GPAT 2023 Question Paper Shift 2

10. Match List I with List II:

Pharmaceutical chemistry
List I: Name of the List II: Chemical class
Tick mark the appropriate choice
drug
1. Conversion of cyclic ketone to ring expended cyclic ester A. Zolpidem I. Cyclopyrrolone
takes place by:
B. Zaleplon II. Benzodiazepine
(a) Willgerodt rearrangement
(b) Baeyer Villiger rearrangement C. Zopiclone III. Imidazopyridine
(c) Michael rearrangement D. Triazolam IV. Pyrazolopyrimidine
(d) Lossen rearrangement
2. Carbohydrates have hydrogen oxygen atom ratio of: Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (b) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 1
(c) A-III, B-IV,C-I, D-II (d) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
3. Aklyl group in Grignard reagent serve as
11. Addition of HBr to 1.3-butadiene at 40°C yields:
(a) Carbene (b) Free radical
(a) 80% 1,2-addition product and 20% 1,4-addition product
(c) Aromatic carbocation (d) Carbanion
(b) 80% 1,2-addition product and 20% 1,3-addition product
4. The potential of the calomel electrode depends upon (c) 80% 1,4-addition product and 20% 1,2-addition product
(a) Concentration of mercuric chloride (d) 80% 1,2-addition product and 20% 1,3-addition product
(b) Concentration of mercury
12. Identify A, B and C in below reaction:
(c) The concentration of potassium chloride solution
(d) Membrane
5. The addition of Monobasic Potassium Phosphate to the
suspended Bismuth Subnitrate particles cause the A to B (a) A = Br2, B = KOH, C = NaNH2
owing to the C: (b) A – Br2, B = HCl, C – NaNH2
(a) A–positive zeta potential, B–decrease, C–adsorption of (c) A = Br2, B = HCl, C = NaNH4
the negatively charged phosphate anion (d) A – Br2, B = KOH, C – NaNH2
(b) A–negative zeta potential, B–decrease, C–adsorption of
the negatively charged phosphate anion 13. Which of the following factor make carbonyl group in
(c) A–positive zeta potential, B–increase, C–adsorption of acyl compounds, too, susceptible to nucleophilic attack?
the negatively charged phosphate anion (a) The tendency of oxygen to acquire electrons even at the
(d) A–positive zeta potential, B–decrease, C–adsorption of expense of gaining positive charge
the positively charged hydrogen anion (b) The tendency of oxygen to acquire electrons even at the
expense of gaining negative charge
6. Which of the following compound would be expected to
(c) The tendency of carbon to loose electrons even at the
have greatest florescence?
expense of gaining negative charge
(d) The tendency of carbon to loose electrons even at the
(a) (b) expense of gaining positive charge
14. The tendency of carbon to loose electrons even at the
expense of gaining positive chargeIdentify intermediate
(c) (d) forms in following substitution reaction:

7. Which of the following is not a sulphonamide derivative?

(a) Rizatriptan (b) Sumatriptan
(c) Almotriptan (d) Naratriptan (a) Cyclohexa-1,3-dien-4-yne
8. When exposed to carbon monoxide, the base pigment of (b) Cyclohexa-1,4-dien-5-yne
Cytochrome P enzymes absorb light at: (c) Cyclohexa-1,3-dien-5-yne
(a) 450 nm (b) 370 nm (c) 254 nm (d) 600 nm (d) Cyclohexa-1,5-dien-4-yne
15. In atomic absorption spectroscopy, back ground
9. A = Br2, B = KOH, C = NaNH2Which heterocyclic ring
correction performed using a single hollow cathode lamp
is fused to a steroidal nucleus in Danazol? pulsed first with a low current and then with a high
(a) Thaizole (b) Isoxazole current is called:
(b) Imidazole (d) Pyrazole (a) Smith Hieftje background correction
s
 (b) Continuous source background correction 26. A chromatogram of a peak provided a retention time at 5,4
(c) Zeeman effect background correction minutes and 0.41 base width of the peak. The number of
(d) Hollow cathode background correction plates or the peak obtained is:
(a) 210.7 (b) 173.5
16. is an example of aromatic nucleophilic substitution
(c) 78.4 (d) 2775.5
reaction. 27. Following statement is correct with respect to voltage
(a) Gatterman Koch reaction (b) Chichibabin sensitive calcium channels:
(c) Kolbes reaction (d) Friedel-Crafts reaction (a) L-type Blocker : Nifedipine
17. Phenol reacts with chloroform in presence of aqueous (b) T-type Blocker : Verapamil
sodium hydroxide to give chief product: (c) N-type Blocker : Mibefradil
(a) 2-Chloro Benzaldehyde (b) 2-Hydroxy Benzaldehyde (d) R-type Blocker : Diltiazem
(c) 2-Hydroxy Benzaldehyde(d) 3-Chloro Benzaldehyde 28. Which one of the following molecules has a dipole
