Level-2 Question Bank 4 of 11 Meritnest

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

Note: Pollution Control Board in India.

#1: This PDF is intended solely for personal use. We In this context, which of the following pollutants are
kindly ask you to avoid unauthorised sharing and notified under these standards?
support our affordable initiatives. If you are aware
of anyone who might benefit from these efforts, 1. Benzopyrene
please explore our Refer and Earn programme. For
those who know at least 25 individuals who could 2. Carbon Dioxide
benefit from our initiatives, we encourage you to
consider our partner programme. Our referral and 3. Arsenic
partner benefits are among the best in the industry.
4. Nickle
[email protected]
#2: In 2023 Prelims, a significant number of
multiple-choice questions introduced varied 5. Sulphur Dioxide
response options (e.g., any 1, any 2, only 1, only 2, all
three, etc.). To facilitate easy identification during Select the correct answer using the codes given
revision, these specific questions in our question below:
bank are highlighted using a combination of bold
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
and italics for their options.
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
#3: To report inaccuracies, if any, please email us at (c) 2 and 5 only
[email protected]. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

#4: You can check corrections to this PDF from the


3. Which of the following correctly describes the
page you downloaded it from (click on relevant
Zero Liquid Discharge concept?
errata link).
(a) Segregation of domestic biodegradable sewage
#5: While this PDF is free to download, we request waste at the source.
you to support our efforts by attaching a price tag (b) Sealing and dumping of all radioactive waste
to it. You can pay any amount you wish at from nuclear power plants in underground
https://rzp.io/l/AixxAZwc. containers.
(c) Collection and reuse of all fertiliser rich
agricultural solid waste to prevent eutrophication.
1. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Bio indicators of pollution: (d) Recycling and chemical treatment of wastewater
in water intensive industries which is reduced to
1. Bio indicators are living organisms which are solid waste.
utilised to screen the health of the natural
ecosystem in the environment. 4. With reference to Radioactive Pollution,
consider the following statements:
2. Frogs are Bio indicators of quality of environment
and changes in environment. 1. Compared to non-ionising radiation, ionising
radiation has lower frequency and longer
3. Decreased rate of planktons are the indication of wavelength.
high centralisation of phosphorus and nitrogen in
water. 2. Ionising Radiation may cause significant damage
to DNA whereas the non-ionising radiation
7075060014
How many of the above statements are correct? generally causes thermal damage to the tissues.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three
(a) 1 only
(d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. “National Ambient Air Quality Standards” are
standards for air quality that are set by the Central (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

(c) All three


5. Torrefaction technology, sometimes seen in (d) None
news, is related to what?
(a) It can be used to tackle the issue of stubble 8. Consider the following statements:
burning.
(b) It is used to convert coal to coking coal for use in 1. Bioaccumulation is the process by which a
steel industries. pollutant from the environment enters a food chain.
(c) It is related to restoration of corals and stop the
2. For biomagnification to occur, the pollutant) must
phenomenon of coral bleaching.
be short-lived and insoluble in fats.
(d) It is a technology to convert saline water to
potable fresh water for drinking. 3. Triclosan, an anti-fungal agent is a bioaccumulant.

6. Consider the following statements in the How many of the above statements are correct?
context of recent technologies used in controlling
Manoj (a) Only one
the automobile/vehicular emissions:
(b) Only two
1. EGR (Exhaust Gas Recirculation) system is used (c) All three
to reduce Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) emission from (d) None
Internal Combustion engine.
9. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of hold
2. The three-way catalytic converters are used in
and used computers or their parts, which of the
modern vehicles to reduce emission of Carbon
following are released into the environment as
monoxide, hydrocarbons and Nitrogen Oxides.
e-waste?
3. Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) can
1. Beryllium
significantly reduce tailpipe emission of CFCs
(Chlorofluorocarbons) from motor vehicles.
2. Cadmium
How many of the statements given above are
3. Chromium
correct?
(a) Only one 4. Heptachlor
(b) Only two
5. Mercury
(c) All three 7075060014

(d) None 6. Lead

7. With reference to Environmental Impact 7. Plutonium


Assessment, consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. State Level Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA) below:
is constituted by central government under Wildlife
(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
Protection Act, 1972.
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
2. The State Expert Appraisal Committee is (c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
constituted by respective state governments in (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
consultation with governor.
10. With reference to the Comprehensive
3. Ministry of environment has introduced new
Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI), consider
rating system with negative markings for SEIAAs to
the following statements:
increase efficiency.
1. It is prepared and released by the Commission for
How many of the above statements are correct?
Air Quality Management.
[email protected]
(a) Only one
(b) Only two

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

2. It is a nationwide survey of Industrial clusters (Type of Carbon — Description)


based on their pollution level. Manoj
1. Black carbon — Emitted due to incomplete
Which of the statements given above is/are combustion of fossil fuels.
correct?
2. Brown carbon — Carbon released due to
(a) 1 only
combustion of organic matter.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Blue carbon — Carbon captured by oceans and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 other coastal ecosystems.
7075060014
How many of the above pairs are correctly
11. With reference to ‘National Air Quality Index’,
matched?
consider the following statements:
(a) Only one
1. It is a colour coded air pollution monitoring index (b) Only two
launched in 2014.
(c) All three
2. All the pollutants under the index are monitored (d) None
in real time at all the locations in India.
14. Which of the following statements is/are
3. It is calculated only if data are available for correct regarding the radioactive pollution?
minimum three pollutants out of which one should
be either PM2.5 or PM10. 1. Most of wastes produced by nuclear power
industry is high level waste.
How many of the statements given above are
correct? 2. Ionising radiations have less penetration power
as compared to Non-ionising radiations.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 3. Non-ionising radiations have longer wavelength
(c) All three as compared to Ionising radiations.
(d) None
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
12. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
matched? (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
List I (Pollutant) — List II (Sources of Indoor
(c) 3 only
pollution)
(d) 1 and 3 only
1. Asbestos — Building construction materials
15. Which of the following statements is/are
2. Carbon monoxide — Unvented kerosene and gas correct regarding microplastics?
space heaters
[email protected]
1. They are non-biodegradable.
3. Radon — Paint, gasoline and water pipes
2. They are a source of air pollution.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: 3. India has not banned the use of micro-plastic yet.
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Cosmetic manufacturers use micro-plastic to
(b) 2 and 3 only fight against ageing.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
13. Consider the following pairs: (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only


(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
16. Consider the following statements with
respect to ‘Control of Air Pollution':
19. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Air pollution:
1. Arresters are used to separate particulate matter
from the contaminated air.
1. Majority of deaths in India due to air pollution
occurred from ambient particulate matter pollution
2. The gaseous pollutants can be controlled through
and household air pollution.
the techniques of Combustion and Adsorption.
2. Though Aerosols are a part of air pollution they
7075060014
3. Adding more lead to petrol will help in reducing
are not dangerous to human health.
air pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Consider the following technologies/ process:


20. Which of the following processes can be used
to exploit/ extract biomass-based energy?
1. Incineration.
1. Bagasse based cogeneration in sugar mills
2. Torrefaction.
2. Anaerobic Digestion
3. Hydrothermal carbonization.
3. Gasification
4. Bio methanation.
4. Pyrolysis
How many of the above technologies/process can
be used for waste to energy generation?
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Only one below:
(b) Only two (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three (b) 2 and 4 only
Manoj
(d) All four (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. If all the trees in the world disappear, then
which of the following is least likely to happen?
21. Consider the following pairs of pollutants and
diseases caused by them:
1. Formerly forested areas would become drier and
become more prone to extreme droughts.
Pollutant
2. Most of the places would immediately become
1. Lead
warmer.
2. Zinc
3. Previously forested ecosystems would become a
3. Arsenic
source of carbon emission rather than a sink.
4. Cadmium
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Disease
[email protected]

(a) 1 only

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

A. Stomach cramps and nausea (b) 2 and 3 only


(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
B. Itai-itai disease
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. Damage to peripheral and central nervous
system 24. With reference to PM2.5 pollutant, consider
the following statements:
D. Skin cancer
1. Unlike PM10, PM2.5 is limited to outdoors
Select the correct answer using the code given without causing indoor pollution.
below:
2. They only occur due to anthropogenic activities
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C and not naturally.
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(a) 1 only
22. With reference to Indoor Air Pollution, (b) 2 only
consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. One of the primary causes of indoor air pollution
in rural areas is the use of traditional fuels for
cooking and heating. 25. Which among the following are the concerns
regarding the industrial usage of nanoparticles?
2. In Urban areas, one of the primary causes of
indoor air pollution is the use of synthetic materials 1. They can enter the food chains and cause
for building and furnishing. depletion of biodiversity.

3. Indoor air pollution in developing countries is one 2. They can accumulate in the environment and
of the four most critical global environmental contaminate water and soil.
problems, as identified by the World Bank in 1992.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals
How many of the statements given above are that leads to destruction of ozone layer.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Only one below:
(b) Only two Manoj
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three
(b) 3 only
(d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Which of the following can be the
environmental impacts of extensive palm oil
production in the world? 26. With reference to Environmental Impact
Assessment, consider the following statements:
[email protected]

1. Loss of orangutan habitats in Indonesia.


1. The Central Pollution Control Board issues the
2. Loss of biodiversity. notice for environmental public hearing for
projects.
3. Encroachment on peat lands.
2. All the projects considered for EIA mandatorily
4. Increase in greenhouse gas emissions. go for public hearings.

Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the above-mentioned statements is/are
below: correct?
7075060014
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

(b) 2 only How many of the statements given above are


(c) Both 1 and 2 Manoj correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
27. Which of the followings are the impacts of (c) All three
pollution on plants?
(d) None
1. Reduced yield of crops due to air pollution.
30. Environmental Impact Assessment (Elis a tool
2. Affect their leaf metabolism. used to identify the environmental social and
7075060014
economic impacts of a project prior to
3. Ozone damages plants by obstructing stomata. decision-making. Is it promulgated under which of
the following Act?
4. Light pollution will impact pollination and (a) The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
subsequently food production.
(b) Indian Forest Act, 1927
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) Forests (Conservation) Act, 1980
below: (d) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
31. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Blue Baby Syndrome:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. It is the bluish discolouration of an infant’s skin
due to a lack of oxygen in the haemoglobin of their
28. Consider the following statements about ‘Fly blood.
Ash’:
2. It is usually caused when drinking water gets
1. It contains Silicon dioxide, Aluminium silicate and contaminated with excessive sulphate.
oxides of calcium.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It can be mixed with cement to reduce the cost of correct?
construction. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect? (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
32. With respect to micro-grid which of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 following statement is incorrect?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) It is a self-sufficient energy system that serves a
discrete geographical area.
[email protected]
29. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Due to lower servicing area, it has high
Arsenic contamination in India:
aggregate technical and commercial losses (AT&C;).
1. Arsenic is introduced into soil and groundwater (c) It can be disconnected from central grid and still
during weathering of rocks and minerals. operate autonomously.
(d) A distributed energy system such as a rooftop
2. Long-term intake of arsenic contaminated water solar plant does not qualify as a microgrid.
can lead to skin and lung cancer.
33. With reference to light pollution, consider the
3. In India, Goa and Maharashtra are reported to be following statements:
most affected by arsenic contamination of
groundwater. 1. Light pollution is the excessive or inappropriate
use of outdoor artificial light.

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

2. Light pollution impacts animal behaviours and (d) None


their migration patterns.
36. Environmental Impact Assessment (Elis a tool
3. The dark-sky movement is a worldwide effort used to identify the environmental, social and
aimed at minimising the impact of artificial light at economic impacts of a project prior to
night. decision-making. Consider the following
statements about drawbacks of FIA in India:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one 1. There are numerous instances of fraudulent EIA
studies in India.
(b) Only two
(c) All three 2. EIA often do not consider alternative sites,
(d) None technologies, designs and strategies. 7075060014

34. Consider the following pairs: 3. EIA committee is necessarily comprised of field
experts like anthropologists, environmentalists, etc.
(Air Pollutants — Sources)
4. The projects under EIA assessment have a very
1. Sulphur oxides (SOx) — Swamps and springs. high rejection rate.

2. Carbon monoxide (CO) — Incomplete How many of the statements given above are
combustion of fuel such as natural gas, coal or correct?
wood. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
3. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) — Livestock and poultry
farm waste. (c) Only three
(d) All four
4. Particulate Matter — It originates from (PM)
volcanoes, dust storms, forest and grassland fires. 37. With reference to Environmental Impact
Assessment (EIA) in India, consider the following
How many of the above pairs are correctly statements:
matched?
(a) Only one 1. EIA notifications are formulated under the
Environment Protection Act, 1986.
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 2. It is the responsibility of Gram Panchayats to
(d) All four provide notice for public hearing under EIA.

