HSBSS, 2016

HARAMAYA IFA BORU SPECIAL

BOARDING SECONDARY SCHOOL
2016 E.C PHYSICS ENTRANCE EXAM
(2005-2010) WORKBOOK FOR
GRADE 12

Caamsaa 2016/ MARCH 2024

HARAMAYA SPECIAL BOARDING
2NDRY SCHOOL (MAYA CITY)
ADELE SUB CITY

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PART ONE
CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER FROM THE FOUR GIVEN ALTERNATIVES

Constant Symbol Value

Acceleration due to gravity G 10m/s2
Permittivity of vacuum E0 8.85 x 10-12F/m
Charge of an electron E 1.6 X 10-19C
Sin 300 = Cos 60 0 = 0.5
Sin 370 = Cos 53 0 = 0.6
Sin 530 = Cos 37 0 = 0.8
Cos 600 = Sin 30 0 = 0.87

1. Which of the following is correct about the meaning of Photon?

A) quantum of matter
B) positively charged particle
C) negatively charged particle
D) quantum of light

2. Consider a series RC circuit for which R = 1.0MΩ C = 5μ F and ε = 30V. What is the time
constant of the circuit and the maximum charge on the capacitor after the switch is closed
respectively?
A) 5 seconds, 150 ΩC
B) 7 seconds, 155 Ω C
C) 10 seconds, 160 ΩC
D) 9 seconds, 135 Mc

3. What is the direction with which a fish must push the water with its fins in order to propel
eastward?
A) eastward
B) upward
C) westward
D) downward

4. Suppose two molecules of different mass are kept at the same temperature. Which one of the
following statements is true?
A) both remain at rest
B) both move with the same speed
C) the lighter molecule moves faster
D) the heavier molecule moves faster

5. One person drops a ball from the top of a building while another person at the bottom observes
its motion. The two people disagree on which of the following?

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A) The value of the total energy of the ball.
B) The change in potential energy of the ball.
C) The value of the gravitational potential energy of the ball earth system.
D) The kinetic energy of the ball at some point in its motion if one of them is walking.

6. Two non-zero vectors where c is a scalar. If the two vectors

have opposite directions, then one of the following is true about c?
A) c is a positive number
B) c is a negative number
C) c = 1
D) c = 0

7. On which of the following does the induced emf in a coil NOT depend when a magnet is
inserted into it?
A) resistance of the coil
B) number of turns of the coil
C) speed approach of the magnet
D) magnetic moment of the magnet

8. A wave has a speed of 50m/s and a wavelength of 25,000m. What is the frequency of the
wave?
A) 2.0 x 10-3HZ
B) 5.0 x 10-2HZ
C) 6.0 x 101HZ
D) 1.8 x 106HZ

9. An oscillating system is used to create a succession of wave on a water surface. The rate of
wave generation is one every 0.33 seconds. What is the period of these wave?
A) 0.3 seconds
B) 1.0 seconds
C) 2.0 seconds
D) 3.0 seconds

10. A vector that represents the position of an object in relation to another object is called
A) unit vectors
B) position vectors
C) coplanar vectors
D) collinear vectors

11. In a reversible thermodynamic process, the system

A) is always close to equilibrium states
B) might never be close to any equilibrium states

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C) is close to equilibrium states only at the beginning and end
D) is close to equilibrium states throughout, except at the beginning and end

12. Points A and B are each a distance d from each of two equal and opposite charge as shown
below. What will be the work required to move a negative charge q from A to B?

A) zero

13. An air-filled parallel –plate capacitor has a capacitance of 1Pf. The plate separation is then
doubled and a wax dielectric is inserted, completely filling the space between the plates. As a
result, the capacitance becomes 2 Pf. What is the dielectric constant of the wax?
A) 8.0
B) 4.0
C) 2.0
D) 0.5

14. A step-up transformer is used to

A) increase the power
B) decrease the power
C) increase the voltage
D) decrease the voltage

15. A 220-V power line is protected by a 15-A fuse. What is the maximum number of “220V,
500W” light bulbs that can be operated at full brightness from this line?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8

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17. The coordinate of a particle in meters is given by X(t) = 25t – 3t3, where the time t is in
seconds. At what value of t will the particle become momentarily at rest?
A) 2.78s
B) 1.67s
C) 0.6s
D) 0.36s

18. A woman driving a 2000 kg car along a level road at 30m/s takes her foot off the gas to see
how far her car will roll before it slows to a stop. She discovers that it takes 150m.What is the
average force of friction acting on the car?
A) 9000N
B) 6000N
C) 3000N
D) 400N

19. The radius of the wheel shown below is 0.75m. What is its moment of inertia?

A) 2.25kgm2
B) 3.38kgm2
C) 6.75kgm2
D) 9.00kgm2

20. An ordinary refrigerator is turned on and its door is open in a thermally insulated kitchen.
What is the temperature of the room?
A) increases according to the first law of thermodynamics
B) decreases according to the first law of thermodynamics
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C) remains constant according to the first law of thermodynamics
D) remains constant according to the second law of thermodynamics

21. The length of an aluminium rod at a temperature of 20°c is 3m. What will be the ratio of
change in the length of the rod to its original length if its temperature is raised to 120°c? the
coefficient of linear expansion of aluminium is 3.31 x 10-5/K
A) 23%
B) 3.2%
C) 3%
D) 0.33%

22. A very large open tank is full of oil whose density is 800kg/m. if the absolute pressure at the
bottom of the tank is 1.81 x 105 Pa, then what is the depth of the oil? (Note that atmospheric
pressure is 1.01 x 105Pa)
A) 100.0m
B) 75.0m
C) 10.0m
D) 9.5m

23. A 1.5kg particle moves in the xy-plane with velocity m/s what is its

angular momentum when the position vector is ?

24. A 2kg object experiences two concurrent forces of 100N at 30° above the positive x-axis and
80N at 60° above the negative x-axis. What is the magnitude of acceleration of the object?
A) 68m/s2
B) 64 m/s2
C) 48 m/s2
D) 46 m/s2

25. A driver moving at a constant speed of 20m/s sees an accident up ahead and hits the brakes.
If the car decelerates at a constant rate of -5 m/s2 , how far does the car go before it comes to a
stop?
A) 120m
B) 100m
C) 40m

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D) 20m

26. As the wavelength of the radiation decreases, the intensity of the black body radiations
___________
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) First increases then decrease
D) First decreases then increase

27. A rectangular loop carrying a current is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is
parallel to one of its sides of the loop and it is in a plane of the loop. If a steady current is
established in the wire as shown in figure below ,the loop will

A) Remain stationary.
B) Move toward the wire.
C) Move away from the wire.
D) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire.

28. Which devices uses the principle of electromagnetic induction for its operation?
A) AC generator
B) moving coil meter
C) cathode ray tube
D) light emitting diode

29. An electron enters a region of uniform electric field of 5 x 103N/C. what is the force on the
electron?
A) 8 x 10-22N
B) 5.3 x 10-22N
C) 8 x 10-16N
D) 1.88 x 1022N

30. In the circuit shown below, what is the potential difference between points B and D?

A) 1V
B) 2V
C) 3V
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D) 4V

31. The planet Jupiter is about 318 times as massive as earth, yet on its surface you would weigh
only about 2.4 times your weight on earth. Why is this happened?
A) Your mass is 132.5 times less on Jupiter.
B) You are 132.5 times more weightless there.
C) Jupiter is significantly farther from the sun.
D) Jupiter‟s radius is about 11.5 times the earth‟s radius.

32. A uniform ball of radius r and mass m starts from rest and rolls down a frictionless inline of
height h. when the ball reaches the ground, how fast is it going?

33. A ladder of length 3m and mass 20 kg leans against a smooth, vertical wall so that the angle
between the wall and the ladder is 30°. What are the magnitudes of the normal forces at the
contact point on the wall (Nw) and at the contact point on the ground(Ng)?
A) Nw = 0 N, Ng = 200N
B) Nw = 200 N, Ng = 0N
C) Nw = 57.7 N, Ng = 200N
D) Nw = 200 N, Ng = 57.7N

34. A container resting on the floor of an elevator contains an incompressible fluid of density ρ.
When the elevator has an upward acceleration of magnitude „a‟ then what will be the pressure
difference between two points in the fluid separated by a vertical distance ∆h
A) ρaΔh
B) ρ(g + a)Δh
C) ρgΔh
D) ρgaΔh

35. If two particles have equal momenta, then which one of the following statements is TRUE
about their kinetic energies?
A) Their kinetic energies are always equal.
B) Their kinetic energies are never equal.
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C) Their kinetic energies are equal when their masses are the same.
D) Their kinetic energies are equal when the speed of one of the particle is half the speed of
the other and their masses are the same.

36. In Young‟s double slit experiment both the separation between the slits and the distance
between the slits and the screen are halved then, what is the fridge width?
A) halved
B) unchanged
C) zero
D) doubled

37. What is the capacitance of a capacitor that should be connected with 2 other capacitors

having capacitance of 4F and 8F all in series to produce an effective capacitance of ?

A) 12 μF
B) 10 μF
C) 8 μF
D) 4 μF

38. A particle of mass m is fired into a magnetic field of strength B at speed V. the particle
travels in a circular path inside the field with a radius r. which of the following expressions gives
the magnitude of the charge on the particle?

39. An alternating current is represented by I(t) = 10.0 Asin (100πt). What are the amplitude and
frequency of the alternating current?
A) 100A, 75Hz
B) 10.0A, 100Hz
C) 10.0A, 50Hz
D) 5.0A, 25Hz

40. A series RLC circuit has a resistance of 45Ω and an impedance of 75Ω . What average power
is delivered to this circuit when ΔVrms = 210V?
A) 573w
B) 353w
C) 255.4w
D) 237.6w
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41. A thin film of oil (n=1.25) is located on a smooth wet floor. When viewed perpendicular to
the floor, the film reflects most strongly red light at 640nm and reflects no blue light at 512nm.
How thick is the oil film?
A) 640nm
B) 612nm
C) 548nm
D) 512nm

42. Which one of the following changes to parallel plate capacitor would not increase energy
stored in the capacitor at a fixed voltage across the plates?
A) increasing the area of the plates
B) increasing the dielectric constant
C) decreasing the charges on the pates
D) increasing the distance between the plates

43. Suppose that a voltage source produces 240V for a moment. By what percentage does the
power output of 220V light bulb increases?
A) 38%
B) 36%
C) 19%
D) 18%

44. A wire carries a steady current of 2.4A. A straight section of the wire is 0.75 m long and lies
along the x-axis within a uniform magnetic field B = 1.6T along the +z axis. If the current is in
the +x direction. What is the magnetic force on the section of the wire?
A) 2.88j N
B) 1.62i N
C) (-1.62j) N
D) (-2.88k) N

45. If all the three resistors in the circuit shown in the figure have equal resistance , and the
current flowing into resistor B is 4A, then what is the current flowing into resistor G?

