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ANSWER KEY AND RATIONALIZATION

ENGLISH FOR SPECIFIC PURPOSES

• Apply content-based principles and strategies in developing language proficiency for specific discipline.

1. Which of these is English for Occupational Purpose? ***Actual March 2024 LET
A. English for Dental Well-being
B. English for Draftsmen
C. English for Assessment
D. English for Community Mobilization
Under ESP (English for Specific Purposes), ENGLISH FOR OCCUPATIONAL PURPOSES is a branch
addressing circumstances in which students are learning English for employment-related purposes.
Students study the specific communicative demands of their work as the foundation of the courses.

2. What feature of ESP says that ESP courses are written to fit a particular group of students who belong to
the same field?
A. ESP is discipline-specific. B. ESP is goal-oriented.
C. ESP is time-bound D. ESP is for adults.
ESP IS DISCIPLINE SPECIFIC because considering the students’ courses, ESP courses are prepared to fit a
particular group of students who belong to a particular field of study.
Other features of ESP are:
ESP IS GOAL-ORIENTED. It is clear that students study English for Specific Purpose. Hence, the approach
and the topics to be considered should also be specific to the context and need of the students.
ESP IS BASED ON THE NEEDS OF THE STUDENTS. The topic to be offered in this course/learning module
is based on the analysis of the needs of the students and their projection of how they are going to use the
language in the future.

ESP IS TIME BOUND. In the course of the study, students do not need to extend nor to spend too much
time. The lessons are intended to contribute to the end goal.
ESP IS FOR ADULTS. This method is designed for career takers; the ones who opt for learning in
preparation for the workplace.

3. Who defined ESP as a “quick and economical use of English language to pursue a course of academic
study or effectiveness in paid employment?”
A. Coffey (1985)

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B. Carter (1983)
C. Strevens (1977)
D. Hutchinson and Waters (1992)
COFFEY (1985) observed that ESP “is a quick and economical use of the English language to pursue a
course of academic study (EAP) or effectiveness in paid Employment (EOP).”

4. For Hutchison and Waters, they emphasize ESP as an approach not a product. What does it mean?
A. Language use is highlighted.
B. ESP has goals.
C. Focus on language learning
D. ESP is a methodology.
According to Hutchinson and Waters (1987), ESP is more of a way of teaching languages than a product.
This implies that ESP does not confine itself to specific language types, teaching materials, or methods. ESP
makes all decisions about what and how to teach based on the student's desire to learn the language.

5. This is also called as “Field” in which language varies according to subject matter and function. Which of
the following is referred to?
A. Dialect B. Medium
C. Tenor D. Domain
DOMAIN is also known as 'field' by some writers. Your language changes depending on the domain to
which it belongs. This encompasses the subject matter under discussion or writing, along with the
intention behind using the language.
Other authors sometimes refer to the MEDIUM as "mode." Your language varies depending on the writing
or spoken channel utilized, for instance, "the language of speech.”
The TENOR of your language, for example, how courteously or formally you communicate, is dependent on
who you are conversing with or writing to, as the language we employ when talking to close companions
differs from what we utilize when addressing strangers or people who are socially distant from us, as does
the social setting you find yourself in. For example, a child whose mother is a teacher will communicate
with her in various fashions, depending on whether they are at home or at school.

6. Which type of syllabus would contain the following set of topics: making arrangements, taking part in an
interview; buying and selling, etc.?
A. Structural/situational syllabus
B. Skill syllabus
C. Functional/notional syllabus

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D. Functional/task-based syllabus
FUNCTIONAL/TASK-BASED syllabuses include a sequence of intricate and meaningful tasks that learners
would like or require to do using the language they are studying.

7. Which of the following written outputs does qualify as a product of English for Specific Purposes (ESP)?
***Actual March 2024 LET
A. Annual Reports B. Financial Reports
C. Laboratory reports D. Thesis abstracts
Annual reports are the products of established agencies or offices.

8. Before designing the English for Flight Attendants Syllabus, Mr. Cruz made a study on the most frequent
and necessary terms that Flight Attendants use. What type of analysis did Mr. Cruz conduct?
A. Present Situation Analysis
B. Target situation analysis
C. Discourse Analysis
D. Register Analysis

REGISTER ANALYSIS looks at the grammar and vocabulary of the language that people use for a certain
reason or in a certain social context.

The PRESENT SITUATION ANALYSIS looks at the current state of learning and instruction, including
learners, educators, tools, curriculum, and educational records that have information about how well
students are learning the language (Gusti, 1999).

Robinson (1991) claims that TARGET SITUATION ANALYSIS (TSA) is a type of needs analysis mostly
aimed at the needs of students at the conclusion of a language program.

DISCOURSE ANALYSIS examines language in the places where it is used for communication, like in
interviews, conversations, written texts, and media discourses. It focuses on how people use language to
communicate and how that use affects how they connect with others.

9. Which of the following characteristics is NOT typically associated with English for Specific Purposes
(ESP)?

A. Focus on the language needs of specific groups of learners

B. Use of authentic language materials

C. Emphasis on grammar and syntax

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D. Development of communication skills appropriate to specific contexts

English for Specific Purposes (ESP) is targeted education given to students with particular linguistic needs.
The curriculum closely considers the needs of specific student groups, aiming to meet their needs.
Therefore, A: Focus on the language needs of specific groups of learners is a feature of ESP. Authentic
language materials, such as articles, reports, and conversations related to the specific subject, are often
used (B). And, there's an emphasis on communication skills applied in specific situations (D), such as
writing a business email or delivering a scientific presentation. In contrast to general English courses, ESP
focuses on situational functioning rather than grammar and syntax. In profession-specific circumstances,
ESP prioritizes language use.

10. Which of the following is the most effective classroom activity for teaching ESP?

A. Reading a general English language textbook.

B. Watching a movie that is related to the learners' professional or academic contexts.

C. Conducting a role-play or simulation activity that is relevant to the learners' professional or

academic contexts.

D. Memorizing grammar rules and vocabulary lists.

One of the characteristics of English for Specific Purposes is the use of experiential learning tactics such as
role play and simulations, which allow students to adopt multiple personas and participate in a variety of
learning environments.

On the other hand, A, B, and D belong to English for Academic Purposes.

11. Which type of syllabus would contain the following set of topics: properties and shapes; structure;
actions in sequence; cause and effect, etc?

A. Structural/situational syllabus

B. Skill syllabus

C. Functional/notional syllabus

D. Functional/task-based syllabus

A FUNCTIONAL/NOTIONAL SYLLABUS is one in which the subject of language training is an assortment of

the functions that language performs or the notions that linguistic expresses. Functions include informing,
consenting, apologizing, requesting, and promising. Examples of notions include size, age, color,
comparison, and time.

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12. Which category of ESP does English for teachers belong?

A. EOP
B. EAP
C. EVP
D. EBP

English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)

Under ESP (English for Specific Purposes), ENGLISH FOR OCCUPATIONAL PURPOSES is a branch
addressing circumstances in which students are learning English for employment-related purposes.
Students study the specific communicative demands of their work as the foundation of the courses. Thus,
teachers belong to EOP.

A branch of ESP, EAP (ENGLISH FOR ACADEMIC PURPOSES), outlines courses meant to equip students to
study or work within typically the framework of higher education. Common EAP learners could be
applicants for or preparing to begin an undergraduate or postgraduate degree at an English-speaking
institution.

ENGLISH FOR VOCATIONAL PURPOSES (EVP) provides a linguistic overview of English in a variety of
trades and explores the practical applications of this specialized language.

Business English, also known as "ENGLISH FOR BUSINESS PURPOSES," is a new branch of ESP (English
for Specific Purpose). It came about because more people realized that general English courses don't meet
the needs of some types of students. There is a lot of theoretical literature that has been used to help teach
business English, which is closely related to the professional needs of students and employers.

13. Which is an appropriate approach for developing an English for Specific Purposes (ESP) course
syllabus?

A. Starting with a standard English language syllabus and modifying it to suit the learners' needs.

B. Asking the learners to provide input on the topics and language skills they would like to focus on.

C. Using a needs analysis to identify the specific language needs and goals of the learners.

D. Developing a syllabus that covers a wide range of language skills and topics.

Examining learner requirements to determine goals and the material to cover is a crucial step in preparing
an ESP program. It also entails creating a syllabus that may be grammar-based, functional, situational, skill-
based, task-based, or content-based. The course design may be language-centered, skill-centered, or
learning-centered.

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14. Which of the following is true about ESP?

A. It involves the teaching of general English language skills.

B. It focuses on the language needs of specific groups or individuals.

C. It is primarily used for academic purposes only.

D. It is not applicable in the workplace or business context.

The creation of ESP classes takes into account the unique needs of the learners, including the necessary
vocabulary and register. It also describes English instruction that concentrates on improving
conversational skills in a specific field or occupation.

A, C, and D belong to the English for Academic Purposes category.

15. What is the challenge in implementing ESP in the classroom?

A. Finding appropriate materials and tasks that are relevant to the learners' specific needs.

B. Teaching grammar and vocabulary in isolation from the learners' real-world needs.

C. Using the same teaching methods and materials as General English.

D. Focusing too much on fluency at the expense of accuracy.

According to Franceschi (2015), Kardaleska (2015), and Nedelkoska (2017), the most apparent one is a
lack of educational materials for ESP, particularly in subjects outside of technology, law, or business.

16. Which type of knowledge is NOT required of the ESP teacher?

A. A positive attitude towards the ESP content.

B. A knowledge of the fundamental principles of the subject area.

C. An awareness of how much they probably know.

D. A specialist subject knowledge.

Hutchinson and Waters (2002) emphasized the learning process when teaching ESP in their 1987 book
"English for Specific Purposes" and recommended a learning-centered approach. They feel that a truly
successful strategy for learning ESP requires a grasp of the language acquisition process. They also
explored the role of ESP teachers in ESP teaching activities as well as the distinction between ESP and EGP
instruction. THEY BELIEVE THAT ESP TEACHERS DO NOT NEED TO LEARN SPECIALIST SUBJECT
KNOWLEDGE but they require only three things, which could be considered as the ability to ask intelligent
questions. They are:

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• Having a positive attitude towards the ESP content;

• Having knowledge of the fundamental principles of the subject area;

• Having an awareness of how much they probably already know.

17. Which of the following includes all processes in which the designers should look into the needs of the
learners, develop aims, determine an appropriate syllabus, and evaluate it?

A. Course Design B. Syllabus Design

C. ESP Course Design D. Curriculum Design

CURRICULUM DESIGN is the process of planning the whole course and connecting what is taught to what
is learned, which includes learning how to make a course outline and put the course together. We use
assessment techniques, exercises, content, subject matter analysis, and interactive activities to meet each
learning goal.

COURSE DESIGN is the process of creating instructional resources and settings that work well and help
students learn new things.

SYLLABUS DESIGN calls for breaking down the aimed outcomes and language that students will be
required to comprehend into a flexibly scheduled sequence of teaching and learning moments.

18. Which type of syllabus would contain the following set of topics: writing essays; study techniques and
examinations; improving your reading, etc?

A. Skill syllabus B. Discourse/skills syllabus

C. Functional/task-based syllabus D. Skills and strategies

A SKILL-BASED SYLLABUS includes a set of distinct abilities that may be useful when using language.
Skills are the things that someone must be able to perform in order to be proficient in a language,
regardless of the situation or environment in which the language is used. The main goal is to learn
specialized language abilities.

19. To assess and evaluate the learners' progress in an ESP course, which is the appropriate method?

A. A multiple-choice grammar test that covers all possible grammar structures.

B. A speaking test that focuses on the learners' ability to communicate in a wide range of social situations.

C. A writing test that requires learners to write an essay on a topic that is unrelated to their specific needs.

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D. A task-based assessment that requires learners to complete a task that is relevant to their
specific needs.

The TASK-BASED APPROACH emphasizes involving students in relevant and realistic tasks that reflect
practical occupational circumstances. By engaging learners in these exercises, the technique improves not
just their linguistic ability but also their interpersonal and analytical capabilities

20. Which type of syllabus would contain the following set of topics: the nature of generalizations; general
and specific information; levels of generality, etc?

A. Skill syllabus B. Discourse/skills syllabus

C. Functional/task-based syllabus D. Skills and strategies

The DISCOURSE/SKILL syllabus highlights discourse that is relevant to the context in which it is utilized.

21. Which type of syllabus would contain the following set of topics: exercises in personal evaluation;
exercises in examining your job needs, exercises in using the ads, etc?

A. Skill syllabus B. Discourse/skills syllabus

C. Functional/task-based syllabus D. Skills and strategies

The SKILLS AND STRATEGIES SYLLABUS focuses on techniques that can be employed to teach and
evaluate the proficiency of learners and their understanding.

22. One of the consistent problems of ESP teachers is the lack of an orthodoxy. This means that:

I. ESP teachers do not have ready-made, straightforward answers to problems they meet.

II. ESP teachers need to distil and synthesize from several options those that best suit their circumstances.

III. All ESP teachers are pioneers who are helping to shape the world of ESP.

A. I only B. I and II

C. II only D. I, II, and III

Teachers must regularly consult linguistics and methodology studies for organizing and structuring their
courses due to the absence of orthodoxy in the field. The suffering they face converts them become
explorers shaping the field of ESP.

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 REMEDIAL INSTRUCTION AND EARLY INTERVENTION FOR LANGUAGE LEARNING
DIFFICULTIES

• Show competence in employing approach, strategies and techniques in organizing, designing,

implementing and evaluating remedial and early intervention programs in language and literacy across
the discipline.

23. What is the primary goal of remedial instruction in English?

A. To separate the low performing from the high performing.

B. To identify students who do not achieve school standards.

C. To help students cope with the demands of their actual level.

D. To help schools achieve their mission and in quality education.

In an intervention program, remedial instruction works on basic skills like phonics, reading, writing, and
number sense. The goal is to get the student up to the level of ability expected for their age or grade level.

24. Which of the following characterizes remedial students in general?

A. They have a number of learning disabilities.

B. They failed in two or more subject areas in their level.

C. Their abilities fall several levels below their current level.

D. They have low intended quotient and low emotional quotient.

Students whose skills are several levels below their present stage are considered to be part of the remedial
learning group.

25. For which is an Individualized Education Program (IEP)?

I. Reinforcement of the foundation of learning

II. Helping pupils to overcome their learning difficulties

III. Developing learners‟ potentials

A. I only B. II only

C. III only D. I, II, III

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INDIVIDUALIZED EDUCATION PLANS (OR PROGRAMS) are also referred to as IEPs. A primary or
secondary school enrolls an individual with a diagnosed disability, and this plan or program ensures they
receive specialized teaching and associated services. An IEP is created by a group of people representing
different academic fields: the child with an impairment, relatives, and/or appointed advocates.

26. Reading diagnosis is a crucial component of the remedial reading program. What could be the problem
of the students to constantly read pat as bat and got as dot?

A. Phoneme isolation B. Segmenting syllables

C. Blending of sounds D. Graphophonic correspondence

GRAPHOPHONIC CUES refer to the language's letter-sound or sound-symbol correlations. Readers use
graphophonic cues to identify unknown words by comparing speech sounds to letters or letter patterns.

PHONEME ISOLATION is an approach for developing students' phonemic awareness, which is a

component of phonological awareness. Phoneme isolation is the process of teaching pupils to distinguish
certain phonemes in words, such as the first, middle, and last sound.

SYLLABLE SEGMENTATION is the capacity to distinguish the number of syllables or pieces of a word, such
as tab-le. Syllable segmentation is critical for developing a child's sound awareness of words. A child who
can identify a word's syllables will be better prepared to read and spell.

SOUND BLENDING is the skill of constructing words from distinct sounds by blending them together in
order. For example, the student combines the sounds m, o, and m to create the word mom.

27. In designing a remedial program in English, which of the following is the most important of the student
considerations?

A. Learning styles B. Likes and dislikes

C. Background knowledge D. Socio economic status

Remedial education often entails overcoming obstacles or comprehension gaps. Matching teaching
approaches with students' learning styles creates an atmosphere in which they can acquire and retain
information more effectively.

28. Which is primary consideration in choosing instructional materials for remedial instruction?

A. Congruence with skills being developed.

B. Demands of the mainstream class.

C. Variety of instructional materials.

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D. Appeal to the student

The primary objective when selecting instructional materials for remedial instruction is consistency with
the abilities that are being developed, and it involves establishing customized teaching strategies that
match up with the competencies that the students have trouble with, providing substantial remedial
support to help students strengthen their understanding across different topics, strengthen the way they
learn, and gain confidence in their abilities as learners.

29. Is remedial instruction the same as special education?

a. No, however, remedial instruction may include children with special needs if they are diagnosed
with difficulty.

b. Yes, both remedial instruction and special education serve learners that need help.

c. It depends on the clientele of remedial instruction.

d. No, they are far apart and not in any way related

Remedial Program Teachers will devote more time to interacting with learners, ensuring that they receive
the additional time and attention required to enhance their skills. Special education teachers receive
specialized certifications in order to create content that is tailored to each student that is behind in their
class.

30. Which of the following is an important remedial listening strategies for those students who cannot
distinguish between /r/ and /l/?

a. Provide ample exercise on sound discrimination.

b. Give exercises on various intonation patterns.

c. Practice strategies in decoding sight words.

d. Identify liaisons and incomplete plosives

Sound discrimination means being able to tell the distinction between sounds that are similar and sounds
that are different. It helps people identify differences between phonemes in words. Allowing a student who
has trouble making what makes a certain letter sound a lot of practice enables them to cope and overcome
their struggle

31. What should be done first before doing remedial instruction?

A. Reviewing report cards and standardized test scores

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B. Observing students in the classroom

C. Conducting diagnostic assessments

D. Asking parents for input

Diagnostic assessments are required to create successful remedial education. In simple terms, diagnostic
assessment is the use of a tool, such as a test, to identify the student's understanding and ability level prior
to remediation. They are also used during and after instruction to assist teachers in identifying learner
subject matter expertise strengths and weaknesses.

32. In designing a remedial instruction, what should be the approach to ensure that the needs of the diverse
learners are met?

A. Providing instruction in the students' first language to ensure comprehension

B. Offering a variety of instructional methods and materials to accommodate different learning

styles

C. Focusing only on the needs of the highest-performing students to ensure they receive the most
instruction

D. Providing group instruction only to ensure consistency and efficiency

This entails tailoring instructional methods and resources to fit the particular requirements of each learner.
Teachers can accomplish this by giving students a variety of learning alternatives, offering assistance to
those who need it, and challenging students who are ready.

33. Which shows a multisensory approach to early language intervention?

A. Using only auditory methods to teach new vocabulary

B. Focusing only on grammar and syntax in language instruction

C. Incorporating visual aids, such as pictures and videos, into language activities

D. Using a standardized curriculum and approach for all children.

The MULTISENSORY METHOD of language acquisition involves understanding English through the senses.
Multisensory learning implies that students learn visually, auditorily, tactilely, and kinesthetically.

34. What is the recommended approach for supporting language development in children with learning
difficulties who are bilingual or multilingual?

A. Encouraging the child to use only one language at home and at school

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B. Focusing only on teaching the child English, even if the child is more proficient in another language

C. Providing opportunities for the child to develop proficiency in all of their languages

D. Avoiding the use of pictures and visual aids to support vocabulary learning

By providing possibilities for students to utilize their languages on a daily basis and promoting the
advantages of multilingualism, the more proficient their language skills will be. Exposure and practice are
required to improve speech-language skills in any language.

35. Which of the following is a key aspect of effective communication with parents in an early language
intervention program for students with learning difficulties?

A. Providing detailed reports on the student's progress on a weekly basis

B. Using jargon and technical terms to demonstrate expertise

C. Encouraging parents to be active participants in the intervention process

D. Minimizing contact with parents to avoid potential conflicts

Parents who actively participate in their child's academic journey significantly influence the successful
implementation of remedial teaching measures. When parents become involved in their children's
education, stronger assignment routines emerge. With all of this parental support, learners will have a
better retention rate. They are going to recall what they have learned.

36. One of the techniques in teaching pronunciation is minimal pair drills, what do you mean by this?

A. The teacher established the setting or context then key vocabulary is presented.

B. These provide practice on problematic sounds in the target language through listening
discrimination and spoken practice.

C. Articulatory descriptions, articulatory diagrams, and a phonetic alphabet are used.

D. Passages and scripts are used for students to practice and then read aloud focusing on stress, timing, and
intonation

MINIMAL PAIR intervention uses words that differ only by one sound, or "phoneme," to assist students
comprehend how speech sound errors affect the meaning of the words they are attempting to make.

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37. It refers to understanding that letters represent sound so that words may be read by saying the sounds
represented by the letters, and words may be spelled by writing the letters that represent the sounds in a
word.

A. Sight-Word Knowledge

B. Basic Sight Words

C. Alphabetic Knowledge

D. Knowledge on Sound-Symbol Correspondence

The ALPHABETIC PRINCIPLE or ALPHABETIC KNOWLEDGE is the idea that letters and letter
combinations represent spoken language sounds is widely accepted. Readers use the phonics alphabetic
principle to read both known and unfamiliar terms, drawing on their understanding of the links between
sounds and letters. A child, for example, who understands that the written letter "m" produces the sound
/mmm/, demonstrates the alphabetic principle.

SIGHT WORDS are words that learners are supposed to identify immediately.

SOUND-SYMBOL CORRESPONDENCE is a crucial concept in learning to read, write, and converse.

Additionally, a specific symbol represents each sound. For instance, we can represent the sound /f/ with
the graphemes 'f', 'ph', or 'gh'.

38. Which of the following is NOT an instructional adaptation in remedial instruction?

A. Scaffolding instructional cues.

B. More challenging texts and tasks.

C. Leveling and chunking of materials.

D. Ongoing assessment and feedback.

The purpose of remedial instruction is to help struggling students catch up to the point that they should be
at; if they are given tougher tasks and materials, they might lose motivation and may fall further behind.
Letters A, C, and D demonstrate excellent remedial strategies in remedial classes.

39. The following are remedial teaching strategies EXCEPT .

A. Individualized Educational Program (IEP)

B. Peer Support Programmed

C. Reward Scheme

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D. Test and Drill

Some of the goals of remedial teaching are to eliminate students' inadequate practices, identify the causes
of slow learning, re-teach language concepts that were not effectively learned, pique the curiosity of
students in learning through encouraging methods, and transmit real-world knowledge to learners based
on their various needs. As a result, it is possible to conclude that the goal of remedial instruction is not to
force students to learn by drilling.

40. Which of the following linguistic cueing systems allow a reader to figure out an unknown word base on
its place in a sentence?

A. Linguistic B. Graphophonic

C. Syntactic D. Semantic

SYNTACTIC CUES include word sequence, grammar rules and patterns, and punctuation. In particular, the
location of a word in a phrase informs the listener or reader if it is a noun or a verb.

GRAPHOPHONIC CUES are the connections between letters and sounds, or between sounds and symbols
in words. Learners use graphophonic cues to decipher new words by associating speech sounds with
letters or letter patterns. We often refer to this process as decoding.

SEMANTIC CUES are the meanings in language that help us understand texts. They can be words, speech,
signs, symbols, and other forms that make sense. Learners' preexisting understanding of language, text, and
visual media, as well as their past life encounters, are all semantic cues.

41. Choose the correct statement:

Assertion: Remedial teaching focuses on addressing specific learning gaps.

Reason: It aims to fast-track all students to the same academic level.

A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

D. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Assertion: Remedial teaching focuses on addressing specific learning gaps. This statement is TRUE.

Remedial teaching involves determining aspects where learners struggle or have deficiencies in learning
and then offering tailored instruction or solutions that will assist them catch up or progress in those areas
of development.

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Reason: It aims to fast-track all students to the same academic level. This statement is FALSE.

Remedial education does not seek to advance all learners to an identical academic level. Rather, it strives to
provide tailored assistance and interventions to help students overcome their unique learning problems
and achieve success at their own pace.

Therefore, Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

42. What should be the sequential order of steps of remedial teaching below?

I. Analysis of pupils

II. Choosing strategies

III. Teaching objective

IV. Adopting curriculum

V. Evaluation

A. III, II, IV, V, I B. IV, II, III, I, V

C. I, III, IV, II, V D. I, IV, V, III, II

The sequence of phases in remedial education should ideally follow a logical path from analysis to
evaluation. This suggests that the appropriate sequence would be as follows:

I. Analysis of pupils: This process entails determining the strengths, limitations, and learning needs of each
student.

II. Choosing strategies: After examining the students, relevant teaching tactics and interventions are chosen
to meet their individual learning needs.III. Teaching objective: Once strategies are chosen, clear teaching
objectives are established to guide the remedial teaching process.

IV. Adopting curriculum: The chosen techniques and goals guide the customization or adoption of
curriculum resources and tools tailored to the learners' needs.

V. Evaluation: Finally, continuous evaluation and tracking of student development determine the success of
remedial educational interventions, allowing for necessary changes.

43. What is the term used to describe the step that follows the diagnosis process and involves actions to
help children overcome their deficiencies?

A. Therapeutic Instruction

B. Compensatory Education

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C. Remedial Teaching

D. Corrective Learning

REMEDIAL TEACHING includes offering particular instruction and interventions that aid learners in
addressing academic deficits or learning challenges found during the diagnosis process.

THERAPEUTIC INSTRUCTION means utilizing specialized teaching strategies to address unique learning
obstacles or emotional challenges that students confront.

COMPENSATORY EDUCATION refers to programs or initiatives that aim to provide supplementary help
and resources to students who suffer from disadvantages or have experienced deficiencies in their
education.

CORRECTIVE LEARNING is an organized approach to addressing students' learning issues that identifies
and targets areas of weakness through appropriate education and interventions.

44. Diagnostic tests are administered to .

A. Find out deficiencies of the students with a view to planning remedies.

B. Assess the suitability of a candidate for a specific programme.

C. Test the language proficiency of students for providing them jobs.

D. Judge the students’ capabilities

The primary goal of the diagnostic evaluation is to identify the root causes of learning difficulties and
develop a strategy for remedial activity. It contributes significantly to improving academic results for all
students. It will identify the types of errors that occur, as well as their underlying causes. It also aids in
determining learners' level of knowledge, abilities, and comprehension at the start of a course, grade level,
unit, or lesson.

45. Teachers can remediate for the students with language learning difficulty by:

A. Focusing on individual progress with individual instruction.

B. Providing notes that are simplified

C. Initially giving information as reading only, no writing.

D. Conduct extra class for the students.

LANGUAGE LEARNING DIFFICULTIES refer to a condition in which an individual has trouble

comprehending a language. It could be related to physical limitations or disabilities such as impaired
hearing, vision, low intellectual functioning, or poor motor coordination.

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A teacher should investigate the causes of language learning difficulties and propose remedial strategies to
overcome them. Teachers can assist children who struggle with language acquisition by focusing on
individual progress and providing individual instruction.

46. Remedial teaching is a .

A. Preparation of teaching B. Systematic process

C. Pre-teaching program D. Random process

Remedial teaching is a systematic process in which the teacher initially diagnoses the learners' problems
before applying appropriate remedial approaches.

47. Which of these is the strategy of remedial teaching ?

A. Action Research B. Programmed Test

C. Both A and B D. None of the above

ACTION RESEARCH: It is an interactive approach to gathering information utilized to investigate

instruction, curriculum development, and behavior among pupils in the educational setting. It also refers to
the incorporation of practice-based experiences into the learning process to assist learners with difficulty
obtaining a better understanding of the subject.

PROGRAMMED TEST: This refers to a test that presents items based on learners' previous responses,
thereby tailoring the test to the students' learning abilities.

48. Which of the following reasons should the Remedial Teaching syllabus be based on?

A. the teacher’s impression of language difficulties

B. student’s interest in learning language

C. an analysis of errors made by the learner

D. an analysis of future needs of the learners

The REMEDIAL TEACHING SYLLABUS should include all of the students' weak points. A thorough
evaluation of learner shortcomings is necessary while developing the syllabus for remedial teaching.

The Remedial Teaching Syllabus should consider the following points:

•Identifying the causes of sluggish learning.

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•Recognizing mistakes or learning challenges

•Finding children who have problems or need assistance

49. This type of instruction can be beneficial to students who get distracted by other students or frustrated
when there is a lot going on in the classroom.

A. Pull In Remediation B. Pull Out Remediation

C. Push In Remediation D. Push out Remediation

PULL-OUT REMEDIATION involves taking the learner out of the classroom and teaching them in a small
group in a different setting. However, it might make students feel separated and disconnected from the rest
of their classmates. Some children might feel excluded when they are removed from classroom instruction.

50. This type of instruction is helpful when the student only needs minimal support and can also focus well
in a whole group setting.

A. Pull In Remediation B. Pull Out Remediation

C. Push In Remediation D. Push out Remediation

PUSH-IN REMEDIATION is offered by the remedial teacher entering the classroom to assist learners who
require it within a lesson. However, this form of remediation can be challenging for students with more
pressing needs who easily become preoccupied by others.

51. What type of graphic similarity exists if a student's response "seems like" at least two of those three
components?

A. High graphic similarity B. Some graphic similarity

C. No graphic similarity D. Graphic similarity

GRAPHIC SIMILARITY. When assessing graphic similarity, a teacher gains information into a student's use
of the graphophonic system. The teacher may notice a strong, moderate, or no graphic connection between
the word as uttered and as printed.

HIGH GRAPHIC SIMILARITY. If a learner's "looks like" at least two of those three components, the term is
regarded as having high graphic similarity. For example, if the word written in the text was "imagination,"
breaking it down into three parts may look like "imag-in-ation." If the student responded with
"inauguration," we could divide it into thirds to form "inaug-ur-ation."

SOME GRAPHIC SIMILARITIES. If one of a word's three components, when divided into thirds, visually
resembles the written word, it is considered to have some graphic similarity.

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NO GRAPHIC SIMILARITY. A mistake is defined as having no graphic similarity when the text-printed
word and the reader's pronunciation of the word share no common letters or number of letters. For
example, if the text read "parachute" and the student answer was "film," the error would be indicated with
an encircling "N" for "no graphic similarity.”

52. Which form of retelling is demonstrated when the teacher asks the students a series of questions
regarding the text's topic, the writer's goal, and the predictions or connections that learners may draw
regarding the text?

A. Unaided retelling B. Aided retelling

C. Half-aided retelling D. Fully-aided retelling

The AIDED RETELLING assesses student comprehension of the material and beyond.

Throughout the UNAIDED RETELLING, learners are expected to share with the teacher all they recall from
the reading. In essence, unaided retelling is an assessment that the teacher uses to determine the student's
understanding of the text. The unaided retelling is a quick overview of what the learner recalls about the
text's "literal" content.

53. At what reading level can learners read with 90–95% accuracy and understand at least 80% of simple
memory questions about the story?

A. Independent Reading level

B. Successful Reading Level

C. Frustration Reading Level

D. Instructional Reading level

The INSTRUCTIONAL LEVEL refers to a student's ability to read a text fluently with 90–95% accuracy.

The INDEPENDENT LEVEL pertains to a student's ability to read a text fluently with 96–100% accuracy.

The FRUSTRATION READING LEVEL occurs when reading accuracy falls below 90%.

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LANGUAGE EDUCATION RESEARCH

•Identify pressing issues and problems in language teaching and learning.

•Apply principles and approaches in research to find answers to questions in language and literature
teaching and learning.

54. What type of research is educational research in which the variables under study are being influenced
and controlled?

A. Quasi experimental B. Experimental research

C. Ex-post facto research D. Mixed research

QUASI-EXPERIMENTAL RESEARCH in education examines the influence of interventions or treatments on

educational variables without the full control that actual trials provide. It acknowledges the practical and
ethical constraints that limit the researcher's capacity to assign subjects at random.

EXPERIMENTAL RESEARCH is a methodical examination that uses controlled experiments to determine

cause-and-effect links between variables in a highly structured environment.

EX-POST FACTO RESEARCH: Research undertaken after the fact to examine the consequences of naturally
occurring conditions or events without manipulation, which is widely utilized in the social sciences.

MIXED RESEARCH is an integrated technique that uses both quantitative and qualitative research
methodologies to achieve a thorough grasp of a study problem or question.

55. If a phenomenon changes over time, what kind of research should be undertaken to study it?

A. Experimental Research B. Longitudinal Research

C. Ex-post facto Research D. Ethnographic Research

LONGITUDINAL RESEARCH is a powerful tool for investigating phenomena that vary over time, offering a
thorough and nuanced understanding of how factors change, relate, and influence one another at various
time points.

ETHNOGRAPHIC RESEARCH involves conducting immersive, qualitative studies within a cultural setting
to more fully comprehend social behaviors and practices.

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56. According to socio-cultural theory, which of the following is the most effective way to promote language
development in young learners?

A. Providing opportunities for interaction with peers and adults

B. Explicitly teaching grammar rules

C. Focusing on error correction and accuracy

D. Allowing learners to work independently

SOCIOCULTURAL THEORY emphasizes the relevance of social contact in psychological development. It

implies that human learning is primarily a social process and that our cognitive processes are created by
interactions with people around us who are "more skilled.”

57. What is the correct sequence of actions in conducting an intervention-based action research in
Education?

A. Act, observe, plan and reflect

B. Plan, act, observe and reflect

C. Observe, plan, reflect and act

D. Reflect, observe, plan and act

PLAN: An understanding of the problem is created, and plans are made to modify the existing or present
setup. For example, a teacher recognizes that their current teaching approach isn't producing the best
results and decides to implement a new teaching strategy to address this.

ACT: The proposed modifications are implemented or carried out during this phase. For example, the new
teaching strategy that was developed is presented during this period.

OBSERVE. The researcher observes the impact of the earlier adjustment. The researcher gathers, records,
and gets evidence regarding the success of actions. For example, the influence of the new teaching
technique on student performance is measured.

REFLECT: The preceding phase's data and findings are reflected. The researcher evaluates the findings and
analyzes improvement options before beginning future planning. For example, teachers reflect on the
impact of the new teaching method, and if it is favorable, it is incorporated into the teaching strategy;
otherwise, the cycle is repeated.

58. Which of the following is an example of a quantitative data analysis technique commonly used in
language education research?

A. Thematic analysis B. Grounded theory

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C. Discourse analysis D. ANOVA

ANOVA, or Analysis of Variance, is a statistical test that compares the means of two or more groups. A
one-way ANOVA uses only one independent variable, whereas a two-way ANOVA employs two
independent variables.

THEMATIC ANALYSIS is a method for examining QUALITATIVE DATA. It generally refers to a collection of
texts, such as an interview or transcripts. The researcher carefully examines the data to identify common
themes, which are subjects, concepts, and patterns of significance that appear again.

DISCOURSE ANALYSIS (DA) pertains to a wide range of QUALITATIVE METHODOLOGIES that

investigate the structure and expression of language within its social and cultural environment. It examines
the linguistic content (what is stated) and language use (how it is used) in a particular document in order
to transmit meaning in various social contexts.

GROUNDED THEORY is a QUALITATIVE RESEARCH that seeks to understand the deeper implications
behind people's interactions, social acts, and experiences. In essence, the explanations rely on the
participants' personal perspectives or rationales.

59. The correct sequence of steps in the educational research process is:

I. Identification of Problem

II. Review of Literature

III. Data Collection

IV. Data Analysis

V. Conclusion and Reporting

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. I, II, III, IV, V B. II, I, IV, III, V

C. III, IV, I, II, V D. II, V, III, IV, I

IDENTIFICATION OF PROBLEM: The research method starts with identifying a problem or question in the
field of education.

REVIEW OF LITERATURE: After identifying a problem, the researcher must scrutinize the existing
literature on the subject. This helps them comprehend what is previously known, uncover knowledge gaps,
and fine-tune their research questions.

DATA COLLECTION: The researcher selects relevant data collection methods based on the study question
and literature review. Surveys, interviews, observations, and experiments are all possibilities.

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DATA ANALYSIS: After collecting data, the researcher uses appropriate statistical methodologies or
qualitative analysis approaches to identify patterns and meaning in the data.

CONCLUSION AND REPORTING: Finally, the researcher develops conclusions based on the data analysis,
examines the consequences of the findings, and disseminates the research in the form of a report, paper, or
presentation.

60. Which of the following are examples of Non-Probability sampling?

I. Judgemental sampling

II. Chain sampling

III. Cluster sampling

IV. Non-proportional stratified sampling

A. I, II, and IV B. I and II

C. I, II, and IV D. II and IV

NON-PROBABILITY SAMPLING entails choosing pieces for a sample without employing randomization.

JUDGEMENTAL SAMPLING is a sort of sampling in which the researcher considers that some individuals
or things have special traits that are important for the study.

CHAIN SAMPLING is a non-probability sampling method in which one or more participants are chosen and
then assisted in finding and choosing more participants.

61. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: All valid tests are reliable but all reliable tests are not valid

Statement II: Split-half method is used to determine the reliability of a test

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Statement I: All valid tests are reliable but all reliable tests are not valid.

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Explanation: Validity refers to how well a test measures what it is designed to assess, whereas reliability
refers to the consistency or stability of test results. A valid test must be reliable, which means it regularly
generates accurate and stable results. However, a reliable test may be invalid if it fails to measure the
intended construct.

Statement II: Split-half method is used to determine the reliability of a test

Explanation: The split-half approach is a way of determining the internal consistency and dependability of
a test. This strategy divides the test into two halves and compares the scores from each. If the exam is
internally consistent, the scores from the two halves should be strongly correlated, suggesting reliability.

62. Which of the following is an example of a communicative language teaching activity?

A. Memorizing grammar rules

B. Filling in the blanks in a sentence

C. Role-playing a conversation

D. Translating a paragraph from L1 to L2

The COMMUNICATIVE LANGUAGE TEACHING APPROACH is a method of teaching a second or foreign

language that emphasizes learners' involvement as either the primary or ultimate objective of acquiring the
target language. Interaction denotes an activity in which multiple individuals influence one another.

ROLE PLAY is a critical component of communicative language teaching, as it provides students with the
possibility of practicing interacting in a variety of social contexts and duties.

63. In ethnographic research, a researcher uses a non-interactive strategy, which describes people's
experiences and connotes their feelings. Which of the following strategies does it refer to?

A. Field notes B. Inductive analysis

C. Artifact collection D. Discovery analysis

ARTIFACTS in research are systemic biases that are uncontrolled and unintentional and may compromise
the internal or external validity of one's study findings. Thus, in ethnographic research, a researcher
employs a non-interactive technique to characterize people's experiences and emotions. It refers to artifact
collection.

64. An investigator wants to study the functioning of a school meant for tribal children. The most
appropriate research design for this context would be classified as:

A. Narrative Research B. Phenomenology

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C. Grounded Theory D. Ethnography

ETHNOGRAPHY is the detailed study and description of a culture, including shared attitudes, values,
conventions, and language. Researchers gather data through observation, or they may relocate to the
research community to study the local culture and educational procedures.

PHENOMENOLOGY is a type of qualitative study in which the researcher seeks to understand how one or
more people perceive a phenomenon. For example, interview the wives of ten prisoners and ask them to
explain their experiences.

A NARRATIVE STUDY seeks to investigate and conceptualize human experience as it is portrayed in

writing.

In GROUNDED THEORY, the researcher's goal is to collect and understand data from a textual base (such
as field notes or video recordings). After the interpretation process, the researcher divides the database
into different variables and examines and investigates the interrelationships between these variables.

65. An investigator conducted a study to examine the effect of gender on attitude towards dowry system.
The nature of this study was

A. Descriptive B. Correlational

C. Causal comparative D. Experimental

CAUSAL-COMPARATIVE RESEARCH aims to identify links between independent and dependent variables
after an action or event takes place. In the instance provided, causal-comparative research is used to
determine cause-and-effect linkages or to investigate the effects of pre-existing differences between two
groups.

CORRELATIONAL RESEARCH indicates how two or more things link together, what they have in common,
and how well one or more pieces of information can predict a given outcome.

66. In which of the following types of sampling does a researcher select individuals based on specific
characteristics or qualities, rather than random selection?

A. Stratified Random Sampling

B. Systematic Sampling

C. Convenience Sampling

D. Purposive Sampling

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A) STRATIFIED RANDOM SAMPLING: This method divides the population into groups (strata) and then
selects individuals randomly from each category. While there is some degree of randomness, it is not
primarily based on certain qualities.

B) SYSTEMATIC SAMPLING: This method selects people at predetermined intervals from a set or arranged
structure. Although the selection process is methodical and does not consider individual traits, it can target
specific groupings.

C) CONVENIENCE SAMPLING: This method selects people who are easily accessible to the researcher.
Although it might exhibit bias towards specific groups or features, it doesn't stem from a deliberate
selection process that targets specific qualities.

D) URPOSIVE SAMPLING stands out because it selects individuals based on certain features or qualities
relevant to the study subject. For example, a researcher examining cancer survivors' lived experiences may
purposely sample people from various age groups, disease types, and treatment experiences in order to
obtain a varied and meaningful sample.

67. Which of the following is an example of a mixed-methods approach to research in language education?

A. Conducting a quantitative survey of language teachers' beliefs and practices, followed by a

qualitative analysis of a subset of responses.

B. Observing language classrooms and analyzing student language production.

C. Conducting a series of case studies of successful language learners, followed by a statistical analysis of
the factors that contributed to their success.

D. Conducting a series of experiments to test the effectiveness of different language teaching techniques.

MIXED-METHODS research blends quantitative and qualitative research to solve a research issue. Mixed
methods can provide a deeper understanding than a solitary quantitative or qualitative study since they
incorporate the advantages of both disciplines.

68. A non-government organization conducted a study in Tondo, Manila to see the impacts of campaign
approach on enrolment and retention of urban elementary school children. This is an example of .

A. Descriptive Study B. Field Experiment

C. Ex-post facto research D. Historical Research

FIELD EXPERIMENTS take place in natural or real-world settings rather than laboratories.

The DESCRIPTIVE STUDY describes and provides details about the study or phenomenon under
investigation's nature or qualities. It addresses the questions of what, when, where, and how the
phenomenon is occurring.

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HISTORICAL RESEARCH is the examination of a previous event or cause using the facts available.

69. What is the role of the teacher in a task-based language teaching (TBLT) lesson?

A. To lecture on grammar rules and vocabulary

B. To provide students with pre-determined tasks to complete

C. To facilitate communication and guide students in completing a task

D. To correct students' errors and provide feedback

In a TASK-BASED LESSON, the teacher does not predetermine which language will be studied; instead, the
class revolves around the completion of a specific task, and the language studied is selected by what
happens as the students accomplish it. The students work in pairs or groups to complete a task using their
linguistic resources, while the teacher supervises and encourages them.

70. Which of the following DOES NOT correspond to characteristics of research?

A. Research is not passive.

B. Research is systematic.

C. Research is not a problem-oriented.

D. Research is not a process.

The research process is a set of methodical methods that a researcher must follow in order to develop
knowledge that will be useful to the endeavor and concentrate on the relevant topic.

Letters A, B, and C all represent research characteristics.

71. Distinguished features of the action research are as follows:

I Only teachers conduct action research.

II. A small accessible population is used for the study.

III. Sample drawn from a population is used for the study.

IV. Researcher is the consumer of the findings.

A. I and III B. I and II

C. II and IV D. III and IV

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I. Only teachers conduct action research:

This statement is NOT CORRECT. While teachers are frequently involved in conducting action research, it
is not exclusive to them. Action research can be conducted by other professionals, researchers, or
individuals who work in a specific environment or field.

II. A small accessible population is used for the study:

This statement is a HALLMARK OF ACTION RESEARCH. Action research often focuses on a small, easily
accessible group within a given context or location. This enables close participation, cooperation, and a
thorough grasp of the research problem.

III. Sample drawn from a population is used for the study:

This remark is NOT INDICATIVE of ACTION RESEARCH. Action research frequently focuses on a single
group or situation rather than sampling from a larger population for generalization reasons.

IV. Researcher is the consumer of the findings:

This statement is a CHARACTERISTIC of ACTION RESEARCH. In action research, the researcher is usually
the primary recipient of the findings. Researchers often undertake research to enlighten and improve their
own practices or those of others in a specific environment.

72. It refers to the practical "how" of a research study. More specifically, it's about how a researcher
systematically designs a study to ensure valid and reliable results that address the research aims,
objectives and research questions. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. result
B. methodology
C. recommendations
D. steps

METHODOLOGY refers to the practical "how" of a research study. More specifically, it's about how a
researcher systematically designs a study to ensure valid and reliable results that address the research
aims, objectives and research questions.