18. Replacement of the diazonium group by halogen in moment?
presence of copper powder is: (a) CS2 (b) CO2
(a) Gabriel reaction (b) Gattermann reaction (c) CH4 (d ) CHCl3
(c) Hofmann reaction (d) Sandmeyer reaction 29. In UV spectrophotometer, lamp used to generate UV
19. Which of the following ICH Hannonized Tripartite spectrum is:
Guidelines related to stability, provides the general (a) Tungsten (b) Sodium vapor
requirements for stability, testing of new drug substances (b) LED (d) Deuterium
and products? 30. Which of the following factors affect the heat ofreaction
(a) Q1A (R2) (b) Q1B based on Kirchoff equation?
(c) Q1D (d) Q1E (a) Molecularity (b) Temperature
20. All the following about back nitration are true, EXCEPT: (c) Pressure (d) Volume
(a) It is performed when the rate of reaction between the 31. Which one of the following is an example of a chelate?
analyte and reagent is fast (a) Cisplatin (b) Hemoglobin
(b) It is performed when the rate of reaction between the (c) Iodine (d) Ferrocene
analyte and reagent is slow 32. A 2.0% saline solution is:
(c) It is performed when the standard lacks stability (a) Hypotonic (b) Hypertonic
(d) It is the process in which excess of standard solution (c) Isotonic (d) Iso-osmotic
used to react with an analyte is determined by titration
33. Which of the following is correct order of stability of free
with a second standard solution
radicals?
21. Identify pair of C4 epimers: (a) allyl > 3° > 2° > 1° > CH3°
(a) D-glucose and D-galactose (b) 3° > 2° > 1° > allyl > CH3°
(b) D-glucose and D-fructose (c) CH3° > 3° > 2° > 1° > allyl
(c) D-glucose and D-mannose (d) 3° > 2° > 1° > CH3° > allyl
(d) D-glucose and D-xylulose
34. Predict the theoretical max value for the following
22. Amphetamine undergoes one of the following metabolic
compound using Woodward-Fieser rules. Base value for
reaction to convert to 1-phenyl-2-propanol metabolite via
the compound is 215 nm:
ketone formation:
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation
(c) Reduction (d) Hydroxylation
23. What is the popular common name for a bioactive (a) 240 nm (b) 220 nm (c) 225 nm (d) 235 nm
compound with chemical name of (m-hydroxyphenyl)-
35. EDTA is an example of:
trimethyl ammonium methyl sulphate dimethyl
(a) Unidentate Ligand (b) Bidenatate Ligand
carbomate?
(c) Tridentate Ligand (d) Hexadentate Ligand
(a) Neostigmine (b) Pyridostigmine
(c) Physostigmine (d) Metastigmine 36. Isoquinoline on treatment with oleum at 90°C yields
majorly:
24. Which among the following Cephalosporins has an
(a) Isoquinoline-3-sulfonic acid
unusual 5-thio-1,2,3,4-tetrazole substituent attached to
(b) Isoquinoline-5-sulfonic acid
core heterocyclic nucleus through a methylene bridge?
