization, and accounting are network services collectively
known as AAA. Authentication requires users to prove who they are. Authorization determines
which resources the user can access. Accounting keeps track of the actions of the user.
13. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a
network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?
 stateful packet inspection
 URL filtering
 application filtering
 packet filtering
Explanation: Stateful packet inspection on a firewall checks that incoming packets are actually
legitimate responses to requests originating from hosts inside the network. Packet filtering can be
used to permit or deny access to resources based on IP or MAC address. Application filtering can
permit or deny access based on port number. URL filtering is used to permit or deny access based
on URL or on keywords.
14. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-
force password attacks against the router?
 exec-timeout 30
 service password-encryption
 banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
 login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
Explanation: The login block-for command sets a limit on the maximum number of failed
login attempts allowed within a defined period of time. If this limit is exceeded, no further logins are
allowed for the specified period of time. This helps to mitigate brute-force password cracking since it
will significantly increase the amount of time required to crack a password. The exec-
timeout command specifies how long the session can be idle before the user is disconnected.
The service password-encryption command encrypts the passwords in the running
configuration. The banner motd command displays a message to users who are logging in to
the device.
15. Identify the steps needed to configure a switch for SSH. The answer order
does not matter. (Not all options are used.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – Building and Securing a Small Network Exam

Explanation: The login and password cisco commands are used with Telnet switch
configuration, not SSH configuration.
16. What feature of SSH makes it more secure than Telnet for a device
management connection?
 confidentiality with IPsec
 stronger password requirement
 random one-time port connection
 login information and data encryption
Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that provides a secure management connection to
a remote device. SSH provides security by providing encryption for both authentication (username
and password) and the transmitted data. Telnet is a protocol that uses unsecure plaintext
transmission. SSH is assigned to TCP port 22 by default. Although this port can be changed in the
SSH server configuration, the port is not dynamically changed. SSH does not use IPsec.
17. What is the advantage of using SSH over Telnet?
 SSH is easier to use.
 SSH operates faster than Telnet.
 SSH provides secure communications to access hosts.
 SSH supports authentication for a connection request.
Explanation: SSH provides a secure method for remote access to hosts by encrypting network
traffic between the SSH client and remote hosts. Although both Telnet and SSH request
authentication before a connection is established, Telnet does not support encryption of login
credentials.
18. What is the role of an IPS?
 detecting and blocking of attacks in real time
 connecting global threat information to Cisco network security devices
 authenticating and validating traffic
 filtering of nefarious websites
Explanation: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) provides real-time detection and blocking of
attacks.
19. A user is redesigning a network for a small company and wants to ensure
security at a reasonable price. The user deploys a new application-aware
firewall with intrusion detection capabilities on the ISP connection. The user
installs a second firewall to separate the company network from the public
network. Additionally, the user installs an IPS on the internal network of the
company. What approach is the user implementing?
 attack based
 risk based
 structured
 layered
Explanation: Using different defenses at various points of the network creates a layered
approach.
20. What is an accurate description of redundancy?
 configuring a router with a complete MAC address database to ensure that all frames can
be forwarded to the correct destination
 configuring a switch with proper security to ensure that all traffic forwarded through an
interface is filtered
 designing a network to use multiple virtual devices to ensure that all traffic uses the best
path through the internetwork
 designing a network to use multiple paths between switches to
ensure there is no single point of failure
Explanation: Redundancy attempts to remove any single point of failure in a network by using
multiple physically cabled paths between switches in the network.
21. A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give
high priority to real-time applications traffic. What two types of network
services is the network administrator trying to accommodate? (Choose two.)
 voice
 video
 instant messaging
 FTP
 SNMP
Explanation: Streaming media, such as video, and voice traffic, are both examples of real-time
traffic. Real-time traffic needs higher priority through the network than other types of traffic because
it is very sensitive to network delay and latency.
22. What is the purpose of a small company using a protocol analyzer utility
to capture network traffic on the network segments where the company is
considering a network upgrade?
 to identify the source and destination of local network traffic
 to capture the Internet connection bandwidth requirement
  to document and analyze network traffic requirements on each
network segment
 to establish a baseline for security analysis after the network is upgraded
Explanation: An important prerequisite for considering network growth is to understand the type
and amount of traffic that is crossing the network as well as the current traffic flow. By using a
protocol analyzer in each network segment, the network administrator can document and analyze
the network traffic pattern for each segment, which becomes the base in determining the needs and
means of the network growth.
23. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote
device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command
indicate?

 Connectivity to the remote device was successful.

