Test ID : 603

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.GRAND TEST - 1 A
Std : Long term Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 05.09.2022 Time : 3 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. If the temperature difference between two 1) bend towards the metal with lower thermal
o expansion coefficient
wires is 40 C. Convert into Kelvin scale
1) 40 K 2) 313 K 2) bend towards the metal with higher thermal
expansion of coefficient
3) 233 K 4) 333 K
3) not bend
2. Which of the curves in figure represents the
relation between celsius and Fahrenheit 4) twist itself into a helix
temperature? 6. The coefficient of linear expansion of a metal
rod is 12 x 10-6/oC, its value in per oF is
20 15
1) x 10-6/oF 2) x 10-6/oF
3 4
3) 21.6 x 10-6/oF 4) 12 x 10-6/oF
7. A brass disc fits into a hole in an iron plate. To
1) curve a 2) curve b remove the disc (br> Fe)
3) curve c 4) curve d 1) the system must be cooled
3. If two temperature differ by 25oC on celsius 2) the system must be heated
scale. Then the difference on Fahrenheit scale 3) the plate may be heated (or) cooled
is 4) the disc must be heated
1) 25o 2) 35o 8. The volume of a metal sphere increased by
3) 45o 4) 55o 0.30% when its temperature is raised by 60oC.
4. A faulty thermometer has 90.5oC and 0.5oC The coefficient of linear expansion of the
marked as the upper and lower fixed points. If metal is _____/oC.
this thermometer reads 18.5oC, the correct 1) 5 x 10-5 2) 1.6 x 10-5
temperature in centigrade scale is 3) 18 x 10-5 4) 1.2 x 10-5
1) 20oC 2) 30oC 9. A pendulum clock loses 12 s a day if the
o
3) 10 C o
4) 45 C temperature is 40oC and gains 4s a day if the
5. If a bimetallic strip is heated it will temperature is 20oC. The temperature at which
the clock will show correct time is
 2 Test ID : 603[A]
o o
1) 25 C 2) 60 C
o
3) 30 C 4) 55oC
10. A rod of length 2m is at a temperature of
20oC. The free expansion of the rod is
1) Density of gas is increasing in graph (a)
0.9 mm. If the temperature is increased to
50oC, the stress produced when the rod is fully 2) Density of gas is decreasing in graph (b)
prevented to expand (y = 2 x 1011 N/m2 3) Density of gas is constant in graph (c)
 = 15 x 10 / C)
-6 o 4) Density of gas is constant in (a)
1) 9 x 107 N/m2 2) 4 x 107 N/m2 15. What should be the percentage increase in the
3) 5 x 107 N/m2 4) 3 x 107 N/m2 pressure so that the volume of a gas may
11. A cylindrical metal rod is shaped into a ring decrease by 5% at constant temperature?
with a small gap as shown. On heating the 1) 5 % 2) 10 %
system 3) 5.26 % 4) 4.26 %
16. If heat capacity of a substance is infinite, it
means that
1) heat is given out continuously
2) heat is taken in continuously
3) there is no change in temperature whether
heat is taken in or given out
1) x decreases, r & d increases
2) x and r increase, d decrease 4) there is no change in entropy
3) x, r and d all increase 17. Two spheres with radii in the ratio 1 : 2 have
4) x and r decreased, d remains constant specific heats in the ratio x : y and densities in
12. A glass is full of water at 4oC when it is the ratio z : x. The ratio of their thermal
a) cooled b) heated then, which one of the capacities is
following is correct 1) z : 2y 2) zy : 8
1) water level decreases, increases 3) z : 8y 4) xy : 2z
2) water level increases, decreases 18. Density of a liquid A is 0.5 g/cc and that of
3) water level decreases, decreases liquid B is 0.6 g/cc. Heat capacity of 8 litres of
4) water over flow in both cases A is equal to that of 10 litres of B. Then their
13. The coefficient of real expansion of a liquid is specific heats ratio is
r and its coefficient of apparent expansion is 1) 4 : 5 2) 3 : 2
a. Coefficient of cubical expansion of the 3) 2 : 3 4) 1 : 1
vessel is . If r : a = 4 : 1 then a :  is 19.
o
If 10g of ice at 0 C is mixed with 10 g of
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 3 water at 10oC, the final temperature is
3) 4 : 1 4) 1 : 4 (Lice = 80 cal/g)
14. Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal 1) 2.5oC 2) 0oC
gas of given mass are as shown in figure.
3) 5oC 4) 7.5 oC
Choose wrong statement.