A) 16A
B) 8A
C) 2A
D) 1A

46. Refraction of a wave does NOT involve change in its

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A) speed
B) wavelength
C) frequency
D) speed and wavelength

47. Gas at a pressure P is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are doubled
and their speeds are half, then what will be the resulting pressure?
A) 2P
P/3
P/2
D) 3P

48. Water flows through a fire hose of diameter 6.35cm at a rate of 0.012m3/s. the fire hose ends
in a nozzle of inner diameter 2.20cm. What is the speed with which the water exits the nozzle?
A) 63.2m/s
B) 46.8m/s
C) 31.6m/s
23.4 m/s

49. A bullet of mass 10gm, moving horizontally, strikes and embeds itself in a box of mass 1kg
suspended from a light string as shown in the figure below. If the composite mass rises to a
height, h=0.45m, then what is the speed of the bullet before collision?

A) 303m/s
B) 300m/s
C) 90.9m/s
D) 90m/s

50. A rocket moving in free space has a speed of 3 x 103m/s relative to the earth. Its engines are
turned on and fuel is ejected in a direction opposite the rocket‟s motion at a speed of 5 x 103 m/s
relative to the rocket. What is the speed of the rocket relative to the Earth once the rocket's mass
is reduced to half its mass before ignition?
A) 7 x 103m/s
B) 5 x 103m/s
C) 4 x 103m/s
D) 2 x 103m/s

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Answer Key
1.D 11.A 21.D 31.D 41.A
2.A 12.A 22.C 32.A 42.C
3.C 13.B 23.A 33.C 43.C
4.C 14.C 24.B 34.B 44.D
5.D 15.C 25.C 35.C 45.B
6.B 16.D 26.A 36.B 46.C
7.A 17.B 27.D 37.A 47.C
8.A 18.B 28.A 38.D 48.C
9.D 19.C 29.C 39.C 49.A
10.A 20.D 30.B 40.D 50.D

PART TWO

Constant Symbol Value

Acceleration due to gravity g 10m/s 2

Permittivity of vacuum ε0 8.85 X 10-12F/m

Faraday‟s constant F 96500Cml-1
Charge of an electron e 1.6 x 10-19Coulomb
Universal gravitational constant G 6.67 x 10-19Coulomb
Pi ℼ 3.14159
Density of water p 1000kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure P 101.3kPa
Planck‟s constant h 6.63 x 10-34Js
Electron mass me 9.11 x 10-31
Sin 30° = cos 60° = 0.5
Sin 37° = cos 53° = 0.6
Sin 45° = cos 45° = 0.707
Sin 53° = cos 37° = 0.8
Sin 60° = cos 30° = 0.866
1/√2 = 0.707

1. The distance between two point charges is doubled. What will happen to the force of
interaction between the charges?
A) The force will be doubled.
B) The force will be reduced by half.
C) The force will be reduced by a factor of ¼.
D) The force will not be affected.

2. What does the slope of a velocity time graph represent?

A) distance

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B) acceleration
C) displacement
D) speed

3. Moving 2.5 x 10-6 coulomb of charge from point A to point B in an electric field requires 6.3 x
10-4 joule of work. The potential difference between points A and B is approximately
A) 4.0 x 10-3V
B) 2.5 x 10-2V
C) 1.6 x 10-19V
D) 1.0 x 10-14V

4. A transverse sinusoidal wave is traveling on a string. Which statement is correct about a point
on the string?
A) The point moves in the same direction as the wave.
B) The point moves in simple harmonic motion with a different frequency than that of the
wave.
C) The point moves in simple harmonic motion with the same angular frequency as the
wave.
D) The point moves in uniform circular motion with a different angular speed than the wave.

5. Two none zero vectors D and E have precisely equal magnitudes. For the magnitude of D + E
to be 3 times larger than the magnitude of D - E, what must be the angle between D and E?
A) 30°
B) 37°
C) 53°
D) 60°

6. Which statement is correct about the pressure under a fluid in a container?

A) It depends on the volume of the fluid.
B) It depends on the density of the fluid.
C) It depends on the shape of the container.
D) It is independent of the depth of the fluid.

7. A capacitor made of parallel plates is charged by connecting it to a battery. The distance

between the plates is much less than the surface area of each plate. After fully charged if the
plates are disconnected from the battery and then pulled apart a little, what will happen to the
total stored energy, the electric field, and the potential difference between the plates?
A) The electric field between the plates increase.
B) The potential difference between the plates remain the same.
C) The total energy stored in the capacitor increase.
D) The electric field, the potential difference and the stored energy remain the same.

8. Which one of the following statements is true about the motion of a particle in a circular path?
A) The centripetal acceleration is constant if the particle‟s speed is constant.
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B) The tangential acceleration can be perpendicular to the velocity vector of the particle.
C) The centripetal acceleration is always in the direction perpendicular to the velocity vector
of the particle.
D) The acceleration is always perpendicular to the velocity vector of the particle.

9. Two rectangular loops of wire lie in the plane of this paper as shown in the figure below, if the
current I in the outer loop is counter clockwise and increases with time, which one of the
following statements is correct about the current induced in the inner loop?

A) A current is induced in the inner loop in the clockwise direction.

B) A current is induced in the inner loop in the counter wise direction.
C) The induced current in the inner loop creates a magnetic field inside the area bounded by
the inner loop in the same direction of the magnetic field that the outer loop produces in this
same area.
D) It is zero.

10. Two men, A and B, are loading identical boxes onto a truck. A lifts his box staring up from
the ground to the bed of the truck, whereas B slides his box up a rough ramp to the truck, which
statement is correct about the change in the potential energy on the box earth system?
A) A and B change the potential energy by the same amount.
B) A changes more potential energy than B.
C) B changes more potential energy than A.
D) None of those statements is necessarily true because the force of friction and the angle of
the incline is unknown.

11. Two projectiles are fired from ground level at equal speed but different angles. One is fired at
an angle of 30 degrees and the other at 60 degrees. The projectile to hit the ground first will be
the one fired at (neglect air resistance)
A) 60 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) both hit at the same time
D) cannot be determined from the given condition.

12. A planet of mass m is circling a star in an elliptical orbital as shown below. Its velocity at
point A is 60,000m/s and rb = 8ra what is its velocity at point B?

A) 7,500m/s
B) 8,571m/s

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C) 60,000m/s
D) 788,000m/s

13. A small radio receiver uses a battery that delivers a constant current of 25mA for 3 hours.
Calculate the total charge delivered by the battery.
A) 1080000C
B) 270000
C) 540C
D) 270C

14. A cup of coffee at a temperature of 80°C is placed on table in a 20°C room. What happens to
the thermal energy and molecular motion of the coffee when it is left on the table?
A) The thermal energy decreases and the molecules move more slowly.
B) The thermal energy increases and the molecules move more slowly.
C) The thermal energy decreases and the molecules move faster.
D) The thermal energy increases and the molecules move faster.

A) -2
B) -1
C) 2
D) 3

16. A garden hose has and inside diameter of 16cm. the hose can fill a 10 litter bucket in 20
seconds. If the diameter of the nozzle is reduced to 8 cm
A) Water exists with a speed twice the speed inside the hose.
B) A 10 litter bucked can be filled in 10 seconds.
C) A 20 litter bucket can be filled in 40 seconds.
D) Water exists with a speed half the speed inside the hose.

17. A mass suspended from the end of a spring vibrates up and down 20 times in 36s. What are
the frequency and period of the vibration?
A) 0.55Hz, 1.8S
B) 0.67Hz, 1.5S
C) 0.0012Hz, 864S
D) 864Hz, 0.0012S

18. Determine the total impedance for the circuit shown below

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A) 0Ω
B) 4Ω
C) 27Ω
D) 31Ω

19. A hoop of mass M and radius R is at rest at the top of an incline plane of height h. the hoop
rolls down the plane without slipping. When the hoop reaches bottom, its angular momentum
about its center of mass is:
A) Mgh

20. What is the resistance of a copper cable if it has a cross sectional area of 1cm2 and a length of
2km? The resistivity of copper is 2 x 10-8Ωm.
A) 0.0004Ω
B) 0.004Ω
C) 0.04Ω
D) 0.4Ω

21. When a load of 500kg is hanging from a steel wire of length 3m and cross sectional area
0.20cm2, the wire stretches beyond its no load length. If the Young‟s modulus for the wire made
of steel is Y = 2x 1011 Pa, what is the change in length of the wire beyond its no load length?
A) 3.75mm
B) 2.75mm
C) 1.75mm
D) 0.75

22. As shown in Figure below, two blocks are connected by a string of negligible mass passing
over a pulley of radius r = 0.2m and moment of inertia I. The block on the frictionless incline is
moving with a constant acceleration a = 2.0m/s2 up along the incline. What is the moment of
inertia of the pulley?

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A) 0.8kgm2
B) 1.25kgm2
C) 4kgm2
D) 40kgm2

23. A table tennis ball which is spherical in shape has a diameter of 6 cm and average density of
0.400 g/cm3. What force is required to hold it completely submerged under water?
A) 0.68N downward
B) 0.68N upward
D) 1.13N downward
D) 1.13N upward

24. A viewing screen is separated from a double slit by 4.80m. The distance between the two
slits is 0.030mm. Monochromatic light is directed toward the double slit and forms and
interference pattern on the screen. The first dark fringe is 4.50 cm from the center line on the
screen. What is the wavelength of the light?
A) 1250nm
B) 7200nm
C) 2500nm
D) 5625nm

25. A horizontal pipe of 10cm in diameter has a smooth reduction to a pipe of 5cm in diameter.
If the pressure of the water in the larger pipe is 80kPa and the pressure in the smaller pipe is
6kPa, at what rate does the water flow through the smaller pipe?
A) 1.63m/s
B) 6.53m/s
C) 13.6m/s
D) 42.67m/s

26. An aluminium block of mass m1 = 3kg and a copper block of mass m2 = 5kg are connected by
a light string over a frictionless pulley. They sit on a steel surface as shown in figure below ,
where θ = 53°. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the steel surface and each block in 0.3.
if the blocks are released from rest what is the tension T in the string?