 A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
 A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
 The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.
Explanation: In the output of the ping command, an exclamation mark (!) indicates a response
was successfully received, a period (.) indicates that the connection timed out while waiting for a
reply, and the letter “U” indicates that a router along the path did not have a route to the destination
and sent an ICMP destination unreachable message back to the source.
24. Which method is used to send a ping message specifying the source
address for the ping?
 Issue the ping command from within interface configuration mode.
 Issue the ping command without specifying a destination IP address.
 Issue the ping command without extended commands.
 Issue the ping command after shutting down un-needed interfaces.
Explanation: By issuing the ping command without a destination IP address in privileged EXEC
mode, the Cisco IOS enters extended ping mode. This allows the user to implement extended
commands which include source IP address.
25. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed
network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?
 a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
 a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
 an increase in host-to-host ping response times
 a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output
Explanation: While analyzing historical reports an administrator can compare host-to-host timers
from the ping command and depict possible latency issues.
26. Which statement is true about Cisco IOS ping indicators?
 ‘!’ indicates that the ping was unsuccessful and that the device may have issues finding a
DNS server.
 ‘U’ may indicate that a router along the path did not contain a route
to the destination address and that the ping was unsuccessful.
 ‘.’ indicates that the ping was successful but the response time was longer than normal.
 A combination of ‘.’ and ‘!’ indicates that a router along the path did not have a route to
the destination address and responded with an ICMP unreachable message.
Explanation: The most common indicators of a ping issued from the Cisco IOS are “!”, “.”, and
“U”. The “!” indicates that the ping completed successfully, verifying connectivity at Layer 3. The “.”
may indicate that a connectivity problem, routing problem, or device security issue exists along the
path and that an ICMP destination unreachable message was not provided. The “U” indicates that a
router along the path may not have had a route to the destination address, and that it responded
with an ICMP unreachable message.
27. A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes
control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the
network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and
that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?
 The NIC in the PC is bad.
 The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled.
 The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down.
 Nothing can be determined for sure at this point.
Explanation: In networks today, a failed ping could mean that the other devices on the network
are blocking pings. Further investigation such as checking network connectivity from other devices
on the same network is warranted.
28. A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command
on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?
 It forces the trace to use IPv6.
 It limits the trace to only 6 hops.
 It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay.
 It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period.
29. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?
 to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
 to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
 to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
 to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC
Explanation: The tracert utility is used to identify the path a packet takes from source to
destination. Tracert is commonly used when packets are dropped or not reaching a specific
destination.
30. A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router
R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp
neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this
command if the ping failed between the two routers?
 The network administrator suspects a virus because the ping command did not work.
 The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.
 The network administrator wants to verify the IP address configured on router R2.
 The network administrator wants to determine if connectivity can be established from a
non-directly connected network.
Explanation: The show cdp neighbors command can be used to prove that Layer 1 and
Layer 2 connectivity exists between two Cisco devices. For example, if two devices have duplicate
IP addresses, a ping between the devices will fail, but the output of show cdp neighbors will be
successful. The show cdp neighbors detail could be used to verify the IP address of the
directly connected device in case the same IP address is assigned to the two routers.
31. A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues among
interconnected Cisco routers and switches. Which command should the
engineer use to find the IP address information, host name, and IOS version
of neighboring network devices?
 show version
 show ip route
 show interfaces
 show cdp neighbors detail
Explanation: The show cdp neighbors detail command reveals much information about
neighboring Cisco devices, including the IP address, the capabilities, host name, and IOS version.
The show interfaces and show version commands display information about the local
device.
32. What information about a Cisco router can be verified using the show
version command?
 the routing protocol version that is enabled
 the value of the configuration register
 the operational status of serial interfaces
 the administrative distance used to reach networks
Explanation: The value of the configuration register can be verified with the show
version command.
33. Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log
messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or
SSH?
 debug all
 logging synchronous
 show running-config
 terminal monitor
Explanation: The terminal monitor command is very important to use when log messages
appear. Log messages appear by default when a user is directly consoled into a Cisco device, but
require the terminal monitor command to be entered when a user is accessing a network device
remotely.
34. Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send
debug messages to the vty lines?
 terminal monitor
 logging console
 logging buffered
 logging synchronous
Explanation: Debug messages, like other IOS log messages, are sent to the console line by
default. Sending these messages to the terminal lines requires the terminal monitor command.
35. By following a structured troubleshooting approach, a network
administrator identified a network issue after a conversation with the user.
What is the next step that the administrator should take?
 Verify full system functionality.
 Test the theory to determine cause.
 Establish a theory of probable causes.
 Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue.
Explanation: A structured network troubleshooting approach should include these steps in
sequence:
1. Identify the problem.
2. Establish a theory of probable causes.
3. Test the theory to determine cause.
4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue.
5. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures.
6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
36. Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on
the Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP
address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which
troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem
is?
 netstat
 tracert
 nslookup
 ipconfig
Explanation: The nslookup command can be used to look up information about a particular
DNS name in the DNS server. The information includes the IP address of the DNS server being
used as well as the IP address associated with the specified DNS name. This command can help
verify the DNS that is used and if the domain name to IP address resolution works.
37. An employee complains that a Windows PC cannot connect to the
Internet. A network technician issues the ipconfig command on the PC and is
shown an IP address of 169.254.10.3. Which two conclusions can be drawn?
(Choose two.)
 The PC cannot contact a DHCP server.
 The DNS server address is misconfigured.
 The default gateway address is not configured.
 The PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
 The enterprise network is misconfigured for dynamic routing.
Explanation: When a Windows PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically, the PC
will try to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. When the PC cannot contact a DHCP server,
Windows will automatically assign an address belonging to the 169.254.0.0/16 range.
38. Refer to the exhibit. Host H3 is having trouble communicating with host
H1. The network administrator suspects a problem exists with the H3
workstation and wants to prove that there is no problem with the R2
configuration. What tool could the network administrator use on router R2 to
prove that communication exists to host H1 from the interface on R2, which
is the interface that H3 uses when communicating with remote networks?