73. What is the limitation of survey research in language education?

A. It is a time-consuming and resource-intensive method.

B. It may suffer from low response rates and/or biased responses.

C. It is difficult to generalize findings to other contexts.

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D. It is only suitable for investigating surface-level phenomena

The reliability of survey data may be determined by the following factors: Participants may not feel
motivated to deliver accurate and honest responses. Respondents may feel uncomfortable offering answers
that portray themselves negatively.

74. Which of the following represents the distinctive feature of qualitative research?

A. Perspective based, inductive and meaning giving

B. Hypothesis based, deductive and testing

C. Deductive cum inductive based approach and generalization

D. Deductive inquiry with focus and hypotheses being tested

The goal of qualitative research is to investigate a phenomenon in order to acquire a better knowledge of
the situation. Data quality is prioritized over quantity. It shifts from specific to hypothetical. As a result, it is
essentially inductive. The conclusions are descriptive, not predictive.

75. It is conducted one-on-one or with a small group. It can be used throughout the data-gathering process.
Which technique is this in gathering data?

A. Interview B. Focus group discussion

C. Observations D. Surveys

A FOCUS GROUP DISCUSSION (FGD) is a qualitative research method and data collection approach in
which a small group of people address a certain topic or issue in depth, guided by a trained, external
moderator.

INTERVIEWS are a qualitative research approach that involves asking one or more people for their
thoughts, experiences, or viewpoints on a specific topic or subject matter.

OBSERVATION is a method of acquiring information by witnessing behavior, events, or physical traits in

their natural environment. Observations can be either overt (everyone knows they are being watched) or
covert (no one knows they are being watched, and the observer is hidden).

SURVEY RESEARCH is a unique method of getting data from a wide population. Surveys have several
benefits, including a large population and increased statistical power, the ability to collect vast volumes of
information, and the availability of proven models.

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76. This is used when researchers want to gather data from a large number of people. They can be both
formal and informal. What data gathering technique is described?

A. Interview B. Focus group discussion

C. Observations D. Surveys

SURVEY RESEARCH is a unique method of getting data from a wide population. Surveys have several
benefits, including a large population and increased statistical power, the ability to collect vast volumes of
information, and the availability of proven models.

77. Which one is NOT theoretical framework?

A. It discusses and explains the theory thoroughly.

B. It enables you to see clearly the possible variables of the study

C. It provides guidance in the conceptualization of the research problem.

D. None of the above

Letter C is a feature of a conceptual framework in research that is utilized to comprehend a research

problem and lead the research's development and analysis. It acts as a road map for conceptualizing and
organizing the work, offering an overview that links various ideas, concepts, and theories within the topic
of study.

A and B are benefits of a Theoretical Framework since it is the structure that can hold or support a theory
of a research investigation. The theoretical framework presents and describes the theory that explains why
the research problem under consideration exists.

78. This is a decision-oriented research that involves the application of scientific method in response to an
immediate need to improve existing practices. What kind of research is this?

A. Descriptive Research B. Laboratory Research

C. Action Research D. Practical Research

ACTION RESEARCH is a qualitative strategy that addresses problems in social systems like schools and
other organizations. The primary focus is on fixing the presented problem by generating knowledge and
acting within the social structure in which it exists.

79. The ethical principle that data collected from subjects should be kept confidential means that

A. Data should be collected from anonymous participants.

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B. Researchers should never reveal the names of participants when they report results.

C. Names can be released with the data only to other research professionals.

D. Participants should not be told how they scored on the study's measuring instruments.

All researchers who undertake human studies must protect their participants' privacy. This means that
researchers take precautions to protect sensitive and personal information that participants would not
reasonably want to share with others or make public.

80. Which of the following features are considered as critical in qualitative research?

A. Collecting data with the help of standardized research tools.

B. Design sampling with probability sample techniques.

C. Collecting data with bottom-up empirical evidence.

D. Gathering data with top-down schematic evidence.The correct answer is letter B. It is only the null
hypotheses that can be tested.

In qualitative research, we employ an inductive approach that progresses from specific to general. In other
words, we begin by studying society from the bottom and work our way up to develop theories.

81. Which one is a list of sources on a topic, with commentary on each source written by a researcher?

A. Citation B. Annotated bibliography

C. Referencing D. Publication

An ANNOTATED BIBLIOGRAPHY presents a summary or concise account of the available research on a

specific topic. It is a list of research sources that includes a citation for each source, followed by an
annotation, which is a brief paragraph summarizing and rating the source.

A CITATION specifies the original source for a concept, fact, or image used in a work.

REFERENCING is the process of acknowledging the source of information used (referred to) in your work.
Explaining how you built your arguments on others' work helps the reader.

PUBLICATIONS make scientific knowledge public and allow the rest of the academic community to assess
the research's validity.

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82. When the subjects of a research change or improve their behaviour, not due to changes in experimental
stimulus, it is called .

A. The Hawthorne effect B. The Glenn effect

C. The Fischer effect D. The Kerlinger effect

The HAWTHORNE EFFECT describes how people alter their behavior when they are under observation or
become aware of it. This effect has the potential to significantly impact research studies and experiments,
since participants may change their behavior simply because they are aware they are being monitored.

83. Which of the following is an example of a research bias that could occur in a study of language and
gender?

A. Observer bias B. Sampling bias

C. Response bias D. Confirmation bias

SAMPLING BIAS occurs when some individuals of a population are systematically more likely to be
included in a sample than others. If the survey participants' gender distribution is not typical of the general
population, the results may not correctly reflect all genders' perspectives or experiences. Efforts should be
made to obtain a varied and inclusive sample.

OBSERVER BIAS is defined as any systematic deviation from the truth throughout the process of observing
and recording data for a study.

RESPONSE BIAS involves a number of circumstances that can cause someone to respond erroneously or
incorrectly to a question.

CONFIRMATION BIAS is the tendency of people to absorb information by seeking out or interpreting
information that supports their pre-existing ideas.

84. Which of the following explains why research is systematic? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Research is based on data that perceive by senses.

B. Research follows procedures.

C. Research must be based on facts.

D. Research makes use of tools.

The research process is considered systematic due to its structured nature, consisting of distinct processes
that ultimately lead to well-founded results. Research is organized due to the implementation of a
deliberate and structured methodology aimed at achieving a conclusive outcome.

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MYTHOLOGY AND FOLKLORE

•Demonstrate knowledge and principles of mythology and folklore from different countries.

85. What is the usual pattern in flood myths? ***Actual March 2024 LET

I. Signs

II. Survivors

III. Size

IV. Cause

A. I, II, III, and IV B. IV, III, II and I

C. I, IV, III, and II D. IV, I, III, IV

Flood myths usually follow this pattern:

CAUSE: The flood is humankind's punishment.

SIZE: The flood covers the whole land or world.

SURVIVORS: A few people survive because they are good.

SIGNS: There's a sign of hope, for example, a rainbow, to show that life will go on.

86. Hera is symbolized by what animal? ***Actual August 2014 LET

A. frog B. peacock

C. pig D. sparrow

In Greek mythology, the PEACOCK represents the goddess HERA, Zeus' consort.

87. He is considered as the Mesopotamian great hero and son of goddess Ninsun whose stories are told in
Sumerian and Babylonian poems.

A. Gilgamesh B. Enkidu

C. Enuma Elish D. Anu

GILGAMESH is the King of Uruk, the strongest man, and the embodiment of all human virtues. Gilgamesh, a
powerful warrior, fair judge, and ambitious builder, surrounds Uruk with splendid walls and erects

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glorious ziggurats, or temple towers. Gilgamesh, two-thirds god and one-third mortal, is overcome with
sadness when his beloved friend Enkidu dies, as well as despair at the prospect of his own extinction. He
journeys to the far reaches of the Earth in pursuit of answers to life's puzzles.

ENKIDU is Gilgamesh's companion and friend. Animals raised Enkidu, giving him a hairy body and a strong
build. Even after entering the civilized world, he retains many of his undomesticated traits. Enkidu
resembles Gilgamesh and is practically his physical equal. He wants to be Gilgamesh's competitor, but
instead becomes his soulmate. The gods punish Gilgamesh and Enkidu by executing Enkidu in a lengthy,
painful, and humiliating manner for murdering the monster Humbaba and the Bull of Heaven.

ENUMA ELISH is an ancient Mesopotamian creation epic that relates the story of Marduk, the main god of
Babylon. He destroys the elder goddess Tiamat and restores order to chaos, becoming the Lord of the Gods
of Heaven and Earth.

ANU is the Mesopotamian god of the skies. According to the Sumerians, he is the embodiment of the sky
and can manifest himself in human form on Earth. Anu is also known as the King of Gods and is sometimes
credited with creating humans with the help of his sons Enlil and/or Enki.

88. In the Celtic myth of "The Children of Lir," what happens to the four children after they are turned into
swans?

A. They are hunted and killed by a hunter

B. They remain swans for eternity

C. They are rescued and turned back into humans

D. They are transformed into stars in the sky

The CHILDREN OF LIR tells the narrative of Lir's new stepmother, Aoife, who becomes envious of the
children's love for Lir and casts a spell that transforms them into four white swans.

89. When Pallas Athena appeared as an old woman and challenged Arachne to a weaving contest, the
goddess proves that . ***Actual August 2014 LET

A. changing identity is easy

B. goddess has the power to appear

C. physical appearance is deceiving

D. goddess is just like mortal woman

Arachne, who is known for her weaving abilities and boasts about them, catches the goddess' attention and
proposes a competition with Athena transforming into an old woman. Zeus usually judges the contest,

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which concludes with Arachne's death and transformation into a spider, despite the differing
circumstances and outcomes.

90. He is perhaps the most popular god among the Scandinavians during the Viking Age. He is portrayed as
unrelentingly pursuing his foes and with his mountain-crashing thunderous hammer Mjolnir in hand.

A. Odin B. Frigg

C. Thor D. Loki

THOR, the hammer-wielding god of Norse mythology, is connected with lightning, thunder, storms, holy
groves and trees, power, humankind's protection, hallowing, and fertility.

ODIN goes by many names, and he is the deity of war and death. Half of the warriors killed in battle are
brought to Valhalla. He is the One-Eyed All-Father, who gave up his eye to witness everything that happens
on earth.

FRIGG is Asgard's queen and the highest goddess. Her residence is called Fensalir, which translates as "hall
of the marshlands."

The ancient Norse revered LOKI as the deity of mischief, cunning, and deception.

91. It is a mythical fire bird from ancient Egypt which is portrayed as a bird that dies in fire and is reborn of
it.

A. Griffin B. Phoenix

C. Unicorn D. Banshee

The Egyptians equated the PHOENIX'S with immortality, and this symbolism was widely popular in late
antiquity.

GRIFFINS were ancient mythical animals that had an eagle's head, sometimes wings, a lion's body, pointed
ears, and talons.

In Celtic mythology, the UNICORN, with its white horse-like body and one spiraling horn, represents purity,
innocence, and power.

BANSHEE, a "woman of the fairies," is a is a supernatural entity in Irish and other Celtic folklore whose sad
"keening," or wailing, screaming, or mourning, at night was thought to presage the death of a member of
the person who heard the ghost.

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92. What is the primary symbolism of the Trojan Horse in the Trojan War?

A. It symbolizes deceit and betrayal.

B. It symbolizes the cunning and intelligence of the Trojan warriors.

C. It represents the strength and power of the Greek’s army.

D. It represents a gift of peace and friendship between the Greeks and Trojans.

Homer's epics, the Iliad and Odyssey, describe the war between the Greeks and the inhabitants of Troy. The
Greeks ultimately triumphed in the battle due to a brilliant act of deception devised by Odysseus, the hero
and king of Ithaca, who is well-known for his ingenuity. They construct a massive wooden horse and place
it outside Troy's walls as a gift to the gods, while pretending to abandon fighting and sail away.

93. In Greek mythology, who was the hero who sailed in the long ship Argo to search for the golden fleece?
***September 2015 LET

A. Achilles B. Jason

C. Paris D. Ulysses

The fleece symbolizes power and kingship. In the historical narrative, the hero Jason and his band of
Argonauts set off on a hunt for the fleece at the request of King Pelias in order to restore Jason to the reign
of Iolcus in Thessaly. With Medea's help, they obtain the Golden Fleece.

94. This is the attribution of a human form, human characteristics, or human behavior to nonhuman things,
e.g. deities in mythology and animals in children’s stories.

A. Anthropomorphism B. Ethereal

C. God-like D. Anthropocentrism

When an author grants animals and inanimate objects the ability to walk and talk, this is an example of
ANTHROPOMORPHISM. The Greek words anthrop (meaning human) and morphos (meaning to have a
definite shape) derived the term "anthropomorphic".

ANTHROPOCENTRISM is a philosophical perspective that asserts that humans are the primary or most
important entities in the world.

95. Which of the following best describes the Tagalog myth Malakas and Maganda?

A. The creation of bodies of water

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B. The creation of the universe

C. The great flood

D. The creation of mankind

A magical bird cut a bamboo tree in half to create man, according to the Philippine creation story.
According to Philippine legend, Malakas, or "The Strong One," and Maganda, or "The Beautiful One," sprang
from both sections of the bamboo.

96. The “body” (line 3) is the body of .

And on the slope above the sea

The hard-handed peasants go their round

Turning the soil, blind to the body

Ambitious and viable, whose pride

Will leave no trace in the quenching tide.

A. Ulysses B. Achilles

C. Icarus D. Priam

ICARUS is recognized as the boy who died tragically after flying too close to the sun. People occasionally
use the myth of Icarus as a metaphor for someone who was overly ambitious or attempted something too
dangerous, leading to disastrous consequences.

ULYSSES was the Roman name for the Greek hero Odysseus from Homer's Odyssey. While their traits are
similar, the two protagonists differ slightly between Homer's Odyssey and Virgil's Aeneid.

KING PRIAM is renowned for controlling Troy during the Trojan War. He is also well-known for having
fifty daughters and fifty sons, including Paris, who initiated the war by kidnapping Helen.

97. Philosophical-religious belief in reincarnation is based on which mythical character?

A. Orpheus B. Paris

C. Achilles D. Agamemnon

The sad narrative of Orpheus' journey into the underworld to save Eurydice, his lover, tells of a love that
defied all odds. After Eurydice died, Orpheus was sad. He realized that life on Earth was worthless without
her, and he resolved to do whatever it took to protect his lover. He then got his lyre and proceeded to get
her back from the dead.

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PARIS serves as a trigger for the Trojan War. First, he selects Aphrodite over Hera and Athena, offending
them. Then he abducts Helen and her husband, King Menelaos, from their home. As a result, the Greeks
travel to Troy and reclaim her.

AGAMEMNON was the legendary king of Mycenae and the Greek army's commander during Homer's
Trojan War.

98. She is a woman with snakes as hair and turned into stone whoever looked at her. ***Actual August 2014
LET

A. Helen B. Medea

C. Lavinia D. Medusa

The Roman poet Ovid wrote the most well-known story of Medusa. Medusa was captivated by Neptune
(Poseidon) in a temple to Minerva (Athena), and in retaliation, Minerva transformed Medusa's gorgeous
head of hair into serpents. Perseus was tasked with cutting off her head because she was both mortal and
capable of turning men to stone.

99. When Oedipus learns the incredible truth about his mother and father, he puts out his own eyes and
leaves his city to wander and eventually dies. This shows . ***Actual August 2014 LET

A. fate’s control over human’s lives

B. regret and repentance to a wrong decision

C. physical manifestation of the limitation of man

D. acceptance of wrongdoing and self-punishment

Oedipus blinds himself after discovering that he had accidentally killed his father and slept with his mother.
He is so shocked by this realization that he feels compelled to violently punish himself. He blinds himself
because he can't face the reality of his deeds.

100. In the Middle Ages and Renaissance, it was commonly described as symbol of purity and grace, which
could only be captured by a virgin. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Troll B. Dragon

C. Kappa D. Unicorns

The UNICORN, a mythical creature from Celtic mythology, represents innocence, strength, and purity with
its white horse-like body and one spiraling horn. Their horns are so powerful, according to legend, that
they can even cure poisoned water.

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DRAGON, in various cultures' mythology, folklore, and folktales, is a giant lizard- or serpent-like creature,
seen as bad in some traditions and benevolent in others. Medieval Europe commonly depicted dragons as
possessing wings, a barbed tail, and the ability to breathe fire.

KAPPA are Japanese mythical water-dwelling creatures that, according to folklore, live in Japan's ponds,
rivers, and lakes.

TROLLS are humanoid folk monsters from Scandinavian and Norse mythologies. Trolls are also ethically
ambiguous adversaries who are hostile to humans. Typically, depictions depict them as hideous, brutish
monsters, their sizes ranging from mountain to human to gnome.

101. Which is the subject in Mythic history portrayed in “Musee des Beaux Arts” painting?

A. Daedalus and Icarus

B. Iliad and ODYSSEY

C. Farewell of Hector and Andromache

D. Encounter with Polyphemus

DAEDALUS AND ICARUS. When the king turned towards Daedalus and confined him, Daedalus discreetly
created wings for himself and his son Icarus with the intention of fleeing to Sicily. Despite his father's
cautions, Icarus flew too close to the sun, causing the wax holding his wings' feathers to melt and causing
him to fall into the sea and drown.

ILIAD AND ODYSSEY. Homer's Iliad is an epic poem about the ten-year Trojan War and the heroic actions
of soldiers like Achilles, Hector, and Odysseus. One of the finest works of ancient Greek literature, it
explores topics such as pride, honor, and the human condition. The Odyssey structures around a single
goal: Odysseus' homecoming to his country of Ithaca, where he will battle the impolite suitors camped in
his palace and reconcile with his loyal wife Penelope.

FAREWELL OF HECTOR AND ANDROMACHE. Andromache gets married to Hector, and he has a son
named Astyanax with him. Achilles, a Greek hero, takes over Thebes during the Trojan War. The following
fight results in the death of Andromache's entire family. After that, Andromache only has Hector's family
left.

ENCOUNTER WITH POLYPHEMUS. The monster Polyphemus was a giant cyclops that ate people. He had
one orb-shaped eye in the middle of his forehead. On his way back from Troy, Odysseus encountered him
and became trapped in the giant's cave. In order to get away, the hero gave him a lot of wine and then put a
burning stick in his eye while he was sleeping.

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102. A traditional or legendary story, usually concerning some being or hero or event, with or without a
determinable basis of fact or a natural explanation, especially one that is concerned with deities or
demigods and explains some practice, rite, or phenomenon of nature.

A. Legend B. Myth

C. Fable D. Folktale

A LEGEND is a story about the past that is believed to be genuine but is often a mix of fact and fiction.

A FOLKTALE is a fictional story that has been handed down orally for hundreds, if not thousands, of years.

A FABLE is a narrative style in which animals behave and speak like humans and are used to illustrate
human limitations and weaknesses.

103. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Tall tales are funny stories written about ordinary people. People read the stories for entertainment, and
relaxation.

B. Tall tales are stories about extraordinary characters compared to people in real life. They are
usually funny and entertaining.

C. Tall tales are stories about characters who lived in the 18th century. They are based on real people, and
are read with groups of people.

D. Tall tales are true stories about extraordinary events that took place in America during the 18th century.

A TALL TALE is defined as a narrative in which the protagonist has exaggerated, superhuman abilities. Tall
tales feature extraordinary individuals performing challenging feats.

104. What group of twelve elder gods came before the Roman gods? ***August 2014 LET

A. Celtics B. Ogres

C. Cyclops D. Titans

In ancient Greek mythology, the Titans were pre-Olympian gods who dominated the cosmos prior to the
Titanomachy War. Thought to be the first generation of gods, they were enormous, immortal deities
descended from Uranus and Gaea. They reigned from Mount Orthys, and each deity was responsible for a
specific domain. The Titans represented the earliest generation of celestial gods.

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105. Which mythical creature is depicted as a shape changer who could transform into a cat, a big dog, or a
pig, and who liked to eat people?

A. Manananggal B. Aswang

C. Tikbalang D. Kapre

The ASWANG is a flesh-eating, shape-shifting creature. During the day, Aswangs appear to be normal
townspeople, which they may be.

TIKBALANG is a mythic horseman whose knees are supposed to be higher than his head when he sits, and
the only way to tame him is to remove the one golden hair from his mane.

MANANANGGAL is a mythical creature with the remarkable ability to cut its body in half, with the top
section sprouting wings and flying off in pursuit of prey, while the lower part remains behind.

A KAPRE is defined as a tree-dweller who never shaves and enjoys a satisfying smoke from his never-
ending cigar.

106. Which of the following creatures from Japanese folklore is known for its ability to shape-shift and
often appears as a beautiful woman?

A. Tengu B. Kappa

C. Kitsune D. Oni

KITSUNE are trickster foxes in traditional Japanese folklore. They are a sort of yōkai, a supernatural
monster with godlike abilities. They are adept enough to shift into precise replicas of specific persons,
frequently appearing in the guise of beautiful human ladies to deceive young men.

In Japanese legend, a TENGU is a mischievous supernatural being. They may also be classified as gods,
demons, or goblins. Some people believe that they are the reincarnated spirits of Buddhist priests who
were haughty and self-important in life.

ONI are horned, ogre-like creatures from Japanese legend. Others have compared them to orcs, demons,
goblins, and trolls. An oni is a sort of Japanese yōkai, which encompasses supernatural creatures such as
monsters, goblins, gods, ghosts, and spirits.

107. What does the crossroads represent in Oedipus the King?

A. Oedipus' fate, where he made a life changing decision

B. the beginning of Oedipus' journey

C. the ability of Oedipus to finally see the truth

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D. an interaction with the supernatural

The crossroads represent fate, when Oedipus chose to unintentionally fulfill his prophecy and murder his
father.

108. Paul Bunyan and Bernardo Carpio are tales that depict a greatly exaggerated imaginative story or
account of something or someone such as an extraordinary person doing extra ordinary things. What type
of tales being described? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Realistic tales B. Humorous tales

C. Folktale D. Tall tales

The PAUL BUNYAN narrative is a form of American folklore or mythology that revolves around the
legendary figure of Paul Bunyan. He was a lumberjack who traveled the country with his blue ox, Babe,
logging, fixing issues, and promoting the concept of manifest destiny and westward expansion.

The BERNARDO CARPIO legend talks about a young man who is imprisoned within a mountain by a
ruthless ruler. Jealousy drove the king, Alfonso, to jail Bernardo's sister and execute her lover. Although
Bernardo managed to elude the king, his enormous size ultimately led to his capture.

109. According to the epic poem Enuma Elish, this Mesopotamian god leads the new gods in a battle against
the old gods. After defeating the gods of chaos and gaining power of a supreme god, he creates the sky and
earth, as well as the first human beings.

A. Tiamat B. Kingu

C. Marduk D. Nabu

MARDUK was also known as the Babylonian god of justice, compassion, healing, and magic, as well as the
god of thunder and agriculture.

TIAMAT was a deity in the Mesopotamian pantheon. People believed her to be a celestial creator and a
primordial deity of the water.

KINGU, theoretically related to Anshar and Kishar, is the son of Tiamat, an ancient goddess of the sea, and
Apsu, an ancient god of groundwater.

In Mesopotamian cultures, NABU was the god of writing. He was also referred to as the god of wisdom and
vegetation.

110. What is the main theme of the epic of Gilgamesh?

A. The meaning of life, identity and relationship, and mortality and immortality.

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B. Love and friendship, fate and free will, and honor

C. Believing in one's sacred duty called dharma

D. Hospitality, Loyalty, and Vengeance

The Epic of Gilgamesh's principal themes are the meaning of life, identity and relationships, mortality, and
immortality.

THE MEANING OF LIFE: Enkidu's death pushes Gilgamesh to confront his own mortality. He traverses the
world, trying to discover the key to immortality, only to come back home without anything.

IDENTITY AND RELATIONSHIP: Gilgamesh's friendship with Enkidu is the epic's main relationship,
established by Enkidu's admiration for Gilgamesh, who defeats him in combat. Their link provides both
characters with a sense of wholeness.

MORTALITY AND IMMORTALITY: Gilgamesh's determination defies death. Gilgamesh eventually fails to
realize the goal of immortality.

111. In the Chinese myth of the Monkey King, what does the monkey's journey to retrieve the Buddhist
scriptures symbolize?

A. The search for enlightenment

B. The importance of education

C. The dangers of greed and ambition

D. The power of friendship and loyalty

The CHINESE TALE OF THE MONKEY KING depicts his spiritual transformation from an ignorant, short-
tempered monkey to a kind, enlightened creature.

112. He was a fearless warrior and king who one day saw the emptiness of his life and turned his back on it,
becoming a wanderer and sadhu. He refused to return to the world that is why he is often alluded to as
having refused the responsibility.

A. King Minos B. King Muchukunda

C. King Rama D. Jason

According to Hindu mythology, MUCHUKUNDA, the saffron-clad man, fell asleep in a cave and slept for
thousands of years. When he finally awoke, Krishna arrived and told him to undergo penance in order to
purify his sins and obtain liberation.

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In Greek mythology, MINOS is well known as the ruler of Crete. He is well-known for populating the Aegean
and purging the sea of pirates. He is well remembered for his role in the story of Theseus destroying the
Minotaur, whom Minos had imprisoned in a labyrinth created by Daedalus.

JASON is a Greek mythological hero best known for leading the Argonauts on their search for the Golden
Fleece, as well as for his wife Medea (of Colchis).

113. Which of the following is NOT a description of a creation myth?

A. Describes how the universe, earth, and life began

B. Explains the workings of the natural world

C. Supports and validates local laws

D. Guides people through the trials of living

CREATION MYTH does not explain how the natural world works; science does. A creation myth is a
supernatural mytho-religious account or explanation of the origins of mankind, earth, life, and the universe,
typically an intentional act of "creation" by one or more beings.

Letters A, C, and D are characteristics of a creation myth.

114. Which of the descriptions below best describes the goddess Aphrodite?

A. Goddess of wisdom and war who was the patron god of Athens

B. Goddess of love and beauty who was married to Hephaestus

C. Goddess of agriculture whose symbol was the pig

D. Goddess of family and marriage who was queen of the gods

APHRODITE is the Goddess of love and beauty who was married to Hephaestus.

ATHENA is the Goddess of wisdom and war who was the patron god of Athens.

HERA is the Goddess of family and marriage who was queen of the gods.

DEMETER is the Goddess of agriculture whose symbol was the pig.

115. For what act is Antigone sentenced to death? ***Actual September 2015 LET

A. She killed her own father.

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B. She refused to marry the king’s son.

C. She disobeyed her sister’s command.

D. She performed the burial rituals for her brother.

ANTIGONE by SOPHOCLES is a play about Antigone's disobedience to Creon's rules by insisting on

burying her brother, Polyneices. At the end of the play, Antigone, Haemon, and Eurydice die, leaving
Creon devastated. The play deals with issues of civic disobedience, morality, loyalty, authority, and gender.

116. What powerful god lived in the Underworld rather than on Mount Olympus?

A. Hades B. Poseidon

C. Zeus D. Apollo

In ancient Greek mythology, ZEUS is the deity of the sky. Zeus, the most important Greek deity, is revered
as the king, defender, and father of all gods and mankind.

HADES was renowned as the god of the underworld.

POSEIDON was the god of the sea, storms, earthquakes, and horses, according to ancient Greek mythology.

APOLLO has been revered as a deity of archery, music and dance, truth and prophecy, healing and disease,
the sun and light, poetry, and other subjects.

117. To punish himself for murdering his father and having sexual relations with his mother, what did
Oedipus do? ***March 2013 LET

A. He killed himself. B. He gouged his eyes.

C. He castrated himself. D. He ordered his sons to murder him

Oedipus blinds himself after discovering that he had accidentally killed his father and slept with his
mother. He is so shocked by this realization that he feels compelled to violently punish himself. He blinds
himself because he can't face the reality of his deeds.

118. According to the myth of Demeter and Persephone, the "death" of the world in winter comes about
because of .

A. the grief of Demeter for her lost daughter Persephone.

B. the grief of Persephone for her mother.

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C. the anger of Hades toward Demeter.

D. the anger of Demeter toward Hades.

The rich spring and summer seasons depict Demeter and Persephone's six months together, whereas the
barren fall and winter months symbolize Demeter's loneliness while Persephone is away while governing
the realm of the dead with her husband.

119. The story of Cupid and Psyche depicts undying love and devotion. What was Psyche’s mistake that
according to Cupid was a betrayal?

A. Psyche got infatuated with Zeus.

B. Psyche believed her sisters persuasion that her lover was an ugly beast and would kill her.

C. Psyche disobeyed her husband when she enlightened his face in the middle of the night.

D. Psyche left the house without her husband permission.

Venus, who is envious of Psyche's beauty, orders her son Cupid to trick her into falling for an unsuitable
man because of her beauty. Psyche, though, becomes Cupid's true love.

When he comes to her in bed every night, she is supposed to entertain him before going to bed without
ever looking at her lover. Psyche's jealous sisters ultimately persuade her that she needs to see the guy
she's sleeping with, and so she breaches her promise to Cupid.

120. In Hindu mythology, he is traditionally depicted with four heads, four faces and four arms. He also
symbolizes the supreme eternal deity whose essence pervades the entire universe.

A. Brahma B. Vishnu

C. Shiva D. Sarasvati

BRAHMA represents the concept of creation. He created everything and revealed the "Vedas," Hinduism's
holy writings, to mankind.

VISHNU, also known as Lord Vishnu or Vishnu Bhagwan, is the Hindu divinity responsible for restoring the
balance of righteousness and evil. In Hindu tradition, he is the defender of dharma, or moral order and right
behavior. As such, he serves as the guardian mediator, preserving order and truth.

SHIVA, the god of destruction, plays a key role in Hinduism. He is considered one of the three most
important gods, along with Brahma (the creator) and Vishnu (the preserver). The Shaivism cult believes
that Shiva is the Supreme Being, of which all other gods are manifestations.

SARASVATI is the Hindu goddess of knowledge. Saraswati is associated with wisdom, music, art, and
knowledge.

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121. Which of the following is an example of Philippine Tall tale? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Ang Matsing at ang Pagong B. Si Malakas at Maganda

C. Biag ni Lam-ang D. Ang Alamat ng Pinya

THE MONKEY AND THE TURTLE (ANG MATSING AT ANG PAGONG): In this tale, a monkey and a turtle
become friends and agree to plant a tree together. But the monkey becomes selfish and betrays the turtle,
setting off a chain of events that eventually teaches the monkey the value of fairness and friendship.

THE FIRST MAN AND WOMAN (SI MALAKAS AT SI MAGANDA): This creation myth tells the story of the
first man and woman. They emerge from a bamboo stalk, with Malakas (the powerful one) representing the
man and Maganda (the lovely one) representing the woman. This story emphasizes the importance of
gender equality and interdependence.

BIAG NI LAM-ANG is a legendary Filipino story that stands out among Philippine epics, particularly in
Ilocano literature. This epic narrative, believed to have originated in pre-colonial times, is a significant
contribution to Philippine literature and the first documented Philippine folk epic.

ALAMAT NG PINYA is a folk tale about a little, indolent girl named Pina who always makes excuses when
her mother begs for aid. When her mother yearned for Pina to be more helpful, a fruit with many eyes
transformed her, enabling her to locate her mother swiftly.

122. Whose wily mind thought of the stratagem of the wooden horse that is often alluded to have caused
the Trojans’ defeat against the Greeks?

A. Achilles B. Aeneas

C. Menealus D. Odysseus

The Greeks ultimately prevailed in the Trojan War, mainly thanks to a clever trick devised by ODYSSEUS,
the hero and king of Ithaca, who is well-known for his cleverness. They construct a massive wooden horse
and place it outside Troy's walls as a gift to the gods, all while pretending to abandon fighting and sail away.

AENEAS is a mythological hero of Troy and Rome, the son of the goddesses Aphrodite and Anchises.

ACHILLES was a demigod (the child of the goddess Thetis and the human king Peleus). He was the most
powerful fighter on the Achaeans' side during the Trojan War. He is also a key figure in Homer's 'Iliad'.

In Greek mythology, MENALAUS was king of Sparta and the younger son of Atreus, king of Mycenae; the
abduction of his wife, Helen, sparked the Trojan War.

123. Who died at the end of Iliad? ***Actual March 2013 LET

A. Achilles B. Agamemnon

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C. Hector D. Menelaus

The ILIAD concludes with the DEATH AND FUNERAL of HECTOR, a prince and famous warrior from Troy.
Achilles, the Iliad's hero, kills Hector in retaliation for the death of his companion, Patroclus. The story
concludes not with the end of the Trojan War but with the enemy's funeral.

124. What is the Greek name for Venus? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Aphrodite B. Thalassa

C. Venussa D. Thalea

In GREEK MYTHOLOGY, APHRODITE is the goddess of beauty and love; in ROMAN MYTHOLOGY, she is
known as VENUS.

125. What is the story of "The Carabao and the Shell?" ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. A carabao and a shell compete in a race, with the carabao using its strength to overcome obstacles and
win.

B. A carabao and a shell make unlikely friends, learning valuable lessons about cooperation and friendship.

C. A carabao discovers a magical shell that grants wishes, leading to a series of adventures and
misadventures.

D. A carabao and a shell engage in a battle of wits, with each trying to outsmart the other to prove
their superiority.

The CARABAO AND THE SHELL (ANG KALABAW AT ANG KABIBI): This story follows a carabao and a
shell as they battle to see who can carry the most water over a river. The shell outwits the carabao,
demonstrating that brains and cunning can outperform physical power.

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 SURVEY OF LITERATURE OF SELECTED COUNTRIES

• Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of Literature of the following countries:

❖ Philippine Literature in English

❖ Afro-Asian Literature

❖ English and American Literature

•Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of literatures from different countries in order to gain
insights into other people’s philosophy, culture, religions, beliefs, needs and aspirations.

•Demonstrate understanding and knowledge in preparing annotated reading lists of selected literary
pieces from different countries.

PHILIPPINE LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

126. In this period, most Filipino writers imitated the writing styles and techniques of English and
American writers as a direct result of American colonization in our nation. ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Period of Apprenticeship B. Period of New Society

C. Contemporary Period D. Period of Emergence

People commonly refer to the period from 1910 to 1935 as the PERIOD OF APPRENTICESHIP or
IMITATION. In "A Critical Study of the Shorty Story in English Written by Filipinos," Virginia R. Moreno
depicts the years 1910–1925 “as a period of novices with their exercises in fiction-making and the rise of
the new language." Filipino writers mimicked American and English writers. This is not surprising, given
that the early writers were mostly college students or recent graduates whose literary education had
primarily focused on American and English authors.

127. The teacher asked the students to write a poem that is inspired by Jose Garcia Villa's style. Which of
the following would help them with to make the poem similar to his?

A. excessive usage of commas

B. reversed consonance rhyme scheme

C. exaggerated statements

D. highfalutin words

VILLA is credited with introducing the "reversed consonance rhyme scheme" in poetry, as well as the
liberal use of punctuation marks, particularly commas, which earned him the given name "Comma Poet.”

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128. What does this excerpt reveal about Vicente’s character? ***Actual March 2024 LET

“The man’s arms tightened suddenly about the little girl until the little girl squirmed out of his arms, and
laughed a little breathlessly, disturbed but innocent, looking at the man with a smiling little question of
puzzlement.” -From: Magnificence by Estrella D. Alfon

A. Concern B. Goal-oriented

C. Persistent D. Malicious

In the story MAGNIFENCE by Estrella Alfon, the main problem emerges when Vicente sexually abuses the
girl. To protect her daughter, the mother confronts Vicente, slaps him, and throws him out of the house.

129. It has no fixed meter nor rhyme scheme although a number are written in octo-syllabic quatrains and
have a solemn tone and spiritual subject matter.

A. Dalit B. Tanaga

C. Diona D. Tanka

The short Filipino poem DALIT consists of four lines, each with eight syllables. There was still controversy
about the origin of dalit. While some argue that Spanish invaders popularized the poem to promote
Catholicism, others believe it originated in Spain.

The wedding song DIONA consists of three lines, each with eight syllables. Tanaga.

TANAGA is a short poem consisting of four lines and seven syllables that rhyme at the end of each line.

TANKA is a five-line Japanese poem with five syllables in the first and third lines and seven syllables in the
remaining lines, for a total of 31 syllables and a thorough description of an event or feeling.

130. In Paz Lotorena’s The Small Key, what is inside the chest when the second wife Soledad opened it
using the small key? ***Actual January 2014 LET

A. skeletons

B. old clothes and other things owned by the first wife

C. land titles and other documents

D. weapons used by Pedro during the Second World War

Paz Latorena, a Filipino author, wrote a short story called "The Small Key." It is about Soledad, a mid-
twenties lady who is married to Pedro Buhay. They lived in a cabin on an affluent farm, apart from their

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neighbors. Soledad viewed the start of a plentiful harvest with both familiarity and dissatisfaction. It's
called "the small key" because the rusted small key opens the trunk that represents the husband's love past.

131. What do ‘dead stars’ symbolize in Marquez-Benitez’ story?

A. the let-down feeling over the truth of disillusionment

B. the dilemma between responsibility and freedom

C. the discovery of how life’s values change with time

D. The doubts and uncertainty that stand in a relationship.

Paz Marquez Benitez's short story "Dead Stars" delves into the passing of time in love and the
disillusionment that follows from realizing that one's romantic fantasies do not always reflect reality.

132. “There was nothing to fear, for the man was always so gentle, so kind.” What literary device is
employed in this line from Magnificence?

A. foreshadowing B. in medias res

C. symbolism D. flashback

FORESHADOWING is a literary tactic in which authors allude to plot events that do not occur until later in
the story. By suggesting to the readers with the aforementioned sentences, it implies that the man
possesses something that may influence the course of the story in the later half.

IN MEDIAS RES is a Latin phrase that means "in the middle of things." In the realm of writing and
literature, it refers to a story that begins halfway through its storyline and fills in the gaps later using
dialogue, flashbacks, or other tactics.

In literature, SYMBOLISM is the use of any person, setting, or object to represent some kind of concept.

A FLASHBACK is a device that takes the spectator from the present moment in a chronological story to a
scene from the past.

133. Who wrote Mga Ibong Mandaragit? ***Actual March 2013 LET

A. Virgilio Almario B. Edgardo Reyes

C. Lualhati Bautista D. Amado V. Hernandez

MGA IBONG MANDARAGIt, written by AMADO V. HERNANDEZ, tells the narrative of a brave fight for
justice and social transformation during and after the Japanese rule of the Philippines in World War II.

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134. What is the theme of Five Brothers, One Mother? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. family and home B. love for siblings

C. adultery D. domestic violence

In the narrative "Five Brothers, One Mother," Exie Abola depicted the sense of being an outsider when
shifting from one society to another. The plot revolves around family and home. A mother will do all of
these things out of pure love, leaving all of her personal needs behind so that their children can have
everything they need.

135. In Kerima Polotan Tuvera’s The Virgin, why did Miss Mijares fail to find a man to marry? ***Actual
January 2014 LET

A. Because she is busy with work

B. Because she concentrated in her studies

C. Because she is choosy in finding a man

D. Because she took care of her sick mother

The story that was written by Kerima Polotan-Tuvera, “The Virgin,” is a story about a woman named Miss
Mijares, who was about 34 years old. She was slimy, almost bony. She also knew how to dress herself,
concealing her small chest with puffs and ruffles. She was not an ugly person, but she was also beautiful.
She was a woman so full of priorities, specifically having to take care of her sick mother, that she later
realized that she was old enough to find a man that she could marry.

136. What is the point of view in N.V.M. Gonzalez’s epistolary short story, The Happiest Boy in the World?
***Actual March 2024 LET

A. First point of view B. Second Point of View

C. Third-person limited point of view D. Third-person omniscient point of view

“THE HAPPIEST BOY IN THE WORLD” is told from a LIMITED THIRD-PERSON POINT POINT OF VIEW. A
third-person limited point of view tells a story from the perspective of one or more, but not all, characters
in the story. In the case of the abovementioned literary piece, the invisible or detached narrator can tell the
story only through the actions and thoughts of the first two characters, Julio and Jose, but cannot do the
same for Ka Ponso.

137. Which of the following is the first post-war Filipino novel written in English?

A. Without Seeing the Dawn by Stevan Javellana

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B. Bonsai by Edith L. Tiempo

C. Rosales Saga by F. Sionil Jose

D. May Day Eve by Nick Joaquin

WITHOUT SEEING THE DAWN by Stevan Javellana depicts the time before and during the war; the setting
is the Philippines. The story follows a young Filipino farmer, his hardships and poverty before the war, and
his gradual transformation into a bitter, vengeful guerrilla fighter when he discovers that his wife has been
raped by a Japanese soldier and is pregnant.

Edith L. Tiempo's poem BONSAI is about humans' ability to preserve memories through a collection of
keepsakes. The poem's main focus is nurturing excellent memories. The poem is about the art of recall and
the joy of collecting objects that remind us of an unforgettable moment from the past.

F. Sionil Jose is best known for his ROSALES SAGA. This five-novel epic follows the lives of various
generations of Samsons as they contend with the country's societal issues. This epic features The
Pretenders, Tree, My Brother, My Executioner, Mass, and Po-on.

Nick Joaquin's MAY DAY EVE follows an elderly woman named Dona Agueda and her daughter as they
stare into a mirror, believing a traditional superstition that it will reveal their future husbands. Dona
Agueda meets Don Badoy Montiya in the mirror and decides to marry him, but their union is unpleasant.

138. Which period is considered the golden age of the Filipino language? ***Actual March 2013 LET

A. Spanish regime B. Japanese regime

C. American regime D. Marcos regime

PHILIPPINE LITERATURE'S GOLDEN AGE occurred during the JAPANESE OCCUPATION of the
Philippines from 1941 to 1945. Philippine literature in English came to an end, and as a result, writers
switched to writing in Filipino.

139. Which of the following is a short story written by Francisco Arcellana that depicts a character’s
struggle in coping with the death of his children?

A. "THE MATS"

B. "A Clown Remembers"

C. "Death in a Factory"

D. "The Man Who Would Be Poe”

One of Francisco Arcellana's best-known works is the short story "THE MATS," in which Mr. Angeles brings
home handcrafted mats for each of his family members, two of which represent deceased children.

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140. What problem is pointed out by the author in the story “How My Brother Brought Home a Wife” by
Manuel Arguilla?

A. How Filipinos live in the province

B. How Filipinos solve family problems

C. How Filipinos are affected by new technology

D. How Filipinos accept or treat a new family member

Manuel Estabilla Arguilla was an English-language writer, patriot, and martyr from Ilokano. He is well
known for the widely anthologized short story "How My Brother Leon Brought Home a Wife," in which a
man introduces his city-born bride to his more provincial relatives. It also demonstrated how Filipinos
accept or respect a new family member.

MANUEL ARGILLA is renowned for his use of LOCAL COLOR in his literary works, capturing the unique
appearance, mannerisms, dialect, and clothing of a region or era.

141. Which of the following lines from “Flowers of May” by Francisco Arcellana depicted its climax?
***Actual March 2024 LET

A. When Peping says, “Enough of this, I have had enough,” his mother confronts him about what it is
that he has had enough of.

B. “Oh, Pepeng!” Mother cries. Father proclaims, “Victoria did not want to die!” “Victoria did not want to
die,” the father reiterates. “I saw that she did not want to die.”

C. “The flowers are gone. The flowers of May are gone. I saw that Victoria did not want to die. There was
nothing I could do. There was nothing one could do,” Father says helplessly.

D. “I won’t have any more of it,” Father says. The girls are still and silent, in shock at not listening. “What
would you have no more of?” Mother asks. “Do you think it is easy to watch your child die before your
eyes?” Father demands in a loud and unnatural voice.

FLOWERS OF MAY by Francisco Arcellana is a short story about a family: the father is still grieving
Victoria's death, the mother is trying to console him, and their daughters are preparing flowers for church.
During the girls' floral arrangement, the father screams in sadness over Victoria's refusal to die, showing
his deep, unacknowledged pain.

142. What is the function of Filipino folk narratives? *** Actual March 2013 LET

A. to honor the gods

B. to ward off evil spirits

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C. TO TEACH PROPER BEHAVIOR

D. to explain natural phenomena

Filipino folk tales are an integral part of the Philippines' rich cultural heritage, reflecting the values, beliefs,
and traditions of our people. They are intended to convey a life lesson or moral, which is simply a set of
standards of conduct for individuals to follow.

143. Which stories reflect the people’s beliefs and are handed down from generation to generation by word
of mouth? *** Actual March 2012 LET

A. folktales B. poetry

C. novels D. prose

FOLKTALES are stories passed down through generations, usually by word of mouth. Folktales have
traditionally been defined as the oral transmission of narratives in the form of a story.