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A) 29.40N
B) 17.25N
C) 12.25N
D) 8.60N

27. An object of mass 3kg hangs from three light inextensible wires as shown in figure below.
Two of the wires make angles θ1 = 53° and θ2 = 37 ° with the horizontal. If the system is in
equilibrium, what will be the tensions T1 and T2 in the wires?

A) T1 = 18N and T2 = 24N

B) T1 = T2 = 18N
C) T1 = T2 = 24N
D) T1 = 24N and T2 = 18N

28. An object of mass m is hung from a spring and set into oscillation. The frequency of the
oscillation is measured and recorded as f. if the object of mass m is replaced with an object of
mass m is replaced with an object of mass 2m and set into oscillation, what will be the frequency
of the motion?

B) ƒ

D) 2ƒ

29. A placekicker must kick a football from a point which is at a distance of 36.0 m from the
goal. When kicked, the ball leaves the ground with a speed of 20.0m/s at an angle of 37° to the

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horizontal. If the ball hits the crossbar of the goal at a height h and bounces back what will be the
height of the crossbar?
A) 2.45m
B) 2.85
C) 3.00m
D) 3.15m

30. A body moving with constant acceleration covers the distance between two points 60m apart
in 5s. Its velocity as it passes the second point is 15m/s. what is the acceleration?
A) 3m/s2
B) 2.4m/s2
C) 1.8m/s2
D) 1.2m/s2

31. Which of the following combinations of properties would be most desirable for a heat sink in
a machine?
A) high specific heat and low conductivity.
B) low heat specific heat and low conductivity.
C) high specific heat and high conductivity.
D) low specific heat and low conductivity.

32. A 6V battery is connected across the primary coil of a transformer having 50 turns. If the
secondary coil of the transformer has 100 turns, what voltage appears across the secondary?
A) 24.0V
B) 12.0V
C) 6.00V
D) 3.00V

33. The change in entropy is zero for:

A) reversible isobaric processes.
B) reversible adiabatic processes.
C) reversible isothermal processes.
D) reversible processes during which no work is done.

34. Two particles with masses 2m and 3m are moving toward each other along the x axis with
the same initial speed v. Particle 2m is traveling to the left, and particle 3m is traveling to the
right. They undergo an elation glancing collision such that particle 2m is moving in the negative
y direction after the collision. What are the x component of the final velocity of particle 3m and
the kinetic energy of particle 2m, respectively?
A) 0.33v and 0.7mV2
B) 0.33v and 1.41mV2
C) 0.67v and 0.71mV2
D) 0.67v and 1.4mV2

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35. Two separate coherent sources produce waves whose wavelengths are 0.10m. which
statement is correct about points that are 3.2m away from one source?
A) constructive interference occurs if the points are 3.0m from the other source
B) constructive interference occurs if the points are 3.05m from the other source.
C) constructive interference occurs if the points are 2.95m from the other source.
D) destructive interference occurs if the points are 3.2m from the other source.

36. A coil formed by wrapping 50 turns of wire in the shape of a square is positioned in a
magnetic field so that the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle 37° with the direction of
the field. When the magnetic field is increased uniformly from 200 mT to 600mT in 4.00s, an
emf of magnitude 160.0 mv is induced in the coil. What is the total length of the wire in the coil?
A) 100m
B) 200m
C) 300m
D) 400m

37. The half-life of radium 224 is 3.5 days. What fraction of the sample remains undecided after
fourteen days? (if needed use ln2 = -ln(1/2) ≈ 0.693)
A) ½
B) ¼
C) 1/8
D) 1/16

38. Two positive charges of magnitude q are each a distance d from the origin A of a coordinate
system as shown below.
The magnitude of the electric field is minimum at point

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

39. If the terminals of a battery with zero internal resistance are connected across two identical
resistors in series, the total power delivered by the battery is 8 W. if the same is connected across
the same resistors in parallel, what is the total power delivered by the battery?
A) 2W
B) 4W
C) 16W
D) 32W

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40. Wire B has twice the length and twice the radius wire A. Both wires are made from the same
material. If wire A has a resistance R, what is the resistance of wire B?
A) 4R
B) 2R
C) R/2
D) R/4

41. The sound level at a distance of 4.00m from a source is 120dB. At what distance is the sound
level 100dB?
A) 0.40m
B) 4.80m
C) 40m
D) 48m

42. An ideal gas is at a temperature of 300k. if we wish to double the root mean square (rms)
speed of the molecules of the gas, to what value must we raise its temperature?
A) 450K
B) 600k
C) 800k
D) 1200k

43. Suppose that the index of refraction of a soap bubble film is 1.25, what is the minimum
thickness of the soap-bubble film that results in constructive interference in the reflected light if
the film is illuminated with light whose wavelength in free space is λ = 600nm?
A) 120nm
B) 150nm
C) 300nm
D) 450nm

44. A wire carries a steady current of 2.4A. A straight section of the wire is 0.75m long and lies
in xy-plane along the x-axis within a uniform magnetic field, B=1.6kT. If the current is in the
positive x direction, what is the magnetic force on the section of wire?
A) 2.88N, in the negative y direction.
B) 2.88N, in the positive y direction.
C) 3.84N, in the negative y direction.
D) 3.84N, in the positive y direction.

45. Two different capacitors of capacitance C1 = 2μF and C2 = 3μF are connected in series across
a 120V supply line. The charged capacitors are disconnected from the line and from each other,
and reconnected with terminals of like sign together. What will be the final charges on C1 and
C2 respectively?
A) 57.63μC and 86.4μC
B) 115.2μC and 127.8μC
C)144μC across each
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 HSBSS, 2016
D) 288μC across each

46. A glass flask whose volume is exactly 1,000cm3 at 0°C is totally filled with 1000cm3 of
mercury at this temperature. When flask and mercury are heated to 100°C, 15.2cm3 of mercury
overflow. If the coefficient of volume expansion of mercury is 1.82 x 10-4 per Celsius degree,
what should be the coefficient of volume expansion of the glass?
A) 1.52 x 10-4/C°
B) 1.82 x 10-4/C°
C) 3.00 x 10-4/C°
D) 1.00 x 10-5/C°

47. A heat engine is being designed to have a Carnot efficiency of 65.0% when operating
between two energy reservoirs. If the temperature of the cold reservoir is 20.0°C, what must be
the temperature of the hot reservoir?
A) 570C
B) 3100C
C) 5640C
D) 8070C

48. In Figure given below, the current in the 16Ω resistor is

A) 0.64A
B) 0.15A
C) 0.49A
D) 1.28A

49. A 10.0m uniform ladder weighing 200N rests against a frictionless wall. The ladder makes
53° angles with the horizontal, if the ladder is just on the verge of slipping when a 600.0N
firefighter is 6.00m along the ladder from the bottom, what is the coefficient of static friction
between the ladder and ground?
A) 0.3240
B) 0.4313
C) 0.5750
D) 0.7667

50. A block of mass 1.6kg is attached to a horizontal spring that has a force constant of 200N/m.
The spring is compressed 2.0cm and is then released from rest. At what speed will the block pass
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 HSBSS, 2016
through the equilibrium position if a constant friction force of 10.0N retards its motion from the
moment it is released?
A) 75m/s
B) 50m/s
C) 70m/s
D) 55m/s

Answer Key
1.C 11.B 21.A 31.A 41.C
2.B 12.A 22.A 32.B 42.D
3.B 13.D 23.A 33.C 43.D
4.C 14.A 24.B 34.B 44.B
5.D 15.C 25.C 35.A 45.A
6.B 16.B 26.B 36.D 46.C
7.B 17.A 27.D 37.B 47.A
8.C 18.B 28.A 38.A 48.C
9.A 19.D 29.B 39.D 49.B
10.A 20.D 30.D 40.C 50.D

PART THREE
Constant Symbol Value
Acceleration due to gravity g 10m/s 2

Permittivity of vacuum ε0 8.85 X 10-12cuoulomb

Charge of an electron e 6.67 x 10-11Nm2Kg2
Universal gravitational constant G 1000kg/m3
Density of water p 6.63 x 10-34J.S
Planck‟s constant h 9.11 x 10-31Kg
Electron mass me 1.602 x 10-19C
Elementary (ubit) charge
Sin 30° = cos 60° = 0.5
Sin 37° = cos 53° = 0.6
Sin 45° = cos 45° = 0.707
Sin 53° = cos 37° = 0.8
Sin 60° = cos 30° = 0.866

1. Which one of the following experimental errors can be reduced by taking repeated
measurements?
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 HSBSS, 2016
A) parallel errors
B) systematic
C) random errors
D) zeros errors

2. A teacher gave a student a book whose thickness is 4.30cm and instructed him to measure the
thickness of the book with vernier Calliper. The student took four measurements with average
value of 4.33cm each and a standard deviation of 0.04, respectively. Which one of the following
is the uncertainty in the accuracy of the student‟s measurement?
A) 0.03cm
B) 0.04cm
C) 0.035cm
D) 0.30cm

A) 90°
B) 60°
C) 37°
D) 30°

4. The magnitude of two vectors A and B are 12 units and 5 units, respectively. Which of the
following is NOT the possible value for the magnitude of the resultant vector A + B ?
A) 60units
B) 17units
C) 13units
D) 7units

5. What is the vector product A x B of two vectors A = 7i + 4j – 8k and B = 3i – 2j + 5k

A) 36i + 11j – 2k
B) 4i + 59j – 26k
C) -4i + 59j + 26K
D) -36i – 11j + 2k

6. Which of the following statement is correct ?

A) An object moving toward the east cannot have an acceleration toward the west.
B) If the average velocity of an object is zero in some time interval, the average speed of the
object for that time interval is also zero
C) The velocity time graph of an object moving with constant acceleration is parallel to the
time axis.
D) An object having zero velocity can have acceleration different from zero.