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20. A student takes 50 gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 24. For an enclosure maintained at 2000 K. The
kcal/kgoC) and heats it till it boils. The graph maximum radiation occurs at wavelength m.
between temperature and time is as follows. If the temperature is raised to 3000 K. the
Heat supplied to the solid form of wax per peak will shift to
minute and boiling point are respectively. 1) 0.5 m 2) m
2 3
3) m 4) m
3 2
25. In a surrounding medium of temperature 10oC, a
body takes 7 min for a fall of temperature from
60oC to 40oC. In what time the temperature of
the body will fall from 40oC to 28oC?
1) 500 cal, 50oC 1) 7 min 2) 11 min
o
2) 1000 cal, 100 C 3) 14 min 4) 21 min
3) 1500 cal, 200oC 26. If a piece of metal is heated to a temperature
4) 1000 cal, 200oC T0 and then allowed to cool in a room which is
21. In steady state, the temperature at the end A at temperature TS. The graph between the
and B of 20 cm long rod AB are 100oC and temperature T of the metal and time ‘t’ will be
0oC. The temperature of a point 9 cm from A closed to
is T
o o
1) 45 C 2) 60 C
o 1) 2)
3) 55 C 4) 65oC 0 t
22. If the end of metal rod is heated, then the flow
of heat does not depend on
1) area of the end of the rod 3) 4)
2) mass of the rod
3) time 27. 100 g water is heated from 30oC to 50oC
4) temperature gradient ignoring the slight expansion of the water, the
23. Three rods made of the same material have change in its internal energy is (take specific
thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are heat of water is 4184 J/kg/K)
arranged as shown in the following figure. 1) 8.4 kJ 2) 84 kJ
Given below, with their ends at 100oC, 50oC 3) 2.1 kJ 4) 4.2 kJ
and 20oC. The temperature of their junction is 28. For free expansion of the gas which of the
following is true
1) Q = W = 0 and Eint = 0
2) Q = 0, W > 0 and Eint = - W
3) W = 0, Q > 0 and Eint = Q
1) 60C 2) 70C
4) W > 0, Q < 0 and Eint = 0
3) 50C 4) 35C
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29. Two identical balls A and B are moving with Out of the following diagrams which
same velocity. If the velocity of A is reduced represents T – P diagram?
to half and of B to zero, then the rise in
temperatures of A to that of B is
1) 3 : 4 2) 4 : 1
1) 2)
3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 1
30. A gas undergoes expansion in such a manner
that its P-V diagram plot is a downward
sloping straight line as shown in figure. What
happens to the temperature during the 3) 4)
process?
33. Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated
closed chamber. As the gas undergoes an
adiabatic expansion the average time of
collision between molecules increases as Vq,
where V is the volume of the gas. The value of
1) It increases first then decreases
 C 
2) It decreases first then increases q is    P 
3) It continuously decreases  CV 
4) data insufficient  1  1
1) 2)
31. In the cyclic process shown in the V-P 2 2
diagram the magnitude of the work done is 3  5 3  5
3) 4)
6 6
34. Two moles of diatomic ideal gas is taken
through PT = constant. Its temperature is
increased from T to 2T. Find the work done by
the system
2 1) 2RT 2) 4 RT
P P  3) 1 RT 4) 3 RT
1)  2 1 
 2  35. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant
2
 V  V1  pressure. The ratio of Q : U : W is
2)  2 
 2  1) 5 : 3 : 2 2) 5 : 2 : 3
 3) 7 : 5 : 2 4) 7 : 5 : 3
3) (P2  P1 ) (V2  V1 )
4 36. Heat engine work in a carnot cycle with a heat
4)  (P2V2 – P1V1) sink at a temperature of 2700 k. The efficiency
32. Consider P – V diagram for an ideal gas of the engine is 20%. Determine the
shown in figure. temperature of heat source.
1) 3275 K 2) 3295 K
3) 3375 K 4) 4375 K
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37. A refrigerator with coefficient of performance 42. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased
1 from 27oC to 127oC. The percentage increase
releases 200 J of heat to a hot reservoir, then
3 in Vrms is
the work done on the working substance is 1) 37% 2) 11 %
100 3) 33% 4) 15.5%
1) J 2) 150 J
3 43. If  be the ratio of specific heats of a perfect
200 gas, the number of degrees of freedom of a
3) J 4) 100 J
3 molecule of the gas is
38. Two Carnot engines X and Y are operated in 25 3  1
series. The engine X receives heat from the 1) (   1) 2)
2 2 1
source at temperature T1 and rejects the heat to
the sink at temperature T. The second engine 2 9
3) 4) (  1)
Y receives the heat at temperature T and  1 2
rejects to sink at temperature T2. For what 44. An insulator container is filled with 20 moles
value of T the efficiencies of two engines are
of an ideal diatomic gas at absolute
equal?