144. Who is the second editor-in-chief of the La Solidaridad? ***Actual March 2016 LET

A. Emilio Jacinto B. Jose Rizal

C. Graciano Lopez Jaena D. Marcelo H. del Pilar

Graciano Lopez Jaena, La Solidaridad's first editor, managed the newspaper's publication for slightly more
than a year. MARCELO DEL PILAR SUCCEEDED HIM in late 1889. The early issues of La Soli, as the
propagandists named it, advocated for Filipino representation in the Spanish administration.

145. Who among the following is known in portraying the lives of the peasant folks in stories with local
color? ***Actual March 2013 LET

A. Amador Daguio B. Severino Reyes

C. Manuel Arguilla D. Valeriano Hernandez Peña

MANUEL ARGILLA'S use of LOCAL COLOR was demonstrated in the story "How My Brother Leon Bought
Home a Wife." Local color, like regionalism, describes the existence of clearly identifiable individuals,
dialects, customs, history, and environment that originate in a specific location, as shown in the story. The
places, characters, descriptions, and even the terminology used in this story all refer to Nagrebcan, the
story's setting.

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146. What does the fence symbolize in the story “The Fence” written by Jose Garcia Villa? ***Actual March
2012 LET/August 2014 LET/September 2015 LET

A. protection from intrusion

B. the distance between two families

C. the hindrances that separate the families

D. free standing structure designed to restrict movement across a boundary

"THE FENCE" by Jose Garcia Villa tells the story of Aling Biang, a lady who builds a fence between her home
and her neighbor Aling Sebia's after discovering her husband's affair with Aling Sebia. Over time, the
barrier becomes a symbol of the two women's intense hatred. Their disgust corrupted their children and
the land between their families.

147. Who was the founder and first editor of the La Solidaridad? He was also considered as the greatest
orator of the Reform Movement? Actual ***March 2012 LET/***March 2016 LET

A. Graciano Lopez Jaena B. Gregorio H. Del Pilar

C. Marcelo H. del Pilar D. Mariano Ponce

In 1888, Filipino expatriate journalist GRACIANO LOPEZ JAENA established the newspaper La Solidaridad
in Barcelona. Throughout its existence, La Solidaridad advocated for religious and political reforms in the
Philippines, serving as the voice of what eventually came to be known as the Propaganda Movement.

148. It refers to a series of controversial poems which led to Jose Garcia Villa’s suspension from the
University of the Philippines.

A. Man Songs B. Mir-i-nisa

C. Footnote to Youth D. Winds of April

Jose Garcia Villa studied at the University of the Philippines, but he was suspended in 1929 after writing a
series of sensual poems named "MAN-SONGS" in the Philippines Herald magazine.

In Jose Garcia Villa’s MIR-I-NISA, a Muslim princess prepares for her traditional marriage. The two
competitors are Tasmi, who is noble and powerful, and Achmed, who is also virile but violent and boastful.
However, it is the Datu who picks his future son-in-law.

The protagonist of Jose Garcia Villa's 1932 short story "FOOTNOTE TO YOUTH" is Dodong, the son of a
farmer who marries at a young age. The story begins when Dodong, who is seventeen years old, decides to
marry Teang, his sweetheart. Despite his father's reservations about Dodong's marriage, he is unable to
stop him.

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In N.V.M. Gonzales' WINDS OF APRIL, a narrator recounts his youth in Mindoro and Romblon as he travels,
studies, and fights to keep a promise to his grandmother to succeed. While passionate romances are there,
they also illustrate the contrasting fortunes of a diligent father and his more hopeful son.

149. Who is the Ifugao hero immortalized in the epic Hudhud? ***Actual March 2013 LET

A. Aliguyon B. Duluyan

C. Banna D. Lumawig

liguyon, the son of village head Amtalao and his wife Dumulao, has shown great brilliance and an insatiable
hunger for education from an early age. His predilection for absorbing his father's narratives and lessons
resulted in a storehouse of insight.

150. “She did not have the courage to break into the wedding feast.” What did the ‘wedding feast’ stand for
in the relationship of Awiyao and Lumnay in Daguio’s “Wedding Dance”?

A. village tradition

B. love for each other

C. desire to have a child

D. patriarchal society

The Wedding Dance informs the reader that there may be a struggle between personal love and love for
one's people, tribe, and culture, and in certain circumstances, culture triumphs. The story vividly depicts
how their society inhibits Lumnay and Awiyao from loving and living together as husband and wife.

151. Which phrase is associated with President Ramon Magsaysay? ***Actual January 2014 LET

A. For democracy will die

B. To whom it may concern

C. For whom the bell tolls

D. To all the girls I have loved before

The phrase "For Democracy Will Die" is linked with President Ramon Magsaysay.

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152. Which of the following best describes the message of the short story, “The Centipede” by Rony V. Diaz?

A. Childhood memories should be treasured

B. Children should be responsible with the tricks they do with their siblings.

C. Teasing is only for adults.

D. Childhood relationships between siblings are sometimes painful.

Summary of “The Centipede” by Rony V. Diaz.

He felt hate like a savage animal in his chest when he saw his sister hit his dog with a stick. His sister had a
weak heart, so he couldn't cry for her. He thought about the terrible things his sister had done to him. Eddie
thought Delia, his sister, was the meanest person he knew. He remembered how his sister hit him really
hard when she found out that he had torn the leg off of her doll by accident. He never did anything that
made her happy. She had made it a habit to destroy anything he liked on purpose. Because it laughed at her
while she brushed her teeth one morning, she even told Berto to kill his monkey. The father told Eddie that
she didn't like his pigeon house because it smelled bad, but Eddie didn't say anything. He had to give up his
pigeons, and Berto had to cut the house up into burning wood. Because he knew they had to put up with
her mood swings to keep her quiet, he learned to control himself. But when she threw his butterflies into a
trash can and set them ablaze in the garden, he realized she was being mean. Berto found a big centipede
under the stack of things he cut up. After making sure it was dead, he put it in a white cloth. He was so
angry at his sister that he took it out of the box and threw it on her lap. His sister fell over. It got such that
her voice turned into a painful moan.Eddie had a sudden, strong sense of guilt and sorrow. While on his
knees in front of her, he sobbed and told her the centipede was dead.

153. What rhythmical device is used in this line from Latorena’s The Small Key? “…even the low square
nipa house that stood in unashamed relief against the gray green haze of grass and leaves.”

A. alliteration B. assonance

C. consonance D. anaphora

ALLITERATION is a figure of speech in which the same sound repeats in a group of words, such as the “g”
sound in “even the low square nipa house that stood in unashamed relief against the Gray Green haze of
Grass and leaves.” The repeating sound must occur either in the first letter of each word or in the stressed
syllables of those words.

ASSONANCE is a figure of speech in which the same vowel sound repeats within a group of words.

ANAPHORA is a figure of speech in which words repeat at the beginning of successive clauses, phrases, or
sentences.

CONSONANCE is a figure of speech in which the same consonant sound repeats within a group of words.

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ENGLISH AND AMERICAN LITERATURE

154. What is the theme of “Beloved” by Toni Morrison? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. dehumanization through slavery

B. love and friendship

C. life and death

D. good vs evil

BELOVED delves into the physical, mental, and spiritual damage caused by slavery, which continues to
haunt former slaves even in freedom. The work features numerous cases of self-alienation, one of the most
dangerous outcomes of slavery. Paul D, for example, is so detached from himself that he can't tell if the
screaming he hears is his or someone else's. They informed the slaves that they were subhuman and traded
them as valuable commodities. As a result, Paul D is deeply uneasy about his ability to be a true "man," and
he regularly questions his personal worth.

The piece addresses the harmful legacy of slavery by following the life of a black lady named Sethe, from
her pre-Civil War days as a slave in Kentucky until her arrival in Cincinnati, Ohio, in 1873. Despite the fact
that Sethe is a free woman, memories of her life as a slave keep her imprisoned.

155. Which of these phrases appears on William Shakespeare’s gravestone?

A. “May the great author rest in peace”

B. “He wrote so much that man will take years to understand everything.”

C. “He arrived on this earth with nothing. When he died, he left everything to us.”

D. “…curst be he that moves my bones.”

Shakespeare was buried in 1616, with the gravestone carrying the warning against any digging: “Good
friend, for Jesus' sake forebeare, To digg the dust enclosed heare; Bleste be the man that spares thes stones,
And curst be he that moves my bones.”

156. Which of the following literary work/s is/are classified as dystopian literature? ***Actual March 2024
LET

I. 1984

II. Fahrenheit 451

III. Animal farm

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IV. Wuthering Heights

A. I only B. I, II, and III

C. III and IV D. I and III

DYSTOPIAN FICTION frequently depicts countries at war indefinitely, as well as extreme social and
economic class differences, mass poverty, environmental catastrophe, anarchy, and loss of individuality.

GEORGE ORWELL created the dystopian novel 1984 and released it in 1949. It follows the story of
Winston Smith, a member of Oceania's impoverished society who is attempting to revolt against the Party
and its omnipresent symbol, Big Brother. Ray

Bradbury's FAHRENHEIT 451 takes place in the twenty-fourth century, portraying a new society where
the media dominates the public, overpopulation has occurred, and censorship has established itself. In
George

Orwell's novel ANIMAL FARM, farm animals revolt against the farmer. Following the revolution, the pigs
seize control of the other animals, and the farm begins to break apart. As the other animals suffer and work
for them, the pigs gain strength.

WUTHERING HEIGHTS by Emily Brontë is a gothic tale that follows the antihero, Heathcliff, as he pursues
revenge on the people who kept him away from his love, Cathy Earnshaw. After more than a decade, he
eventually exacts his retribution and acquires Thrushcross Grange, the family property of Cathy's husband.

157. What does “Legend of Sleepy Hollow” by Washington Irving symbolize? ***Actual September 2023
LET

A. A man sleeping in a hollow

B. Dark place where men die

C. Conflict of man versus the supernatural

D. Nothing much happening

"THE LEGEND OF SLEEPY HOLLOW" represents the FIGHT BETWEEN MAN AND THE SUPERNATURAL.
The supernatural exists everywhere in town, or so the residents believe.

"The Legend of Sleepy Hollow" follows Ichabod Crane, a deeply superstitious man who relocates to the
namesake town of Sleepy Hollow. He wants to marry Katrina Van Tassel but must compete with Brom
Bones. Ichabod encounters the Headless Horseman on the road, who seems to be pursuing him, following
his rejection at a harvest party. The ending, however, hints that the Horseman could have been Brom
playing a joke on Ichabod.

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158. Who is speaking in the poem below? ***Actual March 2024 LET

“Sunset and the evening star

And one clear call for me

And may these be no moaning for the bar

When I put out to sea”

A. A dying man B. A captain of a ship

C. A fisherman D. A traveler

Alfred Lord Tennyson, a British Victorian poet, wrote the poem "CROSSING THE BAR". The poem,
published in 1889, is a metaphorical reflection on death, with the SPEAKER EQUATING DYING—or one
method of dying—to softly traversing a sandbar between a coastal location and the larger sea/ocean.

159. A trickster character appears in different literature. Which of the following does not correctly define a
trickster? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. dwarft wins a fight against a giant

B. has the character of good and evil

C. plays pranks on friends

D. has unlimited access to people in the world

Narrative often associates the TRICKSTER ARCHETYPE with disruption, mischief, and humor. Many
people are familiar with and enjoy literary works featuring trickster characters. It provides UNLIMITED
ACCESS TO PEOPLE WHO all AROUND THE WORLD. An example of a trickster figure is the Joker. The
Joker, as a trickster, demonstrates shrewd intelligence and unpredictability that catch heroes by surprise.
He also appears to effortlessly switch from relatively innocent pranks to mass murders and horrible
brutality with no apparent motive.

160. Robert Frost wrote the poem" Acquainted with the Night" from which the stanza is taken: ***Actual
September 2023 LET

I have been one acquainted with the night.

I have walked out in rain-back in rain.

I have outwalked the farthest city light.

The poet in the stanza talks of:

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A. isolation and loneliness

B. happiness in having been acquainted with the night

C. joy getting out of the house

D. youthful delight playing in the rain

The speaker in Robert Frost's "ACQUAINTED WITH THE NIGHT" RECOUNTS A LONELY NIGHTTIME
WALK ACROSS A CITY. During this aimless roaming, the speaker struggles with a sensation of
overpowering despair, which appears to cut them off from the world around them. The poem implies that
sorrow and loneliness are mutually reinforcing. They might sometimes feel completely unavoidable, like
traveling through an unending night.

161. Who is remembered for his proverbial lines, "Where ignorance is bliss, tis foly to be wise"? *** Actual
September 2023 LET / August 2014 LET

A. Elizabeth Browning B. John Keats

C. Thomas Gray D. William Wordsworth

The phrase "IGNORANCE IS BLISS" originates in THOMAS GRAY'S poem "ODE ON A DISTANT
PROSPECT OF ETON COLLEGE" (1742).

162. Which of the following BEST describes the lines from the poem, “Annabel Lee” by Edgar Allan Poe?
***Actual March 2023 LET

“But our love it was stronger by far than the love

Nor those who were older than we-

Of many far wiser than we-

And neither the angels in Heaven above

Can ever dissever my soul from the soul

Of the beautiful Annabel Lee…”

A. Unrequited Love

B. Forbidden Relationship

C. Immense Love

D. Consummate Love

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163. What conflict is seen in Harry Potter and Sorcerer's Stone? ***Actual March 2023 LET

A. Voldemort stops Harry from stealing the stone.

B. Harry stops Voldemort from stealing the stone.

C. Harry rejects the offer of help from the Ministry of Magic and the Order of the Phoenix

D. Harry, Hermione and Ron face danger from the Death Eaters

Harry attempts to stop Voldemort, who killed Harry’s parents, from stealing the Sorcerer’s Stone.

164. In Antoine de Saint-Exupery’s The Little Prince, the little prince has a rose from his own planet. When
he came to Earth, he saw a lot of roses. His fox friend explained that it was the little prince’s time devoted to
the rose that makes her different from the rest of the roses. Which of the following BEST deciphers the
thought of the story?

A. Everyone is alike but not everyone's the same as the ones you spent your moments with.

B. Everyone is alike and worthy of our time.

C. Everyone is special and should be treated fairly.

D. Everyone is the same and can be special in their own way.

The Little Prince conveys the concept that what is most significant is not what can be seen but what is
valued through love, patience, and effort. The book investigates the contrasts between children and adults,
pointing out that children are better at seeing beauty and worth in simple, vital things like flowers.

165. What is the rhythm or sound pattern of the poetic lines in Sonnet 43 of Elizabeth Browning’s Sonnets
from the Portuguese? (Consider this line: I love thee to the depth and breadth and height)

A. anapestic hexameter

B. trochaic pentameter

C. iambic pentameter

D. spondaic tetrameter

Since 'Sonnet 43' consists of fourteen lines of poetry and adheres to a predetermined rhyme scheme of
abba abba cdcdcd, it qualifies as a sonnet. This is the standard format for a Petrarchan sonnet, one of the
two primary sonnet forms. (The other is the Shakespearean sonnet, which goes ABABCDCDEFEFGG.) The
poem also uses IAMBIC PENTAMETER, the traditional metrical pattern associated with typical sonnet

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forms. This means that each line has five sets of two beats. The first is unstressed, while the second is
stressed.

An ANAPEST is a metrical foot that consists of two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Anapestic hexameter contains six anapestic feet of three syllables each, for a total of eighteen syllables per
line.

TROCHAIC PENTAMETER is an uncommon form of meter. It refers to lines of verse that contain five sets of
two beats, the first of which is stressed and the second is unstressed.

166. Which of the following writers of the Victorian era was widely recognized as a master of dramatic
monologue and psychological portraiture?

A. Oscar Wilde B. George Eliot

C. Lewis Carroll D. Robert Browning

ROBERT BROWNING was a great Victorian poet known for his dramatic monologues. Browning's works,
with their particular style and examination of the human psyche, delved into the complexity of love,
morality, and human nature.

OSCAR WILDE was famed for his acclaimed works, including 'The Picture of Dorian Gray' and 'The
Importance of Being Earnest,' as well as his clever wit, flamboyant manner, and infamous homosexual
imprisonment.

LEWIS CARROLL was an English novelist and poet. He is best known for writing the children's books
Alice's Adventures in Wonderland (1865) and its sequel Through the Looking Glass (1871), which are
among the most popular works of literature in English.

MARY ANN EVANS, better known by the pen name GEORGE ELIOT, was an English Victorian novelist
recognized for the psychological depth of her characters and her portrayals of English rural life. Her major
writings were Adam Bede (1859), The Mill on the Floss (1860), Silas Marner (1861), Middlemarch (1871–
72), and Daniel Deronda (1876).

167. What is the recurring motif of Edgar Allan Poe’s poems based on “Annabel Lee”? ***Actual March 2023
LET

A. Gothic

B. Rural/pastoral Life

C. Superstitions

D. Industrial Progression

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"ANNABEL LEE" incorporates at least three GOTHIC ELEMENTS: the use of death or decay, the concept of
a strong love, and insanity. The poem is about Annabel Lee's death and its impact on the narrator.

168. What does the road symbolize in Robert Frost’s “The Road Not Taken” ***Actual March 2023 LET

“Two roads diverged in a wood, and I-

I took the one less traveled by,

And that has made all the difference.”

A. Decisions B. Path

C. Untrodden way D. Scenery

Robert Frost's poem 'THE ROAD NOT TAKEN' is told by a lone traveler confronted with two roads,
representing life's journey and the DECISIONS we make along the way. The storyteller chose the path that
was 'grassy and wanted wear,' symbolizing the desire for originality and adventure in many of us.

169. Which of the following does NOT describe William Faulkner’s literary text? ***Actual March 2023 LET

A. Uses rich Baroque style

B. Utilizes different POV’s

C. Makes use of Harlem Renaissance motif

D. Uses Yoknapatawpha County as an imagine landscape in most novels

USES RICH BAROQUE STYLE and UTILIZES DIFFERENT POV’s. Faulkner, a creative writer, masterfully
experimented with narrative chronology, multiple points of view and voices, including those of misfits,
children, and illiterates, as well as a rich and demanding baroque style comprised of exceedingly long
sentences with complex subordinate elements.

USES YOKNAPATAWPHA COUNTY AS AN IMAGINE LANDSCAPE IN MOST NOVELS. William Faulkner

developed the imaginary county of Yoknapatawpha and its people in a well-known series of novels.

Therefore, William Faulkner was not known for the Harlem Renaissance motif in his literary works.

170. Whose poems, with traditional stanzas and a blank verse, portray ordinary people in everyday
situations like “Mending Wall,” and “The Road Not Taken”?

A. Ezra Pound B. Robert Frost

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C. Allen Ginsberg D. Ernest Hemingway

ROBERT FROST'S lyric, narrative, and dramatic poetry all focus on the drama of man in nature. Frost's
nature poetry takes a distinctive shape that reflects his approach to presenting man and nature in the
manner of a modern poet.

ALLEN GINSBERG was a celebrated poet and a key player in the Beat Generation, whose radical literary
works and crusade for social reform made an enduring impression on American counterculture. Ginsberg
initially gained public recognition in 1956 with the release of Howl and Other Poems (City Lights Books).

171. In Harper Lee's "To Kill a Mockingbird," the mockingbird represents:

A. Innocence and vulnerability

B. Courage and determination

C. Deception and betrayal

D. Wisdom and understanding

The MOCKINGBIRD represents INNOCENCE and HARMLESSNESS. The bird sings sweetly, adding beauty
to its surroundings rather than disrupting them. Mockingbirds include the characters Scout and Jem, Boo
Radley, and Tom Robinson, all of whom are innocent in their own way.

Harper Lee's "To Kill a Mockingbird" is a bildungsroman, or coming-of-age story, that follows Scout and
Jem Finch as their father, Atticus, defends a black man wrongfully accused of rape. Their classmates ridicule
Scout and Jem for their actions. Unfortunately, the man was convicted by an entirely white jury.

172. How does stream of consciousness differ from a traditional first-person narrative?

A. Stream of consciousness is more chaotic and fragmentary

B. Stream of consciousness uses the third-person perspective

C. First-person narrative doesn't allow for the expression of a character's thoughts

D. First-person narrative uses more complex language

STREAM OF CONSCIOUSNESS is a literary method that depicts a character's thoughts and feelings as they
unfold, generally in a chaotic and fragmented manner. In contrast, TRADITIONAL NARRATIVE often
presents events and character views in a more structured and orderly manner.

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173. What does the “ring” symbolize in these lines from The Lord of the Rings by J.R.R. Tolkien? ***Actual
September 2023 LET

“One Ring to rule them all, One Ring to find them. One Ring to bring them all and in the darkness bind them.”

A. The ring represents inner source of combat.

B. The ring represents ultimate power.

C. The ring represents desire of goodness.

D. The ring represents destruction.

The ONE RING is a METAPHOR FOR POWER. Power may corrupt in subtle ways. The One Ring is not a
particularly gorgeous or ornate piece of jewelry, but it has the potential to accomplish its goals in subtle
ways.

The Lord of the Rings by J.R.R. Tolkien tells the story of Frodo, a hobbit who inherits the One Ring, which
has the power to destroy the entire world. With the recently reawakened evil, Sauron, pursuing the Ring to
solidify his reign, Frodo teams up with eight others to destroy the Ring and kill Sauron.

174. In addition to Virginia Woolf, which other major author frequently employed the stream of
consciousness technique? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. James Joyce B. Robert Louis Stevenson

C. Rudyard Kipling D. Charles Dickens

By far the most well-known example of stream of consciousness writing is JAMES JOYCE'S experimental
work "ULYSSES." Joyce was an Irish writer who was a key player in the modernist movement. For James
Joyce, the stream of consciousness was an effective technique to address the human condition in a way that
had not previously been attempted.

ROBERT LOUIS STEVENSON is most known for his work "Treasure Island," but "The Strange Case of Dr.
Jekyll and Mr. Hyde" is equally well-known. These novels have inspired hundreds of television episodes
and films for over a century. Films have adapted Stevenson's other writings, including The Suicide Club and
The Ebb Tide, among dozens more.

RUDYARD KIPLING'S most famous poem is "If." He first published it in his book, Rewards and Fairies, in
1910. The poem is a father's instruction to his son on how to live a life with compassion and dignity. The
poem conveys a sense of self-sufficiency and patriarchal ideals in order to acquire true manhood. Rudyard
Kipling is widely famous for his stories and poetry about British soldiers in India, as well as his children's
books.

CHARLES DICKENS was a British novelist known for examining societal themes. In addition to fifteen
novels, Dickens authored short stories, poems, essays, and novellas. In fact, one of his most famous
writings, A Christmas Carol, is a novella.

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175. Widely acclaimed as the Father of Free Verses, he revealed his experiences about miracles nurturing
the idea that life is a big miracle through his poem Miracles.

A. William Wordsworth B. Walt Whitman

C. William Shakespeare D. Sir Walter Scott

The 1856 edition of WALT WHITMAN'S book of poems, Leaves of Grass, featured his poem "MIRACLES".
Whitman's poem ''Miracles'' addresses the various marvels he witnesses every day. Whitman initially
published it under the name ''Poem of Perfect Miracles''. Whitman holds a prominent position among the
poets of the 19th century. "O Captain! My Captain!" is probably one of the book's best-known poems.

WILLIAM WORDSWORTH is well recognized as one of the founders of the ROMANTIC POETRY
MOVEMENT. He concentrated on the natural environment and profound emotional experiences. He also
wrote brief, powerful poetry that stood out from previous epics.

WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE was a prominent English writer who wrote 154 sonnets, 38 plays, and two
narrative poems. People commonly refer to William Shakespeare as "The Bard." The plays he composed
during the Elizabethan era have thrived since their creation and are still considered foundational works of
literature in both the classroom and the theater today.

SIR WALTER SCOTT is a renowned author. He is best known as the father of historical novels and
historical romances. Most of Walter Scott's novels deal with Scottish Border stories. Scott's interest in
Scottish folklore and history pervades his best-known books. Scott produced a popular book series known
as The Waverly Series, which was very successful at the time. The audience's preference for true storylines,
dynamic characters, and plenty of action, all found in Scott's novels, likely contributed to this success.

176. What is the central theme of Emily Dickenson’s Poem 172: Because I Could Not Stop for Death?

A. Acceptance of death as destiny of all human beings

B. Resentment and indignant displeasure

C. Self-understanding of dramatic changes

D. Isolation and self-pity

"Because I could not stop for death" delves into both the inevitability of death and the ambiguities
surrounding what happens when people die. In the poem, a woman rides with a personified "Death" in her
carriage, most likely on her way to the afterlife.

EMILY DICKINSON'S poetry was groundbreaking for its inventive use of language and form. Her unusual
writing style, defined by the use of dashes, unorthodox capitalization, and compressed lines, distinguished
her from her contemporaries and continues to attract readers today.

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177. He is the pioneer in serial literature which is a printed format by which a single larger work, often a
work of narrative fiction is published in sequential installments.

A. Ernest Hemingway B. Arthur Miller

C. Charkes Dicken D. Rudyard Kipling

Despite the long-standing circulation of SERIAL LITERATURE, many often credit CHARLES DICKENS'S
The Posthumous Papers of the Pickwick Club as the catalyst for the Victorian era's serial novel craze.
Dickens' popularity grew as more people could afford to buy fiction in installments; publishers enjoyed the
idea as well because it allowed them to raise sales and sell advertisements in the serial chapters. And
Dickens relished the intimacy with his audience that serialization brought.

"THE OLD MAN AND THE SEA" is one of ERNEST HEMINGWAY'S best-known works. It narrates the story
of an elderly Cuban fisherman who is down on his luck, as well as his concluding experience—a lengthy,
excruciating battle with a massive marlin far out in the Gulf Stream—in simple yet dramatic language.

One of the greatest American playwrights of the twentieth century is ARTHUR MILLER. His most famous
plays include 'All My Sons,' 'The Crucible,' and the Pulitzer Prize-winning 'DEATH OF A SALESMAN. People
commonly describe Arthur Miller's literary style as a mix of realism and expressionism. He is well-known
for writing plays that explore social and political issues, often from the perspective of personal experience.

178. Which of Robert Browning's poems is a dramatic monologue in which the speaker, Duke of Ferrara,
describes a portrait of his deceased wife and his controlling nature?

A. "The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock"

B. "Ode to a Nightingale"

C. "My Last Duchess"

D. "The Rime of the Ancient Mariner”

Victorian poet Robert Browning composed "MY LAST DUCHESS" as a DRAMATIC MONOLOGUE in 1842.
In the poem, the Duke of Ferrara employs a portrait of his former spouse as a conversation starter. The
Duke's speech reveals the Duchess' attitude and behavior, as well as the Duke's own character defects. The
poem examines jealousy and possessiveness inside a marriage, gendered expectations of women, and the
treatment of women as property.

"THE LOVE SONG OF J. ALFRED PRUFROCK" by T.S. Eliot looks at the troubled mind of the average
modern man, who is overeducated, eloquent, neurotic, and emotionally stilted. Prufrock, the speaker of the
poem, seems to be talking to a possible lover, saying that he wants to "force the moment to its crisis" by
ending their relationship in some way.

John Keats argues in "ODE TO A NIGHTINGALE” that we shouldn't view nature as a mirror of human
emotions. For example, just because a sad man can relate to the nightingale's song does not mean that the
nightingale's song is sad.

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Samuel Taylor Coleridge's "RIME OF THE ANCIENT MARINER" demonstrates how a thoughtless, poor act
can have long-term consequences. When the Mariner murders a helpless albatross, he commits a sin and
cannot avoid the long-term effects of his actions.

179. In Jane Austen's "Pride and Prejudice," the character Elizabeth Bennet experiences personal growth
and change in her initial prejudices. What pivotal event in the novel marks her realization and growth,
demonstrating the theme of moving on?

A. Mr. Darcy's proposal

B. A visit to Pemberley

C. A confrontation with Lady Catherine

D. A dance at nether

The critical moment occurs when Elizabeth Bennet reads Darcy's letter and recognizes her folly. She has a
brief epiphany and, in the process, matures.

Throughout the novel, Elizabeth only says negative things about Darcy. Jane Austen's Pride and Prejudice
depicts the stormy romance between Elizabeth Bennet, the daughter of a country gentleman, and
Fitzwilliam Darcy, a wealthy aristocratic landowner. They must overcome the titular sins of pride and
prejudice before falling in love and marrying.

180. Who is the leader of Imagists who emphasized the use of direct and sparse language and precise
images in writing poetry?

A. Ezra Pound B. Virginia Woolf

C. John Keats D. William Wordsworth

IMAGISM was a reactionary movement against Romanticism and Victorian poetry. It emphasized
simplicity, clarity of expression, and precision through the use of rigorous visuals. Though EZRA POUND is
credited with founding imagism, the movement's concepts were first explored by English philosopher and
poet T.E.

VIRGINIA WOOLF is another notable author of the STREAM OF CONSCIOUSNESS novel. She intended to
demonstrate the deeper connectedness of truth, a truth that is mysterious and unintelligible in ordinary
language. She wrote three books of this type: Mrs. Dalloway, To the Lighthouse, and The Waves.

English Romantic lyric poet JOHN KEATS is renowned for his VIVID IMAGERY AND SEDUCTIVE APPEAL.
Following his early death, his renown flourished, and the Victorian era admired him greatly.

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WILLIAM WORDSWORTH is most famous for LYRICAL BALLADS, which he co-wrote with Samuel Taylor
Coleridge, and The Prelude, a Romantic epic poem on the "growth of a poet's mind." Wordsworth's strong
appreciation for the "beautiful forms" of the natural world began early.

181. In contemporary literature, how is the archetype “scapegoat” portrayed in The Hunger Games series?

A. The tributes have to pay for the previous rebellions of their own districts.

B. The tributes have to fight each other to win the prize.

C. The tributes should willingly sacrifice themselves for Capitol

D. The tributes must protect the district to avoid more deaths.

The SCAPEGOAT ARCHETYPE is a figure who accepts blame for something or everything that goes
wrong for the other characters in the story. The scapegoat archetype describes a character who accepts
responsibility for something (or everything) that goes wrong for the other characters in the story.

Suzanne Collins's “The Hunger Games” is a yearly gladiatorial game in which one boy and one girl from
each of Panem's twelve districts battle to the death. Only one person can live. The purported purpose of its
construction was to instill fear in the districts, reminding them of the harsh realities of war.

182. Who is known for confessional poetry, a kind of poetry that deals with the private experiences of the
speaker?

A. Sherwood Anderson B. Ernest Hemingway

C. Anne Sexton D. Ezra Pound

CONFESSIONAL POETRY draws on the poet's real-life experiences and past, including emotional and
psychological distress, to bridge the gap between the poet and the poem's speaker. Robert Lowell, W.D.
Snodgrass, ANNE SEXTON, and Sylvia Plath are the most well-known and influential confessional poets.

Four primary characteristics mark confessional poetry: intimate subject matter, the use of first-person
narration, autobiographical experiences, and meticulous artistry.

183. Washington Irving is known for “Rip Van Winkle” and the “The Legend of Sleepy Hollow”, what is their
literary genre?

A. Poems B. Novels

C. Drama D. Short Stories

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Washington Irving is most known for his SHORT STORIES, including "Rip Van Winkle" and "The Legend of
Sleepy Hollow." Washington Irving wrote these stories in a distinctly amusing and clever way.

184. In Nathaniel Hawthorne's The Scarlet Letter, Hester Prynne gave birth of an unknown parentage. She
is required to wear a scarlet "A" for "Adulteress" on her dress when she is in public. How does this explain
women's role during the 17th century?

A. Women were treated as equals of men

B. Women were categorized with an "A" as the heiress of the throne

C. Women were marked with eternal humiliation for their own mistakes.

D. Women were civilized beings with genuine care for their parents.

The subject of sin, punishment, and atonement weaves throughout Nathaniel Hawthorne's "The Scarlet
Letter." Hester suffers in public for her transgression. However, because Hester refuses to publicly criticize
Dimmesdale, he suffers in silence and resorts to self-harm. He marks himself with a crimson 'A', which
serves as a significant emblem in the plot.

185. The line “nevermore” is taken from the poem .

A. Ulalume – A Balad B. The Sleeper

C. Lenore D. The Raven

Edgar Allan Poe's poem "The Raven" (1845) revolves around an unidentified narrator's descent into
insanity after learning he will never forget his lost Lenore. To tell the story and reflect the narrator's
struggle with sadness, Poe uses symbols such as a talking raven, a bust of Pallas, and the narrator's
chamber.

186. In William Blake's "Ah Sunflower," what do sunflowers symbolize? *** Actual March 2023 LET /
September 2023 LET

A. humans and their desire for an everlasting life.

B. continuous struggles in life

C. human’s utmost care of one's soul

D. passage of time

"AH! SUNFLOWER" AS A SYMBOL OF DESIRE FOR ETERNAL LIFE: The poet displays the flower with his
usual "ah" expression to demonstrate its importance in life and points out its journey with the sun. The

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flower yearns to live in the golden era when travelers embark on their adventures. In reality, the point
prefers the same location. This place possesses a magical quality, inspiring all young people to aspire to live
there, and causing virgins, dead in the frost and wrapped in their graves, to appear there. As a result, the
poet has stated that the sunflower's wish or desire to visit or go to that location represents a desire for
eternal life.

187. Identify the play from which the line is taken: “Good name in man and woman, dear my lord, Is the
immediate jewel of their souls.” Actual March 2013 LET

A. Macbeth B. Merchant of Venice

C. As You Like It D. Othello

The line "Good name in man and woman, dear my lord, is the immediate jewel of their souls" comes
from William Shakespeare's play Othello.

OTHELLO. The play begins when Othello, a heroic black general serving in Venice, picks Cassio as his chief
lieutenant rather than Iago. Iago, jealous of Othello's success and envious of Cassio, plots his destruction by
falsely accusing Othello's wife, Desdemona, and Cassio of having a love affair.

THE MERCHANT OF VENICE. The Venetian trader narrates the story of Antonio, a trader who owes money
to a spiteful moneylender named Shylock. Antonio spends this money on his friend Bassanio so that he can
court and marry a lady named Portia. Antonio was unable to repay his loan due to the wreckage of his
commerce ships.

AS YOU LIKE IT. Duke Frederick banishes Rosalind, the protagonist, in the pastoral play As You Like It. She
and her cousin fled to the Forest of Ardenne in disguise, where they met several other noteworthy
individuals.

MACBETH. The major topic in Macbeth is the destruction caused by ambition uncontrolled by moral
restrictions, which is most powerfully expressed by the play's two main characters. Macbeth is a brave
Scottish commander who is not inherently prone to conducting wicked acts, but he craves power and
progress.

188. Among the statements below, which best characterizes Decameron by Boccacio?

A. An equally devout reference for this truth

B. A complete negation of the Christian Doctrine

C. Characteristics of the merchant class

D. A sexual libertinism that seeks to revive the great pleasure of ancient Rome.

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Although Catholicism was popular, Boccaccio made it clear that he disagreed with the Church's actions. The
Decameron depicted religion as being carried out by fools, the church as a breeding ground for
wrongdoing, and "marriage" as a meaningless transaction.

The Decameron is a compilation of 100 stories told by a group of young people who fled to the countryside
to avoid the Black Death in 14th-century Italy. Boccaccio's stories address themes of love, wit, and human
nature, providing an intriguing peek into medieval life.

189. Who assassinated Abraham Lincoln? ***Actual 2015 LET

A. George H. W. Bush

B. Lee Harvey Oswald

C. John Wilkes Booth

D. Lyndon Baines Johnson

JOHN WILKES BOOTH, a member of one of the United States' most distinguished acting families
of the 19th century, was the assassin who killed U.S. President Abraham Lincoln.

190. In The Fall of the House of Usher, Edgar Allan Poe uses simile comparing Usher to what kind of addict?
***Actual August 2014 LET

A. caffeine B. meth

C. cocaine D. opium

In Edgar Allan Poe's "The Fall of the House of Usher," the main story is that an unidentified
narrator visits his friend, Roderick Usher. While there, it appears that Roderick's sick sister,
Madeline, dies. Roderick gets progressively more insane, and in the end, both Roderick and
Madeline are gone after the actual home collapses, and there are no Ushers left to carry on the
family tradition.

191. What does the following passage say about life? ***Actual January 2014 LET

Life’s but a walking shadow, a poor player

That struts and frets his hour upon the stage

And then is heard no more.

A. Life is eternal. B. Life has its end.

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C. Life is passing. D. Life goes through stages.

The phrases described above are metaphors Shakespeare uses in "Macbeth," comparing life to a
"WALKING SHADOW" and man to "A POOR PLAYER" to stress the SHORT-TERM NATURE OF
LIFE. Shadows vanish as soon as they appear, and actors just play their characters; the individuals
they portray have no real meaning.

192. The following are metaphysical poets EXCEPT . *** Actual March 2013 LET

A. Andrew Marvell B. John Donne

C. George Herbert D. Robert Burns

Metaphysical poetry is distinguished by its use of conceits, paradoxes, and colloquial language.
Many metaphysical poets found inspiration in the works of Plato and other ancient Greek
intellectuals. Metaphysical poetry investigates existential and philosophical issues, frequently
employing wit and a high level of sophistication. JOHN DONNE is the most prominent figure, but
GEORGE HERBERT and ANDREW MARVELL are also writers in the field.

ROBERT BURNS, Scotland's national poet, is well-known around the world for his works on
universal subjects such as love and nature. Burns was not a metaphysical poet.

193. According to Lincoln in “The Gettysburg Address," on what premise is the war being fought? ***Actual
September 2015 LET

A. gender-fairness and sensitivity

B. open-mindedness and receptivity to change

C. depravity and the use of irresponsible power

D. government of the people, by the people, for the people

The Gettysburg Address brought meaning to the sacrifice of over 50,000 men who died in the
Battle of Gettysburg. The Gettysburg Address asserted that the United States should uphold the
principle of equal treatment for all men.

194. Which of the following films was Edward Albee’s play starring Elizabeth Taylor? ***Actual March 2013
LET

A. Cleopatra B. Lassie

C. Giant D. Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf?

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"WHO'S AFRAID OF VIRGINIA WOOLF?" is a 1966 American dramatic film based on Edward
Albee's stunning play of the same title. Mike Nichols' directorial debut, the acclaimed picture, won
five of the thirteen Academy Awards it received; each of the film's four key actors—ELIZABETH
TAYLOR, Richard Burton, George Segal, and Sandy Dennis—received an Oscar nomination.

195. Who wrote “Rose is a rose is a rose is a rose is a rose”? ***August 2014 LET

A. Agatha Christie B. Ezra Pound

C. Aldous Huxley D. Gertrude Stein

The passage comes from GERTRUDE STEIN'S poem Sacred Emily, which was written in 1913 and
published in 1922 in Geography and Plays.

The exact phrase is, "Rose is a rose is a rose is a rose is a rose." When asked what she meant by the
line, Stein explained that in the days of Homer and Chaucer, "the poet could use the name of the
thing, and the thing was really there.”

196. What is predicted by William Blake in these lines? ***Actual March 2012 LET

A dog starved at his master’s gate,

Predicts the ruin of a state.

A. disaster B. productivity

C. famine D. prosperity

During the nineteenth century, the dog sign had two principal connotations, which varied
depending on circumstance. The stray dog symbolized a beggar, but the dog with a master
symbolized a servant. When the next line, "predicts the ruin of the state, “and the full couplet are
taken into account, the starving dog signifies an increasingly poor and hungry population.

197. Which is Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s most important work on political philosophy? ***Actual March 2013
LET

A. The Art of War B. Discourse on Method

C. The Social Contract D. Two Treatises on Government

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Jean-Jacques Rousseau was a Genevan-born political and moral philosopher from the
Enlightenment Era. He is best known for his work "THE SOCIAL CONTRACT," which called into
question the purpose and role of government as well as its responsibility to its citizens.

198. It is considered as one of the world’s greatest short stories, and it is Edgar Allan Poe’s story of terror
about a hypochondriac living in morbid fear. ***Actual March 2012 LET

A. Annabel Lee B. The Raven

C. Macbeth D. The Fall of the House of Usher

The THEME OF INSANITY is evident throughout "THE FALL OF THE HOUSE OF USHER."
Throughout the novel, Roderick Usher appears insane and detached from reality. And the
narrator, who appears to be normal at first, gradually takes on the features of madness as the
story progresses.

199. He was the American President who said “Ask not what America will do for you, but what together we
can do for the freedom of man.” ***Actual March 2012 LET

A. Franklin Roosevelt B. Harry Truman

C. Gerald Ford D. John F. Kennedy

JOHN F. KENNEDY'S inaugural address motivated both young people and adults to see the value
of children and public service. His famous remarks, "Ask not what your country can do for you;
ask what you can do for your country," challenged every American to contribute to the greater
good in some way.

200. In “The Count of Monte Cristo,” Edmond Dantes was wrongfully imprisoned in the . ***Actual
March 2012 LET

A. Bastille B. Conciergerie

C. Castle of Chillon D. Devil’s Island

The grandson of the Count of Monte Cristo is wrongfully accused of a crime and imprisoned on
DEVIL'S ISLAND. He escapes and seeks vengeance on those responsible for his imprisonment.

201. What makes "Hamlet" a tragedy?

A. It ends with the death of the main character.

B. It deals with serious and somber themes.

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C. It is set during a time of war and political unrest.

D. It is primarily a comedy with tragic elements.

Hamlet is a revenge tragedy. It includes aspects of a tragedy prevalent at the time, such as a
murder, ghosts, and someone seeking vengeance, as well as components of a tragedy, such as the
main character's fatal defect. HAMLET DIES AT THE END OF THE PLAY, IN ACT 5, SCENE 2, after
being stabbed with the poisoned sword.

202. In Macbeth, we see Macbeth’s downfall caused by . ***Actual March 2012 LET

A. supernatural intervention

B. overwhelming ambition for power

C. an unfair plot against his life

D. a naturally blood-thirsty disposition

The witches' trickery and seduction, as well as their prophecies, Lady Macbeth's greed and desire
for her husband to be king, and Macbeth's own GREED, JEALOUSY, AND AMBITION, all
contributed to MACBETH'S DOWNFALL. The witches played a significant role in Macbeth's
downfall and, eventually, his death.

203. What is the real name of Mark Twain, the author of two of the Great American Novels of the 19th
century—The Adventures of Tom Sawyer and The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn? ***Actual March 2017
LET

A. William Cullen Bryant B. Sidney Lanier

C. Samuel Langhorne Clemens D. Vachel Lindsey

MARK TWAIN is the penname of SAMUEL LANGHORNE CLEMENS. He is one of America's most
important writers, known for his humor, colloquial dialogue, and sardonic wit. He wrote many
famous novels, short stories, essays, and travel books.

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AFRO-ASIAN LITERATURE

204. The lines of the poem below describe Africa as a land that is .

AFRICA

By: David Diop

Africa, my Africa

Africa of proud warriors

In ancestral savanna

Africa of whom my grandmother sings

A. Free and beautiful B. Mysterious and unexplored

C. War town and undeveloped D. Primitive and uncivilized

In one of Diop's most famous poems, "Africa," the poem's principal topics include freedom vs.
slavery, patriotism, and the darker side of human nature. The poem expresses the writer's
affection for his beloved nation, Africa. He recalls that this location had an average life expectancy
before the invaders ruined it. The arrival of the invaders in the state erased Africa's unique
identity. They treated Africans like animals, stealing their land and lives. Although he has not
witnessed these atrocities, the hardships his forefathers faced haunt him. He recognizes that he
cannot change the past, but he is optimistic about the future. He is convinced that Africa will one
day reap the benefits of liberty.

205. A novel written by Mongo Beti is a stark revelation of the deception, hypocrisy, blasphemy, and moral
decadence that characterize a small village set in colonial Cameroon, a microcosm of Africa, brimming with
Catholic missionaries. What is the title of this novel?

A. The Houseboy

B. The Poor Christ of Bombay

C. The River Between

D. Heirs to the Past

Mongo Beti's THE POOR CHRIST OF BOMBAY begins IN MEDIAS RES and exposes colonialism's
inhumanity. The novel tells of Fr. Drumont's disillusionment after the discovery of the degradation
of the native women, betrothed but forced to work like slaves in the sixa. The government steps
into the picture as syphilis spreads out in the priest's compound. It turns out that the native,
whose weakness is wine, women, and song, has been made overseer of the sixa when the Belgian

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priest goes out to attend to his other mission work. Developed through recitation or diary entries,
the novel is a satire on the failure of religion to integrate into national psychology without first
understanding the natives culture.