(c) Isoquinoline-6-sulfonic acid
(a) Cefazolin (b) Cefamandole (d) Isoquinoline-7-sulfonic acid
(b) Cefoxitin (d) Cefadroxil 37. Eicosanoids are polyunsaturated fatty acids of
25. The C-2 epimer of D-glucose is: carbons:
(a) D-Mannose (b) L-Fructose (a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 15 (d) 20
(b) D-Gluco pyranose (d) L-Arabinose
38. Efficiency of an reversible engine is given by 47. In a mechanical model of a viscoelastic material, showing
(a) Clapeyron equation both viscosity of liquid state and elasticity of solid-state
(b) Carnot theorem combined in series is termed as:
(c) Claussius Clapeyron equation (a) Maxwell Element (b) Creep Element
(d) Gibbs-Helmholtz (b) Voight Element (d) Retardation Element
Pharmaceutics and allied subjects 48. Recombination process in a cell occurring through the
mediation of phages is called:
39. Noye-Whitney’s equation predicts: (a) Transfection (b) Transduction
(a) An increase of dissolution rate if the particle size is (c) Conjugation (d) Transformation
reduced by micronization because of an increase in area 49. Which of the following is a cellular?
(b) relationship between the radius of the diffusing (a) Bacteria (b) Fungus
molecule and its diffusion coefficient (b) Virus (d) Amoeba
(c) The influence of electrolyte on the rate rate constant
50. If S is the solubility of small particles of radius r, is the
(d) An equilibrium between the surfactant and the drug
normal solubility (i.e., of a solid consisting of fairly large
molecules at the surface of the solution and in the bulk particles), is the interfacial energy, M is the molecular
of the solution.
weight of the solid,  is the density of the bulk solid, R
40. Which among the following is not used as NSAID? is the gas constant and T is the thermodynamic
(a) Indomethaein extended release 75 mg temperature, then which of the following equation
(b) Aspirin 75 mg indicates the changes in interfacial free energy that
(c) Naproxen 500 mg accompany the dissolution of particles of varying sizes
(d) Mefanamic acid 500 mg causing the solubility of substance to increase with
41. One of the following drugs is not meant for systemic use: decreasing particle size?
(a) Netilmycin (b) Sisomiein (a) Log (S0/S) = 2Mr/2.303RT 
(c) Neomycin (d) Paramomycin (b) Log (S/S0) = 2M/2.303RT r
42. Indicate which of the following molecular characteristics (c) Log (S/S0) = 2Mr/2.303RT 
will be expected to increase the solubility of a simple (c) Log (S0/S) = 2Mr/2.303RT r
solute in an aqueous solution: 51. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion
(a) A high melting point (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
(b) The presence of polar group Assertion (A): In case of Salicylic Acid Ointment BP

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(c) A high molecular surface area Wool Alcohol Ointment made with white soft paraffin is
(d) A high boiling point used.
43. Which type of in-vitro-in-vivo correlation compares % Reason (R): Wood Alcohol Ointment made with white
drug released vs % drug absorbed?
soft paraffin is used because the medicament is coloured.
(a) Level C (b) Level A
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(c) Multiple level C (d) Level B
appropriate answer from the options given below:
44. Which of the following characteristics is most likely to be (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
associated with a high apparent volume of distribution? explanation of (A)
(a) Penetration across the blood brain and blood testis (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
barriers explanation of (A)
(b) Extensive binding to plasma protein (c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(c) Distribution into total body water (d) (A) is false and (R) is true
(d) Extensive binding to tissue constituents 52. Match List I with List II:
45. Autoimmunity refers to:
List I: List II:
(a) An automatic trigger of the immune system directed
Dissolution Name
against a specific pathogen
apparatus
(b) Failure to distinguish between self and non-self
(c) An automatic segregation of T and B cells A. Type I I. Reciprocating holder
(d) Failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells B. Type 5 II. Paddled overdisk
46. Ideally BA studies should be carried on volunteers. C. USP App 6 III. Basket type
(a) Aged (b) Children
(c) Healthy (d) Patient D. USP App 7 IV. Cylinder apparatus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
53. The Schick test is used to determine susceptibilityto: (c) C and D only (d) A only
(a) Measles (b) Polio (c) Diptheria (d) Typhoid 61. ‘Picking’ is a term used to describe:
54. Absorption of Vitmain B12 is facilitatedby (a) Separation of tablet into two or more layers
(a) Hydrogel (b) Glycoprotein (b) The situation when the surface material from a tablet
(b) Lipoprotein (d) Microprotein that is sticking to and being removed from the tablet’s
surface by a punch
55. A clear, sweetened hydroalcoholic liquid containing (c) Unequal distribution of colour on a tablet
medicament, is known as:
(d) Partial or complete separation of the top and bottom
(a) Elixir (b) Syrup (c) Tincture (d) Decoction
crowns of a tablet from the main body of the tablet
56. Match List with List II:
62. Enzyme asparaginse is obtained from:
List I: Name of List II: (a) Clostridium histolyticum (b) Bacillus subrills
Emulsifier Remark (c) Erwinia caratovora (d) Khuyveromycas lactis
A. Triethanola- I. Surface-active agent (non- 63. Which of these is not a colligative property?
mine oleate ionic) (a) Osmotic pressure
B. N-ethyl N-ethy II. Hydrophilic colloid (b) Polymorphism
morpholinium (c) Depression of freezing point
ethosulfate (d) Elevation in boiling point
(Atlas G-263) 64. Ri Hingers hypothesis relates
(i) Energy used in size reduction
C. Polyxyethelene III. Surface-active agent
(ii) New surface area produced
sorbitan mono (anionic)
(iii) Equivalent shape
oleate (Atlas
(iv) Reynold’s number
Tween 80)
Arrange the correct order
D. Gelatin IV. w/o Emulsifier (HLB = 4.3) (a) i and ii (b) ii and iii (c) i and iii (d) i and iv
V. Surface active agent 65. Given below are two statements:
(cationic) Statement I: Rubber stoppers cannot withstand pyrogen-
Choose the correct answer from the options given below destructive temperatures.
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-III (b) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II Statement II: In case of rubber stopper for injections
(c) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III (d) A-IV, B-III, C-V, D-I reliance must be on an effective sequence of washing,
57. Which of the following equipment is based on the thorough rinsing with WFI, prompt sterilization and
principle of Pohlman liquid whistle? protective storage to ensure adequate pyrogen control.
(a) Ultrasonifier (b) Mechanical stirrer In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(b) Silverson homogeniser (d) Colloid mill appropriate answer from the options given below:
58. A sample of glucose was decomposed at 140°C in a (a) Statement I and Statement II are correct
solution containing 0.030 M HCl. The velocity constant k, (b) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
was found to be 0.0080 hr–1. If the spontaneous rate (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II are incorrect
constant, is 0.0010 hr–1, and the catalysis due to hydroxyl (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II are correct
ions in this acidic solution is considered as negligible, 66. Sarong SpA semiautomatic equipment is used for the:
then the catalytic coefficient, kH is: (a) Filling and packaging line for topical pharmaceutical
(a) 0.22 per mole per hour (b) 0.233 per mole per hour aerosols
(c) 0.27 per mole per hour (d) 0.29 per mole per hour (b) Production of suppositories
59. Which of the following is the correct choice of particle (c) Filling of hard gelatin capsule
size measurement technique in scoring order of size? (d) Inserting rubber closure in vials
(i) Sieve (ii) Anderson Pipette 67. In 1798 Edward Jenner published his work on
(iii) Coulter counter (iv) Light scattering (a) Vaccination (b) Prescription writing
Arrange the correct order (c) Isolation of morphine (d) Isolation of codeine
(a) ii, iv, iii, i (b) ii, iv, iii, i
(c) i, iii, ii, iv (d) iv, i, iii, ii
60. Which of the following drugs does not bind to
haemoglobin?
A. Chlorpromazine B. Phenobarbital
C. Phenothizine D. Phenytoin
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) B, C and D only (b) B and D only
68. Absolute solubility does not rely on standard condition of:
(a) pH (b) Pressure 76. Terpene indole alkaloid derived from L-Tryptophan via
(c) Temperature (d) Volume secologanin is:
69. Modified Lowry’s Procedure is used to characterize: (a) Morphine (b) Codeine
(a) Protein-Content in allergen product (c) Ajamalicine (d) Thebaine
(b) Protein profile in allergen product 77. Sesquiterpenes arebiosynthesised from in plants.