7. A car travels along a straight line at a constant speed of 20m/s for a distance d and then
another distance d in the same direction at a constant speed of 36 km/hr. what is the average
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speed for the entire trip?
A) 23km/hr
B) 48km/hr
C) 54km/hr
D) 60km/hr

8. If a long distance jumper athlete leaves the ground at an angle of 370 above the horizontal
surface at a speed of 10.0m/s, how far does he jump in the horizontal direction?
A) 4.8m
B) 6m
C) 9.6m
D) 9m/s

9. Women is rotating a bucket of water in a vertical circle of radius 0.9m. The mass of bucket
and water is 5kg. What is the bucket‟s minimum speed at the top of circle if no water is to spill
out?
A) 0
B) 1m/s
C) 3m/s
D) 9m/s

10. A force of magnitude 20N is applied to a block of mass 2kg that lies on a rough, horizontal
surface as shown in figure below. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the bock and
surface is 0.4. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the block?

A) 10m/s2
B) 5.2m/s2
C) 4m/s2
D) 2.8m/s2

11. A hard ball moving on a horizontal frictionless surface with a speed of 5m/s in the positive x
direction strikes a stationary hard ball of the same mass. After the collision, the first ball moves
with a speed of 4m/s along a direction that makes an angle of 0.37° with its initial direction of
motion. What is the struck ball‟s speed and the smallest angle between its direction of motion
and the positive x axis after the collision?
A) 3m/s and 53.0°
B) 3m/s and 37.0°
C) 4m/s and 53.0°
D) 4m/s and 37.0°

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 HSBSS, 2016

12. A man standing on frictionless surface continuously fired 120 bullets horizontally in 1min
using a machine gun. If each bullet has a mass of 10g and leaves the muzzle of the gun with a
speed of 800m/s, what is the average force exerted by the gun on the man?
A) 8N
B) 16N
C) 960N
D) 16000N

13. A highway curve is banked (inclined) in such a way that a car travelling at a speed of
13.5m/s can round the curve without skidding, in the absence of friction. If the banking angle is
300, what is the radius of the curve?
A) 10.5m
B) 21.0m
C) 31.7m
D) 36.7m

14. A car of mass 1500 kg is travelling at a uniform velocity of 30m/s due east. The driver
applies the brakes to slow down the car to a velocity of 10m/s due east. What is the work done in
slowing down the car?
A) 15KJ
B) 300KJ
C) 600KJ
D) 750KJ

15. Which one of the following statements is true about a spring mass system oscillation on a
horizontal frictionless surface?
A) The kinetic and potential energies are equal at all times.
B) The kinetic and potential energies are both constant.
C) The maximum potential energies is achieved when the mass passes through its
equilibrium position.
D) The maximum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy are equal.

16. A block of mass 10kg is pulled up a rough inclined plane with a force of 100N parallel to the
inclined plane. The inclined plane makes an angle of 370 with the horizontal. At the instant when
the force is applied the block has a speed of 1.5m/s. if the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.40,
and the block is pulled up 5m, what is the change in the kinetic energy of the block?
A) 20J
B) 30J
C) 40J
D) 45.5J

17. The particles shown in figure below are connected by rectangular rigid nods of negligible
mass. The origin of the xy plane is the center of the rectangle. The system rotates in the xy plane
about the z axis with an angular speed of 6.00rad/s. what is the rotational kinetic energy of the
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 HSBSS, 2016
system?

A) 2574J
B) 2340J
C) 1287J
D) 1170J

18. Two blocks are connected by a string of negligible mass passing over a pulley of radius r =
0.2 m and moment of inertia I as shown on figure below. The block on the horizontal frictionless
surface is moving with a constant acceleration = 2.0m/s2. If the pulley axis is frictionless, the
string is inextensible and does not slip on pulley, what should be the moment of inertial of the
pulley?

A) 0.40kgm2
B) 0.80kgm2
C)0.6 kgm2
D)0.2 kgm2

19. An object with a mass of m = 3.0kg is attached to the free end of a light string wrapped
around a pulley of radius R = 0.50m and moment of inertia I = 0.75kgm2. The pulley if free to
rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed frictionless axis passing through its cernter as shown in
figure. The suspended object is released from rest at 3.60m above the floor. What is the angular
momentum of the pulley at the time when the object strikes the floor?

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 HSBSS, 2016

A) 4.5kgm2/s
B) 9.0kgm2/s
C) 12.3kgm2/s
D) 18kgm2/s

20. Which one of the following statements is not correct about a particle that is in equilibrium?
A) It can have a velocity different from zero.
B) Its velocity can be equal to zero.
C) It can be under the action of more than one force.
D) It can have an acceleration different from zero.

21. A uniform bar of length 2.0m and mass 30.0kg is supported by two massless ropes which are
attached to a fixed horizontal bar, as shown in figure. What are the tensions in each rope when a
700N weight is suspended at d = 0.50m from the left end of the bar?

A) T1 = 675N and T2 = 325N

B) T1 = 325N and T2 = 675N
C) T1 = 500N and T2 = 500N
D) T1 = 5255N and T2 = 175N

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 HSBSS, 2016
22. Which one of the following laws best describes the behaviour of elastic materials?
A) Gay Lussae‟s law
B) Hook‟s law
C) Newton‟s second law
D) Newton‟s law of gravitation

23. Two solid spheres made of gold and silver having equal masses are suspended by strings and
fully submerged in a tank of water. Given that the density of gold is greater than that if silver,
which one of the following statement is true?
A) The buoyant force on each sphere is the same.
B) The volume of water displaced by the gold sphere is larger than that of the silver sphere.
C) The tension in the string supporting each sphere is the same.
D) The buoyant force on the silver sphere is greater than that on the gold sphere.

24. The cross section areas of the small and large pistons of a hydraulic lift shown in figure are
4.0cm2 and 0.02m2, respectively. What is the magnitude of the force that must be applied to the
small piston to lift a weight w = 15,000N placed on the larger piston?

A) 3x 102N
B) 2x 104N
C)3 x 105N
D) 3 x 106N

25. An incompressible fluid flows through a horizontal pipe whose diameter varies along its
length. The sum of the kinetic energy per unit volume and pressure of the fluid at different
section of the pipe would________
A) depend on the length of the pipe.
B) Increase as the pipe diameter increases.
C) Increase as the pipe diameter decreases.
D) Remain the same as the pipe diameter changes.

26. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of an object of mass m = 1Kg by 1
Kelvin is known as___________
A) specific heat capacity
B) heat capacity
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 HSBSS, 2016
C) expansion coefficient
D) internal energy

27. A given weight of gas has a temperature of 27°C and volume V. Keeping the pressure
constant, the volume is increased to 3V by varying the temperature. What is fine temperature of
the gas?
A) 81°C
B) 546°C
C) 627°C
D) 900°C

28. The first law of thermodynamics takes the form dU = dW. This equation is valid fi the
process is_______________
A) isobaric
B) isochoric
C) isothermal
D) adiabatic

29. An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal process starting with a pressure of 2 x 105 pa and a
volume of 6cm3. Which one of the following might be the pressure and volume of the final state?
A) 4 x 105pa and 4cm3
B) 4 x 105pa and 3cm3
C) 5 x 105pa and 3 cm3
D) 105pa and 10cm3

30. Which one of the following is NOT correct?

A) The entropy of the universe increases in all natural processes.
B) No heat energy operating in a cycle can absorb energy from a reservoir and use it entirely
to do work.
C) When a system undergoes a change in state, the change in its internal energy is the
difference between the energy transferred to it by heat and the work done on it.
D) The entropy of an isolated system reaches its maximum value when the system is in
equilibrium state.

31. The position of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is given by an expression x
=A cos (ωt + Φ), where A is the amplitude of the oscillatioin, t is time, ω is angular frequency,
and Φ is the phase constant. If Φ = ℼ /2 , what will be the sign of the particle‟s position and
velocity at t=7T/8, were T is the period of oscillation?
A) The position is positive, and the velocity is negative.
B) The position and velocity are both positive.
C) The position and velocity are both negative.
D) The position is negative and the velocity is positive.

32. If a long rope of uniform linear density is hung from a ceiling and waves are sent up the rope
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 HSBSS, 2016
from its lower end, which one of the following is true about the speed of the ascending waves?
A) The speed decreases as the waves ascend.
B) The speed increases as the waves ascend.
C) The waves ascend with a uniform speed.
D) The speed of the waves is larger around the middle of the rope than around the beginning
and end.

33. A given minimum point (trough) of a sinusoidal wave is traveling 480 cm long a rope in 12s.
If the oscillator that generates the wave completes 48 vibrations in 30s, what is the wave length
of the wave?
A) 25m
B) 15m
C) 0.25m
D) 0.15m

34. A wave traveling from a medium of index of refraction n1 toward a medium of index of
refraction n2 undergoes partly transmission and partly reflection. If n2 is greater than n1 which one
of the following statements is not correct?
A) The speed of the wave in the medium with reflective index n1 is smaller than with n2
B) The incident and the reflected waves are in phase.
C) The angle of reflection is the same as the angle of incidence.
D) The reflection angle is less than the incidence angle.

35. In Young‟s double slit experiment interference pattern which one of the following activities
move the successive bright fringes farther apart?
A) Decreasing the wave length of the light.
B) Decreasing the distance between the viewing screen and the double slit.
C) Increasing the slit spacing.
D) Decreasing the slit spacing.

36. Which one of the following statement is correct?

A) The electric field strength due to two point charges of equal magnitude and the same sign
is zero only at one point on the line joining the two charges.
B) If a point charge of mass m is released from the rest in uniform electric field, it will move
along a line of force with uniform speed.
C) The variation of the strength of the electric field due to an electric dipole is inversely
proportional with the square of the distance from its center of mass.
D) An electric dipole moment p in a uniform external electric field E is in stable equilibrium
if p and E are in opposite directions.

37. In a certain region of space, a uniform electric field is directed in the positive x direction. If a
particle with negative charge is carried from x = 20cm to x = 60cm, what can we conclude about
the electric potential and the electric potential energy of the charge-field system?
A) The electric potential at x = 20cm is larger than that at x = 60cm.

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 HSBSS, 2016
B) The electric potential at x = 20cm is the same as that at x = 60cm.
C) The electric potential energy decrease.
D) The electric potential energy increase.

38. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of 10μF. If the distance between the plates is
doubled, keeping all other quantities constant, what is the new capacitance of the capacitor?
A) 0.2 μF
B) 5 μF
C) 10 μF
D) 20 μF

39. If several resistors are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is

A) greater than any of the resistances in the group.
B) is equal to the average resistances of the group.
C) less than any of the resistances in the group.
D) equal to the sum of the resistances in the group.