THE HOUSEBOY by Ferdinand Oyono highlights the disillusionment of Toundi, a boy who flees his
parents' abuse to serve as an acolyte for a foreign missionary. After the priest's death, he becomes
the helper of a white plantation owner, discovers the liaison of his master's wife, and gets
murdered later in the woods as they catch up with him. Toundi symbolizes the disenchantment,
the coming of age, and the utter despondency of the Camerooninans over the corruption and
immortality of the whites. The novel unfolds as a recit, evoking the French tradition of a
CONFESSIONAL DIARY.

THE RIVER BETWEEN by James Ngugi shows the clash of traditional values and contemporary
ethics and mores. The Honia River is symbolically taken as a metaphor for tribal and Christian
unity; the Makuyu tribe conducts Christian rites while the Kamenos hold circumcision rituals.
Despite being a new-born Christian, Muthoni, the heroine, desires the pagan ritual. She dies in the
end, but Waiyaki, the teacher, does not teach vengeance against Joshua, the leader of the Kamenos,
but unity with them. Ngugi combines the coexistence of religion with people's lifestyles, while at
the same time stressing the influence of education to enlighten people about their socio-political
responsibilities.

HEIRS TO THE PAST by Driss Chraili is an allegorical, parable-like novel. After 16 years of
absence, the anti-hero Driss Ferdi returns to Morocco for his father's funeral. The signeur leaves
his legacy via a tape recorder, in which he tells the family members his last will and testament.
Each chapter in the novel reveals his relationship with them and, at the same time, lays bare their
psychology. His older brother Jaad, who was born only once and has been adopted several times
due to his childishness and irresponsibility, and his idiotic brother Nagib have become a complete
burden to the family. His mother feels betrayed after fulfilling her roles as wife and mother for 30
years, as she yearns for her freedom. Driss flies back to Europe, completely alienated from his
people, religion, and civilization.

206. Who was the earliest interpreter of the philosophy of Taoism? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Lao-Tzu B. Chuang Tzu

C. Lieh Tzu D. Lui An

CHUANG TZU (4th century B.C.) was the most important early interpreter of the philosophy of
Taoism. Very little is known about his life except that he served as a minor court official. In his
stories, he appears as a quirky character who cares little for either public approval or material
possessions.

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LIEH TZU (4th century B.C.) was a Taoist teacher who had many philosophical differences with
his forebears, Lao Tzu and Chuan Tzu.He argued that a sequence of causes predetermines
everything that happens, including one's choice of action.

LUI AN (172–122 B.C.) was not only a Taoist scholar but the grandson of the founder of the Han
dynasty. His royal title was Prince of Haui-nan. Together with philosophers and under his
patronage, he produced a collection of essays on metaphysics, cosmology, politics, and conduct.

207. Which of the following lines from the poem “Vulture” by Chinua Achebe represents a miserable or
bleak scene? ***Actual September 2023 LET

“In the grayness

And drizzle of one despondent

Dawn unstirred by harbingers

Of sun break a vulture

Perching high on

Broken bones a dead tree…”

A. dawn unstirred by harbingers B. of sun break a vulture

C. in the grayness D. broken bones and a dead tree

In Chinua Achebe's "Vultures," two dismal birds nuzzling one another after devouring a rotting
corpse serve as a metaphor for the unsettling fact that humans are equally capable of love and evil.
The speaker observes that, just as vultures can feast on corpses while cuddling, a Nazi death camp
commander may pick up chocolates for his adored children on his way home; brutality and
affection can coexist in the same person. The speaker is unsure if this is grounds for hope or
despair, though despair appears to be more plausible. Achebe first published the poem in his 1971
collection Beware Soul Brother and Other Poems.

208. What is the title of the collected sayings of Confucius which contain truth about social relations
between and among family members?

A. The Analects B. The Great Learning

C. The Doctrine of the Mean D. The Way

THE ANALECTS are a collection of Confucius' teachings. It offers critical insights into ethics,
morals, and politics, emphasizing the value of human virtue and just governance.

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209. Of the Five Classics, which describes ancient rites, social forms, and court ceremonies?

A. Book of Changes B. Book of Rites

C. Book of Poetry D. Spring and Autumn Annals

The five Confucian classics are the Book of Changes (I Ching), the Book of Documents (Shujing),
the Book of Songs (Shijing), the Book of Rites (Liji), and the Spring and Autumn Annals (Chunqiu).
These books, which have been compiled, canonized, and studied throughout the centuries, have
had a significant impact on the formation of Chinese ethical, philosophical, and political thought.

BOOK OF CHANGES (I CHING): An ancient divination text containing a system of hexagrams and
commentaries offering wisdom and philosophical thought.

THE BOOK OF DOCUMENTS (SHUJING): A collection of speeches by major figures and

documents from historical events.

THE BOOK OF SONGS (SHIJING) is the oldest collection of Chinese poetry, including 305 poems
reflecting various aspects of society.

THE BOOK OF RITES (LIJI) describes ancient rites, social forms, and court ceremonies.

SPRING AND AUTUMN ANNALS (CHUNQIU): Chronicles the historical events of the Spring and
Autumn period of the State of Lu, Confucius's native state.

210. Who is the Chinese leader whose essays and poems depicted totalitarian rule in China and advocated a
revolutionary government? ***Actual August 2014 LET/September 2015 LET

A. Chiang Kai-shek B. Mao Zedong

C. Jiang Qing D. Sun Yat-sen

MAO ZEDONG was the primary Chinese Marxist theorist, soldier, and statesman who spearheaded
the country's communist revolution. Mao was the head of the Chinese Communist Party (CCP)
from 1935 until his death, and he served as chairman (chief of state) of the People's Republic of
China from 1949 to 1959, as well as party chairman until his death.

211. According to Confucius, what is the best way to rule people and attain harmony? ***Actual March 2012
LET

“If you lead on the people with correctness, who will dare not to be correct?”

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A. by force B. by consulting the governed

C. by moral example D. by allowing people to do as they please

Confucius' knowledge of government was founded on the notion of LEADING BY EXAMPLE,

which he emphasized to rulers, ministers, bureaucrats, and, of course, his followers.

212. Which of the following is a classic work of Japanese literature by Murasaki Shikibu? It is sometimes
called the world's first true novel, the first modern novel, or the first psychological novel. ***Actual March
2013 LET

A. A Collection of Tales from Uji B. Tale of Genji

C. Tale of Flowering Fortunes D. Tale of the Heike

MURASAKI SHIKIBU'S THE TALE OF GENJI is frequently regarded as the FIRST MODERN
NOVEL EVER WRITTEN: a fictional story set in the actual world with a series of events centered
on the psychological development of the main character and surrounding minor characters.

The Tale of Genji follows the life and love of Hikaru Genji, a gorgeous boy born to an Emperor
during the Heian Period. In the story, the Emperor's beloved concubine gives birth to Genji and
dies shortly thereafter.

213. Japanese folktale entitled The Story of the Aged Mother speaks about the following EXCEPT one.
Which is the exception?

A. The fate of the common people under a despot is grim.

B. A citizen’s disobedience towards a cruel mandate ends tragically.

C. The daimyo’s unreasonable order is seemingly a boast of his power.

D. It is an exhibit of the saying: with a crown of snow, there cometh wisdom.

The Aged Mother by Matsuo Basho delves into issues like power, selfishness, honesty, forgiveness,
wisdom, love, and change. An unidentified narrator tells the story in the third person, making it
clear from the outset that Basho is probing the issue of power. In Shining, the tyrant abuses his
authority by ordering people to murder their elderly parents.

At the end of the story, it appears that the ruler reconsidered his perspective after hearing the
farmer describe how he made the rope from ashes. For the first time in the novel, the ruler
acknowledges his fault to the others.

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214. What is dominantly tackled in “Say It with Flowers” by Toshio Mori?

A servants being treated by bosses

B. people being able to communicate with flowers

C. managing a flower shop business

D. businessmen fooling their clients and customers

Toshio Mori's "Say It With Flowers" tells the story of a flower shop called Morning-Glory Flower
Shop. The narrator, who works there as a delivery boy, notices the arrival of a new employee,
Teruo, who is an unexpected choice for a flower store clerk because of his appearance and lack of
understanding about flowers.

The story's main conflict and premise is that the business owner deceives consumers by claiming
the flowers are fresh when they are not.

215. He is known as the “Indian Shakespeare” and the brightest of the “Navaratnas” (Nine Gems) in
Emperor Chandragupta II’s court. Who is he? *** Actual March 2013 LET

A. Bhasa B. Kalidasa

C. Valmiki D Vyasa

KALIDASA was a Sanskrit poet and dramatist, arguably the greatest Indian writer of all time.
Kalidasa has established the standard for Sanskrit literary composition. His play,
Abhijnanashakuntala, is the most well-known and often regarded as the best Indian literary work
of all time.

216. The Gitanjali is a collection of poems by Rabindranath Tagore. What is the English translation of the
title? *** Actual August 2014 LET

A. Song for the Least B. Song Offerings

C. Song of Freedom D. Song of Songs

Rabindranath Tagore's most famous work, Gitanjali, a collection of poems, was released in India in
1910. Tagore then adapted it into English prose poems, titled Gitanjali: SONG OF OFFERINGS, and
released it in 1912 with a preface by William Butler Yeats.

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217. What literary device was predominantly used in the Arabian Nights?

A. allegory B. frame story

C. deus ex machine D. verisimilitude

The FRAMING STORY of The Arabian Nights, seemingly recounted by a queen to her sister,
actually serves to pique the interest of a jealous king. The frame narrative begins with the story of
two royal brothers.

218. This is Chinua Achebe’s magnum opus and the most widely read book in modern African literature. It
recounts the story of Okonkwo, a yam farmer who lives during the colonization of Nigeria, and focuses on
the corruption that is rampant in African societies. This novel is the first of The African Trilogy. What is the
title of the novel?

A. A Man of the People B. No Longer at Ease

C. Arrow of God D. Things Fall Apart

“THINGS FALL APART” by Chinua Achebe depicts a vivid picture of Africa before the colonization by the
British. The title is an epigraph from Yeats, The Second Coming: "Things Fall Apart." The center cannot hold
mere anarchy, which is loosed upon the world. The novel laments over the disintegration of Nigerian
society, represented in the story by Okwonko, once a respected chieftain who loses his leadership and falls
from grace after the coming of the whites. Cultural values are woven around the plot to mark its
authenticity: polygamy since the character is Muslim; tribal law is held supreme by the gwugwu, respected
elders in the community; a man's social status is determined by the people's esteem and by possession of
fields of yams and physical prowess; community life is shown in drinking sprees, funeral wakes, and sports
festivals.
"NO LONGER AT EASE" by Chinua Achebe is a sequel to "Things Fall Apart," the title of which is alluded
to in Eliot's "The Journey of the Magi." ”We returned to our places, these kingdoms, but are no longer at
ease here, in the old dispensation.” The returning hero fails to cope with disgrace and social pressure.
Okwonk's son has to live up to the expectations of the Umuofians after winning a scholarship in London,
where he reads literature, not law, as is expected of him; he has to dress up; he must have a car; he has to
maintain his social standing; and he should not marry an Ozu, an outcast. In the end, the tragic hero
succumbs to temptation; he, too, receives bribes and is therefore ‘no longer at ease.’

219. Who is the Nigerian poet and playwright who is the first African to be awarded the Nobel Prize in
Literature? His novels include “The Interpreters” and “Season of Anomy.”

A. Bernard Dadie B. Nelson Mandela

C. David Diop D. Wole Soyinka

Wole Soyinka (1934) is a Nigerian playwright, poet, novelist, and critic who was the first black African to
be awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1986. He wrote of modern West Africa in a satirical style

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and with a tragic sense of the obstacles to human progress. He taught literature and drama and headed
theater groups at various Nigerian universities. Among his works are: plays—A Dance of the Forests, The
Lion and the Jewel, The Trials of Brother Jero; novels—The Interpreters, Season of Anomy; poems—Idanre
and Other Poems, Poems from Prison, A Shuttle in the Crypt, Mandela’s Earth, and Other Poems.

220. Who is this South African leader who is an anti-apartheid revolutionary and considered the “Father of
the Nation”? He wrote “Long Walk to Freedom.”

A. Bernard Dadie B. Nelson Mandela

C. David Diop D. Wole Soyinka

NELSON MANDELA is most known for successfully leading the fight against South Africa's apartheid
policies in the twentieth century, during which time he was infamously imprisoned at Robben Island Prison
(1964–1982).

221 Which Indian literary work depicts Hindu beliefs and forms of social organization, karma theory,
wifehood ideals, and attitudes about caste, honor, and promises? It consists of over 24,000 couplets divided
into seven books.

A. Mahabharata B. Ramayana

C. Bhagavad-Gita D. Pachatranta

The poet VALMIKI composed the RAMAYANA in SANSKRIT, probably not before 300 BC, and it consists of
approximately 24,000 COUPLETS divided into SEVEN BOOKS. It reflects Hindu values and forms of social
organization, the theory of karma, the ideals of wifehood, and feelings about caste, honor, and promises.

The MAHABHARATA, traditionally ascribed to the sage Vyasa, consists of a mass of legendary and didactic
material that tells of the struggle for supremacy between two groups of cousins, the Kauravas and the
Pandavas, set sometime in 3102 BC. The poem is made up of almost 100,000 couplets divided into 18
parvans, or sections. It is an exposition on dharma (codes of conduct), including the proper conduct of a
king, of a warrior, of a man living in times of calamity, and of a person seeking to attain emancipation from
rebirth.

The BHAGAVAD-GITA Gita (The Blessed Lord's Song) is one of the greatest and most beautiful of the Hindu
scriptures. Hindus regard it in a manner similar to how Christians regard the Gospels. It forms part of Book
IV and is written in the form of a dialogue between the warrior Prince Arjuna and his friend and charioteer,
Krishna, who is also an earthly incarnation of the god Vishnu.

The PANCHATANTRA is a COLLECTION OF INDIAN BEAST FABLES originally written in Sanskrit. In

Europe, the work was known under the title The Fables of Bidpai after the narrator, an Indian sage named
Bidpai (called Vidyapati in Sanskrit). It is intended as a textbook of artha (worldly wisdom); the aphorisms
tend to glorify shrewdness and cleverness more than helping others. The original text is a mixture of
Sanskrit prose and stanzas of verse, with the stories contained within one of five frame stories. The

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introduction, which acts as an enclosing frame for the entire work, attributes the stories to a learned
Brahman named Vishnusarman, who used the form of animal fables to instruct the three dull-witted sons of
a king.

222. Which of the following works narrates the story of a king who goes hunting and meets a beautiful
maiden who becomes his wife? It further relates the king and his wife’s separation and eventual unification.

A. Dhammapaba B. Shakuntala

C. Panchatantra D. Tripitaka

SHAKUNTALA, a Sanskrit drama by Kalidasa, tells the love story between Sakuntala and King Dushyanta.
What begins as a physical attraction for both of them becomes spiritual in the end, as their love endures
and surpasses all difficulties. King Dushyanta is a noble and pious king who upholds his duties above
personal desire. Sakuntala, on the other hand, is a young girl who matures beautifully because of her
kindness, courage, and strength of will. After a period of suffering, the two are finally reunited. Emotion, or
rasa, dominates every scene in Sanskrit drama. These emotions vary from love to anger, heroism to
cowardice, joy to terror, and allow the audience to take part in the play and be one with the characters.

223. Who is the Indian author whose works concern the struggles of contemporary Indians with conflicting
Eastern and Western values?

A. Kamala Markandaya B. R. K. Narayan

C. Prem Chand D. Anita Desai

KAMALA MARKANDAYA (1924). Her works concern the struggles of contemporary Indians with
conflicting Eastern and Western values. She was a Brahman; she studied at Madras University, then
settled in England and married an Englishman. Her fiction typically portrays Western values as modern and
materialistic, while Indian values remain spiritual and traditional.

NECTAR IN A SIEVE. Her first novel and most popular work is about an Indian peasant's narrative of her
difficult life.

R. K. NARAYAN (1906). One of the finest Indian authors of his generation writes in English. He briefly
worked as a teacher before deciding to devote himself full-time to writing. Narayan sets all his works in the
fictional South Indian town of Malgudi. They typically portray the peculiarities of human relationships and
the ironies of Indian daily life, in which modern urban existence clashes with ancient tradition. His style is
graceful, marked by genial humor, elegance, and simplicity.

SWAMI AND FRIENDS. His first novel is an episodic narrative recounting the adventures of a group of
schoolboys.

PREM CHAND is the pseudonym of Dhanpat Rai Srivastava (1880–1936). Dhanpat Rai Srivastava, an
Indian author of numerous novels and short stories in Hindi and Urdu, pioneered the adaptation of Indian

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themes to Western literary styles. Prior to joining Mahatma Gandhi's anticolonial Noncooperation
Movement, he worked as a teacher.

SEVASADANA (HOUSE OF SERVICE) His first major novel deals with the problems of prostitution and
moral corruption among the Indian middle class.

MANASAROVAR (THE HOLY LAKE). This collection of approximately 250 short stories showcases the
majority of Prem Chand's most exceptional works.

GODAN (THE GIFT OF A COW). This last novel was Prem Chand's masterpiece, and it deals with his
favorite theme: the hard and unrewarding life of the village peasant.

ANITA DESAI (1937). An English-language Indian novelist and author of children's books, she is
considered India's premier illustrator. She excelled at evoking character and mood through visual images.
Most of his works reflect Desei's tragic view of life.

CRY, THE PEACOCK. Her first novel explores the theme of Indian women's suppression and oppression.

CLEAR LIGHT OF DAY. Considered the author's most successful work, this is a highly evocative portrait of
two sisters caught in the lassitude of Indian life. The 1980 Booker Prize shortlisted this work.

FIRE ON THE MOUNTAIN. Critics criticized this work for heavily relying on imagery at the expense of plot
and characterization, but praised it for its poetic symbolism and use of sounds. This won her the Royal
Society of Literature's Winifred Holtby Memorial Prize.

224. This era in ancient Chinese civilization is also known as the “Hundred Schools Period” because of the
many competing philosophers and teachers who emerged, the most influential among them being Lao Tzu
and Confucius.

A. Shang Dynasty B. T’ang Dynasty

C. Chou Dynasty D. Ch’in Dynasty

CHOU DYNASTY (1100 B.C.–221 B.C.). This was the longest of all the dynasties, and throughout most of
this period, China suffered from severe political disunity and upheaval. This era was also known as the
Hundred Schools Period because of the many competing philosophers and teachers who emerged, the most
influential among them being Lao Tzu, the proponent of Taoism, and Confucius, the founder of
Confucianism. Lao Tzu stressed freedom, simplicity, and the mystical contemplation of nature, while
Confucius emphasized a code of social conduct and stressed the importance of discipline, morality, and
knowledge.

T’ANG DYNASTY (A.D. 618–960). Fine arts and literature flourished during this era, which is viewed as the
Golden Age of Chinese civilization. Among the technological advances of this time were the invention of
gunpowder and block printing.

SHANG DYNASTY (1600 B.C.). During this time, the people practiced a religion based on the belief that
nature was inhabited by many powerful gods and spirits. Among the significant advances of this period

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were bronze working, the decimal system, a twelve-month calendar, and a system of writing consisting of
3,000 characters.

CH’IN DYNASTY (221 B.C.–207 B.C.). This period saw the unification of China and the strengthening of the
central government. Roads connecting all parts of the empire were built, and the existing walls on the
northern borders were connected to form the Great Wall of China.

225. He is called the “father of the modern Chinese short story” because of his introduction of Western
techniques.

A. Chou-Shu-jen B. Li Ch’ing-chao

C. Tu Fu D. Wang Wei

CHOU-SHU-JEN (1881–1936) has been called the “father of the modern Chinese short story” because of
his introduction of Western techniques. He is also known as Lu Hsun, whose stories deal with themes of
social concern, the problems of the poor, women, and intellectuals.

LI CH’ING-CHAO is regarded as China's greatest woman poet and was also one of the most liberated
women of her day. She was brought up in court society and was trained in the arts and classical literature—
quite an unusual upbringing for a woman of the Sung dynasty. Many of her poems, composed in the tz’u
form, celebrate her happy marriage or express her loneliness when her husband is away.

TU FU is a Confucian moralist, realist, and humanitarian. He was public-spirited, and his poetry helped
chronicle the history of the age: the deterioration

WANG WEI was an 8th-century government official who spent the later years of his life in the country,
reading and discussing Buddhism with scholars and monks. He is known for the pictorial quality of his
poetry and its economy. His word-pictures parallel Chinese brush artistry, in which a few strokes are all
suggestive of authority, the disasters of war, and official extravagance.

226. One of the features of African oral literature that served foremost as memory aids for griots and other
storytellers. It also creates rhythm, builds suspense, and adds emphasis to parts of the poem or narrative.

A. repeat-and-vary technique

B. tonal assonance

C. repetition and parallel structure

D. call-and-response format

REPETITION AND PARALLEL STRUCTURE served foremost as memory aids for griots and other
storytellers. Repetition also creates rhythm, builds suspense, and adds emphasis to parts of the poem or

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narrative. Repeated lines or refrains are frequently used to mark places where an audience can join in on
the oral performance.

REPEAT-AND-VARY TECHNIQUE, in which lines or phrases are repeated with slight variations, sometimes
by changing a single word.

TONAL ASSONANCE: the tones in which syllables are spoken determine the meanings of words, like in
many Asian languages.

The CALL-AND-RESPONSE FORMAT includes spirited audience participation, in which the leader calls out
a line or phrase and the audience responds with an answering line or phrase, becoming performers
themselves.

227. He is the leading figure of the Negritude movement. ***Actual March 2023 LET

A. Leopold Senghor B. Dennis Brutus

C. Wole Soyinka D. David Diop

NEGRITUDE was a literary movement that developed in the 1930s, 1940s, and 1950s among French-
speaking African and Caribbean writers living in Paris to challenge French colonial control and assimilation
strategies. Its LEADING FIGURE was LEOPOLD SÉDAR SENGHOR (the first president of the Republic of
Senegal in 1960), who, along with Aimé Césaire of Martinique and Léon Damas of French Guiana, began to
question Western values and reassess African culture.

228-230 - Train Journey by Dennis Brutus

Along the miles of steel

That span my land

Threadbare children stand

Knees ostrich bulbous on their reedy legs,

Their empty hungry hands

Lifted as if in a prayer.

228. What does “miles of steel/ than span my land”’ mean? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Progressive and civilized areas of the land

B. Strength of the people

C. Ruling leaders of the land

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D. Existence of train in the land

229. What does the poem Train Journey by Dennis Brutus mean? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Poverty amidst industrial progress

B. Scarcity of industrial materials for the train

C. Children’s survival from hunger

D. Scarcity of food for the children

230. What does the “ostrich” symbolize based on the poem Train Journey by Dennis Brutus?***Actual
September 2023 LET

A. Children B. Workers

C. Developers D. Victims

Rationalization for number 228-232.

Dennis Brutus was a poet whose works center on his sufferings and those of his fellow black people in
South Africa.

Train Journey by Dennis Brutus reflects the poet's social commitment as he reacts to the poverty around
him amidst material progress, especially that acutely felt by the innocent victims, the children.

231. It is a satirical poem written by Wole Soyinka about a black man seeking the landlady’s permission to
accommodate him in her lodging house. The poetic dialogue reveals the landlady’s deep-rooted prejudice
against the colored people as the caller plays up to it.

A. Train Journey B. Telephone Conversation

C. Africa D. Song of Lawino

TELEPHONE CONVERSATION by Wole Soyinka is the poet's most anthologized poem and reflects
Negritude. It is a satirical poem about a black man seeking the landlady's permission to accommodate him
in her lodging house. The poetic dialogue reveals the landlady’s deep-rooted prejudice against the colored
people as the caller plays up to it.

TRAIN JOURNEY by Dennis Brutus reflects the poet's social commitment as he reacts to the poverty
around him amidst material progress, especially that acutely felt by the innocent victims, the children.

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AFRICA by David Diop is a poem that achieves its impact through a series of climactic sentences and
rhetorical questions.

Okot P'Bitek's SONG OF LAWINO, a series of poems about the conflict between African and Western values,
is considered the first significant English poem to originate from Eastern Africa. Lawino's song is a plea for
the Ugandans to look back on traditional village life and recapture African values.

232. What is the theme of this African proverb:

“On the way to one’s beloved, there are no hills.”? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Real love knows no boundaries.

B. Sacrifice is the gauge of true love.

C. Obstacles make a relationship strong.

D. True love is tested by difficulties.

The word "HILLS" in the African proverb mentioned represents the BOUNDARIES.

233. Who is the South African novelist and short story writer whose major themes are exile and alienation
and who won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1991?

A. Bessie Head B. Barbara Kimenye

C. Nadine Gordimer D. Ousmane Sembene

NADINE GORDIMER (1923) is a South African novelist and short story writer whose major themes were
EXILE AND ALIENATION. She received the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1991. Gordimer was writing by
age 9 and published her first story in a magazine at age 15. Her works exhibit a clear, controlled, and
unsentimental technique that became her hallmark. She examines how public events affect individual lives,
how the dreams of today's youth are corrupted, and how innocence is lost. Among her works are The Soft
Voice of the Serpent, Burger’s Daughter, July’s People, A Sport of Nature, and My Son’s Story.

BESSIE HEAD (1937–1986) described the CONTRADICTIONS AND SHORTCOMINGS OF PRE- AND
POSTCOLONIAL AFRICAN SOCIETY in morally didactic novels and stories. She suffered rejection and
alienation from an early age, being born into an illegal union between her white mother and black father.
Among her works are When Rain Clouds Gather, A Question of Power, The Collector of Treasures, and
Serowe.

BARBARA KIMENYE (1940) wrote twelve books on children's stories known as the Moses series, which
are now the standard reading material for African schoolchildren. She also worked for many years for His
Highness the Kabaka of Uganda in the Ministry of Education and later served as the Kabaka's librarian. She

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was a journalist for The Uganda Nation and later a columnist for a Nairobi newspaper. Among her works
are Kalasanda Revisited, The Smugglers, and The Money Game.

OUSMANE SEMBENE (1923) is a writer and filmmaker from Senegal. His works reveal an intense
commitment to POLITICAL AND SOCIAL CHANGE. In the words of one of his characters, “You will never be
a good writer so long as you don't defend a cause.” Sembene tells his stories from Africa's past and relates
their relevance and meaning to contemporary society. His works include O My Country, My Beautiful
People, God’s Bits of Wood, and The Storm.

CHILDREN AND ADOLESCENT LITERATURE

•Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of children literature and adolescent literature.

•Apply concepts, principles, methods and strategies in teaching literacy skills using varied children
and adolescent literary texts.

234. What is the theme of “Hansel and Gretel?” ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. resourcefulness and inventiveness in confronting challenging conditions

B. love and friendship, fate and free will, and honor

C. courage, good versus evil, loyalty, generosity, reputation, and the heroic code

D. imagination, courage versus cowardice, maternal love, and preserving memory

The BROTHERS GRIMM initially chronicled the fairy tale "HANSEL AND GRETEL." Hansel and
Gretel are siblings forced to survive in the woods after their parents abandon them during a
famine. Their predicament grows more precarious when they come across a witch dwelling in a
house full of breads, cakes, and sugar. Despite all difficulties, the siblings band together to face the
dangers of the woods and the witch, emerging victorious at the end of the story. The moral of the
story is that working with a trustworthy companion and planning ahead of time can help a
person avoid even the direst scenarios.

235. Who is the famous author of "Peter Pan," a beloved work of children's literature from the Edwardian
Era? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Lewis Carroll B. J.M. Barrie

C. Beatrix Potter D. Kenneth Grahame

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J. M. BARRIE'S children's novel "PETER PAN" incorporates aspects of fairy tales. The character
was first featured in Barrie's earlier stories and a play, but the novel was published in 1911 as
"Peter and Wendy." Barrie's younger brother, who died as a youngster and remains eternally
young, inspired the concept of Peter, a child who never grows old.

236. In Edwardian children's literature, E. Nesbit is known for her magical stories where children discover
enchanted objects granting them wishes. What is the title of one of her famous works that features such a
theme? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. "Peter Pan"

B. "Five Children and it"

C. "The Tale of Peter Rabbit"

D. "Alice's Adventures in Wonderland”

E. Nesbit, a renowned figure in Edwardian children's literature, is renowned for narrating tales
where magic plays a significant role, often through children's encounters with enchanted objects
that grant them wishes.

NESBIT'S thematic focus on children discovering magical objects and having their wishes granted
is evident in the title "FIVE CHILDREN AND IT". This story revolves around five siblings who
discover a sand fairy, sometimes known as a Psammead, who has the ability to grant them a series
of wishes, often with surprising consequences. Therefore, "Five Children and It" is the correct
answer, as it aligns with the themes and aspects of E. Nesbit's contributions to Edwardian
children's literature.

"PETER PAN" by J.M. BARRIE is well-known for its story about a boy who never grows up.

Beatrix Potter's "THE TALE OF PETER RABBIT" is well-known for its story about Peter Rabbit's
wayward exploits.

LEWIS CARROLL'S book "ALICE'S ADVENTURES IN WONDERLAND" is known for its

imaginative trip through a fantasy realm.

237. What is the term for a type of teenagers' literature that explores the challenges and emotional
struggles faced by young people, often dealing with issues like identity, relationships, and self-discovery?

A. Adventure novels. B. Historical fiction

C. Realistic fiction D. Biographies

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"REALISTIC FICTION" refers to a form of youth literature that explores the obstacles and
emotional struggles that young people confront, dealing with subjects such as identity,
relationships, and self-discovery.

ADVENTURE NOVELS often feature thrilling and dangerous situations, sometimes in foreign
settings.

HISTORICAL FICTION takes place in the past, concentrating on particular historical events or
periods.

BIOGRAPHIES chronicle individuals' lives, detailing their experiences, accomplishments, and

impact on the world.

238. Which famous children's author from the Edwardian Era is known for her tales featuring
anthropomorphic animals in charming, British countryside settings? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Lewis Carroll B. Beatrix Potter

C. J.M. Barrie D. Kenneth Grahame

BEATRIX POTTER is well known for her beloved children's stories, such as "THE TALE OF
PETER RABBIT," which depict animals in anthropomorphic roles in lovely British countryside
settings.

239. In A. A. Milne's "Winnie-the-Pooh" stories, many of the characters are embodied by anthropomorphic
toys. Each toy's personality and quirks seem perfectly aligned with their physical form. Which character's
personality and actions are MOST demonstrably connected to their specific toy animal representation?
***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Eeyore, the gloomy donkey, whose long ears always seem droopy and whose demeanor reflects his
pessimistic outlook.

B. Piglet, the timid piglet, who is easily startled and hesitant, mirroring the skittish nature of real pigiets.

C. Rabbit, the meticulously organized rabbit, whose obsession with schedules and order closely resembles
the busy tendencies of rabbits.

D. Tigger, the energetic tiger, whose bouncing and boisterous personality reflects the playful and
bouncy nature of real tigers.

We examine the following options to determine which character's personality and actions most
convincingly align with their unique toy animal portrayal:

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A. The pessimistic perspective and droopy demeanor of Eeyore, the gloomy donkey, could reflect
the stereotype of donkeys as less energetic or enthusiastic. However, this relationship is based on
disposition rather than activities closely related to the animal's natural behavior.

B. Piglet, the timid piglet, has a disposition that reflects the cautious and hesitant character
common to little animals, particularly piglets. While this link is obvious, it is a broad depiction of
small animal behavior rather than distinct, distinguishing characteristics.

C. Rabbit, the carefully ordered rabbit, is obsessed with scheduling and order. While rabbits in
nature are known for their rapid movements and possibly for digging burrows, the relationship
between a rabbit's personality and genuine rabbits' natural actions is less straightforward than
others.

D. Tigger, the lively tiger, embodies the physique and tremendous energy that are commonly
associated with tigers. His bouncy and loud demeanor not only matches the joyful nature of real
tigers, but it also closely mirrors a tiger's physical skills and actions, such as jumping and being
extremely active. This choice establishes a direct and obvious link between the character's actions
and the physical and behavioral characteristics of the animal it portrays.

The examination clearly relates Tigger's personality and movements (bouncing and being
enthusiastic) to their specific toy animal portrayal, which is the playful and bouncy nature of
actual tigers.

240. What era was “Peter Pan” was written? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Edwardian Period B. Victorian Period

C. Medieval Period D. Classical Period

The culture of the times Peter Pan, written by J.M. Barrie, is primarily associated with the
EDWARDIAN ERA. This was a time before wars, so people were free to fantasize about things
beyond reality, such as Neverland. Leisure, high fashion, and large hotels defined this era, which
people regarded as an ideal society and culture to be a part of.

241. The following are children and adolescent literature genres based on format, except.

A. Graphic novels B. Verse novels

C. Picture books D. Transformational books

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TRANSFORMATIONAL BOOKS differ from self-help or memoirs in that the author is usually a
subject-matter expert who wants to share their professional experience, abilities, and resources
with their readers.

Graphic novels, verse novels, and picture books are format-based.

The word "GRAPHIC NOVEL" is not exactly defined; nonetheless, in general, it refers to a full-
length story written in comic book style, complete with visuals and artwork.

In literature, a VERSE NOVEL is one that is written in poetry. A verse novel incorporates aspects
of both the typical style and structure of a novel as well as poetry.

PICTURE BOOKS are books in which the graphics are as significant as the text or consist only of
pictures that, when combined, tell a story.

242. In the story "The Little Prince," what does the rose symbolizes? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. love, beauty, feminist B. love, beauty, masculinity

C. love, shame, guilt D. love, destiny, marriage

The rose symbolizes beauty, vulnerability, and the complexity of love. It teaches the prince and
readers the importance of building relationships and seeing beyond superficial appearances

243. It was considered the Golden Age of children's literature between the 18th and 19th centuries.
***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Renaissance Period B. Victorian Period

C. Edwardian Period D. Shakespearean Era

The VICTORIAN ERA was defined by the emergence of modern fantasy. People regarded the years
1837–1901 as the GOLDEN AGE OF CHILDREN'S LITERATURE.

244. The 20th century was known for the production of picture storybooks and the personification of toy
animals, one of it is? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. The Charlotte's Web B. The Lord of the Rings

C. Winnie the Pooh D. The Hobbit

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WINNIE-THE-POOH features ten short stories about Pooh and his buddies in the Hundred Acre
Wood as they pursue their imaginations in search of adventure, overcoming challenges with
simple ideas and camaraderie.

245. Matsuo Basho's "The Old Pond," Kobayashi Issa's "A World of Dew," Natsume Soseki's "Over the
Windtry," and Ravi Shankra's "Lines on a Skull" are examples of ?

A. limerick B. haiku

C. nursery rhymes D. calligram poems

HAIKU is a form of Japanese poetry composed of seventeen syllables in three lines. The first line
has five syllables, the second has seven, and the third line has five. Usually written in the present
tense, haiku poems lack rhyme.

LIMERICK dates back to the early 17th century, as surviving folk tunes gained prominence in the
18th century. The British poet EDWARD LEAR, known as the FATHER OF LIMERICK,
popularized it. He included seventy-two limericks in his published book, "The Book of Nonsense."
Limericks are a form of witty short poem that aims to delight readers. It contains five lines using
the rhyming pattern "aabba." Limerick's primary meter is anapestic, with metrical fees in the third
and fourth lines: "da dum da da dum." The first, second, and fifth lines contain three anapests: "da
dum da da dum da da dum." They also have seven to ten syllables and follow the usual linguistic
rhythm.

NURSERY RHYMES are part of the oral traditions presented in short verses or bongs that are
often memorized or sung by children. They are mostly marked by rhymes and rhythm, but vary in
style, tone, and theme. The popularity of nursery rhymes coincided with the rise in popularity of
children’s literature, especially during the 18th and 19th centuries. It is interchangeable with
MOTHER GOOSE rhymes when the fairy tales of Charles Perrault, a French author, were translated
to English as the “Tales of Mother Goose."

A CALLIGRAM is a type of poem created not only to be read and spoken but also to be viewed and
admired. The term calligram was invented by Guillaume Apollinaire in 1918, anchored on the
Greek words "calli,” or beautiful, and d "gram," whi means “something written.” Calligrams are
poems that use the creative arrangement of words to create a visual impact. The poet DESIGNS the
verses in various SHAPES and FORMS, thereby MANIFESTING the POEM'S MESSAGE. This unique
feature of the calligram makes this type of poem appealing and popular among adolescents. It
helps students be creative in their use of words, rhythmic patterns, and figurative language. It
helps students learn new words. It gives them a more fun and engaging experience and allows
them to process information and understand meaning easily. Calligram examples include "East
Wings" by George Herbert and "The Mouse's Tale" by Lewis Carroll.

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246. "The Charlotte Web" by E.B. White is a classic adventure featuring a definitive animal fantasy. What
era in literature was it published?

A. The Victorian Age B. The Edwardian Era

C. The 20th Century D. The 18th Century

The 20TH-CENTURY classic adventure "THE CHARLOTTE WEB" by E.B. WHITE, which featured
a definitive animal fantasy, was produced.

247. It is considered the oldest Anglo-Saxon epic poem that can be traced back to 975–1025 AD.

A. Epic of Gilgamesh B. Beowulf

C. Ramayana D. Illiad and Oddysey

BEOWULF, a heroic poem, is the pinnacle of OLD ENGLISH LITERATURE and the FIRST
EUROPEAN VERNACULAR EPIC. The poem explores events from the early sixth century, and
although its composition date remains unknown, some researchers suggest it originated in the
eighth century. The Scandinavian hero Beowulf, whose achievements and character serve as a
unifying thread, eventually inspired the poem's name, despite its original namelessness.

248. Yearly, the Banned Book Week lists Top-10 Challenged Books based on the number of complaints
raised against the literature over the years. The list also indicates the challenge of concern raised against
each book of literature. The following is the list for the year 2020, except .

A. To Kill a Mockingbird B. Of Mice and Men

C. George D. The Reddest Eye

Below are the top 10 most challenged books of 2020:

GEORGE by Alex Gino. Challenged, banned, and restricted for LGBTQIA+ content

STAMPED: Racism, Antiracism, and You by Ibram X. Kendi and Jason Reynolds. Banned and
challenged because of the author’s public statements, and because of claims that the book contains
“selective storytelling incidents” and does not encompass racism against all people

ALL AMERICAN BOYS by Jason Reynolds and Brendan Kiely. Banned and challenged for profanity,
drug use, and alcoholism, and because it was thought to promote anti-police views, contain
divisive topics, and be “too much of a sensitive matter right now”

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Speak by Laurie Halse Anderson. Banned, challenged, and restricted because it was thought to
contain a political viewpoint, it was claimed to be biased against male students, and for the novel’s
inclusion of rape and profanity

THE ABSOLUTELY TRUE DIARY OF A PART-TIME Indian by Sherman Alexie. Banned and
challenged for profanity, sexual references, and allegations of sexual misconduct by the author

SOMETHING HAPPENED IN OUR TOWN: A Child’s Story About Racial Injustice by Marianne
Celano, Marietta Collins, and Ann Hazzard, illustrated by Jennifer Zivoin. Challenged for “divisive
language” and because it was thought to promote anti-police views

TO KILL A MOCKINGBIRD BY HARPER LEE. BANNED and challenged for racial slurs and their
negative effect on students, featuring a “white savior” character, and its perception of the Black
experience

OF MICE AND MEN BY JOHN STEINBECK. Banned and challenged for racial slurs and racist
stereotypes, and their negative effect on students

THE BLUEST EYE BY TONI MORRISON. Banned and challenged because it was considered
sexually explicit and depicts child sexual abuse.

THE HATE U GIVE BY ANGIE THOMAS. Challenged for profanity and because it was thought to
promote an anti-police message

249. This strategy teaches the student to decipher explicit and implicit information on the materials that
they are reading.

A. activating B. monitoring

C. clarifying D. inferring

This strategy teaches the students to decipher explicit and implicit information on the materials
that they are reading. Combining both written and unwritten information in reading text helps to
process ideas easily.

250. A story about a pig named Wilbur and his barn friend spider named Charlotte. When Wilbur was about
to be slaughtered by his farmer owner for Christmas, he was saved by his spider friend.

A. Peter Pan B. Winnie the Pooh

C. Charlotte Web D. The Fox and the Grapes

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E. B. White wrote Charlotte's Web and published it in 1952. Charlotte's Web tells the story of
Wilbur, a runt pig, who his owner's daughter saves from slaughter. Eventually, his owner's
daughter sells him to another farm, where he forges an unexpected bond with a spider named
Charlotte. When Wilbur discovers that he may be butchered for meat once he reaches a certain
size, Charlotte devises a scheme to preserve his life.

251. Which literary period of children's literature used heroic Bible stories and adventures to spread
Catholic teaching?

A. Renaissance B. Medieval

C. 20th century D. Victorian

During the MEDIEVAL PERIOD or MIDDLE AGES, literature was characterized as religious and
highly biblical or romantic, with embedded realism and fantasy. People used stories to teach
morals to children.

Biblical stories, such as the stories of saints, were popular to teach children. Among the known
stories based on oral traditions are the story of "Noah" and the great flood, "Cain and Abel," "Adam
and Eve," and the "Tower of Babel." Many stories of heroic adventures were also familiar in the
search for places to spread Catholic teaching.

252. Which author wrote books that reflected the characteristics of children's literature during the 18th
century?

A. John Newberry B. Lewis Carroll

C. Edward Lear D. J. M. Barrie

During the 18th century, JOHN NEWBERRY, a children's book author, had a significant impact on
children's literature by founding the first publishing firm exclusively for children's stories. He
published both his own stories and the works of other children's book authors.

253. What time period does the emergence of chapbooks fall under? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Middle Age B. Renaissance Period

C. The 18th and early 19th Century D. Classical World of Greek and Roman.

CHAPBOOKS appeared during the Renaissance. There are a few inexpensive books featuring fairy
tales.

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254. Which literary period of children's literature was Roman and Greek literature reintroduced?

A. Classical Period B. The 18 Century

C. The Edwardian Era D. Renaissance Period

The Renaissance period defined a new age in Europe from 1400 to 1700, or from the 14th to 16th
centuries. New ideas emerged during this period. ROMAN AND GREEK LITERATURE WERE
REINTRODUCED. There was an emphasis on intellectual and spiritual development.

255. Every year, the Philippines proclaims National Children's Book Day on what day?

A. Second Tuesday of June B. Second Tuesday of July

C. Third Tuesday of June D. Third Tuesday of July

Proclamation No. 2365 declares every THIRD TUESDAY OF JULY as National Children's Book Day
in the Philippines, with the goal of promoting the intellectual and social well-being of youth
through books, and the Philippine Board on Books for Young People serves as the celebration's
coordinating organization.

CONTEMPORARY, POPULAR AND EMERGENT LITERATURES

•Apply knowledge and skills of analyzing and evaluating critical issues in contemporary, popular and
emergent literature and their relevance in the teaching-learning process.

•Use various methods of literary analysis.

256. It is defined as literature written after World War II through the present day.

A. Popular Literature B. Emergent Literature

C. Contemporary Popular Literature D. Contemporary Literature

CONTEMPORARY LITERATURE is defined as literature written following World War II and up to

the present day. Contemporary literature explores issues such as deconstructing old narratives of
reality, challenging corrupt authority, and understanding reality as unpredictable and
disorganized.

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257. Which contemporary literature is described as enthralling and dazzlingly innovative portrait of a
woman haunted by the past?

A. The Poisoned Bible B. Beloved

C. To Kill a Mocking Bird D. The Kite Runner

Toni Morrison, a prominent American author, wrote the novel Beloved in 1987. The plot of the
novel, set during Reconstruction following the Civil War, qualifies it as historical fiction. The novel
looks into the tragedies of the slave economy in the United States, as well as how former slaves
have established new lives since their emancipation. However, the ghost of slavery haunts many
characters, and the novel follows how they deal with this persistent nightmare. The Beloved
narrative is mostly an in-depth investigation of how people regenerate spiritually after
experiencing horrific pain.

258. What analysis method would be best suited to investigating the depiction of gender roles and power
relations in Charlotte Bronte's work "Jane Eyre"?

A. Psychoanalysis B. Marxism

C. Feminism D. Formalism

FEMINIST LITERARY CRITICISM examines literature from a male-dominated perspective. It re-

examines canonical works to show how gender norms influence their operation. It examines and
frequently rediscovers women's work in search of a viable alternative voice. Jane Eyre embodies
feminism as a heroine, demonstrating her independence, her willingness to express love when she
desires it, her acceptance of love, and her unwavering commitment to her convictions. She
represents working-class women who reject the conventional gender roles of wives and mothers.

259. Which Nigerian-American author of "Americanah" and "We Should All Be Feminists" is known for her
explorations of race, gender, and identity?

A. Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie B. Yaa Gyasi

C. Zadie Smith D. Roxane Gay

CHIMAMANDA NGOZI ADICHIE is a Nigerian author renowned for her contributions to African
and feminist writing. Her writings span from fictional wartime stories to nonfiction feminist
pronouncements. Her fame grew as a result of her public talks on the importance of hearing and
sharing worldwide stories, as well as the importance of feminism as equal rights for men and
women. Her work and influence have received widespread critical acclaim, winning her numerous
prizes and nominations.

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260. Which of the following popular literary works would be best suited to teaching learners about the
effects of war on people and societies?

A. All Quiet on the Western Front by Erich Maria Remarque

B. The Great Gatsby by F. Scott Fitzgerald

C. The Lord of the Rings by J.R.R. Tolkien

D. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn by Mark Twain

All Quiet on the Western Front depicts the narrative of a group of young Germans who join World
War I after being swayed by patriotic and honorable slogans. It is told by the protagonist, Paul
Baumer, who is twenty years old.

The DREADFUL BRUTALITY OF WAR pervades every scene in All Quiet on the Western Front,
the central topic of the novel.

261. Julian Barnes, the British author of "The Sense of an Ending" and "Atonement," is known for literary
works that include .

A. explorations of Jewish-American identity and popular culture

B. explorations of modern love, relationships, and social class

C. explorations of memory, identity, and the subjectivity of truth

D. explorations of history, race, and injustice

JULIAN BARNES is best known for his witty and intellectual novels. Barnes' work often deals with
identity, memory, and historical themes. His most famous work is the postmodern novel
Flaubert's Parrot (1984).

MICHAEL CHABON, an American author of "The Amazing Adventures of Kavalier & Clay" and
"Telegraph Avenue," is known for his explorations of Jewish-American identity and popular
culture.

SALLY ROONEY, an Irish author of "Normal People" and "Conversations with Friends, is known
for her explorations of modern love, relationships, and social class.

REBECCA SKLOOT, an American author of "The Immortal Life of Henrietta Lacks" and "The Caged
Bird Sings," is known for her explorations of history, race, and injustice.

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262. How did World War II affect contemporary literature?

A. The violence of World War II caused people to shift their mindsets and question ideas such as
human nature and truth.

B. World War II created modern literature, which in turn, created contemporary literature.

C. World War II caused a massive amount of literature to be written in a short amount of time.

D. All of the themes after World War II became similar because of war narratives.

The term "contemporary literature" refers to prose, poetry, and drama published since 1945 in
two movements. The violence of World War II prompted artists to challenge established
understandings of human nature and truth, resulting in postmodernism, a movement that
distrusted big narratives and authority.

263. It is a narrative work in which the story is conveyed to the reader using sequential art in either an
experimental design or in a traditional comics format.

A. Adventure Literature. B. Classic Literature

C. Mystery fiction D. Graphic novel

A GRAPHIC NOVEL is a narrative work that uses sequential art, either in an experimental design
or in a traditional comics format, to convey the story to the reader. The term is employed in a
broad manner, encompassing non-fiction works and thematically linked short stories as well as
fictional stories across a number of genres. Examples of this genre are “Earth’s Mighty Heroes:
Avengers," The Walking Dead, and Spider-Man. In the Philippines, “Darna” was once the most
popular graphic novel.

ADVENTURE LITERATURE is fiction whose chief aim is the absorbing narration of real or
imaginary events and in which analytical, didactic, and descriptive elements are either absent or
are secondary in importance. Examples of this genre are The Adventures of Tom Sawyer,
Gulliver’s Travels, etc.

CLASSIC LITERATURE covers a much wider array of works than classical literature. Older books
that retain their popularity are almost always considered to be among the classics. This means
that the ancient Greek and Roman authors of classical literature fall into this category as well.
Examples include The Little Women,” written by Louis May Alcott; Pride and Prejudice, by Jane
Austen; and other stories.

MYSTERY FICTION is a genre of fiction usually involving a mysterious death or a crime to be

solved. Often with a closed circle of suspects, each suspect is usually provided with a credible
motive and a reasonable opportunity for committing the crime.

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264. In which novel do characters explore the complexities of modern relationships and the impact of
social and economic backgrounds on their lives?

A. "Normal People" by Sally Rooney

B. "The Underground Railroad" by Colson Whitehead

C. "Interpreter of Maladies" by Jhumpa Lahiri

D. "Her Body and Other Parties" Carmen Maria

Sally Rooney's "Normal People" is a contemporary story about the complexity of love, friendship,
and personal growth as seen through the eyes of two young adults.

265. Which collection of short stories delves into the lives of immigrants and their struggles with identity,
cultural displacement, and interpersonal connections?

A. "Interpreter of Maladies" by Jhumpa Lahiri

B. "Her Body & Other Parties" Carmen Machado

C. "The Circle" by Dave Eggers

D. "The Wondrous Life of Oscar Wao" Junot Díaz

Jhumpa Lahiri, an American author of Indian heritage, published “Interpreter of Maladies,” a

collection of nine short tales, in 1999. It won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000, as well as the
Hemingway Foundation/PEN Award.

"Interpreter of Maladies" focuses on a cultural confrontation between Mr. Kapasi, a local Indian
resident, and the Das family from America, who are visiting India. Major topics include
imagination and reality, responsibility and accountability, and cultural identity.

266. Whose collection of essays explores the intricacies of empathy, pain, and our connections to others in
an age of technological and emotional detachment?

A. Leslie Jamison B. Roxane Gay

C. Claudia Rankine D. Rupi Kaur

Leslie Jamison is the author of two essay collections, The Empathy Exams and Make It Scream,
Make It Burn; a critical memoir, The Recovering; and a novel, The Gin Closet. She has written for

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The New Yorker, The New York Times Magazine, Harper's, Oxford American, A Public Space, The
Virginia Quarterly Review, and The Believer.

Leslie Jamison's unsettling pieces investigate the sorrow of others and how it affects the self.

267. A literary movement that reacted against Romanticism, rejecting heroic, adventurous, unusual, or
unfamiliar subjects.

A. Puritan Period B. Enlightenment Period

C. Realism D. Modernism

REALISM (1865-1915) Realism is the presentation in art of the details of actual life. Realism
began during the nineteenth century and stressed the actual as opposed to the imagined or the
fanciful. The realists tried to write truthfully and objectively about ordinary characters in ordinary
situations. They reacted against Romanticism, rejecting heroic, adventurous, unusual, or
unfamiliar subjects.

ENLIGHTENMENT/REVOLUTIONARY PERIOD (1750–1800) Called the Enlightenment period

due to the influence of science and logic, this period is marked in US literature by political writings
and diverges from the religious focus of the Puritan era. Genres included political documents,
speeches, and letters.

The PURITAN PERIOD (1472-1750). Most of this is history, journals, personal poems, sermons,
and diaries. The literature is either utilitarian, very personal, or religious; it focuses on daily life,
settlement, moral attitudes, and the authority of the Bible and the Church.

MODERNISM (1915-1946) The authors during this period raised all the great questions of life
but offered no answers. Because modernism came about during an age of disillusionment,
confusion, and major societal change, this period reacted to two world wars: the Great Depression
and African American and female suffrage. Writers often examine self-definition and new
opportunities.

268. The following are themes that can be found in “The Hunger Games “ by Suzanne Collins EXCEPT .

A. The inequality between rich and poor

B. Suffering as entertainment

C. Individualism

D. Immortality

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The inequality between rich and poor, suffering as entertainment, and individualism are all
themes of “The Hunger Games” by Suzanne Collins.

The Hunger Games is the first novel in author Suzanne Collins' The Hunger Games trilogy. Set in a
post-apocalyptic, dystopian North America known as Panem, the story gets its name from its
annual gladiatorial contest known as the Hunger Games.

269. Which method of literary analysis focuses on the relationship between literature and society,
particularly in terms of power and class?

A. Formalism B. Marxism

C. Psychoanalysis D. New Criticism

Karl Marx was the originator of Marxist criticism. In The Communist Manifesto, Marx offered his
most important assumption for criticism: all history is the history of class struggle.

Marxist critical literary theory emphasizes socioeconomic linkages. Critical literary works clearly
depict economic dominance relationships. This can be accomplished through creative works of
literature with critical theses as well as secondary literature on oppressive ideology found in
literature.

270. Which of the following literary works would be most relevant in teaching about the impact of societal
expectations on individuals and their mental health?

A. The Yellow Wallpaper by Charlotte Perkins Gilman

B. The Great Gatsby by F. Scott Fitzgerald

C. The Lord of the Flies by William Golding

D. The Adventures of Tom Sawyer by Mark Twain

The Yellow Wallpaper's principal theme revolves around the mental, emotional, and physical pain
inflicted by women's limited roles in society and their own families during the Victorian era. The
unidentified narrator's marriage forbids her from expressing herself, exercising autonomy, or
speaking up. Her psychological degeneration, as evidenced by her fascination with the wallpaper
pattern, is the outcome of excessive restraints imposed by a patriarchal culture.

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 LITERARY CRITICISM

•Demonstrate knowledge and applications of the basic approaches to problems in critical theory from
the classical to modern times as applied to literary works.

•Draw implications of literary criticism and critical theory in English language and literature teaching.

271. Which historical approach places the text as parallel to the relevant experiences of the author when
the text was written? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Sociological criticism B. Biographical criticism

C. Psychological criticism D. New Criticism

According to BIOGRAPHICAL CRITICISM, the author's life can shed light on the significance of a
literary work. Historical criticism scrutinizes the historical context of the work's creation,
encompassing the social, cultural, and intellectual milieu of the era.

SOCIOLOGICAL CRITICISM assesses a book in relation to a specific society and its broader social
environment. Examining a manuscript through this critical lens entails investigating an author's
status in society and how an audience perceives a work.

NEW CRITICISM differed from traditional criticism. Whereas traditional criticism concentrates on
biography and history, new criticism approaches the work via a closed reading that disregards
historical, political, or biographical background. Sometimes, poets use this critical lens to examine
poetry with greater intellectual rigor. It focuses on the structure and form of a literary work rather
than any feeling it may elicit.

PSYCHOLOGICAL CRITICISM is a critical approach to literature that examines components of a

literary work using psychological theories in order to better comprehend both the author's mind
and the characters, themes, and other elements of the text.

272. Which is known as the science of interpretation? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Hermeneutics B. Textual exegesis

C. Literary appreciation D. Literary criticism

HERMENEUTICS IS A SCIENCE OF INTERPRETATION. A variety of disciplines use hermeneutics

when their subject matter demands interpretative approaches. This is typically due to the
disciplinary subject matter's focus on the implications of human intentions, beliefs, and actions, as

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well as the significance of human lives as reflected in arts and literature, historical testimony, and
other objects.

TEXTUAL EXEGESIS is a literary method of study that involves interpreting and analyzing a text.
It uses textual, cultural, and historical study to investigate the meaning of a passage in its original
context. Literary criticism is the process of comparing, analyzing, interpreting, and evaluating
literature.

LITERARY CRITICISM is to offer a reader a thorough comprehension of a literary work.

LITERARY APPRECIATION is the ability to analyze, comprehend, assess, or provide critical

judgment on literary works.

273. Which literary movement in the 19th century celebrated imagination, nature, and emotion, with poets
like William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge as key figures?

A. Romanticism B. Realism

C. Classicism D. Naturalism

According to scholars, the Romantic Period began with the publication of William Wordsworth
and Samuel Taylor Coleridge's Lyrical Ballads in 1798.

The movement was distinguished by a love of nature and the average man, an emphasis on
personal experience, an idealization of women, and an embrace of isolation and sadness.

REALISM is a literary genre that depicts average daily occurrences. Realism frequently
emphasizes median and lower-class segments of society. Literary realism seeks to present true
stories about ordinary people and their daily lives without dramatizing or romanticizing them.

CLASSICISM is an artistic and literary movement that values order, proportion, simplicity, and
devotion to traditional values and conventions. This approach incorporates a profound admiration
for the achievements of ancient civilizations, particularly Greece and Rome. Naturalism is a kind of
realism.

NATURALISM is an extreme style of realism that molds and shapes the characters using scientific
objectivism, survival of the fittest, and the environment. As a result, in realism, the protagonists
may be governed by their surroundings or battle for existence.

274. Characteristics of literature during the Renaissance period except . ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. religious B. humanistic

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C. superfluous D. individualistic

Renaissance literature places a greater emphasis on the individual. It also places less emphasis on
religion, yet religion remains an important factor.

275. Which of the following is the sole concern of a New Critic?

A. the work itself B. the reader’s response

C. the author’s life D. the archetypes in the text

The fundamental characteristics of New Criticism are that it analyzes a work of literature solely on
the text provided and ignores any additional information, such as the author, historical and
cultural relevance, and the reader's response. New Criticism derives all its significance from the
WORK ITSELF.

276. Which of the following approaches shows that there is a dynamic interaction between the text and the
reader? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Gender criticism B. Reader-response criticism

C. Psychological criticism D. Biographical criticism

The READER-RESPONSE THEORY views the reader as an active agent who generates meaning in
the text, as opposed to a passive consumer who merely absorbs the meaning the writer, the text's
form and style, or other social or cultural influences generate. Reader response criticism contends
that texts lack meaning until the reader assigns significance to them.

GENDER CRITICISM is an extension of feminist literary criticism that focuses not just on women
but also on the formation of gender and sexuality, particularly LGBTQ issues, which gives rise to
queer theory.

277. What did Renaissance criticism grow directly from?

A. The recovery of classic texts

B. The invention of the printing press

C. The exploration of new lands

D. The rise of humanism

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Renaissance criticism arose directly from the recovery of classic writings, most notably Giorgio
Valla's Latin translation of Aristotle's Poetics in 1498.

278. Who is frequently considered the first significant example of literary criticism?

A. Aristotle B. Socrates

C. Plato D. Homer

Thus, many people consider Plato's warnings against the potentially dangerous effects of poetic
inspiration in his Republic to be the first significant instance of literary criticism.

279. The heroes in classical tragedy are bound for physical defeat but moral victory. What usually causes
their defeat is an ordinary human failing. Shakespeare’s Hamlet is flawed with indecisiveness and Othello
with gullibility. The titular character, Macbeth, is characterized by excessive pride. What literary term
would mean excessive pride?

A. hamartia B. peripety

C. hubris D. soliloquy

HUBRIS is an extreme form of pride or arrogance that can consume a character. Often, this
overwhelming self-confidence leads to the character's eventual downfall by blinding him to
reason.

PERIPETY is an abrupt shift in a story that causes a negative reversal of events.

HAMARTIA is a literary term with two meanings: a deadly error (often used in Greek dramas), or
a fatal fault (more prevalent in literary works written after the arrival of Christianity). Hamartia is
something that leads to a character's demise.

A SOLILOQUY occurs when a character in a dramatic work speaks directly to the audience,
expressing their innermost thoughts. A soliloquy is a literary device that reveals what a character
thinks or believes, allowing the audience to have a deeper understanding of that character.

280. Who responded to Plato's indictment by emphasizing what is normal and helpful about literary art?

A. Aristotle B. Socrates

C. Thales D. Alexander the Great

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Aristotle, another renowned Greek philosopher, replied to Plato's objections by emphasizing the
positive and common features of literary art. In his main work, "Poetics," he argued that literature
plays an important function in society and contributes to human comprehension of the world,
contradicting Plato's negative viewpoint.

281. Who were banished from the hypothetical republic according to Plato?

A. Poets B. Philosophers

C. Scientists D. Politicians

Plato offered a bold concept in his hypothetical republic: the exile of poets. He felt that poets, with
their powerful and emotive words, could affect public opinion and undermine social order. For
ages, literary critics have debated this contentious position.

282. Which of the following is TRUE about formalism?

A. It is concerned with the historical events outside of the story, cultural, and religious beliefs.

B. It uses quick reading to get the main idea of the text and compare it with other related works.

C. It analyzes the work as a whole, the form of each individual part of the text from the individual
scenes and chapters, elements, and literary devices.

D. It focuses on the literary works as products of economic and ideological determinants of the specific era

Formalism examines a text exclusively as a self-contained object in isolation from the world,
biographical information about the author, or the text’s effect on the reader. It does not concern
historical events outside of the story, social, cultural, religious, or political ideas.

283. According to Carl Jung, certain things can evoke a similar response among people of different races.
This similar response is one of those which he calls as .

A. Archetypes B. Unitypes

C. Collective Schema D. Collective Thoughts

Regardless of culture, historical setting, gender, socioeconomic status, education, or personal

background, nearly every work of literature contains recurring characters, symbols, or events
known as archetypes. Archetypal characters are individuals who play specific roles in the storyline
or conflict and contribute to the literary work's theme, meaning, or purpose. Similarly, the reader

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easily recognizes archetypal symbols and occurrences, enabling them to understand the piece's
theme, meaning, or goal.

284. It can also be inferred that the powerlessness that Aunt Jennifer depicted in the poem in the hands of
“uncle” is also true to the women during the author’s time. This statement comes from a

A. Marxist critic B. Reader's Response critic

C. Feminist critic D. Historical-Biographical critic

The HISTORICAL-BIOGRAPHICAL APPROACH sees a literary work chiefly, if not exclusively, as a

reflection of its AUTHOR’S LIFE AND TIMES or the lives and times of the characters in the work.

285. The fact that Young Goodman Brown “changed” from being a faithful and loving husband to a skeptic,
gruesome, and lonesome being betrays everything he once stood for. Adopting a formalist standpoint, this
shows that he is a .

A. Dynamic character B. Flat character

C. Static character D. Round character

A DYNAMIC CHARACTER is someone who learns a lesson or evolves as a person, for good or bad.

A STATIC CHARACTER is someone who does not change much throughout the story. Their
surroundings may change, but they maintain the same personality and outlook that they had at
the start of the story.

A FLAT CHARACTER lacks deep emotions, motivations, and personality. In a literary work, a
round character is a complex and multifaceted figure.

ROUND CHARACTERS appeal to audiences because they resemble actual people; viewers
frequently become concerned with these characters' aims, triumphs, failures, strengths, and faults.

286. Who among the following is associated with the New Criticism?

A. Hippolyte Taine B. John Crowe Ransom

C. Karl Marx D. Carl Jung

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The New Critics emphasized "close reading" as a way to engage with a text, paying close attention
to the interactions between form and meaning. Important New Critics included Allen Tate, Robert
Penn Warren, JOHN CROWE RANSOM, Cleanth Brooks, William Empson, and F.R. Leavis.

287. For Psychoanalytic critics, dreams are powerful catalysts for great ideas. Among the following, this is
illustrated by .

A. John Milton B. Nathaniel Hawthorne

C. Robert Browning D. Edgar Allan Poe

Psychoanalytic criticism employs reading techniques to interpret texts. It claims that literary
compositions reflect the author's subconscious aspirations and concerns. Edgar Allen Poe is one of
the authors whose works are best suited to psychoanalysis. Poe's portrayal of his characters
reflects his inner soul because his works constantly feature complicated characters of diverse
natures.

288. Formalism and Structuralism are literary theories that both lead to

A. a subjective textual interpretation

B. a scientific textual interpretation

C. an artistic textual interpretation

D. an intertextual interpretation

The term "FORMALISM" refers to an interpretive approach that focuses on literary form and the
study of literary devices within the text. The Formalists' work influenced later advances in
"Structuralism" and other narrative theories. "Formalism," like "Structuralism," tried to put the
study of literature on a SCIENTIFIC BASIS by objectively analyzing the themes, methods,
procedures, and other "functions" that make up the literary work.

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 INTRODUCTION TO LINGUISTICS

• Demonstrate knowledge and application of the structural aspects of language (phonology,

morphology, syntax, semantics, and pragmatics) across languages and other related fields.

• Apply theories, principles and concepts of language, literacies and language use in specific contexts for
language and literacy acquisition and learning in multilingual and multicultural societies.

• Draw implications of the theories of the theories of linguistics, psycholinguistics, and sociolinguistics
to language teaching and learning.

289. A second-language learner of English says estatue for statue and filum for film. In the given scenario,
what morphophonemic process adds a vowel at the beginning of the word or between the sounds?
***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Assimilation B. Elision

C. Epenthesis D. Metathesis

EPENTHESIS is a process that inserts a syllable or a nonsyllabic segment within an existing string
of segments, e.g., [plæntɪd] ‘planted’

ASSIMILATION is a process that occurs when a sound becomes more similar to another nearby
sound in terms of one or more of its phonetic characteristics; it is a process in which segments
take on the characteristics of neighboring sounds, e.g., probable-improbable, potent-impotent,
separable-inseparable, and sensitive-insensitive.

DELETION, or ELISION, is a process that removes a segment from certain phonetic contexts. It
occurs in everyday rapid speech, e.g., [blaɪnmæn] ‘blindman’

METATHESIS is a process that reorders or reverses a sequence of segments; it occurs when two
segments in a series switch places, e.g., ask aks; ruler lurer; violet viloyet.

290. She is very very pretty. ***Actual September 2023 LET / Actual March 2024 LET

A. modification B. complementation

C. reduplication D. predication

REDUPLICATION is a morphological process in which the root, stem of a word or a part of it is

repeated. For example: ding-dong.

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A STRUCTURE OF PREDICATION consists of two main components: a subject (S) and a predicate
(P). what about the subject whereas the predicate is a verb or a verb with modifier, direct object,
indirect object or complement. The predicate usually follows the subject. My sister / is in
California.

A STRUCTURE OF MODIFICATION consists of a head (H) and a modifier (M). The head carries the
principal meaning, while the modifier serves to describe, limit, or intensify the meaning of the
head. Both the head and the modifier may be either single words, phrases, or clauses. For example,
responsible officers, trusted friends, and impartially conducted.

A STRUCTURE OF COMPLEMENTATION is a verb phrase consisting of two major components: a

verbal element (VB) and a complement (C). For example, disturb the class, render service, and be
conscientious.

291. What is the process called when 'go' becomes 'went?' ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. irregular tense B. regular tense

C. addition D. suppletion

SUPPLETION is a type of morphological irregularity in which a change in grammatical category

causes a change in word form, with a different (suppletive) root replacing the standard one. For
example, in the past tense of go, the irregular form went takes its place of the regular goed.

292. How many years does a learner take to develop BICS? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. 2 to 3 years B. 4 to 5 years

C. 6 months to 2 years D. 2 to three months

Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS) are the linguistic skills required in ordinary,
social face-to-face encounters. BICS includes the language spoken at the playground, on the phone,
and in social interactions with others. These social interactions employ contextualized language.
This means that the language is meaningful, requires minimal cognitive effort, and is not
specialized. It takes the learner between SIX MONTHS AND TWO YEARS TO BUILD BICS.

293. What language nature describes language as primary made of verbal sounds produced by speech
apparatus in the human body?

A. Language is vocal

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B. Language is arbitrary

C. Language is a system

D. Language is socio-cultural

Language is primarily vocal. Language is speech, primarily made up of vocal sounds produced by
the speech apparatus in the human body. The primary medium of language is speech; the written
record is but a secondary representation of the language. Writing is only the graphic
representation of the sounds of the language. While most languages have writing systems, a
number of languages continue to exist, even today, in the spoken form only, without any written
form. Linguists claim that speech is primary, writing secondary. Therefore, it is assumed that
speech has a priority in language teaching.

294. Mary thinks that she is the only girl who can sing the song. Obviously, “she” refers to Mary. What
concept in referential semantics explains the italicized word? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Deixis B. Anaphora

C. Co-reference D. Prototype

ANAPHORA is a linguistic expression that refers to another linguistic expression, e.g., “The
tsunami killed thousands of people. It was devastating.” In the second sentence, it is used
anaphorically (to point backwards) to refer to ‘the tsunami.’

DEIXIS refers to an expression characteristic that has one meaning but can refer to different
entities within the same context of utterance. Deictic expressions have a ‘pointing function.’
Examples of deixis are you, I, and she (personal pronouns); here, there, right, and left (expressions
of place); this, that, those, and these (demonstratives); now, yesterday, today, and last year (time
expressions).

COREFERENCE refers to the sense relation of two expressions that have the same extralinguistic
referent. In the sentence “Mercury is the nearest planet from the sun,” Mercury and the nearest
planet from the sun are coreferential because they both refer to the same extralinguistic object—
the planet Mercury in the solar system.

In semantics, a PROTOTYPE is a category that allows listeners to understand a concept. For

example, a prototype might be "dogs," within which listeners would categorize "Great Dane,"
"Poodle," "Dalmatian," etc.

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295. Which of the following is a structure of modification in the sentence: She is very lucky woman to have
received such a blessing.

A. a very lucky woman B. received such

C. to have D. she is

Structure of Modification has two components: a head word and a modifier, whose meaning
serves to broaden, qualify, select, change, or describe, or in some way affect the meaning of the
head word.

In the given example, in the phrase “a very lucky woman,” the head word is the word "woman,”
which is being modified by the modifier "a very lucky woman.”

296. It is a word or phrase whose meaning depends on their context of use i.e. you, there.

A. entailment B. presupposition

C. deixis D. pronoun

DEIXIS refers to an expression characteristic that has one meaning but can refer to different
entities within the same context of utterance.

An ENTAILMENT is a proposition (expressed in a sentence) that follows necessarily from another

sentence. If the meaning of the first sentence encompasses the meaning of the second, it is
considered an entailment and is also known as a paraphrase. For example, the sentence ‘Raul had
a fatal accident’ entails that ‘Raul died’ since it is impossible to figure in a fatal accident without
loss of life. Semantically speaking, fatal means [-life], while dead also means [-life].

PRESUPPOSITION refers to a proposition (expressed in a sentence) that is assumed to be true in

order to judge the truth or falsity of another sentence. It also refers to the truth relation between
two sentences; one sentence presupposes another if the falsity of the second renders the first
without a truth value; e.g., the sentence ‘The King of Canada is dead.’ presupposes that ‘There
exists (is) a King of Canada.’ The first sentence presupposes the second sentence, because if the
second sentence is false, then the first sentence has no truth value.

297. Which group of linguistics who believed that language can be best described in terms of verifiable and
observable data such as language behaviour and forms?

A. Transformationalists B. Transactionists

C. Interactionists D. Structuralists

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The STRUCTURALISTS hold the belief that we can describe language using observable and
verifiable data during its usage. They also describe language in terms of its structure and
according to the regularities, patterns, or rules of language structure. To them, language is a
system of speech sounds, arbitrarily assigned to the objects, states, and concepts to which they
refer, used for human communication.

298. What communicative competence is shown by Alex when in his speech he wanted to use the word
'rummage', but he could not think of it so he used 'thorough search' instead?

A. inguistic B. Discourse

C. Strategic D. Sociolinguistic

STRATEGIC COMPETENCE is the ability to mend communication breakdowns, cover knowledge

gaps, learn about language in context, and articulate ideas without being misinterpreted.

LINGUISTIC COMPETENCE includes knowledge of morphology (word structure), syntax

(sentence and phrase structure), phonology (how sounds are ordered and used), and phonetics
(the creation, transmission, and reception of speech sounds). Linguistic competency is concerned
with word usage and how words are placed in a phrase.

SOCIOLINGUISTIC COMPETENCE refers to knowing how to use and respond appropriately based
on the setting, the topic of discussion, and the relationships between individuals. It works by
adapting words and phrases to the context or issue, as well as by expressing an attitude during the
communication process.

DISCOURSE COMPETENCE refers to the ability to understand and generate language that makes
sense. It asks how we combine words, phrases, and sentences to form dialogues or conversations.

299. When children start to explore their environment and intend to learn more about the world around
them, they usually become very inquisitive and always throw questions. Which language function is
described?

A. Expressive B. Imaginative

C. Personal D. Heuristic

HEURISTIC FUNCTION - language that is used to explore, learn and discover. This could include
questions or a running commentary of a child's actions.

Halliday (1978) proposed that there are 7 stages or functions of a child's speech. These are as follows.

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INSTRUMENTAL FUNCTION - language that is used to fulfil a need, such as to obtain food, drink
or comfort. This typically includes concrete nouns.

REGULATORY FUNCTION - language that is used to influence the behaviour of others including
persuading, commanding or requesting.

INTERACTIONAL FUNCTION - language that is used to develop relationships and ease

interaction. This could include phrases like "I love you mummy" or "Thank you".

PERSONAL FUNCTION - language that expresses personal opinions, attitudes and feelings
including a speaker's identity.

REPRESENTATIONAL/INFORMATIVE FUNCTION- language that is used to relay or request

information.

HEURISTIC FUNCTION - language that is used to explore, learn and discover. This could include
questions or a running commentary of a child's actions.

IMAGINATIVE FUNCTION - the use of language to tell stories and create imaginary constructs.
This typically accompanies play or leisure activities.

HEURISTIC FUNCTION - language that is used to explore, learn and discover. This could include
questions or a running commentary of a child's actions.

300. What is the smallest unit of linguistic meaning that is not further separable into smaller forms?

A. Morphology B. Morpheme

C. Allomorph D. Lexeme

MORPHEME is a short segment of language that meets three criteria:

a. It is a word, or a portion of a word, that carries meaning.

b. Dividing it into smaller meaningful parts is impossible without violating its meaning or leaving
meaningless remainders.

c. It appears in various words with a relatively stable meaning.

The word unhappiness has three morphemes: {un-}, {happy}, and {-ness}, while the word
salamander is a single morpheme.

ALLOMORPHS are variants of a morpheme that may be phonologically or morphologically

conditioned; e.g., {-en}, as in oxen, and children are allomorphs of {plural} morphemes.

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MORPHOLOGY is the study of word formation; it deals with the internal structure of words. It
also studies the changes that take place in the structure of words, e.g., the morpheme ‘go’ changes
to ‘went’ and ‘gone’ to signify changes in tense and aspect.

A LEXEME is a unit of language that represents a single, distinct meaning. It is a word's abstract
form that includes all of its inflected forms and variations. For example, the word "walk" is a
lexeme that includes variations such as "walks," "walked," and "walking.”

301. How would a child learn best in ZPD?

A. If the child has mastered all the skills necessary.

B. If the parents or teachers do not interfere.

C. If the task is more difficult than the child can do alone.

D. If the child needs little or no help from a parent or teacher.

The zone of proximal development refers to a range of tasks that are too difficult for a child to
complete alone but are attainable with the assistance of adults and more proficient peers. What
makes D incorrect is the phrase "Little or No Help.".

302. What is the bound morpheme to change a verb to a noun? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. –ment B. -ion

C. –er D. -ly

A bound morpheme is a word element that cannot stand alone as a word, including both prefixes
and suffixes. On the other hand, free morphemes possess the ability to function independently as a
word and resist further decomposition into other word elements.

In the given options, the bound morpheme that can change a verb into a noun is “-ment.” For
instance, the word depart is a verb that means to leave, especially in order to start a journey.
When added with the bound morpheme “ment," it becomes a noun. A department is a division of a
large organization such as a government, university, business, or shop, dealing with a specific
subject, commodity, or area of activity.

303. Which of the following is an example of compound word? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Scorching Sun B. North Star

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C. Raging Storm D. Vast Ocean

COMPOUNDING, also known as composition, is the process of combining two or more words to
create a new word in grammar.

North Star is formed within English by compounding.

304. How many years does learners take to develop CALP?

A. 3 years B. 4 years

C. 5 years D. 6 years

Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency (CALP) is concerned with competency in academic

language or language used in the classroom in various curriculum areas. Academic language
distinguishes itself through its abstraction, context reduction, and specialization. When
establishing academic competency, students must not only learn the language but also develop
skills such as comparing, classifying, synthesizing, assessing, and inferring. It takes learners AT
LEAST FIVE YEARS TO BUILD CALP. According to Collier and Thomas (1995), children who have
received no prior instruction or help in native language development may require at least seven
years to develop CALP.

305. What word formation do the following set of words undergone: provide, provision, and provisional?
***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Inflectional B. Back-formation

C. Derivation D. Root creation

DERIVATION. This involves the addition of a derivational affix, changing the syntactic category of
the item to which it is attached (e.g., discern (V) discernment (N); woman (N) womanly (Adj)).

BACK FORMATION. This process forms a word by removing what is mistaken for an affix (e.g.,
edit < editor; beg < beggar).

ROOT CREATION. It is a brand new word based on no pre-existing morphemes (e.g., Colgate,
Xerox).

INFLECTIONAL. It is a process of word formation in which a word is modified to express different

grammatical categories.

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306. It refers to a group of two or more words that usually go together, for example, “make sense,” “pay
attention, and “give a hand.” ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. co-reference B. collocation

C. denotation D. connotation

A COLLOCATION is a group of two or more words that are often used together to convey a specific
meaning.

307. It is the subconscious process that results from informal, natural communication between people
where language is a means, not a focus nor an end, in itself. ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Language acquisition B. Language learning

C. Language appreciation D. Language development

LANGUAGE ACQUISITION is the subconscious process that results from informal, natural
communication between people where language is a means, not a focus nor an end in itself.

LANGUAGE LEARNING is the conscious process of knowing about language and being able to talk
about it that occurs in a more formal situation where the properties or rules of a language are
taught. Language learning has traditionally involved grammar and vocabulary learning.

308. What type of linguistic unit is the word "it's in the sentence? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Clitic B. Infinitive

C. Pronoun D. Adjective

CLITICS are short linguistic forms that attach to a neighboring word, serving a grammatical or
syntactic function. English contracted forms include "n't" in "isn't" and "'s" in "it's.”

309. Which linguist proposed the theory of Universal Grammar, suggesting an innate human capacity for
language acquisition?

A. Ferdinand de Saussure B. Noam Chomsky

C. Steven Pinker D. Benjamin Whorf

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Linguistics professor Noam Chomsky introduced universal grammar in the 1960s. His theory
states that all humans are naturally born with the ability to acquire, develop, and understand
language.

310. Which of the following illocutionary acts is present in the given statements: "I now pronounce you
husband and wife," "You are fired!", and "I bequeath all my property to my beloved fiancée"? and “I
bequeath all my property to my beloved fiancée.” ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Assertive B. Directive

C. Commissive D. Declaration

SPEECH ACTS are speakers’ utterances that convey meaning and make listeners do specific
things.

There are three types of Speech Act:

The LOCUTIONARY ACT is defined as the speaker's actual utterance. Example: When you ask
someone, “Can you pass the salt?” The literal meaning concerns the listener's ability to pass salt.

The term "PERLOCUTIONARY ACT" refers to the actions that arise from the use of language, such
as convincing, persuading, deterring, or surprising. Example: “Can you pass the salt?” If illocutions
cause listeners to do something, they are perlocutions.

The ILLOCUTIONARY ACT refers to the speaker's intended utterance (performance).

Illocutionary acts fall into five distinct categories:

ASSERTIVE is when the speaker expresses belief about the truth of a proposition. Some examples
are suggesting, swearing, boasting, concluding, and putting forward. For example, no one makes a
better sandwich than I do.

A DIRECTIVE is an act in which the speaker attempts to force the addressee to perform an action.
Some examples are asking, ordering, requesting, inviting, advising, and begging. Example: Would
you make me a cup of tea?

A COMMISSIVE act is one that commits the speaker to doing something in the future. Some
examples are promising, planning, vowing, and betting. Example: I promise to come at eight and
cook a delicious dinner for you.

EXPRESSIVE is an act in which the speaker expresses his or her feelings or emotional reactions.
Some examples are thanking, apologizing, welcoming, and deploring.

A DECLARATION is an act that brings about a change in the external situation. Some examples of
declarations are blessing, firing, baptizing, bidding, passing a sentence, and excommunicating.

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311. Which principle of Grice’s “Cooperative Principle” is flouted in the statement below?

Speaker A: 'I'm not sure about this new guy I'm seeing. He never messages me back, and I think he's talking to
someone else.'

Speaker B: 'Sounds like a real keeper!’

A. Maxim of quantity B. Maxim of quality

C. Maxim of relation D. Maxim of manner

This is an example of a violation of the maxim of quality. Speaker B is ironic; they do not truly
believe the new guy is a real keeper.

CONVERSATIONAL MAXIMS are rules that are observed when communication takes place in a
situation where people are cooperative. When people communicate, they assume that the other
person will be cooperative, and they themselves wish to cooperate.

In the “Cooperative Principle,” the following maxims or rules govern oral interactions:

MAXIM OF QUANTITY: a participant’s contribution should be as informative as possible. “Give

the right amount of information, neither less nor more than what is required.”

e.g. A: Are you attending the seminar?

B: Yes, I am.

MAXIM OF QUALITY: a participant should not say that which is false or that which the participant
lacks evidence. “Make your contribution such that it is true; do not say what you know is false or
for which you do not have adequate evidence.”

e.g., A: Who did you see enter the room last?

B: The janitor

MAXIM OF RELATION: a participant’s contribution should be related to the subject of the

conversation. “Be relevant.”

e.g., A: Why did you come late?

B: I had to take my son to school.

MAXIM OF MANNER: a participant’s contribution should be direct, not obscure, ambiguous, or

wordy. “Avoid obscurity and ambiguity; be brief and orderly.”

e.g. A: Are you accepting the position?

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B: Yes, I am. Thank you for your trust in me.

312. Language learning is a process of habit formation. The more often something is repeated, the stronger
the habit and the greater the learning.

A. Grammar Translation B. CLT

C. TPR D. Audio-lingual

AUDIO-LINGUAL METHOD is a language learning approach that emphasizes repetition and habit
formation. In this approach, learners listen to and repeat target language patterns and structures,
aiming to develop automaticity and fluency. The emphasis on repetition in audio-lingual learning
helps learners internalize language patterns and develop strong habits, leading to better language
learning outcomes.

TOTAL PHYSICAL RESPONSE (TPR) is a language teaching method that involves students
responding physically to the teacher's commands. It focuses on understanding and
comprehending language through physical actions rather than memorization.

The acronym CLT stands for COMMUNICATIVE LANGUAGE TEACHING. This method emphasizes
the social nature of learning, highlighting that it is not an individual, private activity but a social
one that relies on interaction with others. CLT focuses on developing communicative competence
by providing learners with opportunities to use the language in meaningful and authentic
contexts. It encourages learners to engage in real-life communication, promotes interaction
between learners, and emphasizes the use of authentic materials and tasks.

The GRAMMAR TRANSLATION METHOD (GTM) method focuses on the study of grammar rules
and the translation of sentences between the target language and the native language. It
emphasizes reading and writing skills rather than speaking and listening. Teachers commonly
used this approach to teach classical languages like Latin and Greek, with the aim of developing a
deep understanding of their grammatical structures and vocabulary.

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 STRUCTURE OF ENGLISH

• Manifest knowledge and understanding of the grammatical concepts by being able to describe and
analyze the form, meaning and use of various language structures.

313. Which sentence used the word "well" correctly? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Is she well? B. Your dress looks well.

C. I felt well yesterday. D. Kathy and Shyna work well together.

The word “well” can be used as an adverb, adjective, noun, or interjection. As an adverb, “well” can
be used to mean that something is done skillfully or in a good manner. In the given example, “well”
is an adverb that modifies the verb “work.”

314. A few people strolled by them while they stood on the sidewalk, glancing around, but nobody seemed
especially curious.

A. Complex sentence B. Compound sentence

C. Simple sentence D. Compound-complex sentence

This sentence consists of two independent clauses joined by "but" (compound) and an additional
dependent clause ("while they stood on the sidewalk, glancing around") that adds context. The
first independent clause is "A few people strolled by them," the second is "nobody seemed
especially curious," and the dependent clause provides concurrent actions.

315. Which sentence has a ditransitive verb?

A. He looked at the mountain with binoculars.

B. We were happily chatting under the tree.

C. Mother made dresses for my doll.

D. She put a rocking chair on the lawn.

DITRANSITIVE verbs, also known as bitransitive verbs or double transitive verbs, can take both
direct and indirect objects.

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In this example, "mother" is the subject, "made" is a ditransitive verb, "my doll" is the indirect
object, and "the dresses" is the direct object of the sentence.

316. Which of the following sentences shows an error in subject-verb agreement?

A. Measles is contagious.

B. The committee works hard even on holidays.

C. One hundred pesos are hard to earn in one day.

D. My pajamas are still wet.

Option A is correct since “measles” is a singular noun, so it should always be paired with a singular
verb.

Option B is correct since collective nouns such as committee are treated as singular, although they
represent groups comprised of various people.

Option D is correct since pajamas are always plural—it's got that in common with words like
pants, shorts, and trousers.

Option C is incorrect since it pertains to the whole amount and therefore should have a singular
verb.

317. Identify the incorrect example of Past Perfect Tense from the given options :

A. I had gone to the gymnasium by the time you arrived.

B. I had retired to bed when the guests arrived.

C. I had many opportunities to swim in the past.

D. I had just stepped into my office when the phone rang.

Options A, B, and D correctly use the Past Perfect Tense to describe actions that were completed
before other actions occurred.

Option C uses a form that resembles Past Perfect Tense, but it describes a general condition in the
past, not an action completed before another action. It would be more correctly expressed in a
different tense for stating past habits or opportunities

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A. I had gone to the gymnasium by the time you arrived. This correctly shows an action that was
completed (going to the gymnasium) before another action in the past (you arriving).

B. I had retired to bed when the guests arrived. This sentence also correctly uses the Past Perfect
Tense to indicate that the action of going to bed occurred before the guests arrived.

D. I had just stepped into my office when the phone rang. This example properly uses the Past
Perfect Tense to describe stepping into the office as an action that happened just before the phone
rang.

318. Which of the following is a gradable adjective?

A. Unique B. Round

C. Perfect D. Cold

GRADABLE ADJECTIVES refer to qualities that can vary in intensity or degree. They answer the
question, "How much?" or "to what extent?”

"Cold" is a gradable adjective. You can have varying degrees of coldness:'very' cold,' 'quite cold,'
'extremely cold.' For example, “The weather today is very cold.”

Options A, B, and C are non-gradable adjectives that describe qualities that are absolute and
cannot vary in intensity or degree. These adjectives indicate qualities that are either present or
absent, with no middle ground or scale of gradation. These adjectives do not pair well with
adverbs like'very' or 'extremely.’

319. Which of the following sentences uses the tag question correctly? ***Actual March 2024 LET concept

A. Alice usually brings her lunch from home, doesn't she?

B. Nobody has called for me, haven't they?

C. You won't tell anyone, would you?

D. None of those customers were happy, weren't they?

The correct answer is letter A. Alice usually brings her lunch from home, doesn't she? Because the
sentence is in the affirmative form (Alice usually brings her lunch from home), the question tag
should be in the negative form. "Doesn't she?" is the correct negative question tag to use in this
case.

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Option B: “Nobody has called for me, haven't they?” is incorrect since the statement is negative;
the tag question should be positive.

Option C: “You won't tell anyone, would you?” is incorrect since instead of "would," “will” should
be used to make it grammatically correct.

Option D “None of those customers were happy, weren't they?” is a negative statement; the tag
question should be positive: “were they?”

320. Determine the sentence pattern for the following sentence: The people elected the young candidate for
governor.

A. S-IV B. S-TV-DO

C. S-LV-C D. S-TV-DO-OC

In this sentence, "the people" is the subject, "elected" is the transitive verb, "the young candidate"
is the direct object, and "governor" is the object complement. The verb "elected" illustrates the
action of the subject, "the people," towards the direct object, "the young candidate," while the
object complement, "governor," further describes or renames the direct object.

321. Identify the sentence that uses the correct third conditional sentence structure.

A. If Immanuel had enough money to buy the car, he would have gone to the party with you.

B. If I had known you were coming, I will have prepared dinner.

C. If he had taken the train, he would save time.

D. If she had been invited, she would come to the party.

This sentence structure is indicative of the third conditional, which is used to discuss hypothetical
situations in the past and their possible outcomes, which also did not happen. The third
conditional format typically uses the past perfect tense in the 'if' clause ("had + past participle")
and "would have" plus the past participle in the main clause.

This grammatical structure effectively conveys a hypothetical past condition (having enough
money) and its potential consequence (going to the party), both of which did not occur.

Four Types of Conditional Sentences

1. The zero conditional uses the present tense in both clauses and is used to talk about something
that is always or generally true. The present tense signifies that these actions are both possible
and typical.

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Form: If + simple present, simple present

Example 1: If it rains, I take an umbrella with me to work.

2. The first conditional uses the present tense in the if clause and the future tense in the result
clause. This form is used to talk about something that is a probable future result of a condition.

Form: If + simple present, will + base verb

Example 1: If I see you later, I will say hello.

3. The second conditional uses the past tense in the if clause and a modal and base verb in the
result clause. This form is used to talk about a hypothetical situation that cannot happen or is
unlikely to happen.

Form: If + simple past, modal + base verb

Example 1: If I had a million dollars, I would buy a large vacation home.

4. The third conditional uses the past perfect in the if clause and a modal and present perfect in
the result clause. This form is used to talk about a hypothetical situation in the past that did not
happen – typically with an outcome that did not happen and is perhaps the opposite of what did
happen.