 traceroute
 show cdp neighbors
 Telnet
 an extended ping
Explanation: An extended ping allows an administrator to select specific ping features. For
example in this situation, the network administrator could do an extended ping and specify a source
address of the gigabit Ethernet port on the router. The destination address would be the IP address
of host H1. If the ping succeeds connectivity exists from the Ethernet router interface on R2 to
device H1.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had
ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today
the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1
and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this
indicate to the network administrator?

 Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.

 H3 is not connected properly to the network.
 Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.
 Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.
 Something is causing a time delay between the networks.
Explanation: Ping round trip time statistics are shown in milliseconds. The larger the number the
more delay. A baseline is critical in times of slow performance. By looking at the documentation for
the performance when the network is performing fine and comparing it to information when there is
a problem, a network administrator can resolve problems faster.
40. Which network service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on
the network?
 DHCP
 Telnet
 DNS
 traceroute
Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) can be used to allow end devices to
automatically configure IP information, such as their IP address, subnet mask, DNS server, and
default gateway. The DNS service is used to provide domain name resolution, mapping hostnames
to IP addresses. Telnet is a method for remotely accessing a CLI session of a switch or
router. Traceroute is a command used to determine the path a packet takes as it traverses the
network.
41. Which command can an administrator execute to determine what
interface a router will use to reach remote networks?
 show arp
 show interfaces
 show ip route
 show protocols
Explanation: The show ip route command is used to display the IP routing table of the
router. The IP routing table will show a list of known local and remote networks and the interfaces
that the router will use to reach those networks.
42. On which two interfaces or ports can security be improved by configuring
executive timeouts? (Choose two.)
 Fast Ethernet interfaces
 console ports
 serial interfaces
 vty ports
 loopback interfaces
Explanation: Executive timeouts allow the Cisco device to automatically disconnect users after
they have been idle for the specified time. Console, vty, and aux ports can be configured with
executive timeouts.
43. When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network
management, a network engineer has issued the login local and transport
input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration actions
have to be performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)
 Set the user privilege levels.
 Generate the asymmetric RSA keys.
 Configure the correct IP domain name.
 Configure role-based CLI access.
 Create a valid local username and password database.
 Manually enable SSH after the RSA keys are generated.
Explanation: SSH is automatically enabled after the RSA keys are generated. Setting user
privilege levels and configuring role-based CLI access are good security practices but are not a
requirement of implementing SSH.
44. What is considered the most effective way to mitigate a worm attack?
 Change system passwords every 30 days.
 Ensure that all systems have the most current virus definitions.
 Ensure that AAA is configured in the network.
 Download security updates from the operating system vendor and
patch all vulnerable systems.
Explanation: Because worms take advantage of vulnerabilities in the system itself, the most
effective way to mitigate worm attacks is to download security updates from the operating system
vendor and patch all vulnerable systems.
45. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?
 Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
 Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
 Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
 Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.
Explanation: The ping utility tests end-to-end connectivity between the two hosts. However, if
the message does not reach the destination, there is no way to determine where the problem is
located. On the other hand, the traceroute utility (tracert in Windows) traces the route a
message takes from its source to the destination. Traceroute displays each hop along the way
and the time it takes for the message to get to that network and back.
46. A technician is to document the current configurations of all network
devices in a college, including those in off-site buildings. Which protocol
would be best to use to securely access the network devices?
 FTP
 HTTP
 SSH
 Telnet
Explanation: Telnet sends passwords and other information in clear text, while SSH encrypts its
data. FTP and HTTP do not provide remote device access for configuration purposes.
47. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and
then answer the question.