40. In aluminium and copper wires with circular cross sections have equal length and equal
resistance, then the ratio of the radius of aluminium to that of copper should be the same as that
of the________
A) ratio of the resistivity of aluminium to copper
B) ratio of the resistivity of copper to aluminium
C) square root of the ratio of the resistivity of aluminium to copper
D) square root of the ratio of the resistivity of copper to aluminium

41. In the circuit shown below, what is the potential difference between point b and a?

A) 19.2V
B) 24.0V
C) 13.0V
D) 12.0V

42. Which of the following statements is correct about the effect and formation of field?
A) A magnetic field exerts a nonzero force on a stationary charge object.

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 HSBSS, 2016
B) A magnetic field exerts a nonzero force on a conducting wire placed in the field.
C) A uniform magnetic field can be created at all points around a long current carrying wire.
D) A magnetic field can be created in the space surrounding any charged object that is in
motion.

43. An electron moving at a speed of 1.5 x 107m/s enters a region of uniform magnetic field of
magnitude 2 x 10-3T, direction perpendicular to the field. The path followed by the electron is
circular. What is the radius of the circular path?
A) 0.43cm
B) 4.3cm
C) 43cm
D) 430cm

44. If a wire carrying current in the plane of this paper toward the top of the page experiences a
magnetic force toward the right edge of the page, what will be the direction of the magnetic field
causing this force?
A) In the plane pf the page and toward the left edge.
B) In the plane pf the page and toward the bottom edge.
C) Perpendicular and directed out of the plane of the page.
D) Perpendicular and directed in to the plane of the page.

45. A square flat loop of wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field that is in the y direction. The
magnetic flux through the loop is a maximum if the plane of the loop is in the
A) xy plane
B) xz plane
C) yz plane
D) inclined 45° with respect to the xy plane

46. Which one of the following actions increases the magnetic energy density in the interior of a
very long current carrying solenoid?
A) Increasing the number of turns per unit length of the solenoid.
B) Increasing the cross section area of the solenoid.
C) Increasing the length of the solenoid keeping the number of turns per unit length fixed.
D) Decreasing the cross section area of the solenoid.

47. Figure below shows a rectangular loop of wire of width L and resistance R. one end of the
loop is in a uniform magnetic field of strength B directed perpendicular in to the plane of the
page, the loop is pulled to the right at a constant speed v. what are the magnitude and direction of
the induced current in the loop?

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 HSBSS, 2016
A) I = BLvR and clockwise
B) I = BLv/R and clockwise
C) I = BLvR and counter clockwise
D) I = BLv/R and counter clockwise

48. A series RLC circuit has a total impedance of 75.0Ω. If the resistance is R = 45.0Ω and the
average power delivered to the circuit is P = 352.8 W, what is the root mean square value of the
ac voltage source?
A) 83V
B) 116V
C) 210V
D) 297V

49. Which of the following phenomena most clearly demonstrates the wave nature of electrons?
A) The photoelectric effect
B) Blackbody radiation
C) The Compton effect
D) Diffraction of electrons by crystals

50. When the radioactive element 144Nd60 decays to 140Ce58, which one of the following particles is
emitted?
A) A beta particle
B) An alpha particle
C) a proton
D) a gamma ray

Answer Key
1.C 11.A 21.B 31.A 41.C
2.B 12.A 22.B 32.A 42.B
3.D 13.C 23.D 33.C 43.B
4.A 14.C 24.A 34.A 44.C
5.B 15.D 25.D 35.C 45.B
6.D 16.C 26.A 36.A 46.A
7.B 17.B 27.A 37.D 47.B
8.C 18.A 28.D 38.B 48.C
9.C 19.B 29.B 39.C 49.D
10.B 20.D 30.B 40.C 50.B

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 HSBSS, 2016

PART FOUR

1. A man is standing on a spring scale in an elevator. When the elevator is at rest, the scale reads
560N. When the elevator stars to move, the scale reads 600N. The elevator has
A) An upward acceleration
B) A constant down ward speed
C) A constant upward speed
D) A constant upward speed

2. What is the necessary and sufficient condition for conservation of linear momentum?
A) The presence of more linear than non linear forces in the system.
B) Net force on the system is zero.
C) The presence of only non-linear forces.
D) Internal forces exceed external forces.

3. Which statement is wrong about units and dimensions?

A) Two quantities can have the same units but different dimensions.
B) Two quantities can have the same dimensions but different units.
C) It is always possible to add two numbers that have the same units.
D) There are quantities that have no units and dimension.

4. An airplane flies at speed of 720.0 km/hr at 37° North of west direction. How far does the
plane travel to the west in 1 hour?
A) 432km
B) 720km
C) 576km
D) 504km

5. Abrehet (A), Bekele(B) and Chaltu(C) are pulling a box horizontally with

forces , respectively as shown below, which statement is correct if the box is

in equilibrium?

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 HSBSS, 2016

6. Determine the torque in Nm due to a force F =(2i – 3j + 4k)N acting at point r=(3i + 2j + 3k)m
about the origin?
A) 6i – 6j + 12K
B) -6i + 6j + 12k
C) 17i - 6j – 13k
D) -17i + 6j + 13k

7. An airplane travelled from Addis Ababa to Mekele, 780km in 45minutes. What was it average
speed?
A) 0.28m/s
B) 1040km/hr
C) 17.3m/min
D) 585km/hr

8. An example of a body moving with constant speed but still accelerating is

A) a body moving on a straight road.
B) a body moving on a straight railway track
C) a body moving in a circular path
D) a body falling in a viscous fluid.

9. A student moves along the boundary of a square field of side 10m in 40sec. if he starts from
one end of the corners of the square what will be the magnitude of the displacement of the
student at the end of 2 minutes and 20 seconds from his initial position?
A) 10m

C) 40m
D) 30m

10. The graph below illustrates the position and time for a cat that runs to catch a rat and then
returns with it. The cat caught the rat after 2 seconds. What was the cat‟s average speed as it
returned with rate?

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 HSBSS, 2016

A) its average return speed was 2m/s.

B) its average return speed was 4m/s.
C) its average return speed was 0.7m/s.
D) it average return speed was 0.9m/s.

11. A uniform 6m long and 600N beam, rest on two supports as shown. The forces exerted on
the beam by the right support B is closes to:

A)75N
B) 240N
C) 400N
D) 320N

12. A rod PQ is attached at P to a vertical wall, as shown in the figure below. The length of the
rod is 1.8m. The weight W of the rod acts at 0.60m from P. the rod is kept horizontal and in
equilibriums by a wire attached to Q and to the wall at R. The wire provides a force F on the rod
of 50N at 30° to the horizontal. By taking moments about P determine the weight W of the rod.

A) 130N
B) 150N
C) 75N
D) 50N

13. A large mass (A and a small mass (B) are pushing one another apart, as shown in the figure

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 HSBSS, 2016
below. The small mass moves away at a velocity of 20m/s to the right. What is the recoil velocity
of the large mass?

A) -20m/s
B) 8m/s
C) 20m/s
D) -8m/s

14. Find the distance of the center of mass of the system shown in the diagram from point A. The
rod is mass less

A) 3.73m
B) 2.09m
C) 2.45m
D) 5.86m

15. The area under a force versus distance graph represents

A) acceleration
B) the change in energy|
C) the change in momentum
D) work done

16. A net external non zero force acts on a particle that is moving along a straight line which one
of the following statements is correct?
A) The velocity, but not the kinetic energy of the particle is changing.
B) Both the velocity and kinetic energy of the particle are changing.
C) The kinetic energy but not the velocity of the particle is changing.
D) The momentum is conserved.

17. Which statement is correct about conservative and dissipative force?

A) The work done by conservative forces is path dependent.
B) The work done along a closed path by non-conservative forces is non zero.
C) Gravitational force is an example of non-conservative force.
D) Friction is an example of conservative force.

18. The rotational analogue of mass is

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 HSBSS, 2016
A) moment of inertia
B) torque
C) angular momentum
D) angular acceleration

19. A fly wheel is rotating with an angular velocity of 2.0rad/s acted by an acceleration of 1/ℼ
rad/s2. How long will it take to complete three revolutions?
A) 0.5ℼsec
B) ℼsec
D) 2ℼsec
D) 2ℼsec2

20. If the impulse of a rotating disc is non zero what can you conclude?
A) The change in linear momentum is zero.
B) The torque acting on object is constant.
C) Impulse of the disc equals its moment of inertia.
D) The change in angular momentum is non zero.

21. The number of joules of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a body by 1k is
A) heat capacity
B) specific heat capacity
C) expansion coefficient
D) calorific value

22. A simple pendulum is made using a long thin metal wire. What happens to the period of the
pendulum when the temperature drops?
A) increase
B) remain the same
C) decrease
D) period of oscillation has random dependence on temperature.

23. Pressure at the bottom of a liquid column is independent of:

A) shape of the column
B) the density of the fluid
C) the depth of the point
D) the acceleration due to gravity.

24. The definition of Young‟s modulus is given by

A) force per unit area
B) ratio of strain to stress
C) ratio of stress to strain
D) force per unit elongation

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25. A water pipe has a diameter of 5.0cm in the in let side and 1.5cm in the out let side. Water
flows at 0.50m3 per minute at the in let paint. What is the speed of the water at the out let point?
A) 46.99m/s
B) 13.33m/s
C) 74.1m/s
D) 148.1m/s

26. A metal ball has a diameter that is slightly greater than the diameter of a hole that has been
cut in to a metal plate. The coefficient of linear expansion for the metal from which the ball is
made is greater than that for the metal of the plate. Which one of the following procedures can be
used to make the ball pass through the hole?
A) raise the temperatures of the ball and the plate by the same amount.
B) heat the ball and cool the plate.
C) lower the temperatures of the ball and the plate by the same amount.
D) there is no way of passing the ball through the hole.

27. A billiard ball of radius 4cm is falling through a liquid of viscosity 0.985 at a velocity of
2.5m/s the drag force on the ball is
A) 0.591ℼN
B) 0.118ℼN
C) 1.82ℼN
D) 0.059ℼN

28. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) Elastic materials retain their shape after deformation.
B) Plastic materials can recover the original size or shape after being distorted.
C) Plastic materials change their shape by pressure.
D) Elastic materials cannot recover the original size or shape after being distorted.

29. Two bodies that are separately in thermal equilibrium with their body must be in thermal
equilibrium with each other. This statement is statement of
A) The first law of thermodaynamics.
B) The zeroth law of thermodynamics.
C) The second law of thermodynamics.
D) The third law of thermodynamics.