temperature T. When heat is supplied to gas,
T1  T2 temperature remains constant but 8 moles
1) T1T2 2)
2 dissociate into atoms. Heat energy given to
T1  T2 gas is
3) T1T2 4)
2 1) 3 RT 2) 4 RT
39. The total pressure P in an ideal gas consisting 3) 6 RT 4) 5 RT
of diatomic molecules with an internal energy 45. One mole of a diatomic ideal gas is heated at
density ‘u’ is given by constant volume until the pressure is doubled
u 2u and again heated at constant pressure until the
1) P  2) P 
3 3 volume is doubled. The average molar heat
2u 3u capacity for the whole process is
3) P  4) P 
5 2 13R 19R
1) 2)
40. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium 6 6
C 23R 17R
and 16 g of oxygen. The ratio p of the mixture 3) 4)
Cv 6 6
is _____ 46. Which of the following orbital is not
1) 1.62 2) 1.59 associated with angular nodes
3) 1.54 4) 1.4
1) S 2) P
41. The rms speed of gas molecule at 27oC and 1 3) d 4) f
atm pressure is 100 m/s. The rms speed of
47. Electronic transition in He+ ion takes from n2
same molecule at 127oC and 2 atm pressure
will be to n1 shell such that
1) 100 m/s 2) 200 m/s 2n2 + 3n1 = 18
2n2 – 3n1= 6
100 200
3) m/s 4) m/s
3 3
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Then what will be the total number of photons 8 32
1) 2)
emitted when electrons transit to n1 shell 27 27
1) 10 2) 20 27 27
3) 4)
3) 15 4) 21 32 8
48. The uncertainity in the momentum of an 54. Energy of H-atom in the ground state is
5
electron is 10 kg.m/s. The uncertainity in its 13.6 eV. Hence energy in the second excited
position will be state is
1) 1.05  1028 m 2) 1.05  1026 m 1) –6.8 eV 2) –3.4 eV
3) 5.27  1030 m 4) 5.25  1028 m 3) –1.51 eV 4) –4.3 eV
49. Orbital angular momentum of f-electron is 55. An electric bulb of 30 watt power emits a
radiation of wavelength of 331 nm. The
1) 2ℏ 2) 3ℏ
number of photons emitted per second is
3) 12 ℏ 4) 2 ℏ
1) 5  1019 2) 0.5  1021
50. Incorrect set among the following is 3) 5  1020 4) 5  1023
1) 6C12, 6C13, 6C14 (Isotopes) 56. Which of the following graphs is correct for
2) 1H1, 1H2, 1H3 (Isotopes) the photoelectric effect?
3) 18Ar38, 19K39, 20Ca40 (Isotones)
4) 6C13, 7N15, 8O17 (Isobars)

51. Which of the following is true for cathode 1) 2)

KE of KE of
ray? emitted electron emitted electron
1) It is not deflected by magnetic field
2) It is an electromagnetic wave
3) It emits x-ray, when strikes a metal
3) 4)
4) The e/m of the particles in the cathode is KE of KE of
dependent of the nature of the gas present emitted electron emitted electron

in the cathode ray tube 57. Maximum value of (n + l) for unpaired

52. Which among the following statements is electrons in ground state of chlorine 17Cl is
correct 1) 1 2) 4
1)  represents atomic orbital 3) 3 4) 2
2) the number of peaks in radial distribution is 58. Radial probability distribution curve is shown
n-l for s-orbital. The curve is
3) Radial probability density nl(r) = 4r2Rnl
(r)
4) A node is a point in space where the work
function (2) has zero amplitude
53. What is the ratio of time periods T1/T2 in
second orbit of hydrogen atom to third orbit of 1) 1s 2) 2s
He+ ion 3) 3s 4) 4s
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59. Number of visible lines when an electron 66. A single electron system has ionization energy
returns from 5th orbit to ground state in 11180 kJ/mole. Find the number of protons in
hydrogen spectrum are the nucleus of the system
1) 4 2) 3 1) 3 2) 4
3) 5 4) 10 3) 2 4) 5
60. How many d-electrons in Cu+ can have the 67. The ratio of the radii of first three orbits of
same spin quantum number He+ ion is
1) 5 2) 3 1) 1 : 4 : 9 2) 1 : 2 : 3
3) 7 4) 10 3) 4 : 1 : 9 4) 9 : 4 : 1
61. The order of de Broglie’s wavelength of electron, 68. What is the IUPAC official name of an
proton and neutron moving with the same element with atomic number 107?