CCNA 1 v7 Modules 16 – 17 Building and Securing a Small Network Exam

Which command has to be configured on the router to complete the SSH
configuration?
 service password-encryption
 transport input ssh
 enable secret class
 ip domain-name cisco.com
Explanation: The missing command to complete the SSH configuration is transport input
ssh in line vty 0 4 mode.The commands service password-encryption and enable
secret class do configure secure features on the router, but are not required to configure SSH.
The command ip domain-name cisco.com is not required because the command ip
domain-name span.com has been used.
48. An administrator decides to use “WhatAreyouwaiting4” as the password
on a newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
 It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
49. An administrator decides to use “pR3s!d7n&0” as the password on a
newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and
special characters.
 It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
 It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
50. An administrator decides to use “5$7*4#033!” as the password on a
newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
 It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
 It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
51. An administrator decides to use “pR3s!d7n&0” as the password on a
newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
  It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and
special characters.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
52. An administrator decides to use “12345678!” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it uses a series of numbers or letters.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
53. An administrator decides to use “admin” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
 It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
54. An administrator decides to use “Feb121978” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it uses easily found personal information.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
55. An administrator decides to use “password” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it is a commonly used password.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
56. An administrator decides to use “RobErT” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak since it uses easily found personal information.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
 It is strong because it contains 10 numbers and special characters.
57. An administrator decides to use “Elizabeth” as the password on a newly
installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 It is weak because it uses easily found personal information.
 It is strong because it uses a passphrase.
 It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary.
 It is strong because it uses a minimum of 10 numbers, letters and special characters.
Explanation: Rules for strong passwords:
* minimum of 8 characters, preferably 10.
* use complex combinations of numbers, special characters, and upper and lower case letters.
* avoid repetition, common dictionary words, letter or number sequences.
* avoid names of children, relatives, pets, birthdays, or any easily identifiable personal information.
* can be created by misspelling words or replacing vowels with numbers or special characters.
58. A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify the
IP addresses of all interfaces on a router. What is the best command to use
to accomplish the task?
 show ip interface brief
 nslookup
 ipconfig getifaddr en0
 show ip route
59. Students who are connected to the same switch are having slower than
normal response times. The administrator suspects a duplex setting issue.
What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
 show interfaces
 ipconfig getifaddr en0
 copy running-config startup-config
 show ip nat translations
60. A user wants to know the IP address of the PC. What is the best command
to use to accomplish the task?
 ipconfig
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
61. A student wants to save a router configuration to NVRAM. What is the
best command to use to accomplish the task?
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
 show ip route
62. A support technician needs to know the IP address of the wireless
interface on a MAC. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
 ipconfig getifaddr en0
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
63. A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and needs to verify all of
the IPv6 interface addresses on a router. What is the best command to use to
accomplish the task?
 show ipv6 interface
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
 show ip route
64. A teacher is having difficulties connecting his PC to the classroom
network. He needs to verify that a default gateway is configured correctly.
What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
 ipconfig
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
65. Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty
connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing
has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
 show running-config
 show interfaces
 copy running-config startup-config
 show ip nat translations
66. An administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues and needs to
determine the IP address of a website. What is the best command to use to
accomplish the task?
 nslookup
 show ipv6 route
 show ipv6 interface
 copy startup-config running-config
67. What is a characteristic of UDP?
 UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.
 Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.
 UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received.
 UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.
Explanation: UDP has no way to reorder the datagrams into their transmission order, so UDP
simply reassembles the data in the order it was received and forwards it to the application.

Introduction to Networks (Version 7.0) – ITNv7 Practice Final

Exam Answers
1. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port
number of 22. What service is the client requesting?
 SSH
 TFTP
 DHCP
 DNS
2. Refer to the exhibit. What does the value of the window size specify?

 the amount of data that can be sent at one time

 the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is
required
 the total number of bits received during this TCP session
 a random number that is used in establishing a connection with the 3-way handshake
Explanation: The window size determines the number of bytes that can be sent before expecting
an acknowledgment. The acknowledgment number is the number of the next expected byte.
3. To which TCP port group does the port 414 belong?
 well-known
 private or dynamic
 public
 registered
Explanation: Well Known Ports: 0 through 1023.
Registered Ports: 1024 through 49151.
Dynamic/Private : 49152 through 65535.
4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but
receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the
problem?