Manoj
35. Consider the following statements regarding 3. EIA is funded by an agency or individual whose
‘Bioassay’: interest is in clearance for the project.

1. It is the use of a living organism to test for the 4. Since 2006, all the projects must mandatorily go
presence of a substance. through the complete process of EIA.

2. Both Plants and animals can be used as Bioassay. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
3. It can be used to determine the chemical toxicity
(b) Only two
in a soil.
(c) Only three
How many of the statements given above are (d) All four
correct?
(a) Only one 38. With reference to Environmental Impact
Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, consider the
(b) Only two
following statements:
[email protected]
(c) All three

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

1. It was promulgated under the provisions of the 41. Which of the following statement is incorrect
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. about uranium pollution in ground water?
(a) Primary source of uranium in ground water is
2. Public hearing is mandatory for the preparation
geogenic.
of EIA Reports for all development projects.
(b) Excessive ground water extraction leads to
3. State Forest Departments prepare the uranium enrichment in aquifers.
Environment Impact Assessment Reports. (c) World Health Organization has set a limit for
safe drinking water at 100 micrograms of uranium
How many of the above statements are correct? per litre.
(a) Only one (d) Uranium contamination causes chronic kidney
diseases.
(b) Only two
(c) All three
42. Which of the following methods can be
(d) None employed to tackle the menace of oil spills?

39. With reference to plastic and plastic waste 1. Bregoli


disposal, consider the following statements:
2. Containment booms
1. Plastic disposal poses environmental problems as
many of them are chemically inert. 3. Skimmers

2. Oxo-degradable plastics do not fragment into Select the correct answer using the code given
micro-plastics. below:
(a) 2 only
3. Bioplastics can be manufactured from Lactic
Acid. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
How many of the statements given above are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) Only one 43. It is a colourless gas with a pungent odour. It is
(b) Only two a liquid when under pressure, and it dissolves in
water very easily. It comes into the air mainly from
(c) All three
activities such as the burning of coal and oil at
(d) None power plants or from copper smelting, In nature, it
can be released to the air from volcanic eruptions. Manoj
40. With reference to the Soil Pollution, consider It forms acid rain when released into the
the following statements: atmosphere with nitrogen oxides.

1. Mercury contamination in the soil can suppress The above passage describes the explanation of
crop growth and can also affect human health which of the following gas?
through bioaccumulation.
(a) Carbon monoxide
2. Overuse of chemical fertilisers may increase the (b) Nitrogen dioxide
[email protected]

salt content of the soil. (c) Sulfur dioxide


(d) Carbon dioxide
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
44. With reference to the Chlorofluorocarbons
(a) 1 only (CFCs), consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. CFCs are a class of highly reactive and flammable
(c) Both 1 and 2
gases.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7075060014 2. They are mainly used as refrigerants and
propellants in aerosol sprays.

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

47. With reference to ozone as a pollutant,


3. The Montreal Protocol regulates the production
consider the following:
and consumption of CFCs due to their role in ozone
depletion.
1. It is produced by burning fossil fuels like coal and
petroleum.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one 2. It can lead to the formation of photochemical
(b) Only two smog in the atmosphere.
(c) All three
3. Only ground level ozone is considered a
(d) None pollutant.

45. Which of the following are the potential How many of the above statements are correct?
7075060014
applications/uses of fly ash?
(a) Only one
1. Portland cement concrete (PCC) (b) Only two
(c) All three
2. Road construction (d) None

3. Carbon dioxide capture and storage


48. With respect to bioremediation, the process of
injecting air under pressure below the water table
4. Geopolymer
to increase ground water oxygen concentration
which enhances the process of bio degradation is
5. Ceramic tiles
known as:
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Bioreactor
below: (b) Biosparging
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Bioaugmentation
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) Bioventing
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 49. With reference to the Photochemical Smog,
consider the following statements:
46. Consider the following statements about the
1. It is formed by the interaction of sunlight with
compressed biogas:
nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic
compounds (VOCs).
1. It is a purified form of biogas that can be
Produced from municipal solid waste.
2. The formation of Photochemical smog can lead to
Manoj
an increase in Ground level Ozone.
2. It is compressed methane and has the same
calorific value as CNG.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
3. It lacks commercial viability as it is difficult to
transport it through pipelines to retail outlets. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
4. SATAT initiative was launched by the
(c) Both 1 and 2
government to promote the compressed biogas
technology. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

How many of the above statements are correct? 50. With reference to Persistent Organic
Pollutants (POPs), consider the following
(a) Only one
statements:
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 1. These pollutants can be transported from one
(d) All four place to another by wind and water.
[email protected]

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

2. Unlike fats, they are easily dissolved in water. (d) 1, 2 and 3

3. They are used as flame retardants in electronic


53. With reference to Acid rain, consider the
products.
following statements:
4. They can alter the hormonal system of humans.
1. The presence of Ozone gas in the atmosphere
hinders the formation of acid rain.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
2. It is the process of deposition of acidic particles
(a) Only one from atmosphere to earth solely through rainfall.
(b) Only two
3. Higher the wind speed, higher the geographical
(c) Only three
spread of acid rain.
(d) All four
4. The formation of acid rain at higher latitudes can
Manoj
51. Which of the following statement is/are be facilitated by lightning.
incorrect about acid rain?
How many of the statements given above are
1. Its impact on food crops is minimised by the use correct?
of fertilisers
(a) Only one
2. Most of the acid particles in the atmosphere falls (b) Only two
back to earth as wet deposition. (c) Only three
(d) All four
3. They make some conifers less cold tolerant and
even lead to their death.
54. With reference to ‘Lead poisoning’, which one
of the following are source for humans?
4. Indian soils are heavily impacted by acid rain due
to its tropical location.
1. Sindoor Manufacturing
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Jewellery Processing
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Dairy Farming
(b) 1 and 3 only 7075060014
4. Smelting Industry
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only 5. Car battery Production

52. There is some concern regarding the Select the correct answer using the code given
nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are below:
used by the industry in the manufacture of various
(a) 1 and 4 only
products. Why?
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only
1. They can accumulate in the environment and (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
contaminate water and soil. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

2. They can enter the food chains.


55. With reference to plastic and its disposal,
consider the following statements:
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.
1. Plastic disposal poses environmental problem as
Select the correct answer using the code given
they are chemically inert.
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Oxo-degradable plastics does not fragment into
[email protected]
(b) 3 only micro-plastics.
(c) 1 and 3 only

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

3. Bioplastics can be manufactured from lactic acid. 58. With respect to techniques of bioremediation
of contaminants, which of the following pairs
How many of the above statements are correct? is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(Technique — Description)
(b) Only two
(c) All three 1. Bioventing — Injection of air under pressure
(d) None below the water table to increase oxygen
concentration in groundwater.
56. Which of the following can be found as
2. Rhizo-filtration — A water remediation technique
pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of
which involves the uptake of contaminants by plant
India? [email protected]
roots.
1. Arsenic
3. Landfarming — Contaminated soil is excavated
and periodically tilled until pollutants are degraded.
2. Sorbitol
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Fluoride
below:
4. Formaldehyde (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
5. Uranium
(c) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given (d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
59. With reference to radioactive pollution
(a) 1 and 3 only
consider the following statements:
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only 1. The effects of radioactive pollutant depends on
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 its half-life and energy releasing capacity.

2. Due to presence of higher salt concentrations in


57. With respect to Bio-Medical Waste
seawater, radioactivity in sea is lesser than rivers.
Management Rules of 2016, consider the
following statements:
3. Gamma ray is the strongest type of radiation
which can easily penetrate human skin.
1. It provides for establishing barcode system for
handling of bio-medical waste.
How many of the above statements are correct?
2. Under the rules, a district level monitoring (a) Only one
committee will be set up in the districts to monitor (b) Only two
the compliance of rules by health care facilities.
(c) All three
3. Under the rules, the healthcare facilities can (d) None
store and segregate biomedical waste within their
premises. 60. Which of following can be found in Hospital
waste?
7075060014
How many of the statements given above are
correct? 1. Infectious waste
(a) Only one
2. Sharps waste
(b) Only two
(c) All three 3. Cytotoxic waste
(d) None
4. Radioactive waste

5. Heavy metals
Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

Select the correct answer using the codes given


below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

61. Which of the following reason(s) attribute to


the predominance of ozone depletion over the
Antarctica?

1. Low temperature present for extended time


periods.
Manoj

2. Reaction of gases with Polar Stratospheric


Clouds (PSCs).

3. Presence of Polar Vortex at the South pole.

Select the correct answer using the code given


below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

62. Consider the following statements:

1. Vermicompost is artificial rearing of worms to


decompose organic food wastes into a nutrient-rich
material. 7075060014

2. Pyrolysis is the process of combustion in the


presence of oxygen for disposal of mostly inorganic
wastes.

Which of the statements given above is/are


correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[email protected]

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

and pollution indication.


Manoj
Statement 2 is accurate: Frogs, affected by their
freshwater and terrestrial habitats' changes, serve
as bio indicators of environmental quality and
alterations. Variations in animal populations can
signal harmful environmental shifts due to
pollution. These variations may reflect impacts on
the ecosystem or relationships between
populations and food sources, aiding in toxin
7075060014 detection in animal tissues.

Statement 3 is false: Plankton, highly responsive to


environmental shifts, are prime indicators of water,
especially lake, quality. The occurrence of high
phosphorus and nitrogen levels is revealed by
certain plankton species proliferating, not
diminishing. This indicates deteriorating water
quality, affecting other aquatic life, making
plankton crucial for both water quality indication
and as a primary food source for many fish.

2. “National Ambient Air Quality Standards” are


standards for air quality that are set by the Central
Pollution Control Board in India.
1. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Bio indicators of pollution:
In this context, which of the following pollutants are
notified under these standards?
1. Bio indicators are living organisms which are
utilised to screen the health of the natural
1. Benzopyrene
ecosystem in the environment.
2. Carbon Dioxide
2. Frogs are Bio indicators of quality of environment
and changes in environment.
3. Arsenic
3. Decreased rate of planktons are the indication of
4. Nickle
high centralisation of phosphorus and nitrogen in
water.
5. Sulphur Dioxide
How many of the above statements are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) Only one below:
(b) Only two (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
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(c) All three (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) None (c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Solution 1. Correct Option: (b)
Bio indicators are employed to evaluate Solution 2. Correct Option: (b)
environmental health and biogeographic changes.
Options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are correct. The National
Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
Statement 1 holds true: Bio indicators are
compliance is monitored by the National Air Quality
organisms such as plants, plankton, animals, and
Monitoring Programme (NAMP), managed by the
microbes that monitor the ecosystem's health. Each
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). The 2009
organism reflects the state of its environment.
standards target 12 pollutants: Particulate Matter
Plankton quickly react to environmental changes,
10 (PM10), Particulate Matter 2.5 (PM2.5),
making them critical for water quality assessment

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), (b) 2 only


Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Ammonia (c) Both 1 and 2
(NH3), Lead (Pb), Benzene, Benzopyrene, Arsenic,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
and Nickel.