Form: If + past perfect, modal + present perfect

Example 1: If it had rained last week, the plants would not have died.

322. We watched the softball game on the front porch. Which question elicits the direct object constituent?

A. Who watched the softball game?

B. What did we do?

C. What did we watch?

D. Where did we watch the game?

An object is the part of a sentence that gives meaning to the subject’s action of the verb. For
example: We watched the softball game on the front porch. The subject is “we,” the verb is
“watched,” and the object is “softball game.”

A direct object answers the question of who(m) or what. In the sentence above, we could
determine that the “softball game” is the direct object by asking: What did we watch? We watched
the softball game on the front porch.

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323. Which of the following sentences contains a non-finite verb phrase? ***Actual March 2024 LET
concept

A. The board has decided to uphold the appeal.

B. In July next year, you will have been studying for eight months.

C. I showed her the best way to make a Yorkshire pudding.

D. I had been writing fiction since I was in eighth grade, because I loved it.

A non-finite verb is a verb form that does not show tense. In other words, a non-finite verb
cannot tell if a sentence is in the past tense, present tense, or future tense. Therefore, a non-finite
verb is never the main verb in a sentence. (That's a finite verb.)

Option C is the correct answer since the non-finite verb phrase there is “to make,” which is an
infinitive.

The Three Types of Non-Finite Verbs

A GERUND is a noun formed from a verb. All gerunds end "-ing.”

An INFINITIVE is a verb form (often preceded by "to") that can function as a noun, an adjective, or
an adverb.

A PARTICIPLE is a verb form that can function as an adjective. There are two types of participles:
the present participle (ending "-ing") and the past participle (usually ending "-ed," "-d," "-t," "-en,"
or "-n").

324. In the noun phrase, “a sound advice from my grandmother who came last weekend,” the head is .

A. Sound B. Advice

C. Grandmother D. Weekend

In English grammar, a head is the key word that determines the nature of a phrase (in contrast to
any modifiers or determiners). For example, in a noun phrase, the head is a noun or pronoun.

325. Which of the following sentences uses an “adverbial prepositional phrase?” ***Actual March 2024 LET
concept

A. The girl with the blue dress is my sister.

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B. We always go to the beach on the weekends.

C. My uncle with the lake house invited us on summer vacation.

D. Have you read the Shakespeare play about a Scottish king?

An adverbial prepositional phrase modifies a verb, adjective, or adverb. It usually tells when,
where, how, why, or to what extent (how many, how much, how long, or how far), and under what
condition.

Option B: We always go to the beach on the weekends. It is a sentence that has an adverbial
prepositional phrase “to the beach on the weekends,” since it answers when and where they
always go.

Option A: "The girl with the blue dress is my sister." It is a sentence with an adjectival
prepositional phrase, “with the blue dress” since it modifies the noun phrase "girl" to describe her
appearance.

Option C. The show on television tonight is about snow leopards in Asia. It is a sentence with an
adjectival prepositional phrase since “on television” tells us which show. “In Asia” tells us which
leopards.

Option D. Have you read the Shakespeare play about a Scottish king? It is a sentence with an
adjectival prepositional phrase since “about a Scottish king” tells us which Shakespeare play.

326. In the sentence, “My aunt tenderly mothers her youngest son,” the underlined word is .

A. A noun B. A verb

C. An adjective D. A possessive

The word "mothers" in the given sentence acts as a verb because it indicates what the aunt does to
her youngest son.

327. Which of the following sentences shows an adverb that tells how an action is done? ***Actual March
2024 LET concept

A. When requested to share a self-portrait, she proudly displayed her work.

B. I usually shop for groceries on Saturday mornings.

C. If he isn't here in an hour, we'll head there to pick him up.

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D. The water was extremely cold.

An ADVERB OF MANNER refers to a word or phrase that demonstrates the execution of an action
within a sentence. This type of adverb modifies or describes a verb, particularly how that adverb is
carried out.

Option A tells how an action is done; the word “proudly” describes the verb “displayed” in the
sentence.

328. In the sentence, “The red roses given as a birthday gift by my best friend really smell sweet,” which
adjective is predicative?

A. Red B. Birthday

C. Best D. Sweet

The PREDICATE of a sentence uses a predicate adjective, also known as a predicative adjective.
The subject and the predicate are the two main components of sentences and clauses. The subject,
very simply put, tells us who or what is doing or experiencing something and is usually a noun,
noun phrase, or pronoun. The predicate, also very simply put, tells us what the subject is doing or
experiencing and usually consists of a verb or a verb phrase and possibly a direct object, subject
complement, and/or other modifiers.

The subject "roses" is described with the predicate adjective "sweet.

STYLISTICS AND DISCOURSE ANALYSIS

•Demonstrate knowledge of the literary, scientific, and technical aspects of language and texts through
stylistic analysis and discourse analysis.

•Use the conceptual framework and schema of linguistics and literature in understanding literary
language.

329. Which of the following exemplifies the device “allusion”? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Dr. Jose Rizal is a literary titan. B. Death, be not proud

C. Philippines, O, Pearl of the Orient D. Not yet, Rizal, not yet

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An ALLUSION is a figure of speech that refers to a widely recognized narrative, event, person,
location, or object in order to create a mental contrast for the reader.

Example: I didn’t have any bus fare, but fortunately some good Samaritan helped me out!

This is an allusion to the Biblical story of the good Samaritan, from Luke 10:29–37: A good
Samaritan is someone who helps others in need, just as the Samaritan does in the story.

330. What literary device did Ovid use in this excerpt?

And Icarus, his son, stood by and watched him

Not knowing he was dealing with his downfall

Stood by and watched, and raised his shiny face

To boy will, always

Whenever a father tries to get some work done.

A. epiphany B. flashback

C. foreshadowing D. frame story

FORESHADOWING provides the audience with hints or signs about the future. It suggests what
comes through imagery, language, and/or symbolism. It does not directly give away the outcome,
but rather suggests it.

The line “Not knowing he was dealing with his downfall” hints that something bad will happen to
Icarus in the later part of the story.

EPIPHANY is an “Aha!” moment. As a literary device, epiphany (pronounced ih-pif-uh-nee) is the

moment when a character is suddenly struck with a life-changing realization that changes the rest
of the story.

A FLASHBACK is a device that moves an audience from the present moment in a chronological
narrative to a scene in the past. Often, flashbacks are abrupt interjections that further explain a
story or character with background information and memories.

331. The theme is similar to a moral or lesson. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. agree B. partially agree

C. maybe D. disagree

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A MORAL is a lesson that one can learn from a story, while the THEME refers to the main idea,
problem, or point of the story.

332. What is the repetition of similar consonant sounds in successive words like in this line from The
Raven: Doubting, dreaming dreams no mortals ever dared to dream before? ***Actual September 2015 LET

A. alliteration B. consonance

C. assonance D. onomatopoeia

ALLITERATION is the repetition of an initial consonant sound in nearby words.

CONSONANCE is a literary device that occurs when two words have the same consonant sound
followed by different vowel sounds. For example, the words'same' and 'home' have the same'm'
sound, but the vowel sounds before it are different. The first is a long 'a', and the second is a long
'o'.

ASSONANCE is a literary technique that involves repeating the same or a similar vowel sound. It's
often used in poetry or in narrative prose to create an atmosphere and a rhythm. Most often, the
assonance will be internal to a word; for example, the phrase 'he rowed the boat' uses the long 'oh'
sound twice.

An ONOMATOPOEIA is a word that actually looks like the sound it makes, and we can almost hear
those sounds as we heard.

333. It is a figure of speech in which a word or group of words located at the end of one clause or sentence
is repeated at or near the beginning of the following clause or sentence. ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Anadiplosis B. Anaphora

C. Anthesis D. Asyndeton

ANADIPLOSIS is a figure of speech in which a word or group of words located at the end of one
clause or sentence is repeated at or near the beginning of the following clause or sentence. This
line from the novelist Henry James is an example of anadiplosis: "Our doubt is our passion, and
our passion is our task.”

“ANTITHESIS” literally means “opposite” – it is usually the opposite of a statement, concept, or

idea. In literary analysis, an antithesis is a pair of statements or images in which the one reverses
the other. Example: “To err is human; to forgive, divine.” (Alexander Pope)

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ANAPHORA is when a certain word or phrase is repeated at the beginning of clauses or sentences
that follow each other. This repetition emphasizes the phrase while adding rhythm to the passage,
making it more memorable and enjoyable to read.

ASYNDETON is skipping one or more conjunctions (and, or, but, for, nor, so, yet) which are usually
used in a series of phrases. Asyndeton is also known as asyndetism.

334. What figure of speech is used in the following passage? ***Actual March 2012 LET

The truth occurred to me that Mother Nature fulfills her duty more faithfully than man does his own.

A. allusion B. personification

C. metaphor D. simile

PERSONIFICATION is a metaphor in which you characterize an inanimate object, abstract

concept, or non-human animal in human terms. In the aforementioned example, Mother Nature is
given human attributes such as "fulfilling duties," which are exclusive to humans.

335. What type of plot device ends abruptly so that the main characters are left in a difficult situation
without offering any resolution to the conflict? *** Actual September 2015 LET

A. archetype B. cliffhanger

C. flashback D. red herring

A CLIFFHANGER is when a story or plotline abruptly ends when a major plot twist occurs and
remains unsolved. Not only does it serve as a suspenseful device, but it also leaves the reader or
spectator with unanswered questions, compelling them to return to discover what happens next.

An ARCHETYPE is a story's concept, symbol, pattern, or character type. It refers to any story
element that emerges repeatedly in stories from various civilizations and represents something
universal about the human experience.

A RED HERRING is a deceptive clue. Storytellers utilize this tactic to keep the reader guessing
about what's going on.

336. What figure of speech was employed in the following lines? ***Actual March 2016 LET

A tree whose hungry mouth is prest

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Against the earth’s sweet flowing breast. – Joyce Kilmer, Trees

A. hyperbole B. personification

C. metaphor D. simile

PERSONIFICATION is a metaphor in which you characterize an inanimate object, abstract

concept, or non-human animal in human terms. In the aforementioned example, the “tree” is given
human characteristics like having a “hungry mouth,” which is exclusive to humans.

337. In English verse, a poetic foot having one stressed syllable followed by one unstressed syllable is .
*** Actual March 2012 LET

A. anapaestic B. dactylic

C. iambic D. trochaic

The TROCHAIC foot consists of a stressed syllable followed by an unstressed syllable.

338. Which of the following sentences exemplifies iambic pentameter? ***Actual March 2012 LET

A. I will lament and cry. B. Her desk once red with heroes’ blood.

C. She love the way I hold her hand. D. And this alas is more than we would do.

The iambic pentameter is when the iambic foot (unstressed syllable + stressed syllable) is
repeated five (penta) times in a line of poetry.

Option D exemplifies an iambic pentemeter: “And this || alas || is more || than we || would do.

The stressed syllables are marked in bold, while the syllables in regular font are unstressed. If we
count them, there are a total of ten syllables. An iambic pentameter always consists of precisely
ten syllables.

339. What figure of speech is exemplified by the following sentence? ***Actual September 2015 LET

It’s no wonder everyone refers to Edna as another Mother Theresa in the making. She loves to help and care
after people from the streets to her own friends.

A. allusion B. metonymy

C. irony D. synecdoche

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An ALLUSION is a figure of speech that refers to a widely recognized narrative, event, person,
location, or object in order to create a mental contrast for the reader.

METONYMY, which is a figure of speech that replaces words with related or associated words, A
metonym is typically a part of a larger whole; for example, when we say “wheels,” we are
figuratively referring to a “car” and not literally only the wheels. So, “wheels” are the associated
part that represents the whole car.

IRONY is when there are two contradictory meanings of the same situation, event, image,
sentence, phrase, or story.In many cases, this refers to the difference between expectations and
reality.

A SYNECDOCHE is a figure of speech that allows a part to stand for a whole or for a whole to stand
for a part. Example: The hospital has admitted a boy. The nurse says, “He’s in good hands.” The
boy is not literally being taken care of by two hands. Instead, an entire hospital system, including
nurses, assistants, doctors, and many others, is caring for him.

340. What emotion or feeling is expressed in the following lines? ***Actual 2015 LET

To be, or not to be: that is the question:

Whether 'tis nobler in the mind to suffer

The slings and arrows of outrageous fortune,

Or to take arms against a sea of troubles,

And by opposing end them?

A. anger B. indecision

C. happiness D. sadness

The 'To Be or Not to Be' soliloquy is one of the most well-known moments in English literature. It
appears in William Shakespeare's play Hamlet. A character delivers a soliloquy to themselves and
the audience when no other characters are present on stage. The solitude of a soliloquy
distinguishes it from a monologue or other type of theatrical scene. This soliloquy reveals a lot
about the play's protagonist and sets the stage for what happens later in the plot.

His INDECISIVENESS stems from how he reacts to things and perceives them in his mind. The
most significant uncertain moments are Hamlet's suicidal ideas, his father's ghost, and his
vengeance on Claudius.

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341. Read the following stanza and answer the item that follows.

Though nothing can bring back

The hour of splendor in the grass

Of glory in the flower

We will grieve not

Rather find strength in what remains.

This stanza is an example of . *** Actual March 2016 LET

A. haiku B. rhymed verse

C. free verse D. sonnet

The most common type of verse is RHYMED VERSE, which has a METRICAL FORM that RHYMES
throughout.

BLANK VERSE is described as having a METRICAL STRUCTURE but NO RHYME.

FREE VERSE is defined as having NO ESTABLISHED METER and MAY or MAY NOT BE RHYMED.

342. It is a narrative technique in non-dramatic fiction intended to render the flow of visual, auditory,
physical, and associative impressions of the character in the story. *** Actual March 2012 LET

A. flashback B. narration

C. in medias res D. stream of consciousness

STREAM OF CONSCIOUSNESS is a writing style or approach that attempts to depict the natural
flow of a character's lengthy mental process, frequently using sensory impressions, unfinished
ideas, unique syntax, and sloppy grammar.

343. “Princess Diana's sudden unexpected death was like a candle in the wind,” is an example of .
***Actual March 2024 LET

A. simile B. hyperbole

C. metaphor D. irony

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SIMILE is a literary term that uses the words "like" or "as" to compare two things and show a
common quality between them. A simile is different from a simple comparison in that it usually
compares two unrelated things.

344. Which of the following best describes “foregrounding”?

A. It is an approach which provides a text with cohesion and coherence.

B. The term is used in the literary world to mean “aesthetic use of language”.

C. This is a framework which aims to analyze the uniqueness and aesthetic use of a text.

D. This concept refers to making certain features of a language prominent or noticeable in a text.

FOREGROUNDING is the use of linguistic methods to highlight specific components in a text,

making them stand out, or 'foregrounded.' Poetry and literature frequently use foregrounding to
enhance meaning, style, and aesthetics.

One example is Dickens' famous opening lines to A Tale of Two Cities. He employs parallelism, or
the recurrence of the same structure within a line, to make the introduction memorable. Like the
phrase, "It was the best of times, it was the worst of times.”

345. Cohesion can be achieved through using words in a text that go with each other. What kind of lexical
cohesion is that?

A. Elliptical B. Synonymy

C. Collocation D. Conjunctive

A COLLOCATION is a familiar grouping of words, especially words that habitually appear together
and thereby convey meaning by association. 'Don't hesitate' frequently pairs with 'to call' or 'to let
me know.'

346. Which of the following refers to violations on linguistic norms such as grammatical or semantic norms,
strange metaphors, similes or collocations that are deployed to achieve special effects in a text?

A. Contractions B. Deviation

C. Prominence D. Flouting

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DEVIATION in stylistics occurs when a person departs from the anticipated manner in which
language is employed. This allows the speaker to create poetic effects and build a style. For
instance, a speaker might utilize a verb instead of a noun, potentially confusing the reader or
listener and drawing attention to an unforeseen problem.

347. Which of the following figurative language is being used in the given example: “swish, swish, swish?”
*** Actual March 2024 LET

A. simile B. hyperbole

C. metaphor D. onomatopoeia

ONOMATOPOEIA refers to words whose pronunciations imitate the sounds they describe.

348. Which statement is INCORRECT about literary stylistics?

A. It is synonymous to literary criticism, in a way.

B. Its ultimate purpose is to explain the individual message clear to others.

C. It is primarily concerned with messages and the interest in codes (language) lies in the meaning they
convey in particular instances.

D. It only explores the linguistic features of a text.

Options A, C, and D describe literary stylistics; however, option B is incorrect since it characterizes
literary criticism instead.

349. I know! Well, they’d better get here soon or it will get cold.” What kind of reference is evident in the
sentence?

A. Cataphoric B. Homophoric

C. Anaphoric D. Exophoric

Typically, an EXOPHORIC reference is largely reliant on context to be comprehended. For

example, in the given question, we have no idea what 'IT' refers to.

ANAPHORIC reference is when a term in a text links back to other ideas in the text to explain its
meaning. Example: "I went out with JO on Sunday." SHE looked terrible.' She is clearly referring to
Jo; there is no need to repeat her name.

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CATAPHORIC reference means that one word in a text refers to another later in the text, and you
must look forward to comprehending it. It is similar to anaphoric reference, which occurs when a
word refers back to another word to convey its meaning.' 'Even though I called him yesterday,
Paul didn't answer my questions. ' Here, 'HIM' refers forwards to 'PAUL’.

HOMOPHORIC expressions are general terms that relate to a more specific entity that is well-
known but not defined or contextualized. "The Queen" is one example of a homophoric expression.
This term commonly refers to the Queen of England, particularly Queen Elizabeth.

350. Karina is a great person. She loves to take care of everyone.” What kind of reference is evident inthe
sentence?

A. Exophoric B. Anaphoric

C. Cataphoric D. Homophoric

ANAPHORIC reference is when a term in a text links back to other ideas in the text to explain its
meaning. Example: "I went out with JO on Sunday." SHE looked terrible.' She is clearly referring to
Jo; there is no need to repeat her name.

CATAPHORIC reference means that one word in a text refers to another later in the text, and you
must look forward to comprehending it. It is similar to anaphoric reference, which occurs when a
word refers back to another word to convey its meaning.' 'Even though I called him yesterday,
Paul didn't answer my questions. ' Here, 'HIM' refers forwards to 'PAUL’.

Typically, an EXOPHORIC reference is largely reliant on context to be comprehended. For

example, look over there! We have no idea what 'THERE' refers to.

HOMOPHORIC expressions are general terms that relate to a more specific entity that is well-
known but not defined or contextualized. "The Queen" is one example of a homophoric expression.
This term commonly refers to the Queen of England, particularly Queen Elizabeth.

351. Which of the following is said to be a very vital instrument of stylistics since it deals with the
variations and the options that are available to an author?

A. Style as a man B. Style as a choice

C. Style as Deviation D. Style as Conformity

STYLE AS A CHOICE is a very vital instrument of stylistics since it deals with the variations and
options that are available to an author. Since language provides its users with more than one
choice in a given situation, there are different choices available to the writer in a given text.

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STYLE AS MAN is based on the notion that every individual has his or her own unique way of
doing things and that no two people are of exactly the same character. There are always
distinctive features that distinguish one person from the other; thus, in literary style, one is able to
differentiate between the writings of Soyinka and Achebe based on their use of language, among
other things. A person's social and political background, religious inclination, culture, education,
and geographical location can also shape their style.

STYLE AS A DEVIATION happens when an idea is presented in a way that is different from the
expected way, and we say such a manner of carrying it out has deviated from the norm. The
concept of style as deviation is based on the notion that there are rules, conventions, and
regulations that guide the different activities that must be executed and that define the norm.
Therefore, deviation occurs when individuals fail to adhere to these conventions.

STYLE OF CONFORMITY is often strictly enforced in certain fields or circumstances. This is often
in the academic or educational field with regard to students’ research projects.

LANGUAGE PROGRAMS AND POLICIES IN MULTILINGUAL POLICIES

• Exhibit knowledge and understanding of language policies and programs that influences language
teaching and learning in a Multicultural setting.

• Show knowledge, understanding, and skills in designing and developing basic language programs in
multilingual and multicultural societies.

352. It is the traditional term of the native language. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. mother tongue B. native tongue

C. first language D. birth language

Many people use the terms mother tongue and native language as if they mean the same thing.
However, there is a slight difference. Your mother tongue is the first language you learn at home in
childhood. It’s the language you grow up speaking with your family. Your native language, on the
other hand, is the official language of the country in which you were born or grew up. Sometimes,
your mother tongue and native language can be the same, especially if your family speaks the
country’s official language.

For example, if you were born in the Philippines into a Filipino-speaking family, your mother
tongue and native language are both Filipino. However, if you are an Ilocano, your mother tongue
will be Ilocano, and your native language is Filipino.

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353. Among Filipinos, what characteristics make English difficult to understand? ***Actual September 2023
LET

A. It is a complex language

B. It is a strange language

C. It is a second/ third language

D. It is a universal language

The Philippines is home to between 120 and 187 languages, including a diverse spectrum of local
languages, making learning English as a second or third language challenging. Exposure to
multiple dialects is one type of language experience that can impact language comprehension.
Dialects and non-standard variants of language change with time and place. Exposure to a variety
of dialects and non-standard forms influences how a person perceives language and what sounds
standard to them.

354. In order to provide learners with opportunities that will make them both locally and internationally
competitive, the Department of Education (DepEd) continues to offer the SPFL in public secondary schools
nationwide. What does SPFL mean?

A. Special Program in Foreign Language

B. Special Program in First Language

C. Standard Performance for First Language

D. Standard Protocol for Learning

The SPFL, or Special Program in Foreign Language, is a Department of Education program

designed to offer students opportunities that will allow them to compete both locally and
internationally.

355. According to DO 36, S. 2006, what should be used as the primary medium of instruction in all public
and private schools at the secondary level, including those established as laboratory and/or experimental
schools and vocational and technical institutions?

A. Filipino B. English

C. Regional language D. Both A and B

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According to DO 36, S. 2006, the ENGLISH language shall be used as the primary medium of
instruction in all public and private schools in the secondary level, including those established as
laboratory and/or experimental schools, and vocational/technical institutions.

356. Which of the following is true about MTB-MLE?

A. It is education, formal or non - formal, in which the learner’s mother tongue and additional languages are
used in the classroom.

B. Learners begin their education in the language they understand best - their mother tongue – and develop
a strong foundation in their mother language before adding additional languages.

C. The bridge between languages enables the learners to use both or all their languages for success in
school and for lifelong learning.

D. All of the above

Mother Tongue-Based Multilingual Education (MTB-MLE) is the government's flagship

program for education and a salient part of the implementation of the K–12 Basic Education
Program. Its significance is underscored by the passing of Republic Act 10523, otherwise known
as the “Enhanced Basic Education Act of 2013.”

Options A, B, and C are all characteristics of MTBLE.

357. According to DO No. 31, s. 2012, what’s the ultimate goal of language learning and teaching in the K–12
curriculum?

A. Communicative competence

B. Strategic competence

C. Multilingualism competence

D. Readability competence

COMMUNICATIVE COMPETENCE is a synthesis of knowledge of basic grammatical principles,

knowledge of how language is used in social settings to perform communicative functions, and
how knowledge of utterances and communicative functions can be combined according to the
principles of discourse.

Communicative competence is classified into the following competencies.

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1. GRAMMATICAL/LINGUISTIC COMPETENCE means the acquisition of phonological rules,
morphological words, syntactic rules, semantic rules and lexical items.

2. SOCIOLINGUISTIC COMPETENCE refers to the learning of pragmatic aspect of various speech

acts, namely, the cultural values, norms, and other socio-cultural conventions in social contexts.
They are the context and topic of discourse, the participant’s social status, sex, age, and other
factors which influence styles and registers of speech. Since different situations call for different
types of expressions as well as different beliefs, views, values, and attitudes, the development of
sociolinguistic competence is essential for communicative social action.

3. DISCOURSE COMPETENCE is the knowledge of rules regarding the cohesion (grammatical

links) and coherence (appropriate combination of communicative actions) of various types of
discourse (oral and written). Sociolinguistic rules of use and rules of discourse are crucial in
interpreting utterances for social meaning, particularly when the literal meaning of an utterance
does not lead to the speaker’s intention easily.

4. STRATEGIC COMPETENCE is to DO with the knowledge of verbal and non-verbal strategies to

compensate for breakdown such as self-correction and at the same time to enhance the
effectiveness of communication such as recognizing discourse structure, activating background
knowledge, contextual guessing, and tolerating ambiguity.

358. According to DO No. 31, s. 2013, when will English, as a learning area, be first introduced in Grade 1?
***Actual March 2024 LET

A. during the 1st grading period

B. during the 2nd grading period

C. during the 3rd grading period

D. during the 4th grading period

According to DO No. 31, s. 2013, English, as a learning area, is first introduced in Grade 1 during
the THIRD QUARTER OR GRADING PERIOD.

359. According to RA 10533, or the Enhanced Basic Education Act of 2013, at what grade level(s) shall a
mother language transition program be done so that Filipino and English shall be gradually introduced as
languages of instruction?

A. Kindergarten B. Grade 1-3

C. Grades 4-6 D. Both A and B

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The Department of Education (DepED) shall formulate a mother language transition program
from Grade 4 to Grade 6 so that Filipino and English shall be gradually introduced as languages of
instruction until such time as these two (2) languages can become the primary languages of
instruction at the secondary level.

360. According to RA 10533, or the Enhanced Basic Education Act of 2013, what grade level or where shall
instruction, teaching materials, and assessment be in the regional or native language of the learners?

A. Kindergarten B. Grade 1-3

C. Grades 4-6 D. Both A and B

As a medium of instruction, the mother tongue is used in all learning areas from KINDERGARTEN
TO GRADE 3, except in teaching Filipino and English.

361. Which of the following shows the step-by-step process for helping students bridge between languages
in MTB-MLE?

I. Introduce oral L2

II Introduce reading and writing in L2

III. Introduce reading and writing in L1

IV. Build small children’s fluency and confidence in oral L1

A. I - II - III – IV B. IV - III - I - II

C. II - IV - III – I D. II - III - I - IV

The step-by-step process for helping students bridge between languages in MTB-MLE follows:

1. Build small children’s fluency and confidence in oral L1

2. Introduce reading and writing in L1

3. Introduce oral L2

4. Introduce reading and writing in L2

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362. What component of MTB-MLE states that well-planned transition from learning through the mother
tongue or L1 to learning through other language(s) results in better learning outcomes?

A. good bridge B. strong foundation

C. well trained facilitators D. organized curriculum

MTB-MLE serves as a solid foundation for listening, speaking, reading, and writing in the L2 and
L3 languages of the classroom, utilizing sound educational principles to foster fluency and
confidence in these languages for lifelong learning. Reading in L2 is only introduced after basic L1
reading fluency and L2 oral proficiency are developed. Reading comprehension occurs after the
development of the spoken L2. Once sufficient oral and written proficiency in the L2 is developed,
a gradual transition to using the L2 as a medium of instruction can progress without L1 support.

363. What kind of learner-centered MTBMLE is focused on when students are proud of their heritage
language and culture and respect the language and culture of others?

A. Language development B. Academic development

C. Socio-cultural development D. Cognitive development

SOCIO-CULTURAL DEVELOPMENT. Students will be proud of their heritage language and culture and
respect the languages and cultures of others; they will be prepared to contribute productively to their own
community and to the larger society.

Furthermore, students will learn and develop holistically. First instructing learners in their most familiar
language allows them to establish a strong foundation for learning another language. Multilinguals also
enjoy benefits that go beyond linguistic knowledge. They are also able to learn with more flexibility.

LANGUAGE DEVELOPMENT. Students will establish a strong educational foundation in the language they
know best; they will build a good “bridge” to the school language(s), and they will be prepared to use both
or all of their languages for success in school and for life-long learning.

COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT. School activities will engage learners to move well beyond the basic
questions of who, what, when, and where to cover all higher-order thinking skills in the learners’ language
of thought.

These higher-order thinking skills will: (1) transfer to the other languages once enough Filipino or English
has been acquired to use these skills in thinking and articulating thought; and (2) be used in the process of
acquiring English and Filipino more effectively.

ACADEMIC DEVELOPMENT. Students will achieve the necessary competencies in each subject area, and at
the end of the program, they will be prepared to enter and achieve well in the mainstream education
system.

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364. Which of the following refers to the use of L1 as the initial medium of instruction, gradually
introducing increasing amounts of instruction in L2, until either L1 is phased out entirely or both L1 and L2
are used as media of instruction?

A. Bridging B. Early-exit transition

C. Late-exit transition D. Second Acquisition

BRIDGING in the MTBMLE curriculum is planned such that children start education from their
mother tongue language (L1) to other tongue languages (L2).

365. What happens when the mother tongue, or L1, is used as the medium of instruction for 5–6 years or
more, then switches to L2 or L3 as a Mode of Instruction (MOI)?

A. Bridging B. Early-exit transition

C. Late-exit transition D. Second Acquisition

LATE-EXIT PROGRAMS often last five to seven years, and students are more likely to become
completely multilingual when they complete the program.

EARLY-EXIT PROGRAMS, also known as 'transitional bilingual programs,' use English language
learners' native language as a foundation for developing English language competency. Students
receive training in both languages to help them advance academically and prepare to quickly
transition to a mainstream classroom with English-native speakers. The program might span
between one and four years, from kindergarten to third or fourth grade.

366. Maria is a second-grade student at Fisher Elementary School. Which of the following is she capable of
according to the grade-level standards of MTB-MLE in the curriculum?

A. demonstrates skills and strategies in phonemic awareness and sound-letter correspondences

B. demonstrates communication skills in talking about variety of topics using expanding vocabulary and
phrases

C. demonstrates basic communication skills in talking about familiar topics using simple words and both
verbal and non-verbal cues

D. demonstrates communication skills in talking about variety of topics using developing

vocabulary and simple phrases and sentences

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KINDERGARTEN. The learner demonstrates skills and strategies in phonemic awareness,
alphabet knowledge, sound-letter correspondences, decoding, vocabulary, and comprehension as
they enjoy listening to and responding to a variety of texts in their mother tongue.

GRADE 1. The learner demonstrates basic communication skills by talking about familiar topics
using simple words and both verbal and non-verbal cues to understand spoken language, showing
understanding of basic vocabulary and language structures, the reading process, and the and the
writing system, and appreciating aspects of one’s culture.

GRADE 2. The learner demonstrates communication skills in talking about a variety of topics
using developing vocabulary and simple phrases and sentences; simple to complex spoken
language using both verbal and non-verbal cues; understanding vocabulary and language
structures; appreciating and understanding the cultural aspects of the language and the writing
system used; and reading and writing simple and short literary and informational texts.

GRADE 3. The learner demonstrates communication skills by talking about a variety of topics
using expanding vocabulary and phrases, showing understanding of spoken language in different
contexts using both verbal and non-verbal cues, vocabulary and language structures, cultural
aspects of the language, and reading and writing literary and informational texts.

367. Given such exceptional cases of the use of the mother tongue, who shall determine the primary
medium of instruction that is aligned with the framework being used at the elementary level, including
teacher training and the production of local resources and materials?

A. DepEd B. Teacher

C. President D. School administrator

In such exceptional cases, the primary medium of instruction shall be determined by the
DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION, aligned with the framework being used at the elementary level,
including teacher training and the production of local resources and materials under DepEd Order
No. 74, Series of 2009.

368. Which of the following principles says that we learn a new language best when the learning process is
non-threatening and meaningful, and when we can take "small steps" that help us gain confidence in our
ability to use the language meaningfully?

A. Active Learning B. Cognitive Development

C. Known to the unknown D. Language Transfer

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Language transfer is one of the seven guiding principles for teaching and learning in MTB-
MLE, stating that:

• We learn a new language best when the learning process is non-threatening and meaningful and
when we can take “small steps” that help us gain confidence in our ability to use the language
meaningfully.

• Research in second-language acquisition indicates that it takes a minimum of 2 years to learn

basic communicative skills in a second language when society supports that learning. It takes five
years or more to learn enough L2 to learn complex academic concepts. Thomas & Collier, 2003;
Cummins, 2006

• Errors” are a normal part of second-language learning. Second language learners benefit from
opportunities to receive feedback in a respectful and encouraging way. It is helpful when teachers
respond first to the content of what the student is saying or writing, focusing on one or two errors
at a time. Patsy M. Lightbown and Nina Spada, How Languages Are Learned, 3rd ed., Oxford
University Press, 2006.

369. Teacher Rocel assured that her students used their higher-order thinking skills as much as possible in
the activities she prepared since she believed that when they truly learn something, they can explain it,
apply it, analyze it, evaluate it, and use it to create new ideas and information. What MTB-MLE principle is
she guided by?

A. Active Learning B. Cognitive Development

C. Known to the unknown D. Language Transfer

COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT is one of the seven guiding principles for teaching and learning in
MTB-MLE, stating that:

• Students who use their multilingual skills have been shown to develop both cognitive flexibility
and divergent thinking.

• Higher Order Thinking Skills. When we truly learn something, we can explain it, apply it, analyze
it, evaluate it, and use it to create new ideas and information.

370. According to DO No. 31, s. 2013, how should Mother Tongue be used in education?

A. a Medium of Instruction (MOI) for Grades 1 and 2 in teaching Mathematics and Music

B. taught as a separate learning area in Grades 1 and 2

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C. used in Physical Education and Health (MAPEH) and Edukasyon sa Pagpapakatao (EsP)

D. all of the above

DO No. 31, s. 2013, states the following:

• Mother Tongue is used as a Medium of Instruction (MOI) for Grades 1 and 2 in teaching
Mathematics, Araling Panlipunan (AP), Music, Arts, Physical Education, and Health (MAPEH), and
Edukasyon sa Pagpapakatao (EsP).

• Mother Tongue is taught as a separate learning area in Grades 1 and 2.

• Filipino, as a learning area, is first introduced in Grade 1 during the second quarter (2nd
Q)/grading period.

• English, as a learning area, is first introduced in Grade 1 during the third quarter (3rd
Q)/grading period.

371. What is referred to as “first-language-first” education?

A. Mother tongue Defamiliarization

B. Lingua franca Education

C. National Language Analysis

D. MTB- MLE

Mother-Tongue-Based Multilingual Education (MTB-MLE) refers to FIRST LANGUAGE-FIRST

EDUCATION, that is, schooling that begins in the mother tongue and transitions to additional
languages, particularly Filipino and English. L1 refers to the mother tongue, L2 refers to Filipino,
and L3 refers to English.

372. All of the following modules are implemented by MTB-MLE, EXCEPT one. Which is the exception?

A. as learning area B. as subject area

C. as medium of instruction D. as an elective

DO No. 31, s. 2013, states that MTB-MLE is a separate learning area, a subject area, and a medium
of instruction.

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 TEACHING AND ASSESSMENT OF THE MACRO SKILLS

• Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the nature of the fine language components and the
theoretical bases, principles, methods in teaching them.

• Apply basic concepts, principles, and methods in language teaching and assessment of language
proficiency following the rules of grammar.

373. It refers to the progression of skills such as listening, speaking, reading, writing, and viewing. ***Actual
September 2023 LET

A. Language development B. Literacy development

C. Skills development D. Fluency development

The UNESCO Institute for Statistics defines literacy as the ability to identify, understand, interpret,
produce, communicate, and compute using printed and written resources in a variety of
circumstances. Literacy is a continuum of learning that enables individuals to attain their goals,
develop their knowledge and potential, and actively engage in their community and society. The
right answer is letter B since the skills indicated in the question are related to literacy, and their
progress is known as literacy development.

374. Which feedback mechanism asks the teacher to read and comment on the written outputs by pointing
out students' errors in structure and style right on the text or on the margins of the text?

A. Observation B. Anecdotal records

C. Written comments D. Conferencing

WRITTEN COMMENT is a feedback system that asks the teacher to read and remark on the
written outputs by pointing out students' mistakes in structure and style directly on the text or on
the margins of the text.

Teacher OBSERVATION is the activity of sitting in on another teacher's class and observing,
learning, and reflecting. Teacher observation refers to the formal or informal monitoring of
teaching in a classroom or other learning setting.

An ANECDOTAL RECORD is a thorough descriptive story written after a certain conduct or event
occurs. Anecdotal recordings help instructors arrange learning activities, present information to
families, and detect potential developmental delays.

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CONFERENCING is a technique that entails scheduled meetings in which the teacher leads
discussion on themes relating to the course objectives. It can improve student comprehension and
participation.

375. It refers to the unconscious knowledge of grammar that allows a speaker to use and understand a
language. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. discourse competence B. sociolinguistic competence

C. linguistic competence D. strategic competence

LINGUISTIC COMPETENCE pertains to a speaker's unconscious knowledge of grammar that

enables them to use and comprehend a language. It is also referred to as grammatical competence
or I-language.

376. Reliability describes the extent to which a test .

A. provides all students and equal opportunity to succeed

B. provides equivalent scores for a diverse group of individuals

C. produces a consistent, reproducible measure of performance

D. measures what it is intended to measure

RELIABILITY refers to how consistently a test assesses a characteristic. Will a person's test score
be the same if they take it again, or will it be significantly different? If a test produces consistent
scores when repeated, it is considered to assess a characteristic reliably.

377. This refers to the level of formality and style anchored in the contextual scenarios.

A. Formal speech B. Speech register

C. Speech levels D. Formality levels

The LANGUAGE REGISTER, also known as the LINGUISTIC REGISTER or the SPEECH REGISTER,
specifies how a person communicates with respect to their audience. A speaker shifts their
language register to convey levels of formality based on their connection to the listeners and the
communication goal.

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378. The following are goals of pre-listening strategies EXCEPT .

A. to provide a list of new words and expressions that are used in the listening passage

B. to provide relevant activities for the integration of speaking and writing

C. to establish students' expectations on what could be the content of the listening text

D. to set students' mood and interest on the listening task

Options A, C, and D are all goals of pre-listening strategies.

PRE-LISTENING ACTIVITIES are things that students undertake before a listening activity to help
them prepare for it. These activities serve a variety of functions, including pre-teaching or
activating vocabulary, anticipating content, increasing interest, and checking comprehension of
the activity.

Option B falls within the post-listening category. An exercise that comes after listening with the
goal of applying the information learned via listening to the improvement of other abilities like
speaking or writing is called a post-listening activity

379. A deductive approach often fits into a lesson structure known as PPP. What "P" in PPP is the most
important stage where students shall have made the transition from "learners" to becoming "users" of the
language?

A. Presentation B. Practice

C. Production D. None of the above

PRESENTATION, PRACTICE, AND PRODUCTION, or PPP, is a method for teaching structures

(e.g., grammar or vocabulary) in a foreign language. As its name suggests, PPP is divided into three
phases, moving from tight teacher control to

The PRESENTATION PHASE is controlled by the teacher. The teacher might use text, audio tape,
or visual aids to demonstrate a situation. From this, she will extract the required language forms.

During the (controlled) PRACTICE PHASE, learners practice saying or writing the language
structure correctly. Typical practice activities include drills, multiple-choice exercises, gap-and-
cue exercises, transformations, etc. In this phase, the teacher’s role is to direct the activities,
provide positive feedback to students, correct mistakes, and model the correct forms.

When the learners have completely mastered the form and have learnt how to produce it without
mistakes in controlled exercises, they can move on to the (free) PRODUCTION PHASE. In this
phase, they use the newly learnt language structure to produce oral or written texts. Typical

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production activities include dialogues, oral presentations, and the production of sentences,
paragraphs or longer texts. The teacher does not generally intervene or correct in this phase: after
all, the students should not make mistakes by now. If mistakes are made, they are pointed out
after the exercise has finished.

380. Most people have the habit of giving their advice, reactions, suggestions, or even solutions at the onset
of the conversation, even before the other person has fully explained their perspective. To avoid situations
like this, which of the following key active listening skills should we practice?

A. aying attending B. Clarifying

C. Withholding judgement D. Reflecting

Active listening calls on us as listeners to be receptive to fresh concepts, viewpoints, and

opportunities. Even when they possess strong opinions, skilled listeners hold back on passing
judgment, take criticism gently, and refrain from interjecting by debating or making a quick point.

381. Which mechanic of writing is addressed when you teach your students to pronounce CVC sounds?

A. Letter recognition B. Letter discrimination

C. Sound-to-letter correspondence D. Word recognition

LETTER-SOUND CORRESPONDENCES involve knowledge of the sounds represented by the

letters of the alphabet and the letters used to represent the sounds.

It is essential that, in reading a word, the learner recognize the letters in the word and associate
each letter with its sound.

It is also important that, in order to write or type a word, the learner break the word into its
component sounds and know the letters that represent these sounds.

382. The following exercises foster a top-down process in the learner, with one exception.

A. Use key words to construct a discourse's schema.

B. Use stress and intonation to identify word and sentence functions.

C. Infer the role of the participants and their goals.

D. Deduce details of a situation that are not explicitly stated.

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Options A, C, and D all use the top-down approach to comprehending and interpreting
information. However, employing stress and intonation to identify word and sentence functions is
more closely tied to the bottom-up process of examining individual words and sentences than to
the overall structure and meaning of a discourse.

383. First, the teacher presents the perfect present. Next, the students try using it in structured exercises.
Finally, the students try to have a conversation together using the present perfect. Which is referred to?

A. PPP B. TTT

C. SSS D. MMM

PPP is a method for teaching structures (e.g., grammar or vocabulary) in a foreign language. As its
name suggests, PPP is divided into three phases, moving from tight teacher control towards
greater learner freedom: PRESENTATION, PRACTICE, AND PRODUCTION.

TEST, TEACH, TEST (TTT) is an approach to teaching where learners first complete a task or
activity without help from the teacher. Then, based on the problems seen, the teacher plans and
presents the target language.

Options C and D are just distractors.

384. Which writing task is not just an opportunity for self-expression but also for reflection?

A. notetaking B. journal writing

C. Creative writing D. reporting

JOURNAL WRITING is the practice of documenting personal observations, reflections, and

questions about assigned or personal subjects. Journal projects for class may include the learners'
opinions on daily experiences, reading assignments, current events, and other topics.

385. What part of a meta-aware strategy is indicated by the following steps?

• Set a goal or decide beforehand what to listen for.

• Determine whether additional linguistic or background knowledge is required.

• Determine whether to enter the text from the top down (attend to the overall meaning) or from the bottom
up (focus on the words and phrases).

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A. Pre-listening process B. Listening process

C. Post-listening process D. Listening and post-listening process

PRE-LISTENING PROCESS: The steps mentioned in the question, such as setting a purpose or
deciding ahead of time what to listen for, determining whether more linguistic or background
knowledge is required, and deciding whether to enter the text from the top down or bottom up, all
represent actions that must be taken before listening to something. These steps help the listener
prepare psychologically and tactically for the listening task, allowing them to remain focused and
attentive during the listening process.

386. Which of the following is NOT an example of talk as interaction? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Chatting to a school friend over coffee

B. Ordering food in your favorite restaurant

C. Chatting to a passenger during a plane flight

D. Telling a friend about an amusing experience, and hearing him/her recount a similar experience

Options A, C, and D are all examples of ‘TALK AS INTERACTION.’ Talk as interaction refers to
what we usually imply by "conversation" and denotes interaction that serves primarily a social
purpose.

In contrast, Option B is 'TALK AS TRANSACTION' because it is one-way. Talk as a transaction

describes situations in which the emphasis is on what is said or done. The message and making
oneself known clearly and properly are the primary focus, not the participants and how they
engage socially with one another.

387. Progression of activities allows the learner to use what they know, to go from being a passive learner,
to an active learner. Which activity serves as an initial step?

A. Open-ended listening/speaking activity

B. Listening comprehension activity

C. Warm-up activity

D. Controlled practice

A WARM-UP ACTIVITY is used as an initial step to help prepare the learner for the next lesson or
activity. It's intended to activate prior knowledge, pique attention, and foster a good learning

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environment. Participating in a warm-up exercise allows students to move from a passive to an
active state, where they are ready to get involved and use what they know in future activities.

388. What communicative competence refers to the unconscious knowledge of grammar that allows a
speaker to use and understand language. It includes the ability to gain, knowledge of lexis, morphology,
syntax, semantics, etc.? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Syntactical competence B. Grammatical competence

C. Sociological competence D. Strategic competence

LINGUISTIC COMPETENCE or GRAMMATICAL COMPETENCE includes knowledge of

morphology (word structure), syntax (sentence and phrase structure), phonology (how sounds
are ordered and used), and phonetics (the creation, transmission, and reception of speech
sounds). It is also concerned with word usage and how words are placed in a phrase.