 The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before
issuing the command.
 The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
Explanation: In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure terminal, or a
shortened version such as config t, must be entered from privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario
the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the hostname. The
administrator would need to use the enable command to move into privileged EXEC mode before
entering the configure terminal command.
5. What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command
on a PC?
 if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire
 if there is connectivity with the destination device
 the path that traffic will take to reach the destination
 what type of device is at the destination
Explanation: The ping destination command can be used to test connectivity.
6. What is a characteristic of a switch virtual interface (SVI)?
 An SVI is created in software and requires a configured IP address
and a subnet mask in order to provide remote access to the switch.
 Although it is a virtual interface, it needs to have physical hardware on the device
associated with it.
 SVIs do not require the no shutdown command to become enabled.
 SVIs come preconfigured on Cisco switches.
Explanation: Cisco IOS Layer 2 switches have physical ports for devices to connect. These
ports do not support Layer 3 IP addresses. Therefore, switches have one or more switch virtual
interfaces (SVIs). These are virtual interfaces because there is no physical hardware on the device
associated with it. An SVI is created in software.
The virtual interface lets you remotely manage a switch over a network using IPv4 and IPv6. Each
switch comes with one SVI appearing in the default configuration “out-of-the-box.” The default SVI is
interface VLAN1.
7. Match the descriptions to the terms. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: A GUI, or graphical user interface, allows the user to interact with the operating
system by pointing and clicking at elements on the screen. A CLI, or command-line interface,
requires users to type commands at a prompt in order to interact with the OS. The shell is the part
of the operating system that is closest to the user. The kernel is the part of the operating system
that interfaces with the hardware.
8. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC
value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?
 The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
 The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
 The switch drops the frame.
 The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to
notify the hosts of the error.
Explanation: The purpose of the CRC value in the FCS field is to determine if the frame has
errors. If the frame does have errors, then the frame is dropped by the switch.
9. Two network engineers are discussing the methods used to forward frames
through a switch. What is an important concept related to the cut-through
method of switching?
 The fragment-free switching offers the lowest level of latency.
 Fast-forward switching can be viewed as a compromise between store-and-forward
switching and fragment-free switching.
 Fragment-free switching is the typical cut-through method of switching.
 Packets can be relayed with errors when fast-forward switching is
used.
Explanation: Fast-forward switching offers the lowest level of latency and it is the typical cut-
through method of switching. Fragment-free switching can be viewed as a compromise between
store-and-forward switching and fast-forward switching. Because fast-forward switching starts
forwarding before the entire packet has been received, there may be times when packets are
relayed with errors.
10. Which two issues can cause both runts and giants in Ethernet networks?
(Choose two.)
 using the incorrect cable type
 half-duplex operations
 a malfunctioning NIC
 electrical interference on serial interfaces
 CRC errors
Explanation: Because collisions are a normal aspect of half-duplex communications, runt and
giant frames are common by-products of those operations. A malfunctioning NIC can also place
frames on the network that are either too short or longer than the maximum allowed length. CRC
errors can result from using the wrong type of cable or from electrical interference. Using a cable
that is too long can result in late collisions rather than runts and giants.

11. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to
facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
 implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet
over copper
 implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which
network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
Other case
 responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet
over copper
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 handles communication between upper layer networking software
and Ethernet NIC hardware
Other case
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
 implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
 enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
Other case
 implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
 adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
 places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which
network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
 applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
 integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet
over copper
Explanation: The data link layer is actually divided into two sublayers:
+ Logical Link Control (LLC): This upper sublayer defines the software processes that provide
services to the network layer protocols. It places information in the frame that identifies which
network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3
protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.
+ Media Access Control (MAC): This lower sublayer defines the media access processes performed
by the hardware. It provides data link layer addressing and delimiting of data according to the
physical signaling requirements of the medium and the type of data link layer protocol in use.
12. Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is
working properly on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)
 nslookup cisco.com
 ping cisco.com
  ipconfig /flushdns
 net cisco.com
 nbtstat cisco.com
Explanation: The ping command tests the connection between two hosts. When ping uses a
host domain name to test the connection, the resolver on the PC will first perform the name
resolution to query the DNS server for the IP address of the host. If the ping command is unable to
resolve the domain name to an IP address, an error will result.
Nslookup is a tool for testing and troubleshooting DNS servers.
13. A small advertising company has a web server that provides critical
business service. The company connects to the Internet through a leased line
service to an ISP. Which approach best provides cost effective redundancy for
the Internet connection?
 Add a second NIC to the web server.
 Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.
 Add another web server to prepare failover support.
 Add multiple connections between the switches and the edge router.
Explanation: With a separate DSL connection to another ISP, the company will have a
redundancy solution for the Internet connection, in case the leased line connection fails. The other
options provide other aspects of redundancy, but not the Internet connection. The options of adding
a second NIC and adding multiple connections between the switches and the edge router will
provide redundancy in case one NIC fails or one connection between the switches and the edge
router fails. The option of adding another web server provides redundancy if the main web server
fails.
14. Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty
connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing
has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
 copy running-config startup-config
 show interfaces
 show ip nat translations
 show running-config
15. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to
the Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks.
What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new
host?