Option 2 is incorrect. Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Solution 4. Correct Option: (b)


although a naturally occurring gas essential for the Radiation is the emission of energy from a source,
atmosphere, is not classified as a pollutant under which is then absorbed by another body after
NAAQS due to its role as a greenhouse gas rather traversing a space or medium. Despite the
than an air pollutant. wave/particle duality in quantum physics, it is
transmitted as waves.
The NAAQS in India, which were first set in 1982
[email protected]
under the Air Act, with revisions in 1994 and 1998, Regarding the correctness of statements:
are standards established by the CPCB for air
quality outside industrial and residential areas. The Statement 1 is incorrect. Radiation in the ultraviolet
most recent update to these standards was in 2009, range and at energies lower than ultraviolet is
and these are the standards currently in use. known as non-ionising radiation, while radiation at
energies higher than ultraviolet is termed ionising
3. Which of the following correctly describes the radiation. Non-ionising radiation possesses longer
Zero Liquid Discharge concept? wavelengths and lower frequencies, whereas
ionising radiation is characterised by shorter
(a) Segregation of domestic biodegradable sewage wavelengths and higher frequencies.
waste at the source.
(b) Sealing and dumping of all radioactive waste Statement 2 is correct. Ionising radiation has
from nuclear power plants in underground enough energy to create ions in matter at the
containers. molecular level, potentially causing significant
(c) Collection and reuse of all fertiliser rich damage, such as DNA disruption and protein
agricultural solid waste to prevent eutrophication. denaturation, particularly in humans. While
non-ionising radiation can also harm people, its
(d) Recycling and chemical treatment of wastewater
effects are usually restricted to thermal damage,
in water intensive industries which is reduced to
like burns.
solid waste.
In India, the mitigation against radioactive
Solution 3. Correct Option: (d) contamination is underpinned by several
Zero Liquid Discharge (ZLD) is an engineering mechanisms:
method for water treatment that aims to recover all
water and reduce contaminants to solid waste. It The Atomic Energy Act of 1962 establishes a
involves treating wastewater from water-intensive regulatory framework for all atomic energy-related
industries to reclaim water and minerals for reuse, activities and the use of ionising radiation.
rendering the residues inert before landfill disposal. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board oversees
regulatory and safety functions.
4. With reference to Radioactive Pollution, Regulations are further detailed in the Atomic
consider the following statements: Energy Rules of 2004 and 2012.

1. Compared to non-ionising radiation, ionising


radiation has lower frequency and longer 5. Torrefaction technology, sometimes seen in
wavelength. news, is related to what? 7075060014

(a) It can be used to tackle the issue of stubble


2. Ionising Radiation may cause significant damage burning.
to DNA whereas the non-ionising radiation
(b) It is used to convert coal to coking coal for use in
generally causes thermal damage to the tissues.
steel industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) It is related to restoration of corals and stop the
correct? phenomenon of coral bleaching.
(d) It is a technology to convert saline water to
(a) 1 only
potable fresh water for drinking.
Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

Did you know?


Solution 5. Correct Option: (a)
Vehicle emissions contribute 20-30% to Particulate
Torrefaction, a Swedish technology, is a thermal Matter (PM) 2.5 levels, impacting air quality. Key
method used to transform biomass into a material pollutants include carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons,
similar to coal, improving its fuel properties over nitrogen oxides, particles, volatile organic
the original biomass. This process can turn rice compounds, and sulphur dioxide.
stubble into 'bio-coal', combating the issue of
stubble burning in North India.
7. With reference to Environmental Impact
Assessment, consider the following statements:
6. Consider the following statements in the
context of recent technologies used in controlling 1. State Level Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA)
the automobile/vehicular emissions: is constituted by central government under Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972.
1. EGR (Exhaust Gas Recirculation) system is used
to reduce Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) emission from 2. The State Expert Appraisal Committee is
Internal Combustion engine. constituted by respective state governments in
consultation with governor.
2. The three-way catalytic converters are used in
modern vehicles to reduce emission of Carbon 3. Ministry of environment has introduced new
monoxide, hydrocarbons and Nitrogen Oxides. rating system with negative markings for SEIAAs to
increase efficiency.
3. Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) can
significantly reduce tailpipe emission of CFCs How many of the above statements are correct?
(Chlorofluorocarbons) from motor vehicles.
(a) Only one
How many of the statements given above are (b) Only two
correct? (c) All three
(a) Only one (d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three Solution 7. Correct Option: (d)
(d) None The Environmental Impact Assessment under the
Environmental Protection Act, 1986, has
Solution 6. Correct Option: (b) established numerous bodies and committees for
effective assessment, as outlined below:
Statement 1 is correct: Exhaust gas recirculation Manoj
(EGR) reduces nitrogen oxides (NOx) emissions in Statement 1 is incorrect: The Central Government
most diesel engines by recirculating a portion of the will set up a State Level Environment Impact
exhaust gas back to the combustion chambers, Assessment Authority (SEIAA) according to
lowering combustion temperatures. sub-section (3) of section 3 of the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986. This authority comprises
Statement 2 is correct: Most modern cars use three members, including a Chairman and a
three-way catalytic converters to address three Member-Secretary, nominated by the concerned
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regulated emissions: Carbon Monoxide, State Government or Union Territory
Hydrocarbon, and Nitrogen Oxides, through Administration. The Member-Secretary is an active
different catalysts for reducing and oxidising officer of the State Government. State
pollutants. governments submit the nominations to the central
government, which then forms the committee.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Selective Catalytic
Reduction technology reduces nitrogen oxides into Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Government,
nitrogen and water in diesel engines by injecting in consultation with the State Government, will
urea into the exhaust. The process does not establish the State Expert Appraisal Committee
significantly emit chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), (SEAC). The SEAC is reconstituted every three
though some chlorine or bromine may be present. years and operates on collective responsibility. The
7075060014
Chairperson aims for consensus in decision-making;

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

if unattainable, the majority opinion prevails. indicating its widespread presence in toiletries. It is
Manoj a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent often used in
Statement 3 is incorrect: A new rating system for personal care products and pharmaceuticals.
SEIAAs has been introduced to boost their
efficiency, transparency, and accountability. This
9. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of hold
system, derived from the Environmental Impact
and used computers or their parts, which of the
Assessment Notification 2006 and various Ministry
following are released into the environment as
guidelines, rewards SEIAAs for enhanced
e-waste?
performance without penalising for failing to meet
criteria.
1. Beryllium
7075060014

8. Consider the following statements: 2. Cadmium

1. Bioaccumulation is the process by which a 3. Chromium


pollutant from the environment enters a food chain.
4. Heptachlor
2. For biomagnification to occur, the pollutant) must
be short-lived and insoluble in fats. 5. Mercury

3. Triclosan, an anti-fungal agent is a bioaccumulant. 6. Lead

How many of the above statements are correct? 7. Plutonium


(a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) Only two below:
(c) All three
(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) None
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
Solution 8. Correct Option: (b)
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Pollutants, especially those that are
non-degradable, move through the various trophic
Solution 9. Correct Option: (b)
levels of an ecosystem, primarily through
bioaccumulation and biomagnification. Electronic waste (e-waste) encompasses waste
from all electronic and electrical appliances,
Statement 1 correctly notes that bioaccumulation is including computers, mobile phones, digital music
the process by which pollutants enter a food chain, players, refrigerators, washing machines,
resulting in an increased concentration of a televisions, and various household items.
pollutant from the environment to the first Computers and their parts often contain harmful
organism in a chain. chemicals.

However, Statement 2 is incorrect; Option 1 is correct: Beryllium is a steel-gray, strong,


Biomagnification is the process whereby the lightweight, and brittle metal that combines high
[email protected]
concentration of a pollutant increases in the tissues flexural rigidity, thermal stability, thermal
of organisms at higher levels of a food chain. For conductivity, and low density. It is crucial in
biomagnification to occur, pollutants must be developing semiconductors for computers, and also
long-lived, mobile, fat-soluble, and biologically used in dental alloys, aerospace materials,
active. However, pollutants that are not biologically telescopes, and communication equipment. Thus,
active may still biomagnify, though they are beryllium poses an e-waste hazard when
generally of less concern, as exemplified by DDT. improperly disposed of.

Statement 3 is accurate in identifying Triclosan as a Option 2 is correct: Cadmium, a soft, malleable,


bioaccumulant. Triclosan, an antibacterial and ductile metal, was used in over 80% of batteries
antifungal agent that inhibits the growth of germs, until 2009. It is still used in batteries, electroplating,
is commonly found in antibacterial soaps, body nuclear fission, televisions, and some
washes, toothpastes, and some cosmetics, semiconductors, making it an e-waste hazard with

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

poor waste management. Statement 2 is correct: The CEPI, a nationwide


survey of industrial clusters based on pollution
Option 3 is correct: Chromium, a steely-grey, levels, was first developed by the Central Pollution
lustrous, hard, and brittle metal, is used in steel Control Board in partnership with the Indian
tools, pigments, leather tanning, and as a corrosion Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi in December
inhibitor on computer circuit boards. 2009.

Option 4 is incorrect: Heptachlor, an


11. With reference to ‘National Air Quality Index’,
organochlorine insecticide, is not found in
consider the following statements:
computers. It is a persistent organic pollutant listed
under the Stockholm Convention, which seeks to
1. It is a colour coded air pollution monitoring index
reduce or eliminate such pollutants.
launched in 2014.
7075060014
Option 5 is correct: Mercury, used in laptop
2. All the pollutants under the index are monitored
batteries and printed circuit boards among other
in real time at all the locations in India.
electrical equipment, can cause brain damage,
making it an e-waste hazard if mishandled.
3. It is calculated only if data are available for
minimum three pollutants out of which one should
Option 6 is correct: Lead constitutes about 6% of a
be either PM2.5 or PM10.
computer's total weight, found in the CRT of
monitors and solder on printed circuit boards,
How many of the statements given above are
contributing significantly to landfill lead content.
correct?
Option 7 is incorrect: Plutonium, a radioactive (a) Only one
chemical element, is not used in manufacturing (b) Only two
computers but in nuclear explosives.
(c) All three
(d) None
10. With reference to the Comprehensive
Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI), consider
Solution 11. Correct Option: (b)
the following statements:
Statement 1 is correct: Launched in India in 2014,
1. It is prepared and released by the Commission for the National Air Quality Index (NAQI) condenses
Air Quality Management. the impact of six or eight pollutants in the air into
one number and one colour, using a formula to
2. It is a nationwide survey of Industrial clusters weigh each pollutant.
based on their pollution level.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The NAQI, while
Which of the statements given above is/are establishing a standardized system for monitoring
correct? Manoj and reporting air quality, doesn't monitor all eight
pollutants in real-time at every location; only
(a) 1 only
selected pollutants are monitored, and
(b) 2 only implementation can vary by location.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement 3 is correct: The index takes into account
eight pollutants: PM2.5, PM10, NO2, SO2, CO, O3,
NH3, and Pb, and is calculated if data for at least
Solution 10. Correct Option: (b)
three pollutants are available, including either
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Comprehensive PM2.5 or PM10.
Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI) was not
released by the Central Pollution Control Board Did you know?
(CPCB), which is a statutory organisation
established under the Water (Prevention and The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was
Control of Pollution) Act of 1974. The CPCB's introduced in 2014 by the central government as
powers and functions are also derived from the Air part of the Swachh Bharat (Clean India) campaign.
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981. The Central Pollution Control Board states that the
[email protected]
AQI simplifies complex air quality data into a

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

singular value, name, and colour for pollutants like radium in the soil and can cause lung cancer
PM10, PM2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, and Ozone, through damage to DNA by emitting alpha and beta
amongst others. radiation when inhaled.

12. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly 13. Consider the following pairs:
matched?
(Type of Carbon — Description)
List I (Pollutant) — List II (Sources of Indoor
pollution) 1. Black carbon — Emitted due to incomplete
combustion of fossil fuels.
1. Asbestos — Building construction materials
2. Brown carbon — Carbon released due to
7075060014
2. Carbon monoxide — Unvented kerosene and gas combustion of organic matter.
space heaters
3. Blue carbon — Carbon captured by oceans and
3. Radon — Paint, gasoline and water pipes other coastal ecosystems.