(c) Potency of allergen product (a) Farnesyl-pyrophosphate
(d) Storage condition of allergen product (b) Geranyl farnesyl pyrophosphate
(c) Terpenes
70. Vanishing cream is an ointment that may be classified as:
(a) Water soluble base (b) Oleaginous base (d) Degraded products of terpenes
(b) Absorption base (d) Emulsion base 78. Ayurvedic fermented preparation includes
(a) Churans (b) Tailas
71. Match List I with List II: (b) Bhasmas (d) Aristas and Asavas
List I: Parts of the List II: 79. Chemically volatile oils differ from fixed oils in one of the
valve assembly Purpose of parts following characters:
(a) Mixtures of eleoptenes adn steroptenes
A. Gasket I. Links the dip tube and the
(b) Presence of flavonoids
stem and the actuator
(c) Presence of plant acids
B. Spring II. Prevents the leakage (d) Hydrophilic in nature
C. Mounting cup III. Holds the Gasket in place 80. The alcohol solution of Sudan-II and tincture of alkana
are the reagents used for identification of following type
D. Housing IV. Holds the valve in place
of secondary metabolities:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) Resins (b) Alkaloids
(a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (c) Fixed oils (d) Volatile oils
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 81. Aloe contains type of glycosides:
72. In terms of the kinetics, degradation in suspension is: (a) C-glycosides (b) O-glycosides
(a) First order (b) Second order (c) S-glycosides (d) N-glycosides
(c) Pseudo zero order (d) Zero order
82. Modified borntrager’s test is used to detect the presence
73. While preparing the following: of which type of glycosides:
Rx (a) O-type of glycosides (b) C-type of glycosides

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Salicylic acid: 3 g (c) S-type of glycosides (d) N-type of glycosides
Sulfur ppt: 7 g
83. Which one of the following drug is skeletal muscle
Lanolin: 10 g
relaxant?
White petroleum: 10 g
(a) Datura stramonium
The pharmacist should:
(b) Atropa belladonna
(a) Use a rubber spatula to weigh and levigate the salicylic
(c) Hyoscyamus niger
acid
(b) Mix the powders using geometric dilution in a mortar (d) Chondrodendron tomentosum
(c) Place on an ointment tile and levigate the ingredients 84. Which one of the following is an autosomal dominant
using geometric dilution syndrome in its inheritance?
(d) All the above (a) Gilbert’s syndrome
(b) Crigler-Naijar syndrome Type-I
Pharmacognosy and allied subjects (c) Dubin-Johnson syndrome
74. The following are adulterants of clove except one, choose (d) Rotor syndrome
the most appropriate option: 85. Fight or flight responses are mediated by
(a) Mother clove (b) Clove stalk (a) Parasympathetic division of Autonomous nervous
(c) Blown clove (d) Clove bud system
75. Unicellular conical, warty trichomes, paracytic stomata, (b) Sympathetic division of Automonous nervous system
xylem vessels with annular thickening are important (c) Serotonergic nervous system
microscopical features of which plant? (d) Histaminergic nervous sytem
(a) Datura metal (b) Cassia angustifolia 86. One of the following match is correct choose it:
(c) Digitalis purpurea (d) Atropa belladonna (a) M1 Acetylcholine receptors confined to brain M2
Acetylcholine receptors neural M3 Acetylcholine
receptors are cardiac M4 Acetylcoline receptors
glandular
(b) M1 Acetylcholine receptors neural M2 Acetylcholine
 receptors confined to brain M3 Acetylcholine receptors
are cardiac M4 Acetylcoline receptors glandular 92. Choose the most appropriate answer:
(c) M1 Acetylcholine receptors neural M2 Acetylcholine A. Enterobius vermicularis-pin worm
receptors cardiac M3 Acetylcholine receptors are B. Strongyloids stercoralis-Thread worm
cardiac to glandular M4 Acetylcoline receptors confined C. Wuchereria bancrofti-Filarial worm
to brain D. Dracunculus medinensis-Guinea worm
(d) M1 Acetylcholine receptors glandular M2 Acetylcholine (a) Only B and C are correct
receptors neural M3 Acetylcholine receptors are cardiac (b) Only A and B are correct
to brain M4 Acetylcoline receptors cardiac (c) A, B, C and D are correct
87. Match List I with List II: (d) Only B, C and D are correct
93. activates G-protein gated potassium channel resulting
List I List II in membrane hyperpolarization.