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.235.234 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.234.114 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.234.235.254 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.3 255.255.255.0

Floor(config-if)# no shutdown

Floor(config-if)# end

 192.168.235.234
 203.0.113.3
 192.168.235.1
 10.234.235.254
 192.168.234.114
16. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is
entered. (Not all options are used.)
Explanation: The enable command is entered in R1> mode. The login command is entered in
R1(config-line)# mode. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered in R1# mode.
The ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 command is entered in R1(config-if)# mode. The service
password-encryption command is entered in global configuration mode.
17. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
 The IOS image is corrupt.
 Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
 The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
 The POST process has detected hardware failure.
Explanation: The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM and contains the commands
needed to initially configure a router. It also creates the running configuration file that is stored in in
RAM.

18. What service is provided by POP3?

 Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local
mail application of the client.
 An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
 Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
 Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
19. Two students are working on a network design project. One student is
doing the drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The
drawing is finished and the student wants to share the folder that contains
the drawing so that the other student can access the file and copy it to a USB
drive. Which networking model is being used?
 peer-to-peer
 client-based
 master-slave
 point-to-point
Explanation: In a peer-to-peer (P2P) networking model, data is exchanged between two network
devices without the use of a dedicated server.

20. Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host
name?
 tracert
 ipconfig /displaydns
 nslookup
 net
Explanation: The nslookup command was created to allow a user to manually query a DNS
server to resolve a given host name. The ipconfig /displaydns command only displays previously
resolved DNS entries. The tracert command was created to examine the path that packets take as
they cross a network and can resolve a hostname by automatically querying a DNS server. The net
command is used to manage network computers, servers, printers, and network drives.
21. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a
message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?
 bits
 frame
 packet
 segment
Explanation: At the transport layer, a host computer will de-encapsulate a segment to
reassemble data to an acceptable format by the application layer protocol of the TCP/IP model.

22. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP
model? (Choose two.)
 data link
 network
 physical
 session
 transport
Explanation: The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the TCP/IP transport layer, and
the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI data link and physical
layers together are equivalent to the TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI session layer (with the
presentation layer) is included within the TCP/IP application layer.

23. Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of
the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
 presentation
 physical
 network
 data link
 transport
 application
 session
Explanation:
The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The
OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link,
and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to
the application layer of the TCP/IP model.
24. Network information:
* local router LAN interface: 172.19.29.254 / fe80:65ab:dcc1::10
* local router WAN interface: 198.133.219.33 / 2001:db8:FACE:39::10
* remote server: 192.135.250.103
What task might a user be trying to accomplish by using the ping
2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command?
 verifying that there is connectivity within the local network
 creating a network performance benchmark to a server on the company intranet
 determining the path to reach the remote server
 verifying that there is connectivity to the internet
25. Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols?
(Choose two.)
 neighbor solicitation
 router advertisement
 router solicitation
 protocol unreachable
 route redirection
Explanation: The ICMP messages common to both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6 include: host
confirmation, destination (net, host, protocol, port) or service unreachable, time exceeded, and route
redirection. Router solicitation, neighbor solicitation, and router advertisement are new protocols
implemented in ICMPv6.
26. A network technician types the command ping 127.0.0.1 at the command
prompt on a computer. What is the technician trying to accomplish?
 pinging a host computer that has the IP address 127.0.0.1 on the network
 tracing the path to a host computer on the network and the network has the IP address
127.0.0.1
 checking the IP address on the network card
 testing the integrity of the TCP/IP stack on the local machine
Explanation: 127.0.0.1 is an address reserved by TCP/IP to test the NIC, drivers and TCP/IP
implementation of the device.
27. Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer
necessary?
 the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
 the use of CSMA/CA
 the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
 the development of half-duplex switch operation
 the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Explanation: The use of Layer 2 switches operating in full-duplex mode eliminates collisions,
thereby eliminating the need for CSMA/CD.