Select the correct answer using the code given How many of the above pairs are correctly
below: matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

Solution 12. Correct Option: (a) Solution 13. Correct Option: (c)
Pair 1 is correct. Asbestos, a mineral fibre found in Pair 1 is accurately matched. Black carbon is
rock and soil, is known for its fibre strength and produced from the incomplete burning of fossil
heat resistance. This has led to its use in various fuels in coal-fired power plants and vehicles,
building materials for insulation and as a warming the Earth by absorbing atmospheric heat
fire-retardant, as well as in products like roofing and decreasing the albedo when it settles on snow
shingles, ceiling and floor tiles, paper, and asbestos and ice.
cement products. Disturbing asbestos-containing
materials through actions like cutting and sanding Pair 2 is correctly matched. Brown carbon
can elevate airborne asbestos levels, posing risks to emanates from the combustion of organic
inhabitants by releasing fibres into the air. materials, with biomass burning, such as domestic
wood burning, being a significant source.
Pair 2 is correct.
Manoj Carbon monoxide (CO), an
odourless, colourless, and toxic gas, poses a severe Pair 3 is accurately matched. Blue carbon refers to
risk as it cannot be detected by sight, taste, or smell, the carbon sequestered by the ocean and coastal
potentially causing death before its presence is ecosystems, storing carbon in these marine
known. The impact of CO exposure varies by environments.
individual age, health, and the duration and
intensity of exposure. Common CO sources include
14. Which of the following statements is/are
unvented kerosene and gas heaters, leaking
correct regarding the radioactive pollution?
chimneys, gas stoves, and automobile exhaust in
attached garages.
1. Most of wastes produced by nuclear power
industry is high level waste.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Contrary to the claim, lead, not
radon, is found in paint, gasoline, water pipes, and
2. Ionising radiations have less penetration power
many other products. Radon, a colourless,
as compared to Non-ionising radiations.
odourless gas and a leading source of indoor air
pollution, is denser than air, often accumulating in
3. Non-ionising radiations have longer wavelength
basements, especially in areas with shale and
[email protected]
as compared to Ionising radiations.
boulders. It originates from the radioactive decay of

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

Select the correct answer using the code given


below: Solution 15. Correct Option: (d)
(a) 1 only Statement 1 is correct: Microplastics, which are not
(b) 2 and 3 only biodegradable, accumulate and persist in various
environments, including oceans and freshwater
(c) 3 only
ecosystems.
(d) 1 and 3 only
Statement 2 is correct: Microplastics contribute to
Solution 14. Correct Option: (c) air pollution as they are found in dust and form
airborne fibrous particles.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Nuclear power industry
generates minimal waste compared to other
Statement 3 is correct: While several countries
industries, overlooking that 97% of its waste is low-
have banned microplastic products, India has yet to
or intermediate-level waste.
enforce such a ban. Following the National Green
Tribunal's (NGT) directive to analyze microbeads in
Statement 2 is incorrect. Producing ions in matter
cosmetics, the Bureau of Indian Standards deemed
at the molecular level requires ionizing radiations to
microbead products 'not fit for use' in May 2017.
maintain high energy, characterized by high
However, there has been no subsequent
frequency and low wavelength, leading to
governmental notification or directive to ban
significant penetration power and macromolecule
microbeads in cosmetics in India.
breakage. In contrast, non-ionising radiations, with
their low frequency and longer wavelength, affect
Statement 4 is incorrect: Microplastics are often
only absorbent components and exhibit low
used in products as a bulking agent to increase
penetrability.
volume. However, microbeads in face washes can
cause tiny tears in the skin, allowing bacteria to
Statement 3 is accurately described as non-ionising
enter, which contributes to skin ageing and dark
radiations comprise electromagnetic waves on the
spots.
spectrum's longer wavelength end, ranging from
near infra-red rays to radio waves, including higher
wavelength ultraviolet rays and microwaves. In 16. Consider the following statements with
contrast, ionising radiations consist of short respect to ‘Control of Air Pollution':
wavelength ultraviolet radiations, X-rays, gamma
rays, and energetic particles from nuclear 1. Arresters are used to separate particulate matter
processes, electrically charged particles like alpha from the contaminated air.
and beta particles from radioactive decay, and
neutrons from nuclear fission. 2. The gaseous pollutants can be controlled through
the techniques of Combustion and Adsorption. Manoj

15. Which of the following statements is/are


3. Adding more lead to petrol will help in reducing
correct regarding microplastics?
air pollution.
1. They are non-biodegradable.
How many of the above statements are correct?
2. They are a source of air pollution. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
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3. India has not banned the use of micro-plastic yet.
(c) All three
4. Cosmetic manufacturers use micro-plastic to (d) None
fight against ageing.
Solution 16. Correct Option: (b)
Select the correct answer using the code given
Statement 1 correctly states that arresters
below:
separate particulate matter from polluted air, while
(a) 1 and 3 only scrubbers clean air by removing both dust and
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only gases using either dry or wet packing materials.
(c) 2 and 3 only 7075060014
Statement 2 is also correct, highlighting that
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only gaseous pollutants can be managed with

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

combustion, absorption, and adsorption techniques, 18. If all the trees in the world disappear, then
either individually or in combination, to target which of the following is least likely to happen?
major greenhouse gases effectively.
1. Formerly forested areas would become drier and
Statement 3 is incorrect because using lead-free become more prone to extreme droughts.
petrol does indeed contribute to reducing air
pollution. 2. Most of the places would immediately become
warmer.
17. Consider the following technologies/ process:
3. Previously forested ecosystems would become a
source of carbon emission rather than a sink.
1. Incineration.
Select the correct answer using the code given
7075060014
2. Torrefaction.
below:
3. Hydrothermal carbonization. (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
4. Bio methanation.
(c) 2 and 3 only
How many of the above technologies/process can (d) 1, 2 and 3
be used for waste to energy generation?
Solution 18. Correct Option: (d)
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Since the industrial era began, forests have
diminished by 32%. The decline is particularly
(c) Only three
severe in the tropics, with the world's three trillion
(d) All four trees rapidly decreasing by approximately 15 billion
annually, as reported by the Nature study. This loss
Solution 17. Correct Option: (d) is becoming more acute in many regions, with an
uptick in deforestation observed recently.
All the statements provided are correct.
Statement 1 is correct: Without trees, areas
Statement 1 accurately describes incineration as a
previously forested would face increased dryness
controlled burning process aimed at reducing
and are more likely to experience extreme
volume and recovering energy, where the heat from
droughts. Trees act as biological pumps, absorbing
combustion can be transformed into electric power
water from the soil and releasing it into the
for waste-to-energy generation.
atmosphere as vapour, which aids in cloud
formation and precipitation. Furthermore, they
Statement 2 precisely outlines torrefaction as a
help prevent flooding by capturing water, shield
thermochemical treatment occurring at 200-350°C
coastal communities from storm impacts, conserve
without oxygen,
Manoj which partly decomposes biomass
soil from erosion, and support microbial life through
to produce 'biocoal' with a high energy content,
their root networks.
thus suitable for waste-to-energy conversion.
Statement 2 is correct: Trees exert a cooling effect
Statement 3 correctly identifies hydrothermal
locally. They offer shade, keeping soil temperatures
carbonisation as an emerging technology that
regulated and absorbing rather than reflecting heat.
mimics natural geological processes to convert wet
Through evapotranspiration, they convert solar
waste into hydro-char, a substance with properties
energy into the process of turning liquid water into
akin to fossil fuels, making it a viable
vapour, reducing the temperature where trees are
waste-to-energy solution.
prevalent.
Statement 4 accurately explains biomethanation as
Statement 3 is correct: Eliminating all trees would
the microbial conversion of organic materials into
turn formerly forested ecosystems into carbon
biogas in the absence of oxygen, with the produced
dioxide emission sources rather than carbon sinks,
biogas being a source of energy, thereby facilitating
exacerbating climate change. Trees play a critical
waste-to-energy generation.
role in mitigating climate change by storing carbon
[email protected]
and absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
Currently, deforestation is responsible for 13% of

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

global carbon emissions, while changes in land use (a) 1 and 2 only
overall contribute 23% to emissions, as indicated in (b) 2 and 4 only
an Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(IPCC) report from August.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. Consider the following statements with


Solution 20. Correct Option: (d)
reference to the Air pollution:
Biomass energy is created using living or once-living
1. Majority of deaths in India due to air pollution organisms, with the primary sources being plant
occurred from ambient particulate matter pollution materials like corn and soy, which can be burned for
and household air pollution. heat or used to generate electricity.

7075060014
2. Though Aerosols are a part of air pollution they Correct options for biomass-based energy
are not dangerous to human health. extraction include:

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct: Bagasse-based cogeneration in sugar mills
correct? harnesses advancements in steam generation
technology, enabling these facilities to not only
(a) 1 only
meet their energy and steam needs but also to
(b) 2 only provide excess electricity for the grid. For instance,
(c) Both 1 and 2 increasing steam generation from 400°C/33 bar to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 485°C/66 bar can produce over 80 kWh extra
electricity per ton of cane, boosting the mill’s
financial health and contributing to national power
Solution 19. Correct Option: (a)
capacity.
Statement 1 is correct, stating that the majority of
these deaths resulted from ambient particulate Correct: Biogas comes from the anaerobic digestion
matter pollution and household air pollution. of organic materials like farm waste, kitchen waste,
and municipal waste, resulting in a mix of methane,
Statement 2 is incorrect. An aerosol is a small carbon dioxide, and trace gases. Biogas plants vary
particle in the atmosphere, either solid or liquid, in design based on the type of material processed
contributing to air pollution and posing risks to and have a calorific value of about 5000 kcal per
human health. Aerosols, ranging from a few m^3. The process also yields nutrient-rich organic
molecules to visible but tiny particles, can stay fertilizer, enhancing crop yields and soil health.
airborne longer if they are smaller and lighter. They With over 512 million livestock in India, including
naturally occur from volcanic eruptions, sea salt, 300 million bovines, the biogas sector offers
and wildfires but are significantly increased by significant benefits to the agricultural community
human activities like burning coal, oil, and gas. and the economy.
InhalationManoj
of these particles can harm lung tissue
and cause diseases, besides reducing visibility and and 4. Correct: Other key methods of converting
creating haze worldwide. biomass into energy are combustion, gasification,
and pyrolysis. Combustion is the most prevalent,
employing technology akin to coal-based thermal
20. Which of the following processes can be used
plants, using a high-pressure boiler and steam
to exploit/ extract biomass-based energy?
turbine within a conventional Rankine cycle. This
steam can generate power, or in cogeneration,
1. Bagasse based cogeneration in sugar mills
serve additional heating purposes, which is
especially beneficial in various industries in India.
2. Anaerobic Digestion

3. Gasification 21. Consider the following pairs of pollutants and


diseases caused by them:
4. Pyrolysis
Pollutant
Select the correct answer using the code given
[email protected]
below: 1. Lead

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

2. Zinc 1. One of the primary causes of indoor air pollution


in rural areas is the use of traditional fuels for
3. Arsenic
cooking and heating.
4. Cadmium
2. In Urban areas, one of the primary causes of
Disease indoor air pollution is the use of synthetic materials
for building and furnishing.
A. Stomach cramps and nausea
3. Indoor air pollution in developing countries is one
B. Itai-itai disease of the four most critical global environmental
problems, as identified by the World Bank in 1992.
C. Damage to peripheral and central nervous
system How many of the statements given above are
7075060014
correct?
D. Skin cancer
(a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) Only two
below: (c) All three
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (d) None
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
Solution 22. Correct Option: (c)
(c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C Statement 1 is correct: Rural residents still depend
on traditional fuels such as firewood, charcoal, and
cow dung for their cooking and heating needs. The
Solution 21. Correct Option: (c)
levels of indoor pollutants in homes using these
Lead harms the central and peripheral nervous fuels are worryingly high. These fuels emit vast
systems, blood, kidneys, and reproductive systems quantities of smoke and other pollutants within
in humans, and hinders children's brain homes, leading to significant exposure.
development by affecting their endocrine systems.
Statement 2 is correct: In cities, a range of factors,
Zinc poisoning from drinking acidic beverages including poor ventilation, the use of synthetic
stored in galvanised containers has caused fever, building and furnishing materials, and chemical
nausea, vomiting, stomach cramps, and diarrhoea products like household cleaners, contribute to
within 3-12 hours after consumption. Food indoor air pollution.
poisoning from using galvanised zinc containers in
food preparation has also been documented. Statement 3 is correct: The World Bank identified
indoor air pollution in developing countries as one
Arsenic, entering the water supply from natural of the top four global environmental challenges in
Manoj
earth deposits or industrial and agricultural 1992, alongside biodiversity loss, deforestation and
pollution, is known to dissolve from certain rock desertification, and global warming and climate
formations when groundwater levels significantly change.
drop. Exposure leads to arsenic accumulation in
blood, nails, and hair, causing skin lesions,
23. Which of the following can be the
roughened skin, and, ultimately, skin cancer.
environmental impacts of extensive palm oil
production in the world?
Cadmium exposure results in Itai-Itai disease,
characterised by severe spine and joint pain and
1. Loss of orangutan habitats in Indonesia.
weakened bones. High cadmium levels can damage
the kidney, liver, and heart, potentially causing
2. Loss of biodiversity.
death.
3. Encroachment on peat lands.
22. With reference to Indoor Air Pollution,
consider the following statements: 4. Increase in greenhouse gas emissions.
[email protected]

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

Select the correct answer using the code given


Statement 1 is incorrect. PM2.5, or fine particulate
below:
matter, is not only produced outdoors but also
(a) 1 and 2 only originates from common indoor activities. Indoor
(b) 2 and 3 only sources include tobacco smoke, cooking methods
like frying, sautéing, and broiling, as well as burning
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
candles or oil lamps, and using fireplaces and
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 fuel-burning space heaters such as kerosene
heaters.
Solution 23. Correct Option: (d)
Statement 2 is incorrect. PM2.5 is generated both
Statement 1 is correct. Extensive deforestation for
naturally and through human activities. Human
palm plantations has notably affected countries like
sources of PM2.5 encompass construction sites,
[email protected]
Indonesia and Malaysia, endangering the habitats
unpaved roads, fields, and emissions from
of orangutans. Consequently, less than 50,000
smokestacks or fires, while natural sources include
orangutans now exist in the wild, dispersed into
volcanic eruptions and forest fires.
smaller groups.