speed is 1) Bohrium 2) Hassium
1) e > p > n 2) e > n > p 3) Dubnium 4) Nobelium
3) n > p > e 4) n > e > p 69. The number of neutrons in dipositive zinc ion
with mass number 70 is
62. If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of
mass m is 102 times of its velocity. Then its 1) 40 2) 36
3) 32 4) 30
value in terms of its mass (m) and Planck’s
70. An element has electronic configuration
constant (h) is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3, predict their period, group
1 h 1 m and block respectively
1) 2)
10 m 10 h 1) 3rd period, p-block, 15th group
m h 2) 5th period, p-block, 15th group
3) 10 4) 10
h m 3) 3rd period, d-block, 15th group
63. After filling the 4d-orbitals, an electron will 4) 4th period, d-block, 12th group
enter in 71. Which is called a bridge element
1) 4p 2) 4s 1) Li 2) O
3) 5p 4) 4f 3) Al 4) Pb
64. Which electron level would allow the 72. The correct order of relative stability of half
hydrogen atom to absorb a photon but not to filled and completely filled shells is
emit it? 1) p6 > d10 > p3 > d5 2) p6 > p3 > d10 > d5
10 5 6 3
1) 1s 2) 2s 3) d > d > p > p 4) d10 > p6 > d5 > p3
3) 3s 4) 4s 73. The number of unpaired d electrons retained in
65. Among the following which one has Fe+2 is
maximum nodes ? 1) 4 2) 6
3) 5 4) 3
1) 3d 2) 3p
74. The outer electronic configuration of Gd (At.
3) 2s 4) 4s
No. 64) is
1) 4f7 5d1 6s2 2) 4f8 5d1 6s2
3) 4f6 5d2 6s2 4) 4f8 5d0 6s2
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75. Which of the following sequence regarding
ionization potential of coinage metal is correct
1) Cu > Ag < Au 2) Cu < Ag < Au
3) Cu > Ag > Au 4) Ag > Cu > Au 84.
76. Which of the following transitions involves
maximum absorption of energy?
OA = 1 then element showing frequency of
1) m(g)  m(g) 2) m(g)  m+(g)
225 HZ. Then incorrect answer is
3) m(g)  m+2(g) 4) m(g)  m+3(g)
77. Atomic weights of Li and Na are X and Y 1) p-block element
2) d-block element
respectively. Atomic weight of ‘K’ is
3) non-metal
XY XY 4) If group 16 and 3rd period
1) 2)
2 2 85. The first ionization potentials of Na, Mg, Al
Y
3) 2  4) 2Y – X and Si are in order
X
1) Na < Mg > Al < Si
78. Among the following which one is acidic
2) Na < Mg < Al < Si
oxide 3) Na < Mg > Al > Si
1) NO 2) N2O3 4) Na > Al > Mg > Si
3) N2O 4) CO 86. Which pair represents incorrect first IE
79. Which of the following orders of ionic radius 1) Be > B 2) N > O
is correctly represented 3) Li > Na 4) He > He+
1) Na+ > F > O2 2) H > H > H+ 87. Select the incorrect variation of gradation of
3) F > O2 > Na+ 4) Al+3 > Mg+2 > N3 size
80. The electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl are 1) Cr = Mn = Fe 2) Ni < Cu < Zn
such that 3) Se < As < Ge 4) Ti < Zr < Hf
1) N < O < S < Cl 2) O < N < Cl < S 88. What is the group number of the divalent
3) O = Cl < N = S 4) O < S < Cl < N cation with 24 electron
81. The first IP values Be and B respectively are 1) 5 2) 6
1) 9.32, 9.32 2) 8.32, 8.29 3) 7 4) 8
3) 8.29, 8.29 4) 8.29, 8.32 89. Maximum ionization enthalpy is for
82. The ionic radii of O2, F, Na+ and Mg+2 are 1) Be+ 2) Li+
1.35, 1.34, 0.95 and 0.66 Ao respectively. The 3) B+ 4) Ne+
radius of the Ne atom is 90. Among the following factors which one is the
most important in making fluorine the strong
1) 1.12 Ao 2) 0.85 Ao
3) 1.27 A o
4) 1.39 Ao oxidizing agent?