28. What does a router do when it receives a Layer 2 frame over the network medium?
  re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
 forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical
network
 determines the best path
 de-encapsulates the frame
Explanation: Routers are responsible for encapsulating a frame with the proper format for the
physical network media they connect. At each hop along the path, a router does the
following:Accepts a frame from a medium
De-encapsulates the frame
Determines the best path to forward the packet
Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
Forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical network
29. Which two acronyms represent the data link sublayers that Ethernet
relies upon to operate? (Choose two.)
 SFD
 LLC
 CSMA
 MAC
 FCS
Explanation: For Layer 2 functions, Ethernet relies on logical link control (LLC) and MAC
sublayers to operate at the data link layer. FCS (Frame Check Sequence) and SFD (Start Frame
Delimiter) are fields of the Ethernet frame. CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) is the technology
Ethernet uses to manage shared media access.
30. A network team is comparing topologies for connecting on a shared
media. Which physical topology is an example of a hybrid topology for a LAN?
 bus
 extended star
 ring
 partial mesh
Explanation: An extended star topology is an example of a hybrid topology as additional
switches are interconnected with other star topologies. A partial mesh topology is a common hybrid
WAN topology. The bus and ring are not hybrid topology types.

31. Given network 172.18.109.0, which subnet mask would be used if 6 host bits were
available?
 255.255.192.0
 255.255.224.0
 255.255.255.192
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.252
Explanation:
With an IPv4 network, the subnet mask is determined by the hosts bits that are required:
11 host bits required – 255.255.248.0
10 host bits required – 255.255.252.0
9 host bits required – 255.255.254.0
8 host bits required – 255.255.255.0
7 host bits required – 255.255.255.128
6 host bits required – 255.255.255.192
5 host bits required – 255.255.255.224
4 host bits required – 255.255.255.240
3 host bits required – 255.255.255.248
2 host bits required – 255.255.255.252
32. Three devices are on three different subnets. Match the network address
and the broadcast address with each subnet where these devices are located.
(Not all options are used.)
Device 1: IP address 192.168.10.77/28 on subnet 1
Device 2: IP address192.168.10.17/30 on subnet 2
Device 3: IP address 192.168.10.35/29 on subnet 3
Explanation: To calculate any of these addresses, write the device IP address in binary. Draw a
line showing where the subnet mask 1s end. For example, with Device 1, the final octet (77) is
01001101. The line would be drawn between the 0100 and the 1101 because the subnet mask is
/28. Change all the bits to the right of the line to 0s to determine the network number (01000000 or
64). Change all the bits to the right of the line to 1s to determine the broadcast address (01001111
or 79).

33. What type of address is 198.133.219.162?

 link-local
 public
 loopback
 multicast
34. What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent?
 subnetwork address
 unicast address
 multicast address
 broadcast address
Explanation: A broadcast address is the last address of any given network. This address cannot
be assigned to a host, and it is used to communicate with all hosts on that network.

35. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?

 Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of
internal networks.
 The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header
improves packet handling by intermediate routers.
 The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the
number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet.
 Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the
number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.
Explanation: The large number of public IPv6 addresses eliminates the need for NAT. Sites
from the largest enterprises to single households can get public IPv6 network addresses. This
avoids some of the NAT-induced application problems that are experienced by applications that
require end-to-end connectivity.
36. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a
destination network?
 directly-connected routes
 local routes
 remote routes
 C and L source routes
Explanation: Routing table entries for remote routes will have a next hop IP address. The next
hop IP address is the address of the router interface of the next device to be used to reach the
destination network. Directly-connected and local routes have no next hop, because they do not
require going through another router to be reached.

37. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a unicast, multicast,
or broadcast address?
 destination IPv4 address
 protocol
 TTL
 header checksum
38. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the
impact on communications?
 There is no impact on communications.
 The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
 The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but
is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
 The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on the local network.
Explanation: A default gateway is only required to communicate with devices on another
network. The absence of a default gateway does not affect connectivity between devices on the
same local network.
39. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address
fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029?
 fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
 fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290
 fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29
 fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
40. Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a
workstation. Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the
workstation?