30. A device for transforming heat energy to mechanical energy is referred to as

A) transformer
B) Refrigerant
C) generator
D) engine

31. Three resistors connected in series have individual voltages labelled,Δv1, Δv2 and
Δv3 respectively. Which of the following expresses the value of the voltage ΔvT taken over the
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three resistors together?

32. Which instrument should ideally have zero resistance?

A) Wheatstone bridge
B) Oscilloscope
C) voltmeter
D) Ammeter

33. What fundamental frequency can a string vibrate at if it is 30cm long and the velocity of
traveling waves along the string is 120m/s?
A) 400Hz
B) 600Hz
C) 800Hz
D) 200Hz

34. The hearing curve shown below indicates the vibration of the threshold of hearing with
frequency. The ear is most sensitive at the point indicated by

A) A
B) C
C) B
D) D

35. A wavelength is
A) A line that represents the direction of propagation of light.

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B) The minimum distance between two points that are in phase.
C) The locus of all points of a travelling wave that are in phase.
D) The number of waves crossing a given plane in a unit time.

36. The viewed in white light soup bubbles show color because of
A) interference
B) dispersion
C) scattering
D) diffraction

37. In the sketch below, which best describes the location of the negative charges (electrons)
when a negatively charged rod is brought near but not touching the conducting sphere?

A) C
B) D
C) A
D) B

38. What is the potential (V) at a distance of 10m from a charge of +5.0C?
A) –4.45 x 109V
B) -0.5V
C) +4.45 x 109V
D) +0.5V

39. A positive charge of 1.0 x 10-4C is on the negatively charged plate of a parallel plate
capacitor as shown below. If the potential(V) on the top plate is +10,000V and that of the bottom
plate is -10,000V, how much work (w) is required to move the charge from the bottoms to the
top plate?

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 HSBSS, 2016
A) 2.0J
B) 1.0J
C) zero
D) 2.0 x 104

40. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about galvanometer?

A) it is used to measure small amount of current.
B) it has infinite resistance
C) it can be used to measure voltage if shunted with large load in series.
D) its working principle is the same as that of the electric motor.

41. The activity of a radioactive source falls to one sixteenth of its original value in 32 minutes.
What is the half-life in minutes of this decay process?
A) 2min
B) 8min
C) 4min
D) 16min

42. Which statements is Not correct about emission from radioactive isotopes?
A) Alpha particles are positively charged and less penetrating than beta and gamma.
B) Beta particles are negatively charged and more penetrating than alpha particles.
C) Alpha emissions are least influenced by magnetic field.
D) the most penetrating emissions are gamma particles.

43. The torque experienced by a current carrying loop, in an external, magnetic field is:
A) Independent of the number of turns of the loop.
B) Independent of the current in the loop.
C) Dependent on the orientation of the loop.
D) Dependent on magnetic field generated according to Lenz‟s law.

44. Two long wires of the same length and cross sectional area carry the same amount of current.
Which one of the following statements is correct about the magnetic field and the magnetic
forces on the wires?
A) The magnetic field is zero at the midpoint between the wires when the currents are in the
same direction.
B) The force is attractive between the wires when they carry current in opposite direction.
C) The magnetic fields between the wires reinforce each other when the currents are in the
same direction.
D) The magnetic field due to one is proportional to the current through the other wire.

45. Self-inductance is a quantity that describes

A) The number of turns in a circuit.
B) The induction of tan electric field by an AC current in a lone coil.

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C) The induction of ta magnetic field by an AC current in alone coil.
D) The steady state current in a coil.

46. Which conversion process forms the bases for the function of an electric generator?
A) Alternating current to direct.
B) Mechanical energy to electrical.
C) Electrical energy to mechanical.
D) Low voltage to high voltage or vice versa.

47. What is the change in magnetic flux in a coil of area 5m2 as its orientation relative to the
perpendicular of uniform 3.0T magnetic field changes from 45° to 90°?
A) 0Wb
B) -11Wb
C) 7.5Wb
D) 11Wb

48. A simple transformer is illustrated in the figure below, why is it that the core is laminated?

A) To increase the induced current in the primary coil.

B) To increase the induced current in the secondary coil.
C) To avoid heat exchange between the primary and secondary coils.
D) To reduce the loss in power in the core due to eddy currents.

49. A common unit of energy in atomic physics is

A) Plank‟s constant
B) Electron volt
C) De Broglie wavelength
D) Uncertainty principle

50. In photo electric effect, the energy of photoelectrons is proportional to the

A) Frequency of light
B) Intensity of light
C) Speed of light
D) Absorbance of the metal

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Answer Key
1.A 11.C 21.A 31.A 41.C
2.B 12.C 22.C 32.C 42.C
3.C 13.D 23.A 33.D 43.C
4.C 14.A 24.A 34.B 44.A
5.B 15.D 25.A 35.B 45.C
6.C 16.B 26.C 36.B 46.B
7.B 17.B 27.A 37.D 47.B
8.C 18.A 28.A 38.C 48.C
9.B 19.C 29.B 39.A 49.B
10.D 20.D 30.D 40.C 50.A

PART FIVE

1. The range of cannon-ball fired horizontally from a laboratory table is equal to 8/3 times the
height of the table. What is the direction of velocity vector of the projectile as it strikes the
ground?
A. 45° from the horizontal
B. 53° from the horizontal
C. 60° from the horizontal

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D. 37° from the horizontal

2. Galileo carried out a „thought‟ experiment on motion. The line between A and B represents a
surface and the center of the ball is placed at A. what would happen in each of the three
situations shown in the figure below, without friction when the ball is released?

A. The ball would never reach point B in all instances.

B. The ball would reach B in all instances even if point B keeps on receding to infinity in (c).
C. The ball would reach point B in (a) and (b) and not in (c).
D. The ball would reach point B only in (a).

3. A uranium atom initially at rest has a mass of 2 units and spontaneously disintegrated into two
fragments. One of the fragments has a mass of 0.8 units and moves at a speed of 24m/s as shown
in figure below. What is the speed of the second fragments?

A. 25.6m/s
B. 21.3m/s
C. 16m/s
D. 14.8m/s

4. A 1kg object explodes and breaks up into three pieces. One piece has a mass of 400g and has a
velocity of (15i + 10j)m/s. a second piece has a mass of 250g and has a velocity of (25i –
10j)m/s. What is the velocity of the third piece?
A. (-4.3i + 35j)m/s
B. (-35i – 4.3j)m/s
C. (35i – 4.3j)m/s
D. (-35i – 4.3j)m/s

5. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Dynamic equilibrium is an equilibrium in which a body is moving at steady velocity
without net force or torque acting on it.
B. Static equilibrium is an equilibrium in which a body is at rest without net force or torque
acting on it.
C. Couples are set of forces with a resultant torque but no net force.
D. The necessary and sufficient condition for equilibrium of a rigid body is to have the sum
of all torques acting on it is zero.

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6. A spring with a spring constant of 300N/m is stretched 20cm in 2 seconds. What is the power
applied to stretch the spring?
A) 3W
B) 6W
C) 30KW
D) 60KW

7. A 50KW machine is used to lift heavy objects to the top of a building under construction. If
this machine is replace with a new machine of 100KW power, then which of the following
statements is not true about the new machine?
A. The new machine can raise objects with the same mass at twice the speed of the old
machine.
B. The new machine can raise objects with twice as much mass at the same speed as the old
machine.
C. The new machine takes twice as much time to do the same work as the old machine.
D. The new machine can do twice as much work in the same time as the old machine.

8. Which of the following is correct about a work done for dissipative force?
A. Path dependent
B. The same as the loss in kinetic energy.
C. The same as the gain in potential energy.
D. The same as the potential energy stored in spring.

9. A disk of radius R with uniform distribution of mass M rotates about an axis perpendicular to
its plane at the rim with angular speed ω the moment of inertia of the disc about the axis through
the center is(1/2)MR2. What is the kinetic energy of the disk?
A. (1/4)MR2ω2
B. (1/3)MR2ω2
C. (1/2)MR2ω2
D. (3/4)MR2ω2

10. A pulley is rotating at a frequency of 20rev/min. a motor speeds up the wheel so that 30s
later the frequency of the motion is 60rev/min. How far a point on the pool 0.30m from its center
will has travelled during that period?
A) 125.7m
B) 0.13m
C) 37.68m
D) 4.2m

11. A block of mass m=10kg placed on a frictionless incline plane connected to mass m2=15kg
using a string of negligible mass passing over a pulley of moment of inertia I=0.25kgm2 and
radius R=10cm as shown in the diagram. What is the torque on the pulley?

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A. 2.5 Nm
B. 10 Nm
C. 15 Nm
D. 12.5 Nm

12. Which of the following statements is correct about the first condition of equilibrium?
A. The net force on an object must be zero.
B. The sum of all torques must be zero.
C. Clockwise moments should balance counter clockwise moments.
D. The torque produced by a force should be perpendicular to the force.

13. A 4m long uniform board of mass 10kg hinged on the ground at one end is hanging by a
string at the other end. A block of mass 8kg is placed at 1m from the hinge on the ground as
shown in the diagram below. What is the tension in the string?

A. 10N
B. 50N
C. 70N
D. 110N

14. Which of the following refers to the definition of strain as a ratio?

A. Extension to the original length.
B. Force applied to area of the object normal to the force.
C. Stress to Young modulus.
D. Tensile to applied force.

15. Which of the following is the application of Pascal‟s law?

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A. Hydraulic brake in vehicles.
B. Siphon to remove fluids.
C. Working of submarines.
D. Sucking of liquid into a syringe.

16. A large (very large in height and cross-section) water open at the top has a small hole
through its side near the bottom. To what height should the water be filled, to double the speed of
water that flow out of the hole when it was filled to a height h?
A) h
B) 2h
C) 3h
D) 4h

17. If a precision of surveyor measured a distance of 500 meters /between two points in a village/
using a meter that has centimeter division on it, then what is the measurement result?
A) 500m
B) 500.0m
C) 500.00m
D) 500.000m

18. From the figures given below, which one of them shows precise but not accurate
measurements? T represents the true value.

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A. 10m at 53° from x-direction.

C. 10m at 37° from x-direction.

A) 60°
B) 53°
C) 45°
D) 30°

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22. A cricketer throws a ball vertically upwards with initial speed of 20m/s. How long is it in the
air before it returns to the cricketer‟s hands?
A) 2s
B) 10s
C) 1.5s
D) 4s

23. Abeba walks to school. She walks 1km in 15minutes. She meets her friend Makeda they talk
for 5 minutes and then carry on walking to school. They walk 800m in 10minutes. Which of the
following displacement time graph shows Abeba‟s journey to school?