83. Which has maximum ionization energy 1) Electron affinity
1) N 2) O 2) Ionization enthalpy
3) O+ 4) Na 3) Hydration enthalpy
4) Bond dissociation energy
 9 Test ID : 603[A]
91. Root system formed from any part of the plant 97. Name the nitrogen fixing organism present in
other than radicle is called the root nodules of legumes
1) Tap root system 1) Rhizobium 2) Nostoc
2) Adventitious root system 3) Anabaena 4) Azolla
3) Fibrous root system 98. Which of the following tuber is different from
others?
4) Both (2) and (3)
1) Carrot 2) Radish
92. Assertion (A): Monocots have fibrous root
3) Potato 4) Sweet Potato
system.
99. What are the functions of underground stems?
Reasons (R): Radicle is absent in monocots.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct I) Storage
explanation of A. II) Vegetative propagation
III) Perennation
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A IV) Assimilation of food
1) I, II and III 2) II, III and IV
3) A is true and R is false
3) I, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
4) A is false and R is true
100. Which is the common function of
93. Identify the odd tuberous root from the
underground stems and sub - aerial stems?
following
1) Storage
1) Turnip 2) Carrot
2) Vegetative propagation
3) Radish 4) Asparagus
3) Protection
94. Slender, oblique roots developing from lower 4) Perennation
nodes of main stem that provide additional
101. Vertically growing underground stem, that
support are called retained at specific depth in the soil is called
1) Prop roots 2) Storage roots 1) Rhizome 2) Corm
3) Pillar roots 4) Stilt roots 3) Stem tuber 4) Bulb
95. Plants which grow in saline marshy soils or 102. Any part of the leaf other than lamina
swamps are called performing photosynthesis is called
I) Mangroves II) Hydrophytes 1) Phylloclade 2) Cladophyll
III) Sciophytes IV) Halophytes 3) Cladode 4) Phyllode
1) I and IV 2) III and IV 103. Oblique branch developing from base of the

3) I and II 4) II and III main stem, bends downwards, touches the soil
and helps in vegetative propagation is called
96. As a rule roots are positively geotropic.
1) Runner 2) Stolon
However, one of the following roots are
negatively geotropic 3) Sucker 4) Off - set
104. Horizontally growing stem with one short
1) Prop roots
internodal branch that helps in vegetative
2) Respiratory roots
propagation is called
3) Storage roots 1) Rhizome 2) Stolon
4) Stlit roots 3) Sucker 4) Off - set
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105. Assertion (A): Pistia and Eichhornia are 110. What is the morphology of pitcher in
called ‘Rosette plants’. Nepenthes?
Reasons (R): In Rosette plants stems are 1) Petiole 2) Leaf lamina
reduced and leaves are crowded like rose 3) Leaf tip 4) Entire leaf
petals.
111. Assertion (A): Growth of the peduncle is
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct indefinite in racemose inflorescence.
explanation of A. Reasons (R): In racemose inflorescence
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the terminal bud is not modified into flower.
correct explanation of A 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) A is true and R is false explanation of A.
4) A is false and R is true 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
106. Swollen leaf base in legumes is called correct explanation of A
1) Sheathing leaf base 3) A is true and R is false
2) Pulvinus leaf base 4) A is false and R is true
3) Phyllode 112. Sepals and petals of a flower together
4) Bulbous leaf base constitute
107. Sheathing leaf base that covers the internode I) Perianth
partially or wholly is seen in II) Accessory organs
1) Legumes 2) Grasses III) Essential organs
3) Dicots 4) Gymnosperms IV) Non-essential organs
108. Dicotsand monocots can be differentiated by 1) I - II - III 2) II - III - IV
observing the following characters 3) I - II - IV 4) I - III - IV
I) Root system 113. Flowerwhich can be cut into two equal halves
II) Venation in any radial plane passing through centre is
III) Number of cotyledons in a seed called
IV) Perianth in flowers 1) Actinomorphic 2) Zygomorphic
1) I, II and III 2) II, III and IV 3) Asymmetric 4) Irregular
3) I, II and IV 4) All of these 114. Asymmetric flower is otherwise called as
109. Identify the incorrect statement from the 1) Regular flower 2) Irregular flower
following 3) Radial flower 4) Bilateral flower
1) In a simple leaf, lamina is undivided or 115. What type of symmetry is found in
incompletely divided zygomorphic flower?
2) In a compound leaf, lamina is completely 1) Oblique 2) Radial
divided into leaf lets. 3) Bilateral 4) No symmetry
3) Bud is present in the axil of leaf and absent 116. Identify actinomorphic flowers from the
in the axil of leaf let. following
4) Bud is present in the axil of compound leaf I) Mustard II) Datura
and absent in the axil of simple leaf III) Chilli IV) Lily
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1) I, II and III 2) II, III and IV 124. In which type of flower the margin of

3) I, III and IV 4) All of these thalamus grows upward and completely fuses
with the ovary?