 ::1/128
 fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
 fe80::/64
 2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
Explanation: In the IPv6 address scheme, the network of fe80::/10 is reserved for link-local
addresses. The address fe80::/64 is a network address that indicates, in this workstation, fe80::/64
is actually used for link-local addresses. Thus the address fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128 is a valid
IPv6 link-local address.

41. What type of IPv6 address is represented by ::1/128?

EUI-64 generated link-local
global unicast
unspecified
loopback
42. Which statement describes network security?
 It supports growth over time in accordance with approved network design procedures.
 It synchronizes traffic flows using timestamps.
 It ensures sensitive corporate data is available for authorized users.
 It prioritizes data flows in order to give priority to delay-sensitive traffic.
43. Which two devices would be described as intermediary devices? (Choose
two.)
 wireless LAN controller
 server
 assembly line robots
 IPS
 gaming console
 retail scanner
44. What characteristic describes spyware?
 software that is installed on a user device and collects information
about the user
 the use of stolen credentials to access private data
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
45. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the
contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame
addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

 The switch will discard the frame.

 The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
 The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
 The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
 The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
Explanation: The MAC address of PC3 is not present in the MAC table of the switch. Because
the switch does not know where to send the frame that is addressed to PC3, it will forward the
frame to all the switch ports, except for port 4, which is the incoming port.

46. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

 0.0.0.0
 255.255.255.255
 the physical address of the destination host
 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
 AAAA.AAAA.AAAA
Explanation:
The purpose of an ARP request is to find the MAC address of the destination host on an Ethernet
LAN. The ARP process sends a Layer 2 broadcast to all devices on the Ethernet LAN. The frame
contains the IP address of the destination and the broadcast MAC address, FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. The
host with the IP address that matches the IP address in the ARP request will reply with a unicast
frame that includes the MAC address of the host. Thus the original sending host will obtain the
destination IP and MAC address pair to continue the encapsulation process for data transmission.
47. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send
a packet to PC3. In this scenario, what will happen next?

 SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
 RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.
 RT1 will forward the ARP request to PC3.
 RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC3 MAC address.
 RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/1 MAC address.
Explanation: When a network device has to communicate with a device on another network, it
broadcasts an ARP request asking for the default gateway MAC address. The default gateway
(RT1) unicasts an ARP reply with the Fa0/0 MAC address.
48. A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2
within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator
trying to prevent?
 a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router
 a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network
 an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room
 a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link
Explanation: The login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command will cause the device to
block authentication after 2 unsuccessful attempts within 30 seconds for a duration of 180 seconds.
A device inspecting the traffic on a link has nothing to do with the router. The router configuration
cannot prevent unauthorized access to the equipment room. A worm would not attempt to access
the router to propagate to another part of the network.

49. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as
they relate to the OSI model?
 A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a connection,
whereas a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the state of a
connection.
 Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer.
 A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer,
whereas a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.
 A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a packet-filtering firewall
cannot filter beyond the network layer.
Explanation: Packet filtering firewalls can always filter Layer 3 content and sometimes TCP and
UDP-based content. Stateful firewalls monitor connections and thus have to be able to support up to
the session layer of the OSI model.
50. What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)
 Empty the browser cache.
 Use antivirus software.
 Delete unused software.
 Keep software up to date.
 Defragment the hard disk.
Explanation: At a minimum, a computer should use antivirus software and have all software up
to date to defend against malware.

51. The employees and residents of Ciscoville cannot access the Internet or any remote web-
based services. IT workers quickly determine that the city firewall is being flooded with so
much traffic that a breakdown of connectivity to the Internet is occurring. Which type of
attack is being launched at Ciscoville?
 access
 Trojan horse
 reconnaissance
 DoS
Explanation: A DoS (denial of service) attack prevents authorized users from using one or more
computing resources.
52. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling?
(Choose two.)
 Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
 Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
 Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
 Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cables and laser technology for multimode
cables.
 Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
Explanation: Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used for high-traffic backbone cabling and does not
conduct electricity. Multimode fiber uses LEDs for signaling and single-mode fiber uses laser
technology. FIber-optic cabling carries signals from only one device to another.
53. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of
bits across a medium over a given period of time?
 latency
 goodput
 throughput
 bandwidth
54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum possible throughput between
the PC and the server?

 10 Mb/s
 1000 Mb/s
 128 kb/s
 100 Mb/s
Explanation: The maximum throughput between any two nodes on a network is determined by
the slowest link between those nodes.
55. Match the description with the media. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation: UTP cables are used in wired office environments. Coaxial cables are used to
connect cable modems and televisions. Fiber optics are used for high transmission speeds and to
transfer data over long distances. STP cables are used in environments where there is a lot of
interference.