Statement 2 is correct. The widespread 25. Which among the following are the concerns
deforestation for palm plantations has led to regarding the industrial usage of nanoparticles?
significant biodiversity loss because vast areas of
tropical forests have been cleared to accommodate 1. They can enter the food chains and cause
the growing demand for palm oil. depletion of biodiversity.

Statement 3 is correct. With diminished availability 2. They can accumulate in the environment and
of land on mineral soil for plantation use, the contaminate water and soil.
expansion into peatlands has escalated. Draining
these areas exposes peat to oxidation, thereby 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals
releasing substantial amounts of CO2 over time. that leads to destruction of ozone layer.

Statement 4 is correct. There has been a rise in Select the correct answer using the code given
greenhouse gas emissions globally due to the below:
massive production of palm oil, attributed to
(a) 1 and 2 only
deforestation, forest degradation, and peatland
emissions associated with palm oil cultivation. This (b) 3 only
situation is further exacerbated by the use of fire (c) 1 and 3 only
for land clearance and methane emissions from (d) 1, 2 and 3
palm oil mill effluent treatment ponds.
Solution 25. Correct Option: (d)
24. With reference to PM2.5 pollutant, consider
Statement 1 is correct. They can enter the food
the following statements:
chain and remain there as Persistent Organic
Pollutants (POP) or inorganic pollutants,
1. Unlike PM10, PM2.5 is limited to outdoors
contaminating it through bioaccumulation.
without causing indoor pollution.
Statement 2 is correct. Once released into the
2. They only occur due to anthropogenic activities
environment, nanoparticles will accumulate in
and not naturally.
various environmental matrices such as air, water,
7075060014
soil, and sediments, including wastewater sludge.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Statement 3 is correct. Nanoparticles can lead to an
(a) 1 only increased production of reactive oxygen species
(b) 2 only (ROS), including free radicals like Cl-, which destroy
ozone.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. With reference to Environmental Impact
Assessment, consider the following statements:
Solution 24. Correct Option: (d)
Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

1. The Central Pollution Control Board issues the


1. Reduced yield of crops due to air pollution.
notice for environmental public hearing for
projects.
2. Affect their leaf metabolism.
2. All the projects considered for EIA mandatorily
3. Ozone damages plants by obstructing stomata.
go for public hearings.
4. Light pollution will impact pollination and
Which of the above-mentioned statements is/are
subsequently food production.
correct?
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) 2 only below:
7075060014
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Solution 26. Correct Option: (d) (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Projects requiring an Environmental Impact
Assessment (EIA) must undergo a public hearing Solution 27. Correct Option: (d)
since the community is a key stakeholder. Here is
Statement 1 is correct: Pollution impacts plants by
how the public hearing works:
causing leaf tip "burning," twig dieback, stunted
growth, premature leaf drop, delayed maturity,
Statement 1: The State Pollution Control Board
blossom abortion or premature drop, with a notable
must announce an environmental public hearing.
5% loss in corn and soybean production in the
This announcement should be published in at least
United States due to pollutants.
two regional newspapers, one in the local language.
The board must detail the hearing's date, time, and
Statement 2 is correct: Air pollution affects plants
location. The public is invited to submit their
directly by depositing toxins on them, disrupting
suggestions, views, comments, and objections
leaf metabolism and carbon uptake, essential for
within 30 days of the notification's publication. This
growth and energy. Ozone and nitrogen oxides are
statement is incorrect.
key direct pollutants.
Statement 2: Category B2 projects do not have to
Statement 3 is correct: Ground-level ozone, formed
undergo mandatory environmental clearance. This
from volatile organic compounds and nitrogen
statement is incorrect.
oxides in sunlight, impairs plants by hindering
photosynthesis and stomatal function, leading to
Interesting fact about Environmental Impact
growth stunting and leaf damage, including spots,
Assessment:
bronzing, reddening, and eventual pale leaves from
Manoj
reduced photosynthesis (chlorosis).
Since the 2006 amendment, the EIA process
includes four stages: 1. Screening 2. Scoping 3.
Statement 4 is correct: A third of human food relies
Public hearing 4. Appraisal.
on pollinators attracted to brightly coloured,
strongly scented plants mainly pollinated at night.
Category A projects are required to have
Increased light conditions hinder these processes,
mandatory environmental clearance, bypassing the
endangering our food sources.
screening stage.

Category B projects are screened and divided into 28. Consider the following statements about ‘Fly
two groups: Category B1 (which requires an EIA) Ash’:
and Category B2 (which does not require an EIA).
As a result, both Category A and Category B1 1. It contains Silicon dioxide, Aluminium silicate and
projects go through the full EIA process, whereas oxides of calcium.
Category B2 projects are exempt.
2. It can be mixed with cement to reduce the cost of
construction.
[email protected]
27. Which of the followings are the impacts of
pollution on plants?

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

Which of the statements given above is/are Statement 2 is accurate: Consistent consumption of
incorrect? Manoj water contaminated with arsenic can lead to
arsenicosis, characterized by cancers of the skin,
(a) 1 only
bladder, kidney, or lung, skin ailments (colour
(b) 2 only changes and thick patches on palms and soles), or
(c) Both 1 and 2 vascular diseases in the legs and feet.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 3 is inaccurate: According to the most
recent groundwater quality data from the Central
Solution 28. Correct Option: (d)
Ground Water Board (CGWB), the regions most
Fly ash or flue ash, a product of coal combustion,
7075060014 affected by arsenic contamination in groundwater
consists of fine particulates expelled from coal-fired beyond safe levels include West Bengal, Jharkhand,
boilers alongside flue gases. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, and
Chhattisgarh.
Statement 1 is correct. The composition of fly ash
significantly depends on the coal's source and
30. Environmental Impact Assessment (Elis a tool
makeup, containing high amounts of silicon dioxide
used to identify the environmental social and
(SiO2), aluminium silicate, calcium oxide (CaO), and
economic impacts of a project prior to
heavy metals such as lead and copper.
decision-making. Is it promulgated under which of
the following Act?
Statement 2 is correct. Up to 35% of cement can be
substituted with fly ash, thus lowering construction (a) The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
costs for structures like roads. (b) Indian Forest Act, 1927
(c) Forests (Conservation) Act, 1980
29. Consider the following statements regarding (d) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Arsenic contamination in India:
Solution 30. Correct Option: (d)
1. Arsenic is introduced into soil and groundwater
during weathering of rocks and minerals. On 27 January 1994, under the Environmental
(Protection) Act 1986, the Union Ministry of
2. Long-term intake of arsenic contaminated water Environment and Forests (MEF), of the
can lead to skin and lung cancer. Government of India, issued an Environmental
Impact Assessment (EIA) notification. This made
3. In India, Goa and Maharashtra are reported to be Environmental Clearance (EC) compulsory for the
most affected by arsenic contamination of expansion or modernisation of any activity, or for
groundwater. initiating new projects listed in Schedule 1 of the
notification.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
31. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Only one Blue Baby Syndrome:
(b) Only two
1. It is the bluish discolouration of an infant’s skin
(c) All three [email protected]
due to a lack of oxygen in the haemoglobin of their
(d) None blood.

Solution 29. Correct Option: (b) 2. It is usually caused when drinking water gets
contaminated with excessive sulphate.
Statement 1 is accurate: Arsenic gets into soil and
groundwater through the weathering of rocks and
Which of the statements given above is/are
minerals, resulting in leaching and runoff, and also
correct?
from human-made sources. Additionally, arsenic is
released into the air by high-temperature activities (a) 1 only
like coal-fired power stations, burning vegetation, (b) 2 only
and volcanic eruptions.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

1. Light pollution is the excessive or inappropriate


Solution 31. Correct Option: (a)
use of outdoor artificial light.
Blue baby syndrome is characterised by a blue tint
in a baby's skin, most noticeable in areas with thin 2. Light pollution impacts animal behaviours and
skin like the lips, earlobes, and nail beds. Statement their migration patterns.
1 is correct: This syndrome refers to the bluish
discolouration in a baby's skin due to insufficient 3. The dark-sky movement is a worldwide effort
oxygen in the blood's haemoglobin, also known as aimed at minimising the impact of artificial light at
Infant Methemoglobinemia. Statement 2 is night.
incorrect: The safe limit for nitrate in drinking water
is not 50 parts per million (ppm); exceeding this can How many of the above statements are correct?
lead to conditions like methemoglobinemia, known [email protected]
(a) Only one
as 'blue baby' syndrome.
(b) Only two
(c) All three
32. With respect to micro-grid which of the
following statement is incorrect? (d) None

(a) It is a self-sufficient energy system that serves a


Solution 33. Correct Option: (c)
discrete geographical area.
(b) Due to lower servicing area, it has high The issue of light pollution became starkly evident
aggregate technical and commercial losses (AT&C;). with the 2016 publication of the World Atlas of
Night Sky Brightness, a computer-generated map
(c) It can be disconnected from central grid and still
derived from thousands of satellite images.
operate autonomously.
(d) A distributed energy system such as a rooftop Statement 1 is correct. Light pollution, defined as
solar plant does not qualify as a microgrid. the excessive or inappropriate application of
outdoor artificial lighting, negatively impacts
Solution 32. Correct Option: (b) human health, wildlife behaviour, and our capacity
to view stars and other celestial bodies.
Option a is correct. A microgrid is an independent
energy system catering to specific areas like college
Statement 2 is correct. Research indicates that light
campuses, hospital complexes, business centres, or
pollution disrupts animal behaviours, such as
neighbourhoods, powered by various distributed
migration patterns, sleep cycles, and habitat
energy sources (such as solar panels, wind turbines,
formation. Sea turtles and birds, relying on
combined heat and power, generators).
moonlight for migration, become disoriented, often
resulting in death. Furthermore, artificial lights
Option b is incorrect. Unlike microgrids, central
attract and kill large numbers of insects, crucial for
grids distribute electricity from power plants over
the diet of birds and other species, posing a
vast distances, leading to inefficiency and power
significant threat to avian populations.
loss. Microgrids mitigate this by generating
Consequently, many cities have initiated "Lights
electricity closer to the point of use, thus reducing
Out" initiatives, extinguishing building lights during
aggregate technical and commercial (AT&C) losses.
avian migration periods to mitigate this impact.
Option c is correct. Microgrids have the ability to
Statement 3 is correct. The dark-sky movement,
detach from the main power grid and operate
with no central organisation, encompasses global
autonomously, providing power during outages
efforts to reduce night-time artificial light pollution.
caused by storms or other disasters.
It highlights that two-thirds of the global population
7075060014
cannot observe a clear starry night due to excessive
Option d is correct. Distinctly, microgrids maintain
and poorly directed artificial lighting. In the United
power supply during central grid failures, unlike
States alone, superfluous night lighting incurs an
standalone solar panels or emergency-only backup
estimated annual cost of $2.2 billion.
generators. Microgrids offer continuous energy
management and supply.
34. Consider the following pairs:
33. With reference to light pollution, consider the
(Air Pollutants — Sources)
following statements:

Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

1. Sulphur oxides (SOx) — Swamps and springs. Pair 2 states that carbon monoxide (CO), a
colourless, odourless, and poisonous gas, is
2. Carbon monoxide (CO) — Incomplete produced by the incomplete combustion of fuels
combustion of fuel such as natural gas, coal or such as natural gas, coal, or wood. A major source of
wood. CO is vehicular exhaust, in addition to kerosene and
gas stoves, gas heaters, chimneys, furnaces, boilers,
3. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) — Livestock and poultry generators, and water heaters.
farm waste.
Pair 3 explains that nitrogen oxide, emitted from
4. Particulate Matter — It originates from (PM) high-temperature combustion, alongside nitrogen
volcanoes, dust storms, forest and grassland fires. dioxide, contributes to photochemical smog and
acid rain. Nitrogen compounds originate from
How many of the above pairs are correctly various sources including jet engines, fertilisers
7075060014
matched? containing ammonia, the combustion of fossil fuel,
livestock and poultry farm waste, vegetation,
(a) Only one
biomass burning, and energy production.
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Pair 4 reveals that particulate matter or fine
(d) All four particles are small solid or liquid particles
suspended in gas or air, whereas aerosols refer to a
mixture of particles and gas. The natural sources of
Solution 34. Correct Option: (d)
these particulates include volcanoes, dust storms,
Pollutants originate from both stationary and and forest and grassland fires, with human activities
non-stationary sources. Stationary sources include such as the burning of fossil fuels in vehicles, power
commercial and industrial facilities such as thermal plants, and various industries also contributing
power plants, chemical plants, paper factories, and significant amounts of aerosols to the atmosphere.
municipal waste areas, whereas non-stationary or
mobile sources include ships, aeroplanes, and
35. Consider the following statements regarding
automobiles. Air pollution can result from natural
‘Bioassay’:
processes as well as human activities.
1. It is the use of a living organism to test for the
Natural sources of air pollution include:
presence of a substance.
Volcanic eruptions
2. Both Plants and animals can be used as Bioassay.
Forest fires
3. It can be used to determine the chemical toxicity
Biological decay
in a soil.
Radioactive materials
Manoj How many of the statements given above are
Pollen grains
correct?
All provided pairs are correct: (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Pair 1 indicates that sulphur dioxide, produced by
(c) All three
both natural sources (volcanoes, bogs, swamps,
springs) and industrial processes, enters the (d) None
atmosphere primarily through the combustion of
coal and oil. Significant sources of sulphur Solution 35. Correct Option: (c)
compounds include flue-gas desulfurization (FGD)
Statement 1, which is correct, explains that a
plants, coal power plants, paper mills, the iron and
bioassay involves using a living organism to detect
steel industries, petroleum refineries, sewage
or quantify a compound's presence in a sample. The
treatment plants, vehicle engines, and crackers'
chosen organism is sensitive to the specific
smoke. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
compound being tested, with outcomes often
contribute to acid rain, which forms when these
indicated by its mortality or health decline.
substances react with water, oxygen, and other
Bioassays can evaluate soil, air, or liquid samples,
[email protected]
chemicals in the atmosphere.
depending on the organism used.

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

wildlife, anthropology, and social science.


Statement 2, also correct, highlights that both
plants and animals can serve as indicators in
Statement 4 is incorrect: Projects are seldom
bioassays to reveal toxic compounds.
rejected; between July 2015 and August 2020, out
of 3,100 projects submitted, only 3% were not
Statement 3, accurate as well, describes a bioassay
recommended for approval, and even these can
as employing a biological organism to determine
reapply with additional information to obtain
chemical toxicity. It offers a comprehensive
clearance.
assessment of the toxicity in various environmental
samples such as effluent, water, sediment, or
contaminated soil. 37. With reference to Environmental Impact
Assessment (EIA) in India, consider the following
statements:
36. Environmental Impact Assessment (Elis a tool
used to identify the environmental, social and
1. EIA notifications are formulated under the
economic impacts of a project prior to
Environment Protection Act, 1986.
decision-making. Consider the following Manoj
statements about drawbacks of FIA in India:
2. It is the responsibility of Gram Panchayats to
provide notice for public hearing under EIA.
1. There are numerous instances of fraudulent EIA
studies in India.
3. EIA is funded by an agency or individual whose
interest is in clearance for the project.
2. EIA often do not consider alternative sites,
technologies, designs and strategies.
4. Since 2006, all the projects must mandatorily go
through the complete process of EIA.
3. EIA committee is necessarily comprised of field
experts like anthropologists, environmentalists, etc.
How many of the above statements are correct?
4. The projects under EIA assessment have a very (a) Only one
high rejection rate. (b) Only two
(c) Only three
How many of the statements given above are
correct? (d) All four

(a) Only one


Solution 37. Correct Option: (b)
(b) Only two
Statement 1 is7075060014
correct - The Environment Impact
(c) Only three
Assessment (EIA) in India is legally supported by the
(d) All four Environment Protection Act of 1986, which
includes various EIA methodologies and processes.
Solution 36. Correct Option: (b) The initial EIA notification was issued in 1994 by
what was then known as the Ministry of
Statement 1 is accurate: In India, Environmental
Environment and Forests (now called the Ministry
Impact Assessment (EIA) processes often struggle
of Environment, Forests and Climate Change),
with credibility issues due to numerous instances of
requiring an Environmental Clearance (EC) for
fraudulent reports containing incorrect data and
either the expansion or modernisation of existing
the same facts being used for entirely different
activities, or for the inception of new projects listed
locations.
in Schedule 1 of the notification. While the EIA
practice in India began in 1976-77 through
Statement 2 is accurate: EIAs frequently overlook
administrative actions, it lacked legislative support
alternative sites, technologies, designs, and
until the Environmental Protection Act was passed
strategies that could reduce the environmental
in 1986.
footprint of proposed projects, highlighting the
need for broader consideration of such alternatives.
Statement 2 is incorrect - The State Pollution
Control Board, and not Gram Panchayats, is
Statement 3 is incorrect: The challenge lies in the
responsible for announcing public hearings under
composition of expert committees and standards
[email protected]
the EIA, ensuring a notice is published in at least
for conducting EIA studies, which are found to lack
two newspapers with wide circulation near the
expertise in areas including environmental science,

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

project. They are to specify the date, time, and


Statement 1 is correct. The Environment Impact
venue of the hearing, soliciting public suggestions,
Assessment (EIA) Notification of 2006 was
views, comments, and objections within thirty days
established under the Environment Protection Act
following the publication of this notice.
of 1986. Originally, the government introduced EIA
norms in 1994 through the EIA Notification of
Statement 3 is correct - The onus is on the project
1994, which the 2006 notification later replaced.
proposer to organize the drafting of its project's
EIA, which is funded by an agency or individual
Statement 2 is incorrect. Mandatory public hearings
primarily aiming for the project's approval. This
for the EIA report preparation apply only to certain
setup presents a significant flaw in the EIA process,
types of development projects—specifically,
as it could result in biased reporting or enlist a
Category A and Category B1 projects, while
consultancy with insufficient expertise in the
Category B2 projects, such as the modernisation of
relevant field. 7075060014
irrigation and expansion of roads and highways, are
exempt from public hearings.
Statement 4 is incorrect - The 2006 EIA notification
categorised development projects into Category A
Statement 3 is incorrect. The project proponent is
and Category B for decentralising environmental
responsible for preparing the EIA report, which is
clearances. Category A projects universally require
then submitted both to the State Pollution Control
environmental clearance, bypassing the screening
Board (SPCB) and the State Forest Department if
process. Conversely, Category B projects are
the project includes forest areas, not the State
subjected to a screening process and are further
Forest Department.
divided into Category B1, which mandates an EIA,
and Category B2, exempt from a full EIA. Hence,
both Category A and Category B1 projects undergo 39. With reference to plastic and plastic waste
the comprehensive EIA process, while Category B2 disposal, consider the following statements:
projects do not.
1. Plastic disposal poses environmental problems as
Did you know? many of them are chemically inert.

The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) 2. Oxo-degradable plastics do not fragment into
assesses the potential environmental effects of a micro-plastics.
proposed project or development. It is a planning
tool aimed at integrating developmental activities 3. Bioplastics can be manufactured from Lactic
with environmental conservation. Acid.

How many of the statements given above are


38. With reference to Environmental Impact
correct?
Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, consider the
following statements: (a) Only one
Manoj
(b) Only two
1. It was promulgated under the provisions of the
(c) All three
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
(d) None
2. Public hearing is mandatory for the preparation
of EIA Reports for all development projects. Solution 39. Correct Option: (b)
Plastics are large compounds known as polymers,
3. State Forest Departments prepare the
made up of repeating shorter compounds called
Environment Impact Assessment Reports.
monomers, both of which contain carbon.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Plastic is mostly chemically
(a) Only one inert, meaning it doesn't chemically interact with
(b) Only two other substances, leading to its resistance to decay.
This characteristic makes plastic disposal a
(c) All three
significant environmental challenge.
(d) None
[email protected]
Statement 2 is incorrect: Oxo-degradable plastics
Solution 38. Correct Option: (a) are often mistakenly thought to be biodegradable.

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

In fact, they are regular plastics like PE Biomagnification, or biological magnification,


(polyethylene), PP (polypropylene), and PET describes the concentration process of toxins like
(polyethylene terephthalate) that contain additives pesticides in the tissues of tolerant organisms along
to speed up oxidation, leading to their quick food chains. This increase in toxin concentration
breakdown into many microplastics under sunlight can result from the toxin's environmental
and oxygen. persistence, its accumulation through food chain
dynamics, or a low rate of degradation or excretion
Statement 3 is correct: Polylactic acid (PLA) is a by the organism, often due to the toxin's water
biodegradable and recyclable bioplastic derived insolubility.
from renewable sources. It's made from lactic acid,
which is obtained through the fermentation of
41. Which of the following statement is incorrect
glucose or sucrose, then refined to high purity.
about uranium pollution in ground water?
[email protected]

(a) Primary source of uranium in ground water is


40. With reference to the Soil Pollution, consider
geogenic.
the following statements:
(b) Excessive ground water extraction leads to
1. Mercury contamination in the soil can suppress uranium enrichment in aquifers.
crop growth and can also affect human health (c) World Health Organization has set a limit for
through bioaccumulation. safe drinking water at 100 micrograms of uranium
per litre.
2. Overuse of chemical fertilisers may increase the (d) Uranium contamination causes chronic kidney
salt content of the soil. diseases.

Which of the statements given above is/are


Solution 41. Correct Option: (c)
correct?
Both statements a and b are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Statement a explains that India's aquifers,
(c) Both 1 and 2 consisting of clay, silt, and gravel from Himalayan
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 weathering, contain uranium, a naturally occurring
radioactive mineral, due to their origins from
uranium-rich granitic rocks.
Solution 40. Correct Option: (c)
Both statements provided are correct. Statement 1 Statement b outlines how human activities, such as
elaborates that mercury contamination, attributed lowering the groundwater table and increasing
to industrial activities like coal combustion, poses a nitrate pollution, can enhance the mobilization of
potential threat to human health and ecosystems by uranium. This is because reducing the water levels
affecting the quality of soil, water, and air. This in these aquifers through excessive pumping
contamination can hinder or destroy plant growth, creates conditions that encourage uranium to
with subsequent negative impacts on human health concentrate in the remaining shallow groundwater.
through bioaccumulation. Statement 2 highlights
how the overuse of chemical fertilisers can diminish Statement c is incorrect as the World Health
soil organism populations and its structural Organisation has established a provisional safe
integrity, lower soil productivity, and elevate soil drinking water limit of 30 micrograms per litre of
salinity. uranium for India, contrary to the 100 micrograms
mentioned.
Bioaccumulation refers to the gradual collection of 7075060014
substances, such as pesticides or chemicals, in an Option d is correct and highlights the health risk of
organism. This occurs when an organism absorbs uranium in drinking water, linking it to chronic
these substances quicker than they can be broken kidney diseases. This issue is exacerbated by the
down or excreted. Consequently, substances with depletion of groundwater and nitrate pollution,
longer biological half-lives pose a higher risk of which can intensify the existing natural uranium
chronic poisoning, even if their environmental contamination to critical levels.
concentrations are low.
42. Which of the following methods can be
employed to tackle the menace of oil spills?
Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

central nervous system damage and asphyxiation. It


1. Bregoli is slightly lighter than air, making it highly
flammable, and can flash back to its source easily. In
2. Containment booms events of prolonged fire or intense heat, its
containers may explode and rocket. Carbon
3. Skimmers monoxide (CO) is produced from the incomplete
combustion of carbon.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Option b is incorrect. Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), a
highly reactive gas part of the nitrogen oxides
(a) 2 only
(NOx) group including nitrous and nitric acid,
(b) 2 and 3 only primarily forms from fuel burning. It is the indicator
(c) 1 and 2 only for the larger group of nitrogen oxides,7075060014
majorly
(d) 1, 2 and 3 released through emissions from vehicles, power
plants, and off-road equipment.
Solution 42. Correct Option: (d)
Option c is correct. Sulphur dioxide, a colourless gas
Option 1 is correct. Oil spills in water can be with a pungent smell, becomes liquid under
cleaned using bregoli, a by-product of the paper pressure and easily dissolves in water. It mainly
industry similar to sawdust, oil zapper, and originates from burning coal and oil at power plants
microorganisms. Oil spills, whether from sea or copper smelting, and naturally from volcanic
tankers or land-based underground storage tanks, eruptions. It contributes to acid rain formation
are challenging to manage due to the rapid spread when released into the air along with nitrogen
of oil, significantly impacting a large area swiftly. It oxides.
ranks among the most harmful water pollutants.
Option d is incorrect. Carbon dioxide (CO2),
Option 2 is correct. Containment booms, floating comprising one carbon and two oxygen atoms, is a
barriers, are effective in limiting the oil's spread, colourless and non-flammable gas. Though less
facilitating its recovery, removal, or dispersion. prevalent than nitrogen and oxygen in the
atmosphere, it is a crucial component of Earth’s air.
Option 3 is correct. Skimmers are devices that
physically remove spilled oil from the water's
44. With reference to the Chlorofluorocarbons
surface.
(CFCs), consider the following statements:

43. It is a colourless gas with a pungent odour. It is 1. CFCs are a class of highly reactive and flammable
a liquid when under pressure, and it dissolves in gases.
water very easily. It comes into the air mainly from
activities such as the burning of coal and oil at 2. They are mainly used as refrigerants and
power plantsManojor from copper smelting, In nature, it propellants in aerosol sprays.
can be released to the air from volcanic eruptions.
It forms acid rain when released into the 3. The Montreal Protocol regulates the production
atmosphere with nitrogen oxides. and consumption of CFCs due to their role in ozone
depletion.
The above passage describes the explanation of
which of the following gas? How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Carbon monoxide (a) Only one
(b) Nitrogen dioxide (b) Only two
(c) Sulfur dioxide (c) All three
(d) Carbon dioxide (d) None

Solution 43. Correct Option: (c) Solution 44. Correct Option: (b)
Option a is incorrect. Carbon monoxide, a Statement 1 is incorrect as Chlorofluorocarbons
colourless and odourless gas, can [email protected]
deadly with (CFCs) are not inert; they are potent destroyers of
prolonged exposure due to its ability to cause the ozone layer.

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

adsorbents.
Statement 2 is correct, highlighting the use of CFCs
as refrigerants, aerosol propellants, plastic foaming
Advanced technologies enable the use of fly ash in
agents, fire extinguishing mediums, and solvents for
producing geopolymers, which act as a substitute
cleaning electronics and metals, among other
for cement. The National Thermal Power
applications.
Corporation (NTPC) has developed a technique for
constructing roads using Fly Ash-based
Statement 3 is also accurate, pointing out that CFCs
Geopolymer, showcasing its utility.
damage the ozone layer in the stratosphere, with
their production and emissions being significantly
reduced under the Montreal Protocol of 1987. 46. Consider the following statements about the
compressed biogas:
45. Which of the following are the potential
1. It is a purified form of biogas that can be
applications/uses of fly ash?
Produced from municipal solid waste.
1. Portland cement concrete (PCC) Manoj
2. It is compressed methane and has the same
calorific value as CNG.
2. Road construction
3. It lacks commercial viability as it is difficult to
3. Carbon dioxide capture and storage
transport it through pipelines to retail outlets.
4. Geopolymer
4. SATAT initiative was launched by the
government to promote the compressed biogas
5. Ceramic tiles
technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given
How many of the above statements are correct?
below:
(a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) Only three
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) All four
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution 46. Correct Option: (c)


Solution 45. Correct Option: (d)
Statement 1 is7075060014
accurate. Compressed Biogas (CBG)
All statements given are correct. Fly ash, a
is a refined type of biogas that can be generated
byproduct of coal combustion in thermal power
from various wastes such as municipal solid waste,
plants, contains aluminous and siliceous material
sludge from wastewater treatment plants, market
that, when combined with water, forms a substance
waste, agricultural residue, cattle dung, and
resembling Portland cement. Blending it with lime
sugarcane press mud.
and water creates a compound parallel to Portland
cement, rendering fly ash an ideal component in
Statement 2 is also correct. CBG and Compressed
blended cement, ceramic tiles, bricks, hollow blocks,
Natural Gas (CNG) are chemically identical, both
road construction, and the filling of mine voids,
being compressed methane with the same calorific
among others.
value. However, unlike CNG, which is a petroleum
derivative, CBG can be derived from any biomass.
Fly ash is employed in numerous engineering
applications such as in Portland cement concrete,
Statement 3 is incorrect. CBG is indeed a
soil and road base stabilisation, flowable fills,
commercially viable alternative since it can be used
grouts, structural fill, and as asphalt filler.
directly to replace CNG in transport fuel and can be
distributed via cylinders or pipelines to outlets, just
It holds significant promise for carbon dioxide
like CNG.
capture, utilisation, and storage (CCUS)
applications.
Statement 4 is right. The Sustainable Alternative to
[email protected]
Affordable Transport (SATAT) initiative, launched
When used for CO2 capture, fly ash-based
in 2018, aimed to advance CBG technology with a
adsorbents perform on par with commercial

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

target to produce 15 million metric tonnes (MMT) (a) Bioreactor


by 2023. (b) Biosparging
(c) Bioaugmentation
47. With reference to ozone as a pollutant, (d) Bioventing
consider the following:
Solution 48. Correct Option: (b)
1. It is produced by burning fossil fuels like coal and
petroleum. Option a is incorrect. Bioreactor is an off-site
bioremediation method that treats contaminated
2. It can lead to the formation of photochemical material in a specially designed containment
smog in the atmosphere. system.
[email protected]
3. Only ground level ozone is considered a Option b, correct, defines biosparging as an on-site
pollutant. bioremediation technique where air is forced
beneath the water table to boost groundwater
How many of the above statements are correct? oxygen levels and accelerate the breakdown of
pollutants by native bacteria.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Option c is incorrect. Bioaugmentation is the
(c) All three process of adding microorganisms to a polluted
(d) None area to increase the degradation rate.

Option d is also incorrect. Bioventing is a method


Solution 47. Correct Option: (b)
where air and nutrients are provided via wells in
Statement 1 is incorrect. Ground-level ozone (O3) is polluted soil to promote the growth of local
not directly emitted by human activities but is a bacteria, applicable to deep contamination.
“secondary” pollutant created through complex
chemical reactions involving sunlight. These
49. With reference to the Photochemical Smog,
reactions primarily involve nitrogen oxides (NOx)
consider the following statements:
and volatile organic compounds (VOCs), which
mostly come from combustion processes, and they
1. It is formed by the interaction of sunlight with
determine the concentration of ground-level O3 in
nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic
the air.
compounds (VOCs).
Statement 2 is correct. Ozone is a key component of
2. The formation of Photochemical smog can lead to
photochemical smog, a brownish-grey haze formed
an increase in Ground level Ozone.
by solar ultraviolet radiation acting on an
atmosphere polluted with hydrocarbons and
Which of the above given statements is/are
nitrogen oxides. This smog comprises mainly ozone,
correct?
nitric acid, and organic compounds, and is often
confined near the surface due to temperature (a) 1 only
inversions. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Statement 3 is correct. While ground-level ozone is
a detrimental air pollutant impacting human health (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and the environment, not all atmospheric ozone is
harmful. The ozone that naturally forms part of the Solution 49. Correct Option: (c) 7075060014
ozone layer, known as good ozone, is not
Statement 1 is correct: Photochemical smog forms
considered a pollutant.
through the interaction of sunlight with nitrogen
oxides and volatile organic compounds emitted by
48. With respect to bioremediation, the process of vehicles, industrial activities, and natural sources.
injecting air under pressure below the water table
to increase ground water oxygen concentration Statement 2 is correct: The formation of
which enhances the process of bio degradation is photochemical smog can elevate ground-level
known as: ozone, as the reactions that produce smog also
generate ozone as a secondary pollutant.
Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

their offspring. By interfering with the endocrine


Did you know? system responsible for hormone production, POPs
may harm the reproductive and immune systems of
Volatile organic compounds in paints and varnishes, those exposed and their descendants.
alongside heavy metals and particulate matter in
industrial wastes, can cause cancer upon inhalation. Did you know?
Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are
50. With reference to Persistent Organic carbon-based compounds with a unique set of
Pollutants (POPs), consider the following physical and chemical characteristics that allow
statements: them to remain in the environment for very long
periods before degrading, hence their classification
1. These pollutants can be transported from one as persistent.
7075060014
place to another by wind and water.
51. Which of the following statement is/are
2. Unlike fats, they are easily dissolved in water.
incorrect about acid rain?
3. They are used as flame retardants in electronic
1. Its impact on food crops is minimised by the use
products.
of fertilisers
4. They can alter the hormonal system of humans.
2. Most of the acid particles in the atmosphere falls
back to earth as wet deposition.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
3. They make some conifers less cold tolerant and
(a) Only one even lead to their death.
(b) Only two
4. Indian soils are heavily impacted by acid rain due
(c) Only three
to its tropical location.
(d) All four
Select the correct answer using the code given
Solution 50. Correct Option: (c) below:
Statement 1 is correct: Persistent organic (a) 1 and 2 only
pollutants (POPs) are harmful chemicals that (b) 1 and 3 only
negatively impact human health and the
(c) 2 and 3 only
environment globally. Due to their ability to be
transported by wind and water, POPs produced in (d) 2 and 4 only
one country can affect people and wildlife at great
distances. These pollutants linger for extended Solution 51. Correct Option: (d)
periods inManoj
the environment and can build up and
Statement 1 is correct: Acid rain harms plants by
move through the food chain from one species to
leaching away nutrients, but the impact on food
another.
crops is mitigated through the application of lime
and fertilisers, which provide additional nutrients.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Persistent organic
pollutants are not easily dissolved in water but in
Statement 2 is incorrect: Wet deposition, which
fats. This factor means organisms cannot readily
happens in wet weather through rain, snow, fog,
eliminate them, which contributes to their higher
etc., brings down acidity. However, dry deposition,
concentrations at the top of the food chain.
accounting for half the acidity returning to the
earth, occurs in dry weather and adheres to the
Statement 3 is correct: POPs serve as flame
ground, buildings, vegetation, and cars.
retardants in electronic products and furniture and
are used in manufacturing detergents, pesticides,
Statement 3 is correct: Acid rain causes nutrient
etc. Flame retardants are chemicals designed to
loss, disproportionately affecting upland and
prevent or slow down the outbreak of fire.
mountainous regions and harming conifers. For
instance, when calcium is leached from the needles
Statement 4 is correct: Certain POPs can disrupt
[email protected]
of red spruce, the trees become less resistant to
the hormonal system in humans, affecting them and
cold, leading to winter injury or death.

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

53. With reference to Acid rain, consider the


Statement 4 is incorrect: Indian soils, following statements:
predominantly alkaline with robust buffering
capacity, are less vulnerable to the detrimental 1. The presence of Ozone gas in the atmosphere
effects of acid rain. hinders the formation of acid rain.

2. It is the process of deposition of acidic particles


52. There is some concern regarding the
from atmosphere to earth solely through rainfall.
nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are
used by the industry in the manufacture of various
3. Higher the wind speed, higher the geographical
products. Why?
spread of acid rain.
1. They can accumulate in the environment and [email protected]
4. The formation of acid rain at higher latitudes can
contaminate water and soil.
be facilitated by lightning.
2. They can enter the food chains.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.
(a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) Only two
below:
(c) Only three
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) All four
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Solution 53. Correct Option: (b)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Rainwater becomes acid rain when its pH falls
below 5.6, caused by Oxides of Sulphur and
Solution 52. Correct Option: (d) Nitrogen in the atmosphere chemically reacting
with water and oxygen.
Nanoparticles are miniature materials ranging in
size from 1 to 100 nanometres (nm) and can be
Statement 1 is incorrect: The formation of acid rain
categorised into various types based on their
is catalysed by ozone, which accelerates the
properties, shapes, or sizes.
oxidation of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide in
polluted air.
Statement 1 is correct: Nanomaterials have the
ability to cross biological membranes and access
Statement 2 is incorrect: Acid rain describes the
cells, tissues, and organs, which larger particles
deposition of atmospheric acid on the earth's
cannot usually do. Despite their numerous benefits,
surface, occurring through both wet and dry
the unsafe release of nanoparticles into the
methods, with dry deposition involving acidic
environment poses a problem. Unregulated
particles and gases settling without moisture.
exposure to soil and water is expected to hinder
plant and fish growth and accumulate in edible
Statement 3 is correct: Sulphur oxides and Nitrogen
tissues.
Oxides can be transported long distances by winds,
increasing the spread of acid rain, making the
Statement 2 is correct: The accumulation in animal
spread greater with higher wind speeds.
tissues allows nanoparticles to enter the food chain.
Statement 4 is correct: The main components of air,
Statement 3 is correct: Free radicals, which are 7075060014
Dinitrogen (N2) and dioxygen (O2), don't normally
atoms or molecules with one or more unpaired
react. However, at high altitudes, lightning causes
electrons, can be produced by nanoparticles
them to combine, forming nitrogen oxides and
(including fullerenes, carbon nanotubes, quantum
subsequently acid rain at higher latitudes.
dots, and emission particles). In-vitro and in-vivo
studies demonstrate that the chronic release of
these reactive molecules can cause tissue 54. With reference to ‘Lead poisoning’, which one
degeneration. of the following are source for humans?