389. It refers to the unconscious knowledge of grammar that allows a speaker to use and understand a
language. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. discourse competence B. sociolinguistic competence

C. linguistic competence D strategic competence

LINGUISTIC COMPETENCE refers to the unconscious knowledge of grammar that allows a speaker
to use and understand a language.

390. Sir B taught his students about a speech that is mostly used in stage acting or similar performance
activities, where one cannot use notes or Teleprompters and must know their lines by heart. What type of
speech he is referring to?

A. Impromptu Speaking B. Extemporaneous Speaking

C. Manuscript Speaking D. Memorized Speaking

MEMORIZED SPEECHES are when a speaker memorizes a written message.

IMPROMPTU SPEECHES are given with minimal preparation ahead of time and are best utilized
in informal environments.

MANUSCRIPT SPEECHES are written down, and the presenter does not stray from the written
plan.

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EXTEMPORANEOUS SPEECHES are carefully rehearsed but seem conversational when the
speaker is executing them.

391. Which of the following statements can best described an argumentative speech?

A. It is used when presenters decide to convince their presentation or ideas to their listeners.

B. It is often about hot topics, and they encourage the audience to change their views or opinions on
a topic.

C. Its goal is to convince or influence people to believe in a certain point of view.

D. It is a specific type of speech in which the speaker has a goal of convincing the audience to accept his or
her point of view.

An ARGUMENTATIVE SPEECH is a type of persuasive presentation where the speaker attempts

to persuade the audience to adopt a different viewpoint on a contentious issue. An argumentative
presentation's primary goal is to alter the audience's pre-existing beliefs on a particular topic.

392. Eliciting instructions and directions, question and answer, and paraphrasing a story or a dialogue are
examples of .

A. imitative speaking B. intensive speaking

C. responsive speaking D. extensive speaking

RESPONSIVE SPEAKING requires learners to engage in short talk sessions. In order to resemble
real-world scenarios, prompts are always used to initiate responsive speaking. It lets English
language instructors measure students’ capacity to participate in conversation with one or more
speakers. It is necessary for students to be more creative.

Examples:

ELICITING QUESTIONS FROM INSTRUCTORS is a kind of evaluation, students pose questions to

the instructor. In some sense, the student takes charge of the discussion.

PARAPHRASING is a sort of evaluation in which learners listen to a 4- to 6-sentence paragraph.

When the paragraph is finished, teachers ask students to give a one- or two-sentence summary of
what they just heard.

GIVING INSTRUCTIONS AND DIRECTIONS AND COMPARING OBJECTS USING COMPARATIVES

AND SUPERLATIVES. Students taking this kind of evaluation must be able to provide instructions

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in a specific scenario. Students should be immediately interested in topics that are relevant to
them.

IMITATIVE SPEAKING involves an English language learner (ELL) just repeating what is being
stated. Pronunciation is the sole primary emphasis of this task. It assists English teachers in
assessing children's pronunciation skills.

INTENSIVE SPEAKING demands that ELLs react in short sentences. A minimal understanding of
the L2 language is required; semantics do play a role in this type of communication. The purpose
of Intensive Speaking is to evaluate students' proficiency in specific areas of grammar, phrasal
verbs, and other facets of English. Interaction with an interlocutor is only minimally required. It
allows English language instructors to assess students' mastery of specific English topics.

EXTENSIVE SPEAKING is the most challenging form of speaking; it entails presentations being
made, speeches being given, and, basically, long monologues. Input from listeners is rarely given.
Extensive speaking is extremely vital; pupils are left to themselves to develop clear and coherent
discourse. Typically, there is an audience present, but neither the presenter nor the audience
engages in conversation. Only the individual presenting speaks during this period.

393. Sir Mark often employs oral questionnaires and picture-cued tasks because he believes that through
these activities, his students will enhance their speaking skills. What type of speaking tasks for
communicative outcomes does he adhere to?

A. imitative speaking B. intensive speaking

C. responsive speaking D. extensive speaking

INTENSIVE SPEAKING demands that ELLs react in short sentences. A minimal understanding of
the L2 language is required; semantics do play a role in this type of communication. The purpose
of Intensive Speaking is to evaluate students' proficiency in specific areas of grammar, phrasal
verbs, and other facets of English. Interaction with an interlocutor is only minimally required. It
allows English language instructors to assess students' mastery of specific English topics.

Examples:

PICTURE-CUED is a type of assessment involves an interviewer asking pupils what is in the

picture or what is happening in the visual. Interviewees are then asked to respond in one phrase,
using the photo as a visual aid.

DIALOGUE COMPLETION is a type of evaluation that evaluates pupils' ability to follow a spoken
conversation. Participants in the test hear a statement and then assume the role of the message
recipient.

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The READ-ALOUD STIMULUS is a type of exam that measures pupils' ability to read fluently.
Stress and intonation are carefully monitored.

DIRECTED RESPONSES are a type of examination that takes less effort and thought on the part of
the students.

394. Pre-school teachers usually utilize speaking activities such as word repetition and pronunciation
drills. Based on the activities they frequently used, what type of speaking tasks for communicative
outcomes they are employing?

A. imitative speaking B. intensive speaking

C. responsive speaking D. extensive speaking

IMITATIVE SPEAKING involves an English language learner (ELL) just repeating what is being
stated. Pronunciation is the sole primary emphasis of this task. It assists English teachers in
assessing children's pronunciation skills.

Examples:

WORD REPETITION – “Repeat after me”

MISCELLANEOUS ASSESSMENTS

• Method 1 - Students answer questions based on one to two word responses already given in the
sentence.

Ex. How much is a movie ticket: 5 dollars or 10 dollars? (students’ response: “5 dollars” or “10
dollars”)

• Method 2 - A sentence is broken up into 3 to 4 phrases (noun phrases, verb phrases, etc.). The
student must then piece the sentence together.

Ex. is that/How much/toy car (students’ response: How much is that toy car?)

395. This listening process refers to using the incoming input as the basis for understanding the message.
Comprehension begins with the received data that is analyzed as successive levels of organization – sounds,
words, clauses, sentences, texts – until meaning is derived. Comprehension is viewed as a process of
decoding.

A. Bottom Up Processing B. Bottom Down Processing

C. Top Down Processing D. Top Up Processing

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BOTTOM UP Processing is the listening process in which comprehension begins with the
fundamental level of examining incoming input, such as sounds, words, clauses, sentences, and
texts, and subsequently progresses to infer meaning. It entails deciphering the received data in
various layers of organization. This method focuses on the specifics and separate components of
the message before developing a complete understanding of it.

396. According to social constructivist theory, which of the following is an appropriate way to teach
writing?

A. Lecturing students on the rules of grammar and syntax

B. Assigning students to write essays on topics they have no interest in

C. Providing opportunities for students to collaborate with their peers and receive feedback on
their writing

D. Providing detailed feedback on every grammatical error in a student's writing

The SOCIAL CONSTRUCTIVIST APPROACH assumes that writing is a social and collaborative
activity and that writers learn by engaging with others in authentic circumstances. According to
this approach, writing pedagogy should center on giving learners the chance to partake in
purposeful writing activities, receive feedback from their instructors and classmates, and reflect
on their own writing processes and methods. Social constructivist methods include writing
workshops, peer review, group projects, and genre-based training.

397. Carlo and his groupmates are coming up with a project proposal to help curb the spread of the COVID-
19 disease in their barangay. He facilitated the discussion, and a lot of ideas were generated from his
groupmates. After careful analysis, the group selected the most appropriate project it would enact. What
technique for generating and selecting information is involved in this situation?

A. Outlining B. Summarizing

C. Brainstorming D. Using Graphic Organizer

BRAINSTORMING is a large- or small-group discussion in which students are encouraged to

develop a variety of viewpoints, potential next moves, or solutions to a certain problem. The
teacher can start a brainstorming session by asking a question, suggesting a problem, or
introducing a topic.

398. This is a reading strategy where students read part of the text and predict what is going to happen
next. The strategy also requires readers to explain or defend their predictions.

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A. Basal Reader Approach (BRA)

B. Directed Reading Thinking Activity (DRTA)

C. Language Experience Approach (LEA)

D. Survey, Question, Read, Recite, Review (SQ3R)

The DIRECTED READING THINKING ACTIVITY (DRTA) is a strategy that guides students in
asking questions about a text, making predictions, and then reading to confirm or refute their
predictions.

The BASAL APPROACH to reading is a technique to teach reading to young learners. Basal means
'base' or 'basis.' Basal readers, also known as reading texts, are comprehensive programs that
include short stories in an anthology format. A basal provides instruction and assessments on
reading comprehension, vocabulary, and phonics.

The LANGUAGE EXPERIENCE APPROACH (LEA) is a whole language approach that promotes
reading and writing through the use of personal experiences and oral language. Both
homogeneous and heterogeneous groups of learners can use it in tutorial or classroom settings.
Beginning literacy learners relate their experiences to a teacher or aide, who transcribes them.
Other reading and writing activities then utilize these transcriptions as their foundations.

SQ3R helps students “get it” the first time they read a text by teaching learners how to read and
think like an effective reader.

This strategy includes the following five steps:

SURVEY: Students review the text to gain an initial meaning from the headings, bolded text, and
charts.

QUESTION: Students begin to generate questions about their reading after previewing it.

READ: As students read, they need to look for answers to the questions they formulated during
their preview of the text. These questions, based on the structure of the text, help focus students’
reading.

RECITE: As students move through the text, they should recite or rehearse the answers to their
questions and make notes about their answers for later studying.

REVIEW: After reading, students should review the text to answer lingering questions and recite
the questions they previously answered.

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399. It is an individually-administered diagnostic tool that assesses a student's reading comprehension and
reading accuracy. ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Informal Reading Inventory (IRI)

B. Directed Reading Thinking Activity (DRTA)

C. Language Experience Approach (LEA)

D. Survey, Question, Read, Recite, Review (SQ3R)

An INFORMAL READING INVENTORY (IRI) is carried out by having a student read aloud a
chosen reading text while the instructor tallies miscues to measure word accuracy. The learner
will then answer comprehension questions to assess their grasp of the text. Teachers give children
informal reading inventories to detect any possible challenges that need to be tackled, as well as
grade-level placement for reading instruction. The IRI analysis will help the teacher develop
suitable instruction for every learner.

400. Which of the following is the fifth macro skill? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Reading B. Writing

C. Speaking D. Viewing

VIEWING is now the fifth macro-skill. It relates to observing, evaluating, understanding, and
creating meaning from visual images, and it is critical for enhancing comprehension of both print
and nonprint sources. Teachers should impart this skill to students as they delve into multimedia.
To make this possible, they must have excellent media and visual literacy.

401. It deals about the learners' mastery of understanding and producing texts in the modes of listening,
speaking, reading and writing.

A. Linguistic competence B. Sociolinguistic competence

C. Strategic competence D. Discourse competence

DISCOURSE COMPETENCE is related to the learners' mastery of understanding and producing

texts in the modes of listening, speaking, reading and writing. It deals with cohesion and
coherence in different types of texts.

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402. What is the role of schema in viewing skills?

A. Schema helps viewers to organize and interpret new information based on their existing
knowledge and experiences.

B. Schema helps viewers to focus on the individual components of the text.

C. Schema helps viewers to memorize the information presented in the text.

D. Schema helps viewers to ignore irrelevant information in the text.

According to SCHEMA THEORY, people arrange their information into mental frameworks known
as schemata, which represent their overall understanding of the universe. Schemata describe how
people encode, organize, and retrieve new information depending on their prior experiences.

403. It is a form of communication that allows students to put their feelings and ideas on paper, to organize
their knowledge and beliefs into convincing arguments, and to convey meaning through well-constructed
text.

A. Reading B. Listening

C. Writing D. Speaking

WRITING is a form of communication that allows students to put their feelings and ideas on
paper, to organize their knowledge and beliefs into convincing arguments, and to convey meaning
through well-constructed text.

404. This writing performance requires students to achieve a purpose, organize and develop ideas logically,
use details to support or illustrate ideas, demonstrate syntactic and lexical variety, and engage in the
process of multiple drafts to achieve a final product up to the length of an essay, term paper, major research
project report, or thesis.

A. Imitative Writing B. Intensive Writing

C. Responsive Writing D. Extensive Writing

EXTENSIVE WRITING entails effectively managing all writing processes and methods for all
purposes. Writers strive to attain a specific goal. They strive to organize concepts rationally,
provide details to support or illustrate them, and exhibit syntactic and lexical variety. Examples
include an essay, a term paper, a large research project report, a thesis, and others.

RESPONSIVE WRITING requires students to execute at a limited discourse level, connecting

phrases into paragraphs and constructing a logical sequence of two or three paragraphs. The

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writer has already grasped the principles of sentence-level grammar and is more concerned with
the discourse conventions that will help the written material achieve its aims. Examples include
brief narratives and descriptions, laboratory reports, summaries, and so on.

IMITATIVE WRITING focuses solely on the grammatical components of writing. The pupil merely
repeats what they observe. This is a common method for teaching toddlers how to write. At this
level, additional exercises include a cloze assignment in which the learner must fill in the blanks
from a list, a spelling test, matching, and even converting numbers to their word equivalents.

INTENSIVE WRITING is more concerned with finding the right word for a given situation.
Grammatical transformation activities include shifting all verbs to the past tense, sequencing
photos, explaining visuals, completing brief sentences, and ordering tasks.

405. Which of the following is an example of an authentic writing task that helps students develop their
writing skills in a meaningful way?

A. Writing an e-mail

B. Completing a fill-in-the-blank exercise with vocabulary words

C. Translating a paragraph from one language to another

D. Writing a summary of a grammar rule

AUTHENTIC WRITING activities are those that are relevant, meaningful, and appealing to
learners. They can help students improve their writing abilities as well as their knowledge,
attitudes, and values. Correspondence is one of the most prevalent and practical types of writing.
Letters and emails can be used for a variety of purposes, including asking for information,
expressing ideas, providing criticism, applying for jobs, and thanking others.

Students, for example, can send an email to a potential employer or mentor, or write a letter to the
editor of a newspaper or magazine about a topic they are interested in. This allows students to
practice multiple writing styles, tones, and forms while also learning how to target varied
audiences and goals.

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 TEACHING AND ASSESSMENT OF LITERATURE

• Show knowledge and understanding of the nature of literature and the theoretical basis, principles,
methods, and strategies in literature teaching and assessment.

• Demonstrate knowledge of the categories, types/genres of literature and its relevance in the teaching
learning process.

406. Which can be used to teach learners to organize information on the major and minor characters in a
text? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. Chunking B. Character charts

C. Storyboarding D. Note taking

The CHARACTER CHARTS technique uses graphic organizers to help students organize
information about major and minor characters in a narrative. Completed character charts are
valuable resources for writing essays and studying for exams. They are commonly used for
tracking details regarding literary characters, but they can also be used for historical people.

"CHUNKING" is the practice of organizing various pieces of information into more manageable or
relevant chunks.

407. It is one of the literacy techniques in teaching literature that helps students build their fluency, self-
confidence, and motivation for reading. A student or a group of students reads passages together.

A. choral reading B. silent reading

C. speech choir D. theatrical play

CHORAL READING is when students read aloud in unison as a class or group. Choral reading
increases pupils' fluency, self-confidence, and motivation.

SPEECH CHOIRS are groups of performers who deliver speeches in tandem, frequently
incorporating choreography.

408. Which is not a form of prose?

A. newspaper B. Haiku

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C. short story D. Essay

HAIKU is an unrhymed poetic form of three lines of five, seven, and five syllables each, totaling
seventeen syllables.

The rest of the options are all examples of prose.

409. Who is tasked to hone the world making abilities of students, to facilitate building and understanding
relationships between values and literature?

A. parents B. guardian

C. coordinator D. pre-service teachers

As PRE-SERVICE TEACHERS, it is your task to hone the world making abilities of your students, to
facilitate building and understanding relationships between values and literature.

410. A fairy tale is a story about good and evil, usually with a happy ending. An example of a fairy tale is
.

A. The Frog Prince

B. The Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde

C. Wuthering Heights

D. Rome and Juliet

Option A. The Frog Prince is an example of fairytale.

Option B. The Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde is an example of a novella.

Option C. Wuthering Heights is a novel.

Option D. Romeo and Juliet is an example of play.

411. The Latin word for prose is .

A. prose oratie B. prosa oratio

C. prose oration D. prosa oration

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PROSE is a type of literature, language, or writing that lacks metrical structure (such as regular
rhythm and poetic meter), as opposed to poetry or verse. The LATIN PROSA ORATIO, meaning
straightforward or direct speech, is the source of the word prose.

412. Whether it's a novel, a short story, or a myth, a work of fiction has a , or a series of events.

A. plot B. characters

C. conflict D. theme

A PLOT is the series of events that comprise a story, whether it be narrated, written, filmed, or
sung. The plot is the story, or, more particularly, how it develops, unfolds, and progresses over
time. Plots typically consist of five key elements:

1. EXPOSITION: Characters, places, and major conflicts are usually introduced at the start of a
novel.

2. RISING ACTION: The main character is in crisis, and the circumstances leading up to the
conflict begin to play out. The story grows more convoluted.

3. CLIMAX: At the end of the story, a significant event occurs in which the main character
confronts a big antagonist, fear, challenge, or other cause of conflict. The most action, drama,
change, and excitement take place here.

4. FALLING ACTION: The plot slows down and works toward its conclusion, tidying up loose ends.

5. RESOLUTION/DENOUMENT: The resolution, also known as the denouement, is a last

paragraph that settles any outstanding difficulties and concludes the story.

413. This figure of speech defies conventions in writing just to suit the intended poetic, rhythmic pattern,
such as in "Ten thousand saw I at a glance" (W. Wordsworth) and "Love is not love which alters when it
alternation finds... (W. Shakespeare)

A. hyperbole B. hyperbaton

C. hyperbate D. hyperpoetic

HYPERBATON is a figure of speech in which the typical, natural order of words is changed as
certain words are moved out of order.

Example: Sweet, she was.

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In changing “she was sweet” to “she was sweet,” the writer emphasizes sweetness in a unique
hyperbatonic sentence structure.

414. According to this model, reading is of value for the same reason it's valuable in a student's native
language: it gives them the tools for more effective communication.

A. cultural model B. language model

C. personal growth model D. literature model

LANGUAGE MODEL. Given that literature is built on language, it opens a path for students to
construct their own understanding of words and phrases. According to this model, reading is
valuable for the same reason it’s valuable in a student’s native language; it gives them the tools for
more effective communication.

CULTURAL MODEL. Advocates of this model believe that the value of literature lies in its unique
distillation of culture. In this model, the class reads fiction or poetry as part of their instruction
about history, politics, social mores, and traditions.

PERSONAL GROWTH MODEL. In this model, the focus is on engagement. Teachers use this to
help students understand themselves better and connect with the world around them in a deeper
way by exploring universal themes.

415. Unlike a poem, its purpose is to provide information or convey a message, not to delight or amuse its
audience.

A. news B. essay

C. editorial D. poem

An ESSAY is a brief piece of nonfiction, and the person who writes them is known as an essayist.
Writing training frequently uses the term essay interchangeably with composition. In an essay, the
authorial voice (or narrator) usually asks an implied reader (the audience) to accept a specific
textual form of experience as legitimate.

416. All of the following refer to a prose EXCEPT .

A. pragmatic B. poetic devices

C. imaginative D. straightforward

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Poetic devices are not commonly used in prose.

417. The following are examples of metonymy EXCEPT:

A. The controversial couple are living under the same roof.

B. The Malacaňang declared full support for child-friendly campaigns.

C. Empty pocket never held anyone back. Only empty heads and empty hearts can do that.

D. This land belongs to the crown.

METONYMY is a type of figurative language in which an object or concept is referred to not by its
own name, but instead by the name of something closely associated with it.

In option B, Malacañang represents the Philippine Government.

In option C, empty heads and hearts represent people.

Option D uses the crown to represent the king.

On the other hand, option A is an example of synecdoche since roof is part of a whole which is the
house. SYNECDOCHE is a figure of speech in which, most often, a part of something is used to refer
to its whole.

418. Which strategy will help students better understand key life events of historical or literary figures?

A. Chunking B. Readers theater

C. Word tree D. Life road maps

The LIFE ROAD MAPS technique allows students to create a map of someone's life that shows the
significant events and actions that influenced their identity. The task helps students better
understand historical or literary figures by concentrating on the various elements that influenced
a figure's decision-making.

419. Of the literary listed below, which is used in the poem?

You see this gentle stream, that glides,

Shoved on, by quick-succeeding tides:

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Try if this sober stream you can

-Proof to No Purpose

A. metaphor and allusion B. paradox and antithesis

C. apostrophe and hyperbole D. personification and alliteration

The ALLITERATIONS found in the given text are “shove, sobber, and stream.” Alliteration involves
placing words that begin with the same sound close together. Although alliteration frequently
entails the repetition of letters, it is most importantly a repetition of sounds.

The PERSONIFICATION is the “stream” that is given human qualities like “glide” and “gentle.”

420. What figure of speech is used in the given lines?

Fair daffodils, we weep to see

You haste away so soon;

- Robert Herrick

A. apostrophe B. metonymy

C. personification D. synecdoche

APOSTROPHE is a figure of speech in which a speaker directly addresses someone (or something)
who is not present or unable to answer in reality. The entity being addressed can be an absent,
dead, or imaginary person, an inanimate object (such as stars or the ocean), an abstract idea (such
as love or fate), or a being (such as a Muse or god).

In the given lines, the speaker is addressing the “daffodils,” which is an example of an apostrophe.

421. Which of the following is NOT a type of conflict commonly found in literature?

A. Man vs. Self B. Man vs. Nature

C. Man vs. Society D. Man vs. Machine

CONFLICT is part of the narrative arc, and it helps readers connect with a story or its characters. It
refers to issues or hurdles that develop inside a story, both internally (in a character's thoughts)
and externally (caused by other characters or forces).

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MAN VS. SELF is a unique example of internal conflict in literature, featuring a character who is
conflicted within his or her own mind. Throughout much of Shakespeare's famous play, Hamlet is
undoubtedly the most well-known literary figure who is conflicted between man and himself.

MAN VS. MAN is a form of external conflict that appears frequently in literature and modern
narrative. This conflict is usually between a protagonist and his or her antagonist, although it can
also occur between friends or acquaintances.

The MAN VS. NATURE conflict occurs when the protagonist, either alone or with other characters,
stands in direct opposition to nature's forces.

The battle between man and society is a recurrent theme in fiction. A scenario known as the MAN
VS. SOCIETY conflict occurs when an individual, or a small group of individuals, chooses or feels
compelled to fight against their society or community. The protagonist of the novel may be
struggling against undesirable components in their society, such as racism, environmental
difficulties, or other repressive systems.

MAN VS. TECHNOLOGY is a literary conflict in which a character encounters technology (such as
a robot, a machine, or a mechanical malfunction) and must overcome it.

Option D should be man vs. technology, not machine.

422. If you want to help students in processing dilemmas experienced by characters in a text, the most
appropriate strategy to use is .

A. Readers theatre B. Chunking

C. Word tree D. Life road maps

In a READER'S THEATER-BASED EXERCISE, learners are given a literature excerpt to present to

their peers. Rather than performing plot skits, a reader's theater allows students to produce a
performance that reveals a message, theme, or struggle embodied in the text. As students perform
this activity, they improve their ability to represent concepts and ideas using textual words. This is
an efficient method for learners to process difficulties faced by characters in a text.

423. Which BEST describes the Peer-Assisted Reading Method? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. It is an interactive teaching strategy that promotes text comprehension.

B. Peer-Assisted Reading Method is a schema-building technique that uses a pictorial storyboard map for a
graphic organizer.

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C. It focuses on words and phrases that students must know to function while shopping, employed,
enjoying recreation and at home.

D. Students are paired with one low achieving reader and one high achieving reader and the
reading material should be at the lower level.

Peer-Assisted Reading Method happens when students are paired with one low-achieving
reader and one high-achieving reader, and the reading material should be at the lower level. Peer-
assisted reading is especially important for English language learners, students from low
socioeconomic backgrounds, learning disabilities, emotional disabilities, and mental disabilities.

Option A describes RECIPROCAL TEACHING. It is an interactive teaching strategy that promotes

text comprehension.

Option B describes MAPPING STRATEGIES. This is a schema-building technique using a pictorial

storyboard map for a graphic organizer. Students fill in the map as they read, including things like
setting, problem, goal, action, and outcome.

Option C describes “LIFE SKILLS READING.” Life skills reading focuses on words and phrases that
students must know to function while shopping, employed, enjoying recreation, and at home.

424. Which of the following is a poetry rhythm scheme that involves iambic pentameter lines with a
rhyming pattern of ABAB CDCD EFEF GG?

A. Sonnet B. Villanelle

C. Sestina D. Terza rima

SONNETS are 14-line poems written in iambic pentameter. Shakespeare's sonnets use the rhyme
system ABAB CDCD EFEF GG.

A VILLANELLE, a fixed-form poem, consists of five tercets and a quatrain, following a

predetermined rhyme scheme using only two distinct sounds. A tercet is a stanza with only three
lines, whereas a quatrain has four lines. Thus, the villanelle has a total of nineteen lines.

A SESTINA is composed of six six-line stanzas, followed by one three-line stanza. The final word of
each line repeats in a different sequence in the first six stanzas. These six words serve as a stand-
in for rhyme. The final stanza uses three words at the ends of the lines and the remaining three
within the lines.

TERZA RIMA is a form of poetry that consists of iambic tercets (three-line groups). The rhyme
scheme for this type of poetry is "aba bcb cdc, etc." Each tercet's second line establishes the rhyme
for the next tercet, providing the verse with a common thread and a mechanism to connect the
stanzas.

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425. This passage is from Oedipus the King: ‘You mock my blindness, do you?/But I say that you, with both
your eyes, are blind./You cannot see the wretchedness of your life.’ What is the objective in teaching
students that the passage uses a figure of speech called paradox?

A. Literary appreciation B. Literary interpretation

C. Literary competence D. All of the above

LITERARY APPRECIATION includes reading, comprehending, and critically evaluating the theme,
style, use of FIGURATIVE and NON-FIGURATIVE LANGUAGE, and other characteristics of a
literary work.

426. You want your students to keep track of main ideas and supporting details in a narrative by letting
them illustrate important scenes in a story. What is the most appropriate strategy that you will employ?

A. Chunking B. Fishbone diagram

C. Storyboarding D. Note taking

By illustrating the story's key scenes, the STORYBOARDS TEACHING TECHNIQUE allows
students to keep track of a narrative's primary ideas and supporting elements. Storyboarding can
be utilized for both aloud and independent reading.

427. What type of literature test requires the students to compare information and ideas in a text with
material presented by the instructor or other authorities and with the student’s own knowledge and
experience in order to form judgments of reality and fantasy, fact or opinion, adequacy and validity,
appropriateness, and acceptability?

A. Testing Literal Comprehension B. Testing Reorganization

C. Testing Inference D. Testing Evaluation

TESTING EVALUATION. Evaluation tests require the students to compare information and ideas
in a text with material presented by the instructor or other authorities and with the student’s own
knowledge and experience in order to form judgments of reality and fantasy, fact or opinion,
adequacy and validity, appropriateness, and acceptability.

TESTING LITERAL COMPREHENSION. Literal comprehension tests include recall of details, main
ideas, sequence, comparison, cause-and-effect relationships, and character traits.

TESTING REORGANIZATION. Reorganization skills entail classifying, outlining, summarizing, and

synthesizing ideas. Students are required to re-arrange ideas according to the required format to
show that the whole concept has been well understood.

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TESTING INFERENCE. Inferential tests require students to use information explicitly stated in the
text along with personal experience and knowledge in order to conjecture and form hypotheses.
This includes inferring supporting details, the main idea, sequence, comparisons, cause-and-effect
relationships, character traits, and the author's organization; predicting outcomes; and
interpreting figurative language.

LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE LEARNING MATERIALS DEVELOPMENT

• Apply knowledge of principles and processes in developing various types of contextualized and
localized teaching and learning materials.

• Apply knowledge of principles and processes in developing, implementing and evaluating

instructional materials in print and non-print form for language, literacy and literature instruction.

• Apply technology for designing and developing teaching and learning materials for hybrid learning.

428. Preparing instructional materials falls under what type of research. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. Theoretical B. Applied

C. Descriptive D. Basic

The field of education employs APPLIED RESEARCH to test pedagogical procedures and find the
most effective teaching and learning strategies. In order to improve learning, it is also used to test
educational policies before adoption and solve various problems with teaching paradigms and
classroom dynamics. This type of research involves the development of educational resources.

429. Which shows direct testing? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. In oral proficiency lesson you let your students read the text written in the book.

B. In the start of the lesson, you ask questions to your student of what they already know in relation to the
topic presented.

C. You let your students do discovery learning.

D. You use Inductive method in your teaching.

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A DIRECT TEST necessitates that the test taker demonstrate accurately the competence we need
to assess. In this situation, the teacher directly assesses the student's oral competency by allowing
them to execute the task (read the text).

430. Which principle should be given the highest priority when developing teaching materials for language
learners?

A. Using the same materials for all learners regardless of their proficiency level

B. Using materials that reflect the learners’ interests and cultural background

C. Using materials that are readily available online

D. Using materials that are standardized across all schools

Developing an awareness of the aspects of the learner and the instructional environment that may
influence learning achievement is a necessary step in designing curriculum and educational
programs. Even though there might be some similarities among students, it's crucial for designers
to understand that students will probably bring a wide range of learning styles, aptitudes, and
experiences to a course or other learning environment. In order to effectively create scaffolds and
tools that support learning, designers must also take into account the diversity of learners in
terms of their linguistic competency and cultural backgrounds. These factors can influence how
learners integrate new information with what they already know.

431. The idea behind supplementary learning material is to:

A. Provide material in less important areas

B. Increase learner's text reading interests

C. Further enrich learner's interest in various subjects

D. Provide material in the areas not covered by the teacher

SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIALS are instructional materials that facilitate the comprehension or

assimilation of information from a given text. It also simplifies the learning process by providing
supplementary information that is pertinent to the concept. It enhances the learner's interest in
a variety of subjects. It enhances the motivation and activity of students as well as intensifies the
educational process. Finally, it also assists educators in delivering presentations that are concrete,
effective, engaging, profound, and inspirational.

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432. Which of the following is NOT an authentic material?

A. A newspaper weather report.

B. A hotel menu

C. An advertisement in a magazine.

D. A text on education written by textbook writer.

AUTHENTIC MATERIAL provides genuine and cultural information by utilizing actual resources
such as newspaper stories, magazine advertisements, hotel menus, hoardings, brochures, etc.
These materials are more relevant to learners' needs and serve as a source of learning resources.
It is claimed that authentic material allows students to view, experience, and perform functions
through realistically written text.

433. Authentic materials and situations prepare students for the types of listening they will need to do
when using the language outside the classroom. The following are considered one-way communication
materials that are most appropriate for listening activities, EXCEPT for .

A. Radio and television programs

B. Public address announcements (airports, train/bus stations, stores)

C. Speeches and lectures

D. Google Search Engine

The right answer is Google Search Engine, because it is not a one-way communication tool. Google
Search Engine is a technology that allows users to find information online; however, it does not
include audio or spoken content for listening activities. Authentic materials and scenarios for
listening activities often include audio or spoken content, such as radio and television shows,
public address announcements, and speeches.

434. Which example illustrates the SAMR paradigm of technology integration in education?

A. Using technology to reinforce traditional teaching methods

B. Using technology to substitute traditional teaching methods

C. Using technology to modify traditional teaching methods

D. Using technology to eliminate traditional teaching methods

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The SAMR Model stands for Substitution, Augmentation, Modification, and Redefinition. The
SAMR Model is a four-tiered taxonomy of how technology impacts teaching and learning. Arantes
(2022) advocates using the SAMR model to plan, carry out, and evaluate learning activities.

SUBSTITUTION is the most basic step, in which EdTech is utilized to directly replace traditional
procedures. Examples include requiring students to type their work instead of handwriting and
using online tests and applications instead of pen and paper.

At the AUGMENTATION level, technology contributes more to the learning process than just
convenience. It may help your pupils understand a challenging topic or make it more entertaining
in ways that traditional techniques cannot. For instance, students can enhance their oral
presentations by including multimedia elements such as PowerPoint or Prezi. Students use the
internet to conduct independent research on a topic rather than relying on teacher input.

In the MODIFICATION stage, students utilize technology to craft interactive and dynamic
assignments that surpass the limitations of a traditional classroom. Examples include students
creating podcasts to summarize a topic and serve as revision resources for other students. Instead
of delivering a traditional oral presentation, students create an instructive video. They can
incorporate their voices into a wider range of innovative multimodal components.

The most complex step of SAMR, REDEFINITION, entails using technology to create entirely new
learning opportunities. Examples include connecting students with others around the world and
allowing them to share their work online for peer and community review.

435. Using ‘realia’ in the language class means bringing .

A. real life situations to communicate.

B. real objects as teaching aids.

C. realistic objectives and targets for the learners.

D. real level of child’s learning to the knowledge of parents.

REALIA refers to the use of real-world objects in the learning environment. Employing realia in a
language class means using actual items as instructional tools because they are tangible teaching-
learning aids that make learning more engaging by bringing the class to life, guarantee the use of
precise and authentic teaching-learning materials, encourage classroom interaction, and assist in
meeting specific needs.

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436. In hybrid learning, which technology-based teaching and learning material can be used to improve
learner metacognition?

A. An online learning module that has been predetermined.

B. A traditional paper-and-pencil examination.

C. A shareable online document that serves as a reflective journal.

D. A collaborative endeavour that employed a virtual platform.

JOURNALING, also known as reflective writing, can be an effective metacognitive technique for
learners to think about their own learning. Journaling reflectively as a metacognitive activity is a
type of monitoring in which students write about their experiences with class activities or
assessments.

437. What is a distinguishing feature of blended learning?

A. Utilizing solely online platforms for instruction

B. Leveraging a combination of in-person and online instruction

C. Following only conventional teaching methods

D. Concentrating exclusively on synchronous learning

BLENDED LEARNING is a teaching style that blends online and conventional modes of instruction.
Blended learning produces a completely integrated classroom by combining in-person and online
learning to meet the needs of every kind of student. Keeping pupils engaged, stimulated, and
inspired allows teachers to be more effective and achieve greater results with the learners they
teach.

438. What principle in materials preparation provide for continuous and cumulative learning?

A. balancing B. sequencing

C. evaluating D. structuring

SEQUENCING involves arranging the materials in a way that facilitates continuous and cumulative
learning, only introducing complex concepts after mastering the prerequisite skills and concepts.
There are four basic ways of sequencing a material, namely: simple to complex, parts to whole,
whole to parts, and chronological arrangements.

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439. It aims to examine the organization of the material as stated explicitly by the author of the publisher.
This type of evaluation analyzes what the “book tells about itself” by looking at the ad blurb, the
introduction, and table of contents.

A. External Evaluation B. Internal Evaluation

C. Formative Evaluation D. Overall Evaluation

EXTERNAL EVALUATION aims to examine the organization of the material as stated explicitly by
the author of the publisher. This type of evaluation analyzes what the “book tells about itself” by
looking at the ad blurb, the introduction, and the table of contents.

INTERNAL EVALUATION covers an in-depth investigation of the value of the material in relation
to its objectives, principles, lesson design, and assessment procedures. At this stage, the evaluator
analyzes the extent to which the claims in the introduction and blurbs actually match up with the
internal consistency and organization of the materials. In order to perform an effective internal
evaluation of the material, at least two units of a book or a set of materials need to be inspected.

The OVERALL EVALUATION analyzes the value of the material in relation to its usability,
generalizability, adaptability, and flexibility.

440. According to the TPACK framework, what three types of knowledge should the teachers possess in
order to effectively integrate technology into teaching and learning?

A. Technological knowledge, pedagogical knowledge, and content knowledge

B. Technological knowledge, administrative knowledge, and content knowledge

C. Technological knowledge, social knowledge, and content knowledge

D. Technological knowledge, cultural knowledge, and content knowledge

The TPACK model provides a framework for educators to effectively integrate technology into
their instruction. Educators provide a wealth of information and expertise to the classroom,
particularly in terms of subject matter and instructional approaches. When selecting to implement
instructional technology, instructors must consider their technological competence and how it will
impact daily instruction. The TPACK model can help teachers feel confident in their decisions
about how and when to use educational technology to support student learning.

There are seven components to TPACK.

1. The educator's understanding of the subject matter and its differences from other grade levels
or topic areas is known as CONTENT KNOWLEDGE (CK).

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2. An educator's PEDAGOGICAL KNOWLEDGE (PK) refers to their grasp of teaching methods and
theories. This includes, but is not limited to, best practices in student learning, classroom
management, and lesson design and delivery.

3. PEDAGOGICAL CONTENT KNOWLEDGE (PCK) is an educator's understanding of the teaching

methods and theories that are most effective for the specific material they are teaching. PCK
acknowledges that effective teaching requires more than just subject matter competence and
distinguishes between an artist and an art teacher, or a scientist and a scientific teacher, to name a
few examples.

4. Recognizing the role that educational technology can play in effective teaching, Mishra and
Koehler improved on Shulman's PCK approach in 2006 by incorporating TECHNOLOGICAL
KNOWLEDGE (TK) into the TPACK model. TK refers to the teacher's prior knowledge of the
technology tools and digital resources available, as well as the advantages and disadvantages of
using those tools and resources in the classroom.

5. When an educator takes their technology knowledge into the classroom, coupled with their
awareness of what they teach and how to teach it, new partnerships emerge. The first of these
interactions happens when technological knowledge (TK) and content knowledge (CK) come
together to generate TECHNOLOGICAL CONTENT KNOWLEDGE, OR TCK.

6. TECHNOLOGICAL PEDAGOGICAL KNOWLEDGE (TPK), a teacher's understanding of how

technological tools and digital resources might influence teaching and learning, emerges as the
second connection when introducing technical knowledge. This includes assessing the advantages
and disadvantages of specific technology in terms of classroom management, developmental
appropriateness, instructional best practices, and so on.

7. The intersection of all three categories of knowledge, known as TPACK (TECHNOLOGICAL

PEDAGOGICAL CONTENT KNOWLEDGE), is central to the framework. TPACK is the result of
balancing all of the framework's components, or the three key domains of knowledge that an
educator brings to the table when preparing effective technology-integrated courses for students.

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 SPEECH AND THEATRE ARTS

• Demonstrate knowledge and application of oral communication, various forms of speech arts from
public speaking, group discussion, debate, oral interpretation, and dramatics in English language
teaching and learning.

441. The purpose is to entertain the audience. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. narrative B. exposition

C. persuasion D. argumentative

NARRATIVES depict patterns and how they relate to one another or to certain concepts or topics.
Narrative definitions include verbal or written accounts of related events. Narrative writing is a
form of writing that goes into excellent detail and focuses primarily on the act of telling stories.

442. Which of the following is an example of logos?

A. If you're still unsure, please consider that my advanced degree and fieldwork speak for themselves.

B. If we don't move soon, we're all going to die! Can't you see how dangerous it would be to stay?

C. You'll make the right decision because you have something that not many people do: you have heart.

D. You won't find any deer along this road. In 25 years of driving the same route, I haven't seen a
single one.

LOGOS, also known as the appeal to logic, is the process of appealing to an audience's sense of
reason or logic. When an author uses logos, they employ facts and data, along with logical, obvious
linkages between ideas.

443. An argument that appeals to the audience by emphasizing the speaker's credibility and authority
refers to .

A. Ethos B. Logos

C. Pathos D. None of the above

ETHOS communicates the author's credibility and expertise on the topic at hand.

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PATHOS, or the appeal to emotion, refers to persuading an audience by intentionally invoking
specific emotions in order to make them feel the way the author wants them to.

The term LOGOS, or the appeal to logic, refers to appealing to the audience's sense of reasoning or
logic.

444. Which type of play uses the plot and characters as symbols to illustrate a moral or philosophical unit?
***Actual September 2023 LET

A. symbolic play B. drama

C. allegory D. satire

The Oxford English Dictionary defines “ALLEGORY” as a “story, picture, or other piece of art that
uses symbols to convey a hidden or ulterior meaning, typically a moral or political one.”

445. In the study of communication, how is noise best defined?

A. people interrupting someone who is thinking

B. anything that interferes with the message being heard or understood

C. thoughts that distract the listener

D. Discussing things that are off the main topic

NOISE INTERFERES with information transmission in some way, making interpretation difficult.

Option B is the umbrella term that defines noise in communication studies. Options A, C, and D are
all examples of noise.

446. What should you do if you do not understand what the speaker is saying?

A. Never mind the part where you are confused.

B. Read between the lines and try to analyze.

C. Ask help from others in their understanding.

D. Clarify by asking a question.

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CLARIFYING QUESTIONS helps listeners avoid misunderstandings and misconceptions. By
making this type of inquiry after receiving the message, the listener ensures that they have fully
received it and obtains critical supplementary information.

447. It is an acting technique that aims to touch the subconscious mind and the wisdom of the acceptability
of people. The technique commands bodily exercises to get into these ideas. The psychological gesture
exercises personalize the actor with an inner longing for the action.

A. Meisner Technique B. Uta Hagen Technique

C. Chekhov Technique D. Viola Spolin Technique .

The CHEKHOV TECHNIQUE connects physicality and movement to emotion, allowing an actor to
be fully present—and free to experiment—onstage or in front of a camera.

The MEISNER TECHNIQUE is intended to be a holistic approach to acting that assists performers
in developing believable behavior through the use of three key components: repetition,
independent action, and emotional preparation.

HAGEN'S acting tactics advise performers to avoid overthinking their processes and instead focus
on thorough observation of ordinary life.

The VIOLA SPOLIN technique focuses on connecting with one's impulses in the moment and
acting on them without overthinking or doubting.

448. It refers to the speaker's emotional influence on the audience. Its goal is to create a favourable
emotional affection in the audience towards the objective of the speech.

A. Ethos B. Logos

C. Pathos D. None of the above

PATHOS, or the appeal to emotion, refers to persuading an audience by intentionally invoking

specific emotions in order to make them feel the way the author wants them to.

449. Greek theatre has its beginnings in religious ceremonies to the god .

A. Zeus B. Apollo

C. Poseidon D. Dionysus

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Greek theater arose from religious events honoring the god DIONYSUS, the god of wine and
fertility. Dionysus festivals featured music, dance, and dramatic performances, which eventually
developed into the ancient Greek theatrical tradition. Dionysus was connected with ecstasy,
revelry, and life celebrations, making him an appropriate deity for the beginnings of Greek theater.

450. A group of two or more actors, holding scripts, perform a scene or piece of literature with a limited
range of movement.

A. Oral reading B. Cold reading

C. Chorale reading D. Reader's theater

READER'S THEATER is a type of performance in which a group of actors hold scripts and play out
a scene or piece of literature using a limited range of movement. This style of theater emphasizes
the spoken word, and actors rely on their reading abilities to communicate the characters' feelings
and intents. It is distinct from oral reading, which normally entails one person reading aloud, and
cold reading, which involves reading a script for the first time with no prior preparation. Audition
scenes are specific scenes utilized during auditions, although reader's theater is a more general
phrase for this style of performance.

451. In the early 1400's, the Japanese performed a very stylized and graceful form of theatre called
Theatre, in which the actors always wore masks.

A Kabuki B. Bunraku

C. Noh D. Hanamichi

NOH THEATER, a classic Japanese theatrical form, dates back to the 14th century. One of the
distinguishing aspects of Noh Theatre's stylized and beautiful performances is the actors' constant
use of masks.

KABUKI THEATER is another type of Japanese theater that does not employ masks.

BUNRAKU is a form of puppet theater.

The term HANAMICHI refers to a pathway in Kabuki theater.

452. Which play is not one of Shakespeare's tragedies?

A. Romeo and Juliet B. A Midsummer Night's Dream

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C. Macbeth D. Hamlet

A MIDSUMMER NIGHT'S DREAM is NOT among SHAKESPEARE'S TRAGEDIES. It is a comedy

about love, magic, and mistaken identity. Death, betrayal, and the main character's downfall are
common motifs throughout Shakespeare's tragedies. Shakespeare's tragedies include Romeo and
Juliet, Macbeth, and Hamlet.

453. What does the term "Legitimate Theatre" mean?

A. The show is approved by the state court.

B. The show has no musical numbers in it with dancing and singing.

C. The show is a play about the legal system.

D. The show has a seal of approval on it.

The word "LEGITIMATE THEATER" refers to a theatrical presentation that does not feature
musical numbers, dancing, or singing. This phrase differentiates traditional plays and dramas from
musicals and other types of entertainment that include singing and dancing.

454. Which of the below parts is not considered one of the six basic parts of dramatic structure, according
to Aristotle?