117. Totalnumber of plants showing zygomorphic
flowers from the following is. 1) Hypogynous 2) Perigynous
Mustard, China rose, Bean, Datura, Allium, 3) Epigynous 4) Both 2 and 3
Brinjal, Gulmohur, Pea, and Cassia. 125. Overlapping of perianth members is not in any

1) 3 2) 4 particular direction is found in

1) Valvate aestivation
3) 5 4) 8
2) Twisted aestivation
118. The number of members in each whorl of
perianth in a flower is referred to as 3) Imbricate aestivation
4) Both (1) and (2)
1) Aestivation 2) Merosity
126. Identify the correct match
3) Venation 4) Vernation
Aestivation Example
119. Arrangement of perianth members in bud
condition is called A) Valvate I) Cotton
1) Merosity 2) Aestivation B) Twisted II) Bean
3) Placentation 4) Venation C) Imbricate III) Euphorbia
120. Flowers are described as hypogynous, D) Vexillary IV) Calotropis
perigynous and epigynous based on this V) Cassia
feature
1) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
1) Merosity 2) Aestivation
2) A - IV, B - I, C - V, D - II
3) Shape of thalamus 4) Symmetry
3) A - II, B - III, C - V, D - I
121. Inwhich of the following, all four floral parts
4) A - IV, B - I, C - V, D - III
are located almost at the same level?
127. The landing plant form of pollen grains in a
1) Hypogynous 2) Perigynous flower is
3) Epigynous 4) All of the above 1) Pistil 2) Anther
122. Theovary in a perigynous flower is 3) Stigma 4) Ovule
1) Superior 128. When the carpels are completely united, the
2) Inferior ovary is called
3) Half superior or half inferior 1) Apocarpous ovary
4) All of these 2) Sub-apocarpous ovary
123. Identify the hypogynous, perigynous, 3) Syncarpous ovary
epigynous flowers respectively from the 4) Monocarpellary ovary
following 129. Arrange the following plants in ascending

1) Guava - Plum - Cucumber order based on their carpel number.

2) Mustard - Rose - China rose I) Datura II) Lilium
III) Hibiscus IV) Dolichos
3) Brinjal - Peach – Ray florets of sunflower
1) II - I - IV - III 2) IV - I - II – III
4) China rose - Rose - Peach
3) III - I - IV - II 4) III - II - I - IV
 12 Test ID : 603[A]
130. Arrange the following plants in descending 3) A member of liliaceae
order based on their stamen number. 4) A member of brassicaceae
I) Brassica II) Citrus 135. Identify the given floral diagram and choose
III) Dolichos IV) Datura the correct option
1) II, IV, I, III 2) III, IV, I, II
3) II, III, I, IV 4) IV, II, I, III
131. Chambers inside the ovary are called
1) Lumens 2) Locules
3) Theca 4) Septa
132. Choose the correct option related to the below
given image 1) Epipetalous stamens in Solanum
2) Bicarpellary ovary in Datura
3) Epiphyllous stamens in Allium
4) Gamopetalous corolla in Lillium
136. Mark the correct statement w.r.t central
neural system related to non-chordates and
chordates.
1) The seed belongs to a plant with two 1) central neural system is ventral, hollow and
cotyledons single in chordates
2) The seed belongs to a plant which 2) central neural system is dorsal, hollow,
possesses reticulate venation double ganglionated in non-chordates
3) The seed belongs to a plant with tap root 3) central neural system is ventral, hollow,
system single, non-ganglionated in non–chordates
4) The seed belongs to a plant with parallel 4) Central neural system is dorsal, hollow,
venation single in chordates
133. Choose the incorrect match from the 137. Which set of the members are hermaphrodites

following w.r.t economic importance of the 1) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia and blood sucking
fabaceae members annelidan
1) Edible oil – Soyabean 2) Sea urchin, earth worm and Ascaris
2) Dye – Indigofera 3) Wuchereria, Taenia and Ctenoplana
3) Fibres – Sunhemp 4) Balanoglossus, bathsponge and Fasciola
138. Match the column – I with Column – II.
4) Fodder – Lupin
134. Leaves are exstipulate with reticulate Column – I Column – II
venation, stem is hairy/glabrous, inflorescence (Organism) (Common name)
is cymose, ovary is syncarpous and superior, A. Pteropus P. sting ray
epipetalous stamens and fruit is berry or B. Aptenodytes Q. Krait
capsule.