1. Sindoor Manufacturing

Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

55. With reference to plastic and its disposal,


2. Jewellery Processing
consider the following statements:
3. Dairy Farming
1. Plastic disposal poses environmental problem as
they are chemically inert.
4. Smelting Industry
2. Oxo-degradable plastics does not fragment into
5. Car battery Production
micro-plastics.
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Bioplastics can be manufactured from lactic acid.
below:
(a) 1 and 4 only How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only (a) Only one
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (b) Only two
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) All three
(d) None
Solution 54. Correct Option: (d)
Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal in the Solution 55. Correct Option: (b)
Earth's crust, leading to widespread environmental
Plastics are large compounds containing carbon,
contamination, human exposure, and significant
known as polymers, which consist of repeating units
public health issues globally.
of smaller carbon-containing compounds called
monomers.
Option 1 is correct: Sindoor and Kajal, known to
contain lead and other heavy metals, pose risks of
Statement 1 is correct: Most plastic is chemically
kidney, hepatic, and skin disorders.
inert and does not react with other substances,
preventing it from decaying. This characteristic
Option 2 is correct: In jewellery processing, lead
makes plastic disposal a significant environmental
adds weight to fashion items, making them appear
challenge.
more "precious", and its compounds enhance the
metallic finish and colour shades.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Recent decades have seen
efforts to develop and commercialize so-called
Option 3 is correct: Livestock, finding lead
"biodegradable" plastics, which could potentially
palatable, may lick and chew on it, with calves
degrade more quickly in the environment.
particularly at risk due to their feeding habits and
Oxo-degradable plastics, a type promoted as
increased lead absorption from milk and
biodegradable, are actually conventional plastics Manoj
substitutes.
(e.g., polyethylene [PE], polypropylene [PP],
polyethylene terephthalate [PET]) with additives
Option 4 is correct: The principal exposure to lead
that hasten oxidation. However, these plastics
during smelting is through inhaling or ingesting lead
quickly break down into numerous microplastics
dust, particles, or smoke.
under sunlight and oxygen, posing a major problem.
Option 5 is correct: An automobile battery
Statement 3 is correct: Polylactic acid (PLA) is a
comprises six cells, each with alternate plates of [email protected]
biodegradable and recyclable polyester derived
sponge lead or lead dioxide-coated lead alloy,
from renewable resources. It is made from lactic
functioning as cathode and anode.
acid, which is obtained through the fermentation of
glucose or sucrose and then refined. Besides
Did you know?
plastics, there are naturally occurring polymers
such as starches, cellulose, soy protein, vegetable
Lead poisoning can severely impair mental and
oil, triglycerides, and bacterial polyesters, which are
physical health, causing anaemia, weakness, kidney
sourced from crops and bacteria.
and brain damage. Children are especially
vulnerable due to their developing brains and
nervous systems. 56. Which of the following can be found as
7075060014 pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of
India?

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

(a) Only one


1. Arsenic
Manoj (b) Only two
2. Sorbitol (c) All three
(d) None
3. Fluoride
Solution 57. Correct Option: (c)
4. Formaldehyde
Statement 1 is correct: Rules mandate establishing
5. Uranium a barcode system for bags or containers carrying
biomedical waste before sending them off premises,
7075060014
Select the correct answer using the codes given to be implemented within a year from when these
below: rules are notified.
(a) 1 and 3 only
Statement 2 is correct: Each state government must
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only form a District Level Monitoring Committee,
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only chaired by the District Collector, to ensure
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 healthcare facilities in districts adhere to these
rules regarding biomedical waste.
Solution 56. Correct Option: (c)
Statement 3 is correct: Healthcare facilities must
Research by the Central Water Commission reveals allocate a secure and ventilated area on-site for
that India's rivers, our sources for surface drinking storing segregated biomedical waste. They must
water, are contaminated with dangerous heavy also pre-treat laboratory waste, microbiological
metals such as lead, arsenic, copper, cadmium, waste, blood samples, and blood bags using
uranium, and mercury, as well as nickel. disinfection or sterilisation methods recommended
by the World Health Organisation (WHO) or the
Interestingly, Sorbitol and Formaldehyde are not National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO).
contaminants in drinking water. Sorbitol, a sugar
alcohol and type of carbohydrate, has roughly Did you know?
one-third less calories than sugar, is 60 percent as
sweet, and is found naturally in many berries and Key aspects of the Bio-Medical Waste Management
fruits. Rules, 2016 include:

Formaldehyde, composed of hydrogen, oxygen, and Biomedical waste is now divided into four
carbon, is a simple compound produced naturally by categories, improving source segregation over the
all life forms, including bacteria, plants, fish, animals, previous ten categories.
and humans, as part of their cellular metabolism.
The scope of the rules now covers additional
healthcare activities such as vaccination, blood
57. With respect to Bio-Medical Waste
donation, and surgical camps.
Management Rules of 2016, consider the
following statements:
These rules mandate regular training and
immunisation for all healthcare workers.
[email protected]
1. It provides for establishing barcode system for
handling of bio-medical waste.
They stipulate stricter incinerator standards to
minimise pollutant emissions.
2. Under the rules, a district level monitoring
committee will be set up in the districts to monitor
The Central Pollution Control Board will oversee
the compliance of rules by health care facilities.
the implementation of these rules by healthcare
establishments of the Armed Forces under the
3. Under the rules, the healthcare facilities can
Ministry of Defence.
store and segregate biomedical waste within their
premises.
State governments are tasked with providing land
for common biomedical waste treatment and
How many of the statements given above are
disposal facilities.
correct?

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

Occupiers are prohibited from establishing onsite


treatment and disposal facilities if a common 2. Due to presence of higher salt concentrations in
biomedical waste treatment service exists within seawater, radioactivity in sea is lesser than rivers.
75 kilometers.
3. Gamma ray is the strongest type of radiation
which can easily penetrate human skin.
58. With respect to techniques of bioremediation
of contaminants, which of the following pairs
How many of the above statements are correct?
is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(Technique — Description) (b) Only two
(c) All three
1. Bioventing — Injection of air under pressure [email protected]
below the water table to increase oxygen (d) None
concentration in groundwater.
Solution 59. Correct Option: (b)
2. Rhizo-filtration — A water remediation technique
Statement 1 is correct. The impact of radioactive
which involves the uptake of contaminants by plant
pollutants hinges on their half-life, energy release
roots.
capacity, and diffusion and deposition rates, with
environmental elements such as wind, temperature,
3. Landfarming — Contaminated soil is excavated
and rainfall further affecting their influence.
and periodically tilled until pollutants are degraded.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Potassium-40 is the
Select the correct answer using the code given
primary natural radioactive isotope in the
below:
hydrosphere, predominantly dissolved in water,
(a) 1 and 2 only leading to rivers having lower radioactivity due to
(b) 2 and 3 only reduced salt concentrations compared to seawater,
not the other way around.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement 3 is correct. Gamma rays, the strongest
among the three types of radiation, can easily
Solution 58. Correct Option: (b) penetrate human skin and require substantial,
dense concrete barriers for effective blocking.
Pair 1 is in incorrect. Bioventing is an in-situ
bioremediation method which boosts the growth of
native bacteria in contaminated soil through the 60. Which of following can be found in Hospital
provision of air and nutrients. However, the method waste?
involving the pressurised injection of air beneath
the water table to augment groundwater oxygen 1. Infectious waste
levels is known as bio-sparging.
2. Sharps waste
Pair 2 is correct. Rhizo-filtration, used in wetlands
and natural estuaries, is a water remediation 3. Cytotoxic waste
method where plant roots absorb contaminants,
representing a form of phytoremediation. 4. Radioactive waste

Pair 3 is incorrect. Landfarming is an ex-situ 5. Heavy metals


bioremediation process that involves removing 7075060014
contaminated soil to spread it over a prepared bed Select the correct answer using the codes given
and periodically tilled until the pollutants are below:
degraded.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
59. With reference to radioactive pollution
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. The effects of radioactive pollutant depends on
its half-life and energy releasing capacity. Solution 60. Correct Option: (d)
Manoj

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

cold conditions at various stratospheric levels,


Health-care activities not only protect and restore
across broad areas, and over long durations. This is
health and save lives but also produce waste and
crucial as such temperatures facilitate the
by-products. Approximately 85% of this waste is
formation of liquid and solid Polar Stratospheric
general, non-hazardous, similar to household waste,
Clouds.
while the remaining 15% is hazardous, potentially
infectious, chemical, or radioactive.
Statement 2 is correct: The surfaces of these clouds
intensify the production of highly reactive chlorine
The variety of waste and by-products includes:
gases by converting chlorine nitrate and hydrogen
chloride into their most reactive forms.
Infectious waste: This includes blood and bodily
fluids contaminated materials (like discarded
Statement 3 is correct: In polar regions,
diagnostic samples), cultures and infectious agents
stratospheric air is largely cut off from7075060014
other areas
from lab work (including waste from autopsies and
during winter, due to strong winds forming a polar
infected laboratory animals), and materials from
vortex that limits air movement. This isolation helps
infected patients (like swabs, bandages, and
maintain chemical changes caused by Polar
disposable medical devices).
Stratospheric Cloud reactions for extended periods.
Sharps waste: This encompasses syringes, needles, Notably, the Antarctic Ozone Hole reaches its peak
disposable scalpels, and blades. intensity in August and September.
Chemical waste: Examples include laboratory
solvents and reagents, disinfectants, sterilants, and 62. Consider the following statements:
heavy metals in medical devices (for example,
mercury from broken thermometers) and batteries. 1. Vermicompost is artificial rearing of worms to
decompose organic food wastes into a nutrient-rich
Cytotoxic waste: This contains genotoxic
material.
substances (which are mutagenic, teratogenic, or
carcinogenic) like cytotoxic drugs used in cancer
2. Pyrolysis is the process of combustion in the
treatments and their metabolites.
presence of oxygen for disposal of mostly inorganic
Radioactive waste: This covers products wastes.
contaminated with radionuclides, including
radioactive diagnostic or therapeutic materials. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
61. Which of the following reason(s) attribute to (a) 1 only
the predominance of ozone depletion over the (b) 2 only
Antarctica?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Low temperature present for extended time (d) Neither 1 nor 2
periods.
Manoj
Solution 62. Correct Option: (a)
2. Reaction of gases with Polar Stratospheric
Organic waste can now be managed through
Clouds (PSCs).
methods like Vermicomposting and Pyrolysis,
producing residues that improve soil health and
3. Presence of Polar Vortex at the South pole.
boost crop productivity.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Statement 1 is correct: Vermiculture involves
below:
raising worms scientifically to decompose organic
(a) 1 and 3 only food waste into nutrient-rich material. This results
(b) 2 and 3 only in vermicompost, the excreta of earthworms, high
in humus, formed as earthworms digest both
(c) 3 only
roughages and farm wastes.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 2 is incorrect: Pyrolysis is a
Solution 61. Correct Option: (d) thermochemical process applicable to organic
(carbon-based) materials. Occurring without or
[email protected]
Statement 1 is correct: The formation of the ozone
with minimal oxygen, it's the initial step in both
hole involves severe ozone depletion, necessitating

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Environment Level-2 Question Bank Pollution (2 of 2)

gasification and combustion, subjecting materials to


high heat in an oxygen-deprived environment,
yielding products like charcoal, biochar, and gases
such as hydrogen, methane, and CO2.

Manoj

[email protected]

7075060014

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