A. Vibrations in skeletal I. Facial contractions (a) 1 adrenergic receptor (b) 2 adrenergic receptor
muscles of larynx (b) 1 adrenergic receptor (d) 2 adrenergic receptor
B. Involuntary II. Regulate voice 94. Exenatide is a:
contraction of (a) Glucagon like peptide 1 (GLP1) receptor agonist
skeletal muscles that (b) Diphenyl Peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitors
is regulated by the (c) Facilitator of glucose transport across the cell
brain (d) Inhibitor of glucose absorption in the GIT
C. Contraction of III. Shivering 116. The good management principle revolves around
skeletal muscles in the three R’s these are:
the legs (a) Ration, Rotation and Responsibility
(b) Reward, Recognition and Responsibility
D. Pull of skeletal IV. Assists return of
(c) Research, Recreation and Responsibility
muscles on attach- blood to the heart
ments ot skin of face (d) Reverse engineering, Research and Responsibility.
95. Prominent biochemical features of Grave’s disease are
V. Causes facial (a) Decreased ionized calcium in body fluids
expression
(b) Decreased T4 and T3 in circulation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (c) Increased ionized calcium in body fluids
(d) Increaased T4 and T3 in circulation
(a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-V
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-V (d) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-I 96. Laboratory findings of which one of the following
88. is a protein marker which can be detected within three diseases include markedly elevated serum amylase levels
hours of acute ischemic kidney injury from patient’s during the first 24 hours followed by rising serum lipase
urine. levels within 72-96 hours?
(a) N-acetyl--D-glucose aminidase (a) Acute pancreatitis (b) Cirrhosis of liver
(b) Gluthione-S-transferase (c) Jauncide (d) Cystic fibrosis of lungs
(c) Neutrophil gelatinase associated lipocalin 97. Which of the following is a third generation cephalos-
(d) -glutamyl transpeptidase porin?
89. Which of the following genes responsible for graft (a) Cefotaxime (b) Cefuroxime
rejection in humans? (c)Cefazoline (d) Cefeprime
(a) Highly polymorphic HLA genes 98. Deficiency of enzyme is found in Hers’ disease.
(b) APP genes (a) Muscle glycogen phosphorylase
(c) hMSH2 gene (b) Liver glycogen phisphorylase
(d) FMR1 gene (c) Phosphofructokinase
(d) Glucose-6-phosphatase
90. Most common type of megaloblastic anemia caused by
malabsorption of vitamin B12 and characterized by 99. One of the following is correct match or mechanisms.
decreased production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach Select it:
and a deficiency of intrinsic factor is
(a) Iron deficiency anemia (b) Sideroblastic anemia
(c) Pernicions anemia (d) Aplastic anemia
91. Which of the following is not an ACE inhibitor?
(a) Captropil (b) Tarandopril
(d) Lisinopril (c) Verapamil
 (a) Methotrexate-Inhibition of microtubules, Vinca (b) Both Tonic-clonic seizure and Status epilepticus
alkaloids-Inhibition of Purine synthesis, Bleomycin- (c) Only Febrile seizures
Inhibitors of RNA, 5-Fluoro Uracil-DNA damage (d) Both Febrile seizures and Status epilepticus
(b) Methotrexate-DNA damage, Vinca alkaloids- 117. Match List I with List II
Inhibition of microtubules, Bleomycin-Inhibitors of 2-
deoxythymidylate, 5-Fluoro Uracil-DNA damage List I List II
(c) Methotrexate-DNA damage, Vinca alkaloids-RNA A. Penicillin I. Single cell protein
damage, Bleomycin-Inhibition of Purine synthesis, 5-
B. Rutin II. Ion exchange chromato-
Fluoro Uracil-Inhibition of 2-deoxythymidylate
graphy for recovery
(d) Methotrexate-Inhibition of Purine synthesis, Vinca
alkaloids-Inhibition of Microtubules, Bleomycin- C. Streptomycin III. Primary metabolite
DNA damage, 5-Fluoro Uracil-inhibition of 2-
D. Amino acids IV. Phenyl acetic acid as
deoxythymidylate
precursor
100. Para aminohippuric acid (PAH) clearance test is
employed to measure: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Renal blood flow (b) Liver blood flow (a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) Cerebral blood flow (d) Venous blood flow (b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
101. The -adrenergic antagonist propranolol (20-20 mg/kg) is (c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
prescribed to around 50% of maniac patients receiving (d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Lithium is to mitigate the side effect: 118. Schedule ‘O’ governs the standards for:
(a) Anxiety (b) Bradycardia (a) List of equipment to run a pharmacy
(c) Hypertension (d) Tremor (b) Life period (expiry) of drugs
102. Which class of antibody opsonizes antigents for phago- (c) Dininfectant fluids
cytosis through two different pathways? (d) Manufacturing and analytical records of drugs
(a) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) 115. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture
(b) Immunoglobulin M (IgM) of cosmetics are mentioned in the Drugs and Cosmetics
(c) Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Rules, 1945 under:
(d) Immunoglobulin E (IgE) (a) Schedule M (b) Schedule M-1
(c) Schedule M-2 (d) Schedule M-3
103. Anti-rheumatoid drug which is contraindicated in

GPAT Solved PAPer-2023

patients with renal and hepatic impairment 119. The more appropriate purpose of spiral scrapper in
(a) Sulfasalazine (b) Methotrexate Swenson-Walker crystalliser is:
(c) Corticosteroids (d) Azathoprine (a) Agitation of sample (solution)
(b) Conveying the crystals
104. Which among the following is an amino-alcohol analogue
(c) Prevent an accumulation of crystals on the cooling
that has weak visceral anticholinerergic activity but is a
surface
strong nicotinolytic drug?
(d) Provides desired temperature to the sample (solution)
(a) Biperiden (b) Orphenadrine
(c) Poldine (d) Propantheline 120. If u is velocity of fluid,  is density of fluid, L is
length of the pipe, D is diameter of the pipe, f is
105. Which one of the following interferes with the release of
friction factor and
cholingeric neurotransmitter, acetylcholine by the
P1 is pressure drop, then the equation P1 = (2fu2L)
neurons of autonomic nervous system?
  represents
(a) Reserpine (b) Guanethidine
(a) Hagen Poiseuille equation
(c) Hemicholinium (d) Botulinum toxin
(b) Bernoulli equation
106. Which one of the following types of hepatitis can lead to (c) Fannings equation
fulminant hepatitis causing massive hepatic cell death (d) Reynolds equation
more frequently among infected pregnant women, showin
121. Who is the primary source of information for
third trimester mortality as high as 30%?
doctors’ prescribing behaviour?
(a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B
(a) Competitor (b) Wholesaler
(c) Hepatitis C (d) Hepatitis E
(b) Fellow doctor (d) Retailer
107. Valproate and Carbamazepine can be used as first line
108. Which phase of cell cycle is the shortest phase in terms of
drugs for the management of following type of seizure.
time?
(a) Both partial seizure and Tonic-clonic seizure
(a) G1 (b) S (c) M (d) G2
122. The number of persons elected as the member of the
Pharmacy Council of India from the teaching
profession is:
 (a) Five (b) Size
(b) Seven (d) Eight
123. Match List I and List II:
List I: Schedule List II: Covers the
A. Schedule Y I. Shelf of drugs
B. Schedule FF II. Requirements for clinical
trials
C. Schedule O III. Disinfectant liquids
D. Schedule P IV. Opthalmic ointments
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (d) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
124. The fluid flows through the filter medium by virtue of:
(a) Pressure difference across the filter
(b) Temperature difference across the filter
(c) Volume difference across the filter
(d) Potential difference across the filter
125. Match the photopharmaceutical with the plant species from which they are produced:
List I List II
Compound Plant species
A. Cardinolides I. Ruta graveolens

B. Rutin II. Catharanthus roseus

C. Ajamalicine III. Papaver somnifera

D. Codeine IV. Digitalis lanata

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-I, C-III, D-IV (d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III