C. Bungarus R. Flying fox
The above characters are belonging to
1) A member of solanaceae D. Clarias S. Magur
2) A member of fabaceae E. Trygon T. Penguin
 13 Test ID : 603[A]
1) A-Q, B-T, C-R, D-P, E-S 145. Homeothermic vertebrate is
2) A –R, B-Q, C-P, D-R, E-S 1) Hippocampus 2) Ichthyophis
3) A-R, B-T, C-Q, D-S, E-P 3) Crocodilus 4) Atpenodytes
4) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R, E-S 146. Which of the following are correct statements
139. Mark the correct statement from the given. about ctenophores?
1) Both cranium and vertebral column are a) Only sexual reproduction
cartilaginous in cartilaginous fishes and b) External fertilization
cyclostomes
c) Indirect development
2) Scales are present on skin of both
d) Digestion is both extra &intra cellular
cyclostomes and cartilaginous fishes
1) a, b, c 2) a, b, d
3) Development is direct in both cartilaginous
fishes and cyclostomes 3) a, b, c, d 4) a, c, d
4) Both cyclostomes and chondrichthyes are 147. Thefigures given below show the types of
exclusively marine coelom. Identify them and select the correct
140. Which of the following exhibit complete group of organisms which possess them.
digestive system with muscular pharynx?
1) Liver fluke 2) Ancylostoma
3) Wuchereria 4) 2 and 3
141. Identify the incorrect match.
1) Limbless amphibian – Ichthyophis a b c
2) Jawless vertebrate – Myxine 1) Annelids Aschelminthes Platyhelminthes
3) Fish with electric organs – Trygon
2) Molluscs Arthropods Platyhelminthes
4) Poisonous snake – Krait
142. Statement - I: In Mollusca, the body surface
3) Echinoderms Aschelminthes Annelids
is distinctly marked out into segments. 4) Echinoderms Arthropods Platyhelminthes
Statement - II: Molluscan body has distinct 148. Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in
head, muscular foot and visceral hump. between ectoderm and endoderm in
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 1) Locust 2) Tapeworm
2) Statement I is correct, statement II is 3) Earthworm 4) Hookworm
incorrect
149. Find out the mismatch.
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
1) Aurelia - Medusa form and free swimming
correct
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 2) Adamsia - polyp form and sessile
143. Structures that supplement respiration in birds
3) Hydra - polyp form and cylindrical
are 4) Obelia - has both polyp and medusa forms
1) Pneumatic bones 2) Lungs and are free swimming
3) Trachea 4) Air sacs 150. Assertion(A): Statocysts are balancing organs
144. Long bones with air cavities occur in in some aquatic animals.
1) Aptenodytes 2) Corvus Reason (R): They have balance sensory
3) Pteropus 4) Bangarus receptors.
 14 Test ID : 603[A]
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 156. Select the correct statement about
explanation of A Chondrichthyes
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not 1) The heart is two-chambered with one
correct explanation of A auricle and one ventricle
3) A is true but R is false 2) They lack the capacity to regulate their
4) A is false but R is true body temperature
151. Statement - I: In direct development of an 3) Sexes are separate and in males pelvic fins
animal the young ones resemble the adult. bear claspers
Statement - II: In indirect development of an 4) All of the above
animal larval stages do not resemble adults. 157. Which is a limbless amphibian?
1) Both Statement I and II are correct 1) Icthyosaurs 2) Bufo
2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is 3) Krait 4) Ichthyophis
incorrect 158. The class name Reptilia refers to their
3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is 1) scales that are shed as skin cast
correct 2) body is covered by dry and cornified skin
4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect 3) creeping or crawling mode of locomotion
152. Besides the basic chordate characters, 4) poikilothermic nature
vertebrates also have 159. Which of the following is true for the animal
1) a ventral muscular heart with two, three or shown in the diagram?
four chambers
2) kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation
3) paired appendages, which may be fins or
limbs
4) All of the above
153. Larvae of lamprey after metamorphosis moves 1)Show direct development and produces
from shelled cledoic eggs
1) estuary to sea 2) Scales that are shed as skin cast
2) sea to estuary 3) has structure called cloaca
3) ocean to fresh water 4) All the above
4) fresh water to ocean 160. Which of the following is true regarding
154. Number of pairs of gills in Osteichthyes are general characters of birds?
1) 6-15 2) 4-15 A. Skin is dry without glands, except oil gland
3) 4 4) 6 B. Long bones are pneumatic
155. Which of the following belong to class C. Digestive tract has only crop but not gizzard
osteichthyes? D. Legs are covered by scales.
a. Sea urchin b. Sea horse c. Flying fish E. Air sacs connected with lungs to
d. Saw fish e. Dog fish supplement respiration
1) b & c 2) a, b & e 1) All except ‘C’ 2) All except ‘A’
3) b & e 4) a, d & e 3) All except ‘E’ 4) All of these
 15 Test ID : 603[A]
161. Which one of the following statements is (b) In cephalochordata, notochord extends
incorrect regarding notochord? from head to tail region.