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24. A fun making boy swings a blinking ball tied to the end of a string in a vertical circle. If the
radius of the circle is 0.5m, then what should be the minimum speed of the ball at the bottom of
the circle to make a complete circular motion at the top?
A) 5m/s

25. The activity of radioactive substance reduces from 2000Bq to 1000Bq in 106 seconds. What
is the decay constant?
A. 6.93 x 105, decay/s
B. 6.93 x 10-7, decay/s
C. 2.00 x 106 , decay/s
D. 5.00 x 10-7 , decay/s

26. Which of the following phenomena clearly demonstrates the particle nature of light?
A. Refraction of light by prism.
B. The photoelectric effect.
C. Diffraction of light by double slit.
D. Dispersion of white light.

27. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Irreversible process is a process that can be reversed through finite change in the system.
B. Complete conversion of energy from a hot source into work is possible.
C. There are processes in which there is an overall decrease in entropy.
D. Entropy is a measure of the amount of disorder.

28. A certain heat engine draws 500cal/s from a water bath at 27°C and rejects 400 calories to a
reservoir at a lower temperature. What is the efficiency of this engine?
A) 80%
B) 75%
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C) 25%
D) 20%

29. Three metals are in contact and in thermal equilibrium. The metals have different specific
heat capacity. What can be concluded about the temperature of the metals?
A. Since they have different specific heat capacity, they must have different temperature at
thermal equilibrium.
B. They must have the same temperature at thermal equilibrium.
C. They must have different internal energy.
D. They must have different kinetic energy.

30. Metal A has a coefficient of linear expansion that is three times the coefficient of linear
expansion of metal B. How does their coefficient of areal expansion, Y, compare?
A) YA=2YB
B) YA=3YB
C) YA=4YB
D) YA=6YB

31. On an unknown scale x, the ice point temperature is 50°x and the steam-point temperature is
200°x. If the temperature is 60°C, then what is the reading in °x?
A) 90°x
B) 140°x
C) 15°x
D) 333°x

32. A block of mass 5kg hanging at the end of spring scale is totally submerged in a breaker of
water. The beaker is large enough to avoid overflow of water. If the density of the block is 2.5 x
103 kg/m3, then what is the reading of the scale?
A) 3kg
B) 2kg
C) 1kg
D) 0kg

33. An electric generator has a coil of 400 turns and cross-sectional area 5m2 rotating at angular
frequency 0.524 rad/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.2T, what is the induced e.m.f produced
from the electric generator in each second?
A) 209.6V
B) 104.8V
C) 200V
D) 182.4V

34. The primary coil of a transformer is connected to a battery, a resistor, and a switch. The
secondary coil is connected to an ammeter. What does the ammeter show when the switch is
thrown closed?
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A. Zero current as transformer is not working on DC.

B. A nonzero current for a short instant.
C. A steady current.
D. emf will be induced but not current.

35. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The direction of induced e.m.f is in such a direction as to reinforce the change produces it.
B. Self-inductance of a coil is e.m.f divided by a magnitude of rate change of current with
time.
C. The induced e.m.f in a coil is inversely proportional to its number of turns.
D. Self-inductance of a coil is inversely proportional to the cross sectional area of the coil.

36. The induced electromotive force in a current carrying coil placed in a magnetic field does not
depend on which of the following?
A. The speed at which the oil moves if the relative motion does not result in changing the
magnetic flux.
B. The change of magnetic flux density.
C. The length of the coil that is moving in a direction perpendicular to that of the magnetic
field.
D. The area of the coil outside the field.

37. A positively charged particle of charge q=3.2 x10-19C is moving parallel to x-axis with speed
1000m/s in a magnetic field of 0.5T parallel to y-axis as shown in the diagram below. What is
the magnetic force on the charge?

A. 8.0 x 10-16N in – ve Z
B. 3.2 x 10-16N in – ve x
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 HSBSS, 2016
C. 8.0 x 10 N in + ve x
-17

D. 1.6 x 10-16N in + ve Z

38. A charged particle moves perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. Which statement is
correct about the motion of the particle?
A. Both kinetic energy and linear momentum of the particle change.
B. The kinetic energy of the particle change but not its linear momentum.
C. The linear momentum of the particle changes but not its kinetic energy.
D. Both the energy and momentum do not change.

39. Which of the following is not correct about magnetic field?

A. Magnetic field lines are closed.
B. Magnetic monopoles exist.
C. The closer the field lines are, the storage the magnetic field.
D. Magnetic field is produced by moving charge.

40. Which of the following is not correct about the circuit shown below?

41. A galvanometer of full-scale deflection 10mA is to be converted into a 0 – 10.0A ammeter. If

its coil has a resistance of 100Ω, then what value of shunt resistance must be fitted?
A) 0.1Ω
B) 10Ω
C) 9.99Ω
D) 0.999Ω

42. If a cell supplies a current of 0.9A when connected to a 2Ω resistor and a current of 0.3A,
then what will be the internal resistance of the cell when connected to a 7Ω resistor?
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 HSBSS, 2016
A) 2Ω
B) 1.2Ω
C) 1Ω
D) 0.5Ω

43. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 10. If the distance between the plates is
halved, keeping all other quantities constant, then what is the new capacitance of the capacitor?
A) 0.2μF
B) 5μF
C) 10μF
D) 20μF

44. Two positive charges of magnitude 2.4 x 10-9C and 1.6 x 10-9C are separated in air by a
distance of 2.0cm. How much electrostatic potential is produced by the two charges at midway
between them?
A) 3.6KV
B) 0.72 KV
C) 2.16 KV
D) 1.44 KV

45. A charge of q1 = -10.0 x 10-9C, q2 = +10.0 x 10-9C and q3 = -2.5 x 10-8C are placed on x-y
plane as shown in the figure below. What is the electric force on q3 by q1 and q2?

A. 1.08 x 10-7N in + ve y direction

B. 9.00 x 10-7N in - ve y direction
C. 1.42 x 10-7N in + ve x direction
D. 1.42 x 10-7N in - ve x direction

46. In a Young‟s experiment, there are two slits, rather than one. What do you think the reason?
A. To increase the intensity.
B. One slit is for frequency the other for wavelength.
C. To create a path length difference.
D. One slit is for electric fields and the other is for magnetic fields.

47. A light of wavelength 590nm is incident normally on a grating with spacing 1.67 x 10-6m.
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How many orders of diffraction maxima can be obtained (including the zero order)?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D)4

48. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Interference is not superposition of waves.
B. Constructive interference results in decrease in the intensity.
C. Destructive interference results in an increases in the intensity.
D. Path difference which is integer multiple of wavelength results in constructive
interference.

49. Which of the following is not correct about a simple harmonic oscillator?
A. Total mechanical energy is conserved.
B. The acceleration is directly proportional to and opposite in direction to displacement

D. The frequency of an oscillating mass attached to a massless spring is independence of the

spring constant.

50. Which one of the following indicates the wavelength of a travelling wave?
A. The distance between an adjacent trough and a peak.
B. The amplitude of the wave.
C. The distance between a node and antinodes.
D. The distance between two adjacent points which are in phase.

Answer Key
1.D 11.D 21.C 31.B 41.A
2.B 12.A 22.D 32.A 42.D
3.C 13.C 23.B 33.A 43.D
4.B 14.A 24.A 34.A 44.A
5.D 15.A 25.B 35.B 45.A
6.A 16.B 26.B 36.A 46.C
7.C 17.C 27.D 37.D 47.C
8.A 18.A 28.D 38.C 48.D
9.D 19.A 29.B 39.B 49.D
10.C 20.A 30.B 40.C 50.D

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 HSBSS, 2016

PART SIX

2. A race car is moving at a constant speed of 35m/s . A security car was moving at a speed of 5m/s as the race
car passes by it and was accelerating at constant rate of 5 m/s2. What was the speed of the security car when it
took over the race car ?
A. 35m/s

B. 60m/s

C. 5m/s

D. 65m/s

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3. A car start moving from rest and its motion on a straight line is shown in the figure below. What is the
average velocity of the car within the first 6 seconds?

A. 5.67m/s

B. 1.67 m/s

C. 5 m/s

D. 6 m/s
4. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the motion in a plane?
A. When a body moves in a horizontal circle, its velocity is constant

B. When a body moves in a vertical circle, its speed is constant

C. The centripetal force for a body moving in either vertical or horizontal circle is toward the center

D. In projectile motion the horizontal component of the motion is uniformly accelerated motion.
5. A bullet is fired at an angel of 30° above the horizontal. If air resistance is neglected, what should be the

bullet�s horizontal acceleration and vertical acceleration when it reaches its maximum
height?

6. Two students A and B, with masses mA and mB respectively, stand on a wheeled trolleys as shown in the
figure below. If student A has larger mass and pushes student B, then what can be said about their
accelerations?

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 HSBSS, 2016
A. The acceleration of student B is less than that of student A.

B. Both boys will be accelerated by the same magnitude but in opposite directions.

C. The acceleration of student A is less than that of student B.

D. There would be no acceleration because the forcec are equal and opposite.
7. Which of the following statement is correct about errors in measurement?
A. Experimental error is the same as mistake

B. Errors make measured values same as accepted value

C. Errors occur in every scientific investigation

D. Errors can be avoid by using modern measurement instruments.

8. What can be conclude when the number of significant figures increases?
A. True reading increases

B. Precision increases

C. Uncertainity increases

D. Accuracy increases

A. 225 N, 143°

B. 5 N, -37°

C. 5 N, 143°

D. 15 N, 37°
10. The diagram below shows a path taken by a flying bird. Which one of the following vector may represent a
resultant displacement?

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 HSBSS, 2016

11. A body that is released from the top of a tall building reaches the ground after six seconds. What is the
ratio of the kinetic energy acquired by it at the end of the first three seconds to the increment in the kinetic
energy during the next three seconds?
A. 3/2

B. 1

C. 1/3

D. 2
12. A boy pushes a block over 12m distance within 6 seconds. The force applied by the boy varies as shown in
the diagram below. What is the average power loss by the boy?

A. 4 w

B. 8w

C. 7w

D. 6w
13. A thin rod when rotated about an axis at the end of the rod has a moment of inertia 1/3ML2. The rod has a
mass of 1.5kg and length of 1.0 m. if the rod initially at rest gains a rotational kinetic energy of 1000.0 J, at
what speed does it rotate?