1) It is present only in larval tail in ascidian (c) Branchiostoma belongs to hemichordate
2)It is replaced by a vertebral column in some (d) Only one class of living members,
adult chordates Cyclostomata represents the division
3)It is endodermally derived Agnatha
4) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus 1) (a), (b), (d) only 2) (c), (d), (a) only
162. Which of the following characteristic features 3) (c) only 4) (a), (d) only
always holds true for the corresponding group 167. Match the following regarding pisces and
of animals? choose correct answer
1) Viviparous Mammalia Structure Example
2) Possess a mouth with an A) Electric organs 1) Catla
Chordata
upper and a lower jaw B) Air bladder 2) Chondrichthyes
3) 3-chambered heart with one C) Operculum 3) Torpedo
Reptilia
incompletely divided ventricle
D) Pristis 4) Osteichthyes
4) Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
1) A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1 2) A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2
163. Identify the vertebrate group of animals 3) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4 4) A-1,B-4,C-2,D-3
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
168. Which among the following bird is flight less?
digestive system.
1) Neophron 2) Struthio
1) Amphibia 2) Aves
3) Psittacula 4) Pavo
3) Reptilia 4) Osteichthyes
169. Agnatha is represented by the class
164. Mark the correct match.
1) cyclostomata 2) chondricthyes
1) Labeo – Internal fertilization
3) osteichthyes 4) amphibia
2) Frog – Internal fertilization
170. Assertion (A): Scolidon has to swim constantly
3) Birds – external fertilization
to avoid sinking.
4) Balaenoptera – internal fertilization
Reason (R): In Scolidon air bladder is absent.
165. Choose the correct difference from the
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
following.
explanation of A
Pristis Catla 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
1) 3-chambered heart 2- chambered heart correct explanation of A
2) Small placoid scales Large placoid scales 3) A is true but R is false
3) Ventral mouth Terminal mouth 4) A is false but R is true
171. Which of the following is/are aquarium fish/
4) Swim bladder present Swim bladder absent
fishes?
166. Which of the following statement/s is/are true? 1) Flying fish
(a) Notochord is rod-like structure formed on 2) Fighting fish
the dorsal side during embryonic
3) Angel fish
development
4) both 2 and 3
 16 Test ID : 603[A]
172. Statement - I: In saw fish air bladder regulates 176. Match the following.
buoyancy. Column - I Column - II
Statement - II: In saw fish heart is two
A) Macropus i) Kangaroo
chambered.
1) Both Statement I and II are correct B) Macaca ii) Monkey
2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is C) Canis iii) Dog
incorrect D) Felis 4) Cat
3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is 1) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D -iv
correct 2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D -iv
4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect 3) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D -iii
173. The fish with terminal mouth is
4) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D -iii
1) Trygon 2) Pristis 177. Assertion (A): Aves are homeotherms.
3) Betta 4) Scoliodon Reason (R): Aves have ability to maintain a
174. Statement - I: The most unique mammalian constant body temperature.
characteristic is the presence of mammary 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
glands. explanation of A
Statement - II: The skin of mammals is 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
unique in possessing hair. correct explanation of A
1) Both Statement I and II are correct 3) A is true but R is false
2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is 4) A is false but R is true
incorrect
178. Match the following.
3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
correct Column - I Column - II
4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect A) Tree lizard i) Calotes
175. Statement - I: Mammals are ectotherms/ B) Garden lizard ii) Hemidactylus
poikilothemous. C) Wall lizard iii) Chameleon
Statement - II: Reptiles are endotherms/
1) A - ii, B - i, C - iii
Homoiothermous.
2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii
1) Both Statement I and II are correct
3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii
2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii
incorrect
179. Which of the following is dioecious?
3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
correct 1) Nereis 2) Hirudinaria
4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect 3) Taenia 4) Fasciola
180. Which of the following opens into cloaca?
1) Alimentary canal
2) Urinary tract
3) Reproductive tract
4) All of the above
***All The Best***