10 rod/s

18.8 rod/s
14. A ring a solid cylinder and a solid sphere, all having the same mass and the same radius, are held at the top
of an inclined plane as shown in the figure below.
If the objects roll with out sliping and the coefficient of static friction between each object and the plane is 0.3,

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which one of the following shows the order in which they will get to the bottom of the inclined plane?

A. All will reach the bottom at the same time

B. Ring, solid cylinder, sphere

C. Solid cylinder, sphere, ring

D. Sphere, solid cylinder, ring

15. If in a given rotational system of a body the angular momentum is increased with time, which one of the
following statement is not correct?
A. The radius of rotation may increase

B. There is no torque exerted on the system

C. The moment of inertia may increase

D. There is a torque exerted on the system

16. Which of the following is a correct statement about the first condition of equilibrium?
A. The sum of all torques must be zero

B. Clockwise moments should balance counter clockwise moments

C. The net force on an object must be zero

D. The torque produced by a force should be perpendicular to the force.

17. For a constant force F, if the impulse imparted to the system is large, then what can you conclude about the
collision?
A. Linear momentum is conserved

B. The contact or impact time is large

C. Kinetic energy is conserved

D. The change in velocity is small

18. An open trolley is rolling on a level surface without frictional loss through a vertical downpour of rain, as
shown in the figure below. As the trolley rolls, an appreciable amount of rainwater accumulates in the cart.

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What will be the speed of the cart?

A. It increases because of conservation of mechanical energy

B. It decreases because of conservation of mechanical energy

C. It remains the same because the raindrops are falling perpendicular to the direction of the cart�s
motion

D. It decreases because of conservation of momentum

19. A satellite moves at a constant speed in a circular orbit about the center of the earth at an altitude half the
radius of the earth above its surface. If g is the gravitational acceleration at the surface of the earth and R its
radius, then what is the speed of the satellite?

20. An object of mass 1kg moving with a speed of 2m/s was acted on by a force that produces an acceleration
of 2m/s2. What is the change in kinetic energy of the object if the force is exerted on the object for 2seconds in
its direction of motion?
A. 1 J

B. 16 J

C. 8 J

D. 4 J
21. In the figure below, what is the speed of water as it leaves A2?

A. 0.9 m/s
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B. 0.3 m/s

C. 3.3 m/s

D. 3.6 m/s
22. An electric immersion water heater is rated at 400w. how long will it take to heat one kilogram of water
from 10 to 30 ? (the specific heat of water is 4.2 J/g k.)
A. 45 min

B. 1 min

C. 15 min

D. 3.5 min
23. If the internal energy of the system decreases, then what can be concluded about the heat and the work
done?
A. Heat is removed from the system and work is done by the system

B. Heat is added to the system and work is done by the system

C. Heat is removed from the system and work is done on the system

D. Heat is added to the system and work is done on the system

24. If a thermodynamic system undergoes a process in which its internal energy increased by 400 J while
doing 200 J of work on its surrounding, then what is the energy absorbed in or extracted from it in the form of
heat?
A. -600 J

B. -200 J

C. 200 J

D. 600J
25. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. A system can absorb heat from a hot reservoir and can convert it entirely in to workout additional
changes in the system and its surroundings.

B. The spontaneous transfer of energy from a cooler body to hotter body is quite possible.

C. No process is possible in which there is an overall decrease in the entropy of the universe.

D. The complete conversion of energy from hot source in to work is not possible.
26. A heat engine operating between 100°C and 700°C has efficiency equal to 40 % of the maximum
theoretical efficiency. How much energy does this engine extract from the hot reservoir in order to do 5000 J
of mechanical work?
A. 20259.32 J

B. 81.0 J

C. 810.4 J

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D. 20.3 J
27. From the figures given below, which one is in equilibrium?

28. Which of the following figure indicates tensile deformation?

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29. A beaker with water resting on a scale weighs 40 N. a block suspended on a hanging spring weighs 20 N.
the spring scale reads 15 N when a block is fully submerged in the water. What is the reading of a scale on
which the beaker with water rests, while the block is submerged in the water after detached from the hanging
spring?
A. 25 N

B. 60 N

C. 55 N

D. 45 N
30. An object with a mass of 150 kg and a volume of 0.75 m3 is floating in a liquid of density 0.8 g/cm3. What
percentage of the objects volume will be submerged below the surface of the fluid?
A. 100 %

B. 50 %

C. 75 %

D. 25 %
31. Why is an interference pattern not observed between the lights produced from a pair of car headlights?
A. The light sources are not collimated.

B. Interference is observed only in laboratory conditions

C. The light sources are not coherent

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D. The spread of light as it travels out of the source
32. Suppose that three point charges are placed along a straight line and electrostatic force exerted on the
middle charge is zero. What can we conclude about the charges?
A. The signs of the three charges should be the same

B. The charges at the ends must have the same sign

C. The middle charge should be placed at the center between the two charges

D. The charge at the middle and at the left end should have the same sign
33. Two parallel plates are kept at 3 V and 5 V as shown in the diagram below. If an electron is released at O,
then which way will the electron move?

A. Towards B

B. Towards A

C. Remains at O

D. Parallel to the plates

34. A capacitor of 12 μF capacitance can fully charged after it is connected between a potential difference of 9
V. how much external energy is used in charging the capacitor?
A. 1.0 x 10-3 J

B. 54 x 10-4 J

C. 9.72 x 10-4 J

D. 4.86 x 10-4 J
35. A copper wire of cross sectional area 2 mm2 carrying a current of 1.5 A. if the drift velocity of the electron
is 0.00028 m/s, what is the number of charge carriers (free electrons) per unit volume in the copper wire?
A. 1.5 x 1025/m3

B. 1.88 x 1028/m3

C. 1.5 x 1032/m3

D. 1.67 x 1032/m3
36. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Galvanometer can be converted to voltmeter of different scale by connecting low valued resistance in
parallel

B. Low valued internal resistance increases accuracy of voltmeter

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C. High valued internal resistance increases accuracy of ammeter

D. Galvanometer can be converted to ammeter of different scale by connecting variety of low value shunt
resistance in parallel.
37. What makes the oscillatory motion a simple harmonic motion?
A. The acceleration of the motion is directly proportional to the velocity

B. The acceleration of the motion is directly proportional in magnitude but opposite in direction to the
displacement

C. The velocity of the motion is directly proportional to the displacement

D. The velocity of the motion is inversely proportional to the displacement

38. The two end fixed string of length 0.5m has a mass per unit length 2 g/m. if the tension in the string is 80
N, what is the second harmonic frequency?
A. 400 Hz

B. 200 Hz

D. 600 Hz
39. Which one of the following is not the use of Doppler effect?
A. Astronomy

B. Energy transmission

C. Radar

D. Blood flow measurement

40. A 632.8 nm laser light produces an interference pattern on a screen of 4.0 m from a pair of slits. The slit
space is equal to 0.2 mm. calculate the fridge width.
A. 15.3 cm

B. 25.3 mm

C. 6.33 mm

D. 12.7 mm
41. A magnetic field of strength 5 x 10-5 T passes through an area of 20 cm3 that is an angel of 60° to the
magnetic field. What is the magnetic flux?
A. 0 Wb

� �B. 5 x 10-8 Wb

� �C. 2.5 x 10-8 Wb

� �D. 8.7 x 10-8 Wb

42. An inductor has a self inductance of 12 mH. The current in the circuit decreases at a rate of 2.0 A/s. what is
the magnitude of the induced electromotive force?
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A. 2.4π V

B. 1.2π V

C. 1.2 x 10-2 V

D. 2.4 x 10-2 V
43. Which of the following is correct about the characteristics of current and voltage in A.C circuits?
A. If the current leads the voltage, its capacitive reactance is greater than the inductive reactance

B. If the current is in phase with the voltage, the circuit is inductive

C. If the current leads the voltage, it is inductive circuit

D. If the current lags the voltage, the circuit is capacitive

44. An RLC circuit is designed to have a resistance of 400 ?, capacitive reactance of 350 ? and inductive
reactance of 50 ?. The circuit is connected to an alternative voltage source of effective (rms) valve 50 v and
frequency of 50 Hz. What is the average output power?
A. 62.5 W

B. 4.0 W

C. 400 W

D. 40 W
45. Which of the following has an electron volt unit?
A. Charge

B. Energy

C. Potential difference

D. Electromagnetic intensity
46. In Rutherford experiment, a beam of positively charged alpha particles was projected in to a thin piece of a
gold foil. One of the observation of this experiment is that some charged particles deflected through a large
angel (10° to 90° ) are those concentrated in one place. What conclusion can be drawn from this observation?
A. Most of the mass and all positive charge is in tiny central nucleus

B. Most of the atom is empty space

C. All the atom is positive charge

D. All the atom is negative charge

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47. In the circuit shown below, each resistor has a value of 3 ?. What is the value of the current through R4?

A. 0.75 A

B. 1.0 A

C. 0.625 A

D. 0.125 A
48. Suppose you obtain a piece of iron from your laboratory shelf. How can you experimentally determine, for
sure, that is magnetized?
A. If it attracts another magnet

B. If it diverges a charged electroscope

C. If it repels another magnet

D. There is no single and sure way to determine its magnetization

49. If a charged particle enters in to a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its direction, then what will
happen?
A. It moves in an elliptical path

B. The radius of its path is proportional to the magnetic field strength

C. The charged particle will not be affected by magnetic field

D. The period of the motion is inversely related to the magnetic field strength
50. Two parallel wires each carrying 5 A current in the same direction are separated by 2.5cm. what is the
magnitude of the force per unit length acting on the wires? Is the force attractive or repulsive?
A. 2 x 10-4N/m, attractive

B. 4 x 10-6N/m, repulsive

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C. 8 x 10 N/m, repulsive
-5

D. 5 x 10-6N/m, attractive

Answer Key
1.A 11.C 21.B 31.C 41.B
2.D 12.D 22.D 32.B 42.D
3.A 13.B 23.C 33.A 43.A
4.C 14.D 24.D 34.A 44.B
5.D 15.B 25.A 35.B 45.
6.C 16.C 26.A 36.D 46.A
7.D 17.B 27.A 37.B 47.C
8.D 18.D 28.D 38.A 48.D
9.D 19.A 29.C 39.B 49.D
10.D 20.B 30.D 40.D 50.A

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