A. Plot B. Symbolism

C. A royal main character D. Music

ARISTOTLE'S SIX FUNDAMENTAL COMPONENTS of dramatic structure DO NOT INCLUDE

SYMBOLISM. Aristotle identified six fundamental components of dramatic structure: plot,
character, theme, dialogue, music, and spectacle. On the other hand, symbolism is a literary
device that uses symbols to convey ideas or attributes. Although symbolism can be found in
dramatic works, Aristotle does not regard it as an essential structural component.

455. What term means one actor alone on stage, speaking a series of lines aloud in order to reveal a
character's innermost thoughts?

A. Aside B. Soliloquy

C. Monologue D. Ensemble

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An actor performing alone on stage and reciting a number of lines loudly to express the innermost
thoughts of a character is known as a SOLILOQUY. This dramatic tactic aims to reveal a
character's feelings, goals, and motivations.

A soliloquy gives the character the opportunity to communicate their ideas and emotions without
interference from other characters, in contrast to an ASIDE, which is a short statement addressed
to the audience or another character.

On the other hand, a MONOLOGUE refers to a long speech a character delivers on stage to other
characters.

456. This type of Philippine theater is one of the most popular types in the Philippines, the Moros y
Cristianos, which is not surprising for a country that was under Spanish rule for 300 years.

A. Epic poetry B. Duplo

C. Moro-moro D. Senakulo

During the Spanish colonial period in the Philippines, a drama known as MORO-MORO gained
popularity, portraying the Moros as eternal villains consistently defeated by Christians. The
drama portrays battles between Christians and Moros, the term Filipino Muslims prefer to use.

457. This is a type of melodrama, usually in three acts, that uses alternately spoken and sung words.

A. Sarsuwela B. Duplo

C. Bodabil D. Senakulo

SARSUWELA is a type of melodrama, usually in three acts, that uses alternately spoken and sung
words. Walang Sugat, by Sevino Reyes, is an example of sarsuela.

458. This type of Philippine theater is a poetic debate presented through song and dance that originated
from indigenous courtship customs.

A. Epic poetry B. Duplo

C. Moro-moro D. Senakulo

DUPLO is a poetical argument between trained men and women on the ninth night, the final night
of the deceased's mourning period.

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459. This is a dramatization of the life and death of Jesus Christ and is usually presented as a community
activity during the Lenten season.

A. Sarsuwela B. Duplo

C. Bodabil D. Senakulo

The SENAKULO, or CENACULO, is the staged re-enactment of Christ’s passion and death.

460. Mr. Alvarez adjusts his message according to his audience and the occasion to achieve a particular
effect. On what model did he base his speech?

A. Shannon-Weaver’s B. Osgood-Schramm’s

C. Eugene White’s D. Aristotle’s

Mr. Alvarez tailors his speech to the audience and circumstances in order to generate a certain
effect. This is consistent with ARISTOTLE'S COMMUNICATION PARADIGM, which emphasizes
the need to customize the message to the TARGET AUDIENCE AND SITUATION. Aristotle felt that
effective communication entails understanding the audience's needs, interests, and ideals, as well
as tailoring the message to the unique setting or occasion. Mr. Alvarez applies Aristotle's
principles of effective communication by tailoring his message to his audience and situation.

Effective communication requires the sender and receiver to have a common field of experience,
according to OSGOOD-SCHRAMM'S COMMUNICATION PARADIGM. This means that both parties
should have common information, beliefs, and experiences that allow them to accurately interpret
each other's communications. This paradigm understands that effective communication entails
not only transferring information but also a common understanding and interpretation of the
message.

According to EUGENE WHITE, the MOST CRUCIAL CONCEPT in his paradigm is FEEDBACK.
Feedback is important in communication because it allows the sender to assess the efficacy of
their message and make adjustments as needed. Feedback provides the sender with valuable
insights, enabling them to improve their communication abilities and guarantee the recipient
understands the intended message. By considering feedback, the sender can improve the overall
communication process and obtain better results.

Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver devised the SHANNON-WEAVER MODEL OF

COMMUNICATION, popularly known as the "TELEPHONE MODEL," in 1949. This model sees
communication as a SEQUENTIAL PROCESS that includes a SENDER, a MESSAGE, a CHANNEL, a
RECIPIENT, and FEEDBACK. It emphasizes the significance of encoding and decoding signals, as
well as the possibility of noise or interference in the communication process.

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 CAMPUS JOURNALISM

• Apply concepts, principles and strategies in creative writing for traditional and new media.

461. It was produced and circulated on the brink of the revolution during the Spanish period, where Emilio
Jacinto was one of the editors. ***Actual September 2023 LET /Actual March 2024 LET

A. La Solidaridad B. Kalayaan

C. El Liliputiense D. The Manila Times

The name KALAYAAN was suggested by Dr. Pío Valenzuela, which was agreed upon both by
Bonifacio and Emilio Jacinto. It was the official newspaper of the Kataastaasang,
Kagalanggalangang Katipunan ng mga Anak ng Bayan (KKK), or Katipunan Even though
Valenzuela was chosen to become the editor of the organ, they all decided to use the name Marcelo
H. del Pilar as its editor. To fool the Spanish authorities, the Kalayaan also decided to carry a false
masthead stating that it was being printed in Yokohama, Japan.

462. Nameplates, ears, banners, running heads, and the like are found in what part of the campus paper?

A. front page B. backpage

C. head D. features page

Nameplates, ears, banners, running heads, and the like are found on the FRONT PAGE of a campus
paper.

A NAMEPLATE is the engraved or printed name of the newspaper, such as the Manila Times or
PNC Torch.

EARS are the little boxes on either side of the nameplate.

The BANNER is the principal headline, bearing the boldest and biggest type. It is the title of the
most important news of the day, which is called banner news. It may or may not run across the
page. It does; it may also be called a streamer.

A RUNNING HEAD is a head made up of two or more lines.

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463. What is the Philippines Campus Journalism Act?

A. Journalism Act of 1991 B. Journalism Act of 1981

C. Journalism Act of 1983 D. Journalism Act of 1993

The Campus Journalism Act of 1991 in the Philippines is perhaps one of the strongest laws
protecting the rights of the youth, particularly student journalists, and preserving the integrity of
student publications.

464. The process when media people control the public access to news is called . ***Actual September
2023 LET

A. gate keeping B. channelling

C. correlating D. agenda setting

GATEKEEPING is the method by which a mediator can include or omit information before it
reaches an audience.

465. It is generally the process of assessing and filtering any literary piece or educational resource found to
be morally offensive or to have repulsive or abusive content.

A. filtration B. privacy

C. security D. censorship

CENSORSHIP is the practice of evaluating and screening any literary work or educational
resource judged to be morally objectionable, revolting, or abusive in nature. Censors scrutinize
and assess literature that a specific individual or organization has legitimately challenged.

466. It refers to a journalist's responsibility to not intervene or inflict harm on someone's privacy or
confidential matter until it is required to be brought to the attention of the public.

A. Legal Responsibility

B. Professional Responsbility

C. Social Responsibility

D. Personal Responsibility

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While working as a journalist, one should be well-versed in all legal aspects that could cause
complications or problems in any way. As a result, a journalist must not intrude on or violate
someone's privacy or confidentiality unless it is necessary to bring it to the public's attention. Any
libelous or defamatory presentation made by someone, any organization, or any group is not
permitted and should be carefully avoided by the journalist. Libelous and defamatory texts or
photographs may impact or resonate with the public with more acceptance, but they are not
relevant and do not meet professional standards.

467. What is called a feature story that is based on timely news happening?

A. News feature B. Historical essay

C. Personality sketch D. Human interest feature

A NEWS FEATURE is a kind of story that focuses on a hard-news topic. It combines a feature
writing style with hard news reporting.

468. Which part of the news story gives you the gist of the news story?

A. Intro B. Lead

C. Head D. Topic sentence

A LEAD is a beginning paragraph that conveys the most crucial facts about a news item in a clear
and straightforward manner while sustaining the readers' interest.

469. Which of the following parts of a feature story primarily leaves a punch for the reader?

A. nut graph B. body of the article

C. introduction D. ending statement

The ENDING OF A FEATURE STORY should leave the reader with a lasting impression, whether
it's a reference to the lede, a thought-provoking moment, or a surprising twist.

A NUT GRAPH is a paragraph that summarizes a story's major ideas.

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470. This characteristic of a news item highlights the story's newest angle. For instance, the change in the
grading system, which was announced yesterday, is more appealing to a student than the Christmas Party
last December.

A. Proximity or Nearness

B. Timelines or Immediacy

C. Conflict

D. Prominence

IMMEDIACY or TIMELINESS: This element emphasizes the newest angle of the story. The more
recent the event, the more captivating it is to the reader.

CONFLICT: This may include physical or mental conflict, such as man versus man, man versus
animals, man versus nature, or man versus himself.

PROXIMITY or NEARNESS: This may refer to geographical nearness, as well as the nearness of
kinship or interest.

PROMINENCE: Some people are more prominent than others for reasons of wealth, social
position, or achievements.

471. What is hard news?

A. News that covers hard-to-understand topics.

B. News based on opinions rather than facts.

C. News that affects an entire group of people.

D. The only kind of news there is.

HARD NEWS is news that has an immense EFFECT ON A LARGE NUMBER OF INDIVIDUALS.
Hard news does not limit itself to discussing difficult topics or expressing opinions. Hard news, on
the other hand, focuses on presenting facts and events that are important to the public and have
the potential to touch a large number of people. This form of news frequently covers politics, the
economy, disasters, and important social issues.

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472. Which kind of writing is considered the highest expression of press freedom in different newspapers
in the Philippines?

A. Editorial B. Feature

C. News D. Column

EDITORIAL WRITING tackles recent events and issues, and attempts to formulate viewpoints
based on an objective analysis of happenings and conflicting/contrary opinions.

473. The news editor gives a news reporter a specific assignment where he can uncover news items. This is
a technically termed as .

A. News alert B. Reportage

C. Beat D. Development news

BEAT reporting is a specialized form of journalism in which a reporter covers a specific subject, or
"beat," on a consistent and ongoing basis. A beat can encompass a wide range of topics, such as
politics, education, healthcare, technology, entertainment, sports, or any other area of interest.

474. Which of the following refers to the general format of a news story?

A. Inverted triangle style

B. Triangle style

C. Dual-triangle style

D. Any of the above styles may do

The term "INVERTED PYRAMID OR INVERTED TRIANGLE" in journalism describes a narrative

structure in which the most significant information—or even what could be deemed the
conclusion—is presented first. A story begins with the who, what, when, where, and why.
Supporting elements and background information come next.

Inverted pyramid writing is a technique used by writers to make sure readers understand what is
most important to them. In this manner, readers who are unable to read written works in their
entirety or who are skimming them will nevertheless retain the important information the author
intended to convey.

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475. Yellow journalism is publishing .

A. what has passed through the editor's analysis

B. what is of the interest to the public even at the expense of commercial loss

C. little by little of what the public needs to know

D. whatever most easily interests the majority

Sensationalized news articles are the definition of YELLOW JOURNALISM. It is more concerned
with attracting people than it is with accuracy. It frequently makes use of big headlines, lots of
images, and emotive language.

476. What is a cutline?

A. The lines that draw your attention in a photo

B. A false quote from a source

C. A delete mark in an edited writing

D. A caption that tells you what a photo is about

"CUTLINE" is jargon for "CAPTION," which is the text that appears alongside a photograph. Copy
editors typically prepare newspaper cutlines using the photographer's provided information. The
style of font is usually sans serif. Cutlines are typically written in the present tense.

477. An indirect quotation

A. presents less than a full sentence of the speaker’s exact words in quotation marks

B. presents a single word used by the speaker and placed in quotation marks

C. presents the speaker’s ideas but in the reporter’s words

D. presents the speaker’s exact words in quotation marks

Reporting something someone said or wrote without using their exact words is known as an
INDIRECT QUOTE. It's similar to paraphrasing, but all you have to do is change words just enough
to make the assertion fit grammatically into your phrase.

Option A, “presents less than a full sentence of the speaker’s exact words in quotation marks,"
describes a PARTIAL QUOTATION.

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Option D, “presents the speaker’s exact words in quotation marks” characterizes a DIRECT
QUOTATION.

478. Which of the following is the best example of a headline for HARD NEWS?

A. Police Storm Sydney Cafe, Ending 16-Hour Hostage Siege

B. Philippines, Who Are We?

C. Toppers take week off before bowl prep

D. Best traditional Thanksgiving recipes

A HARD NEWS STORY is one that is founded on factual investigation and covers major events
with practical, real-world implications. Option A is sort of hard news since it involves a hostage-
taking situation that affects a wide group of people.

479. Who is the Father of Philippine Journalism?

A. Jose Rizal B. Marcelo H. Del Pilar

C. Maximo Soliven D. Ninoy Aquino

The Diariong Tagalog, started by the father of Philippine journalism, Del Pilar, revealed the crimes
the Spanish friars had committed against the Filipino people in those days. Because they read Del
Pilar's articles, ordinary Filipinos rebelled against the friars.

480. What type of creative lead is in the following sentence? Six years ago, Mr. Maxwell’s son James fell
down a well, and he’s still climbing out.

A. Direct Quotation B. Compare/Contrast

C. Suspense/Teaser D. Allusion

The statement that Mr. Maxwell's son fell down a well six years ago and is still trying to get out of
it builds tension and curiosity. This makes it a suspenseful, teaser-type creative lead because it
leaves the reader guessing about the son's fate and what will happen next.

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 TECHNICAL WRITING

• Demonstrate proficiency in the written communication by writing and revising different technical
reports.

• Show technical and scientific writing skills necessary for co-function and communication across
disciplines.

481. This is used when the letter urgently needs to be received by the best person who can handle it.
Commonly, it is placed at the center.

A. Signature line B. Attention line

C. Urgent line D. Subject line

An ATTENTION LINE is used when the letter urgently needs to be received by the best person
who can handle it. Commonly, this is at the center.

SUBJECT LINES are used in short reports to let the reader know the content of the letter
immediately. It may be placed above or below the inside address; it may be flushed to the left,
indented, or centered.

The URGENT LINE is composed of the complete typewritten name of the writer and his or her
official designation, or the name of the company. It should be placed three to four spaces below to
complimentary close to allow enough space for the handwritten signature.

The SIGNATURE LINE is composed of the complete typewritten name of the writer and his or her
official designation, or the name of the company. It should be placed three to four spaces below to
complimentary close to allow enough space for the handwritten sign.

482. It is composed of the word "Dear" followed by the last name of the receiver of the letter. Use the colon
(American English) at the end of the salutation or comma (British English). For example, Dear Mr. Alcaraz:
or Dear Mr. Dela Cruz.

A. Salutation B. Letterhead

C. Inside Address D. Complimentary open

A SALUTATION is composed of the word "dear" followed by the last name of the recipient of the
letter. Use the colon (American English) at the end of the salutation or comma (British English).

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LETTERHEAD, which is part of a business letter, includes the company name, company mailing
address, and contact numbers. It may also contain the company logo or have their own
personalized letterhead exclusive to their employees's use.

The INSIDE ADDRESS consists of three, four, or five lines, which include the complete name as
well as the job title(s) of the receiver on the first line, the complete position of the receiver on the
second line, the complete division or department of the receiver on the fourth line, and the
complete name of the company or organization, followed by the complete address of the company
or organization.

483. Which of the following in NOT characteristics of technical writing?

A. Technical writing lacks the emotional impact

B. Technical writing avoids use of rich metaphors and figures of speech.

C. Typically sentence structures are simple and direct.

D. Technical writing is seen as imaginative and “fun”.

TECHNICAL WRITING is a type of communication that professionals employ to convey

knowledge about specific topics. A technical writer may create text to provide instructions or
explain technical topics such as environmental rules, computer programs, and medical
procedures.

Options A, B, and C are all characteristics of Technical writing. On the other hand, Option D
describes Creative writing since in Technical writing, it does not use any imaginative language.

484. A characteristic of a business letter refers to being direct and brief without compromising the
complete idea. In writing a business letter, we should not include unnecessary information that might
confuse the reader.

A. completeness B. correctness

C. conciseness D. coherence

CONCISENESS refers to being direct and brief without compromising the complete idea. In writing
a business information letter, we should not include unnecessary information that might confuse
the reader.

CORRECTNESS refers to the correct grammar, punctuation, spacing, information, and structure. It
also refers to the correct format of a business letter.

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COHERENCE refers to the smooth flow of ideas in a business letter. The content of a business
letter should be in order and simple to follow. Some of the devices that you may use to achieve
coherence are the use of synonyms, the use of transitional words, the use of pointers, the use of
repetition of words, and the use of sentence patterns.

COMPLETENESS refers to the inclusion of complete information. The business letter should
address the questions of WHO, WHAT, WHEN, WHERE, and HOW, in order to create a
comprehensive and effective document.

485. It deals with writing manuals to promote and support hardware and software that include user
operation or maintenance documentation for equipment, products, or services, etc.

A. Instructional designing B. Technical writing

C. Manual writing D. Technological writing

TECHNICAL WRITING is a type of communication that professionals employ to convey

knowledge about specific topics. A technical writer may create text to provide instructions or
explain technical topics such as environmental rules, computer programs, and medical
procedures.

486. What is the number one rule of technical writing?

A. Be consistent. B. Be innovative.

C. Use technical terms. D. Use few graphics.

The number one rule of technical writing is to be consistent. Consistency ensures that the
information presented is clear and simple to understand. It helps to avoid confusion and ensures
that the reader can follow the content smoothly. By maintaining a consistent style, format, and
tone throughout the document, technical writers can establish credibility and professionalism.
Additionally, consistency in the use of terminology and language helps to convey information
accurately and precisely

487. What is parallel structure?

A. The repetition of several words in several consecutive lines.

B. The use of the same verb in back to back phrases in a sentence.

C. The use of the same grammatical form when presenting ideas.

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D. The repetitive use of similar words in different paragraphs.

Using a PARALLEL STRUCTURE indicates that two or more ideas are equally important when
employing the same word arrangement. This may occur at the level of a word, phrase, or clause.
Example:

Not Parallel: Mary likes hiking, swimming, and to ride a bicycle.

Parallel: Mary likes hiking, swimming, and riding a bicycle.

488. What two items work together to create the tone of a document?

A. Spelling and punctuation

B. Theme and topic

C. Organization and coherence

D. Purpose and audience

The appropriate tone for a document depends on its PURPOSE AND TARGET AUDIENCE. The
audience represents the intended readers or recipients of the text, while the purpose signifies the
motivation behind its creation. A document should tailor its tone to the purpose and audience to
effectively communicate the intended content and captivate readers. Therefore, the aim and
readership of a text shape its tone.

489. Which of the following best describes the difference between proofreading and editing?

A. They're the same thing. There aren't any differences.

B. The purpose of proofreading is to find mechanical errors, while editing is done to polish the
content and style of the document.

C. The purpose of proofreading is to make sure the content of the document is correct, while the purpose of
editing is to make sure the formatting is correct.

D. The purpose of proofreading is to make sure the document is complete. The purpose of editing is to
make sure all of the mechanics are complete.

The writing process has two separate phases: editing and proofreading. PROOFREADING is
primarily concerned with finding and fixing mechanical problems like spelling, grammar, and
punctuation. EDITING entails enhancing the content's general quality and clarity, honing the
writing style, and making sure the text is coherent and consistent throughout. Therefore, the

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statement "The purpose of editing is to polish the content and style of the document, while
proofreading is to find mechanical errors" accurately captures the essential distinction between
editing and proofreading.

490. How do training guides differ from user manuals?

A. Training guides have pictures; user manuals don't.

B. Training guides don't cover as much information as user manuals.

C. Training guides are read from front to back; user manuals are used to look up information.

D. Training guides are typically better organized than user manuals.

TRAINING GUIDES offer users comprehensive instructions and direction on how to acquire
specific skills or procedures, and are meant to be read in a sequential manner from start to finish.
Conversely, user MANUALS serve as reference materials that users can resort to when looking for
certain details or instructions. User manuals should serve as a quick reference guide, not a
comprehensive read. Consequently, the claim that we use user manuals for information retrieval
and read training guides cover to cover elucidates the distinction between the two.

491. The first step, engrossed in writing instructions, was regarded as:

A. Organization of steps

B. Clarifying the audience

C. Reviewing instruction criteria

D. Detailed analysis

To ensure their effectiveness, it's critical to define the audience when writing instructions. This
entails knowing who will read the instructions and do as directed. By making the audience clear,
the writer can adjust the language, level of detail, and examples used in the directions to best suit
the intended readers. This guarantees that the intended audience will be able to easily
understand, comprehend, and follow the instructions.

492. This is the most common style of punctuating a business letter, which includes punctuation on
salutation and complementary close only.

A. Open punctuation B. Close Punctuation

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C. Standard Punctuation D. Mixed Punctuation

STANDARD PUNCTUATION is the most common style of punctuating a business letter, which
includes punctuation on salutation and complimentary close only. The punctuation on salutation
is a colon, while on complimentary close, it's a comma.

MIXED PUNCTUATION is the format that uses a comma (British Style) or colon (American Style)
after the salutation and a comma after the complimentary close.

In writing a business letter, OPEN PUNCTUATION does not include any punctuation after any part
of the letter except the body of the letter or the message.

493. At the Christmas concert, the soprano solo in 'O Holy Night' was sung by a woman from our church' is
an example of which of the following?

A. A sentence written in present progressive tense

B. A sentence written in active voice

C. A sentence written in passive voice

D. A sentence written in future perfect tense

In the PASSIVE VOICE, the action’s target, 'soprano solo’, is positioned first as the focus of the sentence.
The sentence gets flipped, and the subject is now being acted upon by the verb. In other words, the subject
is passive:

At the Christmas concert, the soprano solo in 'O Holy Night' was sung by a woman from our church’

In the active voice, the subject is performing an action:

A woman from our church sang the soprano solo in 'O Holy Night' at the Christmas concert.

Notice how the subject, “woman,” is performing the action, sang, on the target of the action, “soprano solo.”
This is a simple, direct example of the active voice.

494. This style is another unique style of writing a business letter. The first line of each paragraph is aligned
with the inside address and salutation flushed to the left. The lines succeeding the first line are indented
five spaces. It usually uses standard punctuation.

A. Modified Block Style

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B. Indented Style

C. Hanging-Indented Style

D. Full Block Style

HANGING-INDENTED STYLE is another unique style of writing a business letter. The first line of
each paragraph is aligned with the inside address and salutation flushed to the left. The lines
succeeding the first line are indented with five spaces. It usually uses standard punctuation.

MODIFIED BLOCK STYLE places the inside address and all paragraphs at the left-hand margin,
while the heading, dateline, complimentary close, and signature line are slightly to the right of the
middle part of the paper.

INDENTED STYLE makes use of indentions, which have an uneven number of spaces in various
elements of the letter. Nowadays, this style is rarely used because of the complexity of arranging
the different elements of the letter.

FULL-BLOCK STYLE some make use of open punctuation, and some do not. All parts of this
business letter start at the left margin.

TECHNOLOGY IN LANGUAGE EDUCATION

• Demonstrate knowledge and skills in the design, production, utilization and evaluation of ICT
materials for teaching and learning.

495. Which situation shows that technology can be used to motivate students to learn?

A. Teacher Eric employs educational games related to the lesson they are taking.

B. Miss Cleo designs lessons which use cooperative learning with technology integration.

C. Mr. Jimmy utilizes computer assisted instruction programs so that students will learn at their own pace.

D. Teacher Sarah assigns projects to her class where self-expression and creativity is acknowledged.

Research shows that individualized digital educational games boost learners outcomes,
contentment, and general appreciation of the educational experience. Digital educational games
allow instructors to foster deep involvement by successfully motivating learners throughout the
course of instruction.

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496. According to Bruner's Theory of Cognitive Development, which of the following is NOT a mode of
thinking?

A. Enactive B. Numeric

C. Iconic D. Symbolic

JEROME BRUNER recognized three stages of cognitive representation, which include: The
enactive stage relates to the expression of knowledge through actions. The primary premise is
"learn by doing." They learn by performing bodily actions and storing information in memory.
Iconic stage: a visual summary of images. The learner accumulates sensory images, particularly
visual ones. The symbolic stage involves using words and other symbols to explain experiences.
Memory stores the experience in the form of symbols or language.

497. Teachers should be able to transform the subject matter for teaching, such as finding multiple ways to
represent materials and adapting them to meet the need of their students.

A. Technological Knowledge

B. Content Knowledge

C. Technological Content Knowledge

D. Pedagogical Content Knowledge

PEDAGOGICAL CONTENT KNOWLEDGE refers to teachers' knowledge and understanding of how

to teach a specific subject. It entails learning how to present the subject in many ways, adjusting it
to match the needs and skills of the students, and understanding the common misconceptions and
issues that students may face. In this context, the term implies that teachers must possess PCK in
order to effectively convert the subject matter and meet their students' needs.

498. Which of the following are the examples of Learning Management System (LMS)?

I. Kahoot

II. Canvas

III. Canva

IV. Moodle

V. Padlet

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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A. II and IV only B. I, II, and III only

C. II, III, and V only D. II and III only

CANVAS is a learning management system (LMS) that offers educational institutions an online platform for
course management, content creation and delivery, and student engagement.

MOODLE is a learning management system (LMS) that provides educators with a versatile and
configurable platform for creating and managing online courses, assignments, and exams.

KAHOOT is not an LMS. It's an interactive platform for making and playing learning games, quizzes, and
surveys.

CANVA is not an LMS. It is a graphic design application that allows you to create a variety of visual content,
including presentations, social media graphics, posters, and more.

PADLET is not an LMS. It is an online collaboration application that enables users to create virtual bulletin
boards and engage with others by incorporating various multimedia elements.

499. Who developed the first concept of TPACK?

A. Punya Mishra B. Matthew J. Kohler

C. Lee Schulman D. None of the above

The concept of TPACK, or Technological Pedagogical Content Knowledge, originated with LEE
SCHULMAN. The TPACK framework stresses the integration of technology, pedagogy, and subject
knowledge in education. Schulman's work on TPACK emphasizes the need for instructors to
understand and be able to effectively employ technology in their teaching practices while also
taking into account their students' particular content and pedagogical needs.

500. It is a part of educational technology that refers to those aspects of educational technology that are
concerned with instructions as opposed to the designs and operations of educational institutions.

A. Technology in education

B. Instructional technology

C. Technology integration

D. Educational media

INSTRUCTIONAL TECHNOLOGY is the correct answer because it refers to the components of

educational technology that are concerned with instruction rather than the general design and

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operation of educational institutions. This phrase refers to the use of technology to improve and
assist teaching and learning, which includes the creation and implementation of instructional
materials, tools, and methodologies. It entails carefully integrating technology into educational
processes in order to improve student results and enrich the teaching process.

501. It is a visual model, a pictorial device that presents bands of experience arranged according to degree
of abstraction and not degree of difficulty.

A. Cone of experience

B. Contrived experience

C. Direct purposeful experience

D. Educational experience

EDGAR DALE'S THE CONE OF EXPERIENCE is a visual concept that depicts several levels of
experience, organized according to their level of abstraction rather than difficulty. It is a visual aid
for understanding the various types of experiences that might occur, ranging from direct,
deliberate experiences to artificial experiences. This paradigm aids in visualizing and categorizing
educational events according to their level of abstraction.

502. Learning basic concepts that lead to a more complex and sophisticated version of the general concepts
entails the development of the teachers’ TPACK. Which of the following is or is not considered a role of
TPACK in the language classroom?

I. This will further strengthen retention and enhance mastery of topics and skills in language as they are
revisited and consolidated time and again.

II. This allows the learners to learn topics and skills appropriate to their developmental and cognitive skills
in the field of communication.

III. It prohibits the learners from experimenting with the various technologies available for language
learning.

IV. It encourages the teachers to explore various pedagogical strategies with the support of modern
technological apps for language lessons.

A. I and IV only B. III only

C. II, III and IV only D. I and III only

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Options I, II, and IV are all TPACK roles in the language classroom. The word "prohibits" is what
makes Option III incorrect.

503. Which of the following plans may be least learner centered?

A. Instructional plan B. Unit plan

C. Lesson plan D. Activity plan

INSTRUCTIONAL PLAN: Instructional planning strives to efficiently coordinate educational

activities. It includes the process of planning appropriate curricula, instructional practices, and
resources to meet the different needs of learners. It is more based on a teacher-centered approach
than a learner-centered approach because teachers organize the instructions solely to evaluate
teaching approaches.

UNIT PLAN: A teacher's success in teaching is dependent on proper unit preparation. This is
based on learner-centered instruction. Unit planning can be one of the most interesting and
fulfilling experiences for a teacher, since it requires him or her to tie societal and professional
values to the learner's knowledge, subject matter expertise, and teaching technique knowledge.

LESSON PLAN: Planning for instruction is an essential aspect of a teacher's daily instructional
activities. Lesson plans outline the learning objectives, content, methods, materials and
equipment, application, and evaluation for each lesson given. Such preparation prepares a teacher
to teach and is extremely beneficial to substitute instructors, who must know what and how to
teach. The first step in lesson preparation is to assess the topic's contents in terms of concepts,
principles, laws, theories, and so on. The second step is to create learning objectives based on the
content analysis. Then, you can create relevant learning activities and ways for collecting feedback
on student learning.

ACTIVITY PLAN: Teachers develop activities for children to carry out, which become the child's
medium of learning rather than just the textbook. The primary goal of the activity plan is to
promote the holistic development of learners.

504. Which is the consideration of the disparity between those who have access to modern digital tools like
computers and the internet and those who don’t?

A. Understanding User Data

B. Acknowledging the Digital Divide

C. Practicing Digital Wellness

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D. Empathy

The digital divide refers to the difference between people who have access to contemporary
information and communication technology and those who do not.

505. The technology that is arranged from the most symbolic to multisensory is .

A. Real objects, print, audio-visual materials, and visual materials.

B. Visual materials, audiovisual materials, print and computers.

C. Visual materials, print, audio-visual materials, and regalia.

D. Print, audio, visual materials, and computers.

The correct answer is "Print, audio, visual materials, and computers." This arrangement starts
with print, which is a symbolic form of technology that relies on written words and symbols to
convey information. Next is audio, which adds a sound element to enhance the learning
experience. Visual materials come next, which include images, charts, and diagrams to provide
visual representations of information. Finally, we mention computers, regarded as the most
multisensory form of technology due to their ability to integrate text, images, audio, and
interactive elements, thereby engaging multiple senses in the learning process.

506. Which of the following correctly describes MOOCs?

A. Flexible and open form of self-directed online learning designed for mass participation.

B. Flexible and open form of self-directed, off-line learning designed for mass participation.

C. Flexible and open form of teacher-directed, online learning designed for mass participation.

D. Flexible and open form of teacher-directed, off-line learning designed for mass participation.

A MASSIVE OPEN ONLINE COURSES (MOOCs) is a model for delivering online learning content to
anyone who wants to take a course, with no limit on attendance.

507. What are the steps of ADDIE Model?

A. Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation

B. Analysis, Development, Design, Implementation, and Evaluation

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C. Application, Development, Design, Implementation, and Evaluation

D. Application, Design, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation

ADDIE is a learning model utilized by educators and trainers to generate successful educational
experiences. ADDIE stands for the five stages of the development procedure: analysis, design,
development, implementation, and evaluation. The ADDIE paradigm prioritizes completing each
step in the prescribed order, while also emphasizing reflection and iteration.

ANALYSIS: Originally, the goal of the analysis stage was to examine the tasks related to training.

DESIGN AND DEVELOPMENT: The design stage focuses on both the design of the learning
experience and the materials needed to support the experience. And good design builds on the
analysis's findings.

IMPLEMENTATION: The implementation stage consists of executing and delivering the designed
content.

EVALUATION: The Evaluation stage is used to assess the quality and effectiveness of the entire
instructional design process.

508. There should be a focus on those learner characteristics that are associated with the learning
outcomes desired. This statement explains which step in the ASSURE model?

A. Analyze your learners

B. Select Strategies, Technology, Media, and Materials

C. Require Learner Participation

D. State Standards and Objectives

ASSURE is an instructional design paradigm that aims to enhance the effectiveness of teaching and
learning.

ANALYZE LEARNERS: The first phase of the procedure is for the teacher to assess the
characteristics of her students. Focus should be on student characteristics that align with the
targeted learning outcomes. The information acquired will help you make judgments about the
next phases of the process. When you know what type of learners you have, you may choose
unique tactics and tools to help them learn.

STATE STANDARDS AND OBJECTIVES: After analyzing the student attributes, the teacher must
establish the learning module criteria and objectives. This statement specifies what learners will
be able to perform as a result of the teaching.

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SELECT STRATEGIES, TECHNOLOGY, MEDIA, AND MATERIALS: The second "s" in the acronym
refers to select strategies, technology, media, and materials. Given your learning objectives, you
must choose instructional methodologies, technology, and media that will achieve the desired
results.

UTILIZE TECHNOLOGY, MEDIA, AND MATERIALS: This step in the ASSURE process is creating a
plan for how you will use the technology, media, and materials you have chosen. As with other
instructional processes, you must ensure that your plans contribute to achieving the objectives
you have set.

REQUIRE LEARNER PARTICIPATION: This step actually belongs in the previous steps. It
demands that you determine how you are going to involve your students in the content that you
are teaching. This needs to be determined at both the class and individual levels.

EVALUATE AND REVISE: The final phase in the ASSURE process is equally important as the
others. This step involves assessing the impact of your teaching on student learning. This includes
an evaluation of your teaching tactics, as well as the technology, media, and resources you
employed.

509. Which of the following are the logical steps for an instruction design system under MOOCs (Massive
Online Open Courses)?

I. Policy Analysis

II. Needs Analysis

III. Content Analysis

IV. Learner Analysis

V. Assignment Analysis

A. I, II, and III B. II, III, and IV

C. III, IV, and V D. I, IV, and V

In MOOCs or any instructional design system, the logical processes often include the following:

II. NEED ANALYSIS: This stage entails determining the learning goals and requirements of the
intended audience or learners. It assists in pinpointing the specific information, skills, or abilities
that the instructional design must encompass.

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III. CONTENT ANALYSIS: This step involves going over the material or topic matter that will be
covered in the course. It aids in logically arranging and structuring the content, ensuring that it is
consistent with the learning objectives and instructional goals.

IV. LEARNER ANALYSIS: This process entails examining the features, backgrounds, and learning
preferences of the intended audience or learners. It aids in identifying the learners' prior
knowledge, skills, learning styles, and any unique requirements or obstacles they may face. This
analysis informs the instructional design process, resulting in more effective learning experiences.

POLICY ANALYSIS: While policy analysis is an important factor when building educational
programs, it may not be a direct step in the instructional design process for MOOCs. Policies may
impact the implementation and delivery of MOOCs, but they may not be actively involved in the
early planning stages.

ASSIGNMENT ANALYSIS: Despite their critical role in the instructional design process,
evaluations and assignments typically fall under the implementation phase, not the initial design
stages. Creating appropriate assessments or activities that align with the learning objectives and
enable students to apply their knowledge can be part of assignment analysis.

510. A teacher's goal is to provide her students with an understanding of the history of the English
language and the ways in which culture and society have influenced its evolution through technology. What
technology from the list below do you think would work best for this task?

A. Simulation software B. Animated video

C. Virtual reality D. Graphic design software

VIRTUAL REALITY (VR) is a computer-generated environment featuring realistic-looking scenes

and objects that immerse the viewer in their surroundings. Users perceive this environment
through a virtual reality headset or helmet.

SIMULATION SOFTWARE is based on simulations of real-world phenomena. It allows the user to

simulate an operation rather than do it.

ANIMATED VIDEOS are videos developed with creative designs, drawings, sketches, or computer-
generated effects that move in a visually appealing manner employing any variety of artistic
methods.

GRAPHIC DESIGN software is a program or group of tools that allows users to visually alter
images or models on a computer.

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 TRANSLATION AND EDITING OF TEXT

• Show knowledge and understanding of basic theories, principles, methods and approaches as applied
to the writing and editing of various types of texts.

• Apply principles and strategies in translating texts of various types from English to another language
or from other Philippine languages to English

511. Which perspective considers the speaker and his/her background when translating text? ***Actual
March 2024 LET

A. Communicative B. Philological

C. Linguistic D. Socio-semiotic

Halliday argues that it is impossible to separate language from society. He views language as
a'social semiotic', requiring a social context to understand language as a method of human
interaction. Language and society are a cohesive idea that must be explored as a whole.

512. What method is best for translating technical or scientific texts?

A. Literal translation B. Free translation

C. Cultural substitution D. Transposition

LITERAL TRANSLATION is the most direct and accurate technique to render the source text into
the target language, with no adjustments or adaptations. It maintains the original structure,
syntax, and terminology of the source text while avoiding adding or removing any material. This
method is appropriate for scientific publications with high correctness and consistency, such
as legal, technical, or medical materials. However, literal translation might produce strange,
difficult, or ambiguous expressions in the target language, particularly when the source and
destination languages differ culturally, linguistically, or conceptually. As a result, literal translation
should be employed with caution and only when the context and purpose of the translation permit
it.

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513. The following statements describe the Semiotic Approach in translation, EXCEPT for one:

A. It centers on the study of signs and their meanings.

B. It considers translation as a process of interpreting texts, where the interplay between signs, objects, and
interpreters gives rise to meaning.

C. In this perspective, each sociocultural context is seen as unique, and the translator acts as an interpreter
of these unique semiotic landscapes.

D. It suggests that a translator is inevitably influenced by their societal background, shaping their
choices in selection, filtering, translation studies and even censorship during the translation
process.

Options A, B, and C describe Semiotic Approach in translation.

Option D describes Sociolinguistic Approach in translation.

514. Which of the following translation techniques works best when translating idiomatic expressions of
English into another language?

A. Literal translation B. Free translation

C. Cultural substitution D. Transposition

CULTURAL SUBSTITUTION is the translation of some known or unknown ideas in the source
language using a substitution from the recipient language's culture rather than other techniques of
meaning equivalency.

TRANSPOSITION is a change from one grammatical category to another while retaining the
meaning. This translation strategy is frequently required between languages with distinct
grammatical structures.

515. This kind of translation is appropriate for scientific documents intended to reach a larger or less
specialized readership, such as popular science articles, educational materials, or public outreach
documents.

A. Literal translation B. Free translation

C. Functional translation D. Machine translation

FREE TRANSLATION is the inverse of literal translation. It focuses on expressing the meaning and
message of the source material in the target language rather than copying its form or structure. It

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permits the translator to make adjustments, alterations, or simplifications to the source text while
maintaining its content and intent. This strategy is appropriate for scientific publications
intended to attract a broader or less specialized readership, such as popular science articles,
educational resources, or public outreach documents. However, free translation can lead to a
loss of accuracy, consistency, or detail in the target language, particularly if the translator makes
subjective or arbitrary choices. Therefore, one should use free translation cautiously and only
when the context and goal of the translation warrant it.

516. What translation theory believes that the shape of the target language should be determined by the
function that it is intended to fulfill in the target context?

A. Skopos theory B. Linguistic theory

C. Philological theory D. text-type theory

The Greek word "SKOPOS" means "purpose." Vermeer coined the term "skopos," signifying a
functional approach to translation. Translations should align with the target audience's values,
expectations, life experiences, and cultural conventions. Outputs should represent the original
material's intended goal and impact, not the specific words or linguistic style.

PHILOLOGICAL THEORIES are based on 'philology' (the study of language's development) and
classical literary studies. They are mostly concerned with the comparison of structures in local
and foreign languages, namely functional correspondence and literary genres, as well as stylistics
and rhetoric.

517. Which of the following statements best describes Functional translation?

A. It follows the principle of equivalence, which means that the translation should produce the same
response or impact in the target audience as the source text did in the source audience.

B. It relies on algorithms, databases, and artificial intelligence to process and generate the translation.

C. It preserves the original structure, syntax, and terminology of the source text, and avoids adding or
omitting any information.

D. It involves using machine translation as a first step, and then editing, revising, or correcting the output
by a human translator.

FUNCTIONAL TRANSLATION is a mix of literal and free translation. It aims to strike a balance
between the form and meaning of the source text in the target language, while also considering the
function and effect of the translation. It adheres to the equivalence principle, which states that
the translation should elicit the same response or impression in the target audience as the

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original text did in the source audience. This strategy works well for scientific publications with
a specified purpose or objective, such as persuading, enlightening, or training the intended
audience, such as proposals, presentations, or manuals. However, functional translation can lead
to challenges or quandaries in determining the proper equivalent in the target language,
particularly if there are cultural, linguistic, or conceptual differences between the source and
target languages. Therefore, it is important to use functional translation cautiously and only when
it is necessary for the translation's context and goal.

Option B describes Machine translation.

Option C describes Literal translation.

Option D describes Human-assisted machine translation.

518. It checks for the quality of the manuscript, or proof, before mass production. The focus is the language
and the layout of the manuscript.

A. Copy-Editing B. Editing

C. Proofreading D. Translation of Text

PROOF READING occurs after the manuscript has been printed. A professional proofreader then
examines the manuscript's final copy, or proof. The proofreader's role is to ensure the book's
quality before it goes into mass production.

519. The process of checking for mistakes, inconsistencies, and repetition; the polishing of your manuscript
before publication; it is also used to remove the obstacles between the readers and what the author wants
to convey.

A. Copy-Editing B. Editing

C. Proof-Reading D. Translation of Text

COPYEDITING is the practice of checking for errors, inconsistencies, and repetitions. This
procedure polishes your manuscript and prepares it for publication.

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520. It prioritizes meaning translation over literal language, regarding language as a tool for conveying the
message rather than an end in itself. This technique promotes deverbalization, emphasizing that expressing
meaning is critical.

A. Hermeneutic Approach B. Sociolinguistic Approach

C. Communicative Approach D. Semiotic Approach

Scholars Danica Seleskovitch and Marianne Lederer developed the COMMUNICATIVE

APPROACH, also known as interpretive or descriptive translation studies, based on their
experience in conference interpreting. It emphasizes the translation of meaning rather than literal
language, viewing language as a conduit for the message rather than an end in itself. This
approach advocates for deverbalization, emphasizing that conveying meaning is paramount.

George Steiner's HERMENEUTIC APPROACH considers all human communication to be a type of

translation. In "After Babel," Steiner argues that translation is an "exact art" rather than a science.
He believes that a skilled translator should be able to write in order to capture the actual essence
of what the original author intended to express.

CREATIVE WRITING

• Apply theories, concepts, principles, and techniques in creative writing to include biographical
sketches, fiction, creative nonfiction, and poetry.

521. What is the process done when you say 'shampoo' instead of 'Sunsilk'? ***Actual September 2023 LET /
March 2024 LET

A. displacement B. recursiveness

C. concreteness D. transformation

CONCRETE language helps readers grasp what you're writing about, whether it's a location, an
event, a person, or another issue, by providing precise specifics and particular identifying
information. Without precise language, writing can appear ambiguous, confused, or uninspiring.

522. Which of the following non-fiction texts presents a life story written by the character himself?

A. Biography B. Autobiography

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C. Personal narrative D. Reflection paper

AUTOBIOGRAPHIES are books in which individuals write about their own lives. They are
nonfiction, which means they are true and describe actual individuals and situations; nevertheless,
they are also literary, which means they build up their characters, stories, and locations in the
same way that fiction books do.

523. Which of the following sentences contains Litotes? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. You are not as young as you used to be.

B. She is as beautiful as a blooming rose.

C. The stars in the night sky are countless.

D. He ran as fast a lighting.

LITOTES, a figure of speech and a type of understatement, depict a sentiment ironically by

denying its opposite. Telling "It's not the most pleasant weather today" during a storm is an
example of litotes, emphasizing through sarcastic understatement that the weather is, in fact,
terrible.

524. The environment which includes geographical location such as beach and mountains, the climate and
weather, and the social or cultural aspects such as school, theatre, meeting, club, etc. ***Actual September
2023 LET

A. Conflict B. Setting

C. Place D. Plot

SETTING refers to the story's time and place. Novels, short tales, plays, films, and other works
typically introduce this literary element alongside the characters during the story's exposition or
the beginning of the story. The setting may also comprise the story's environment, which can
consist of the actual location, climate, weather, or social and cultural context.

525. The content is more imaginative, metaphoric, or symbolic, unlike technical writing, which is factual
and straight-forward.

A. Technical Writing B. Creative Writing

C. News Writing D. Literary Writing

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CREATIVE WRITING is the use of written language to create an interesting or pleasurable story
that engages, inspires, excites, or surprises the reader while eliciting emotions and inspiring
thought. Its goal is to beautifully educate, entertain, or inform in a meaningful way that the reader
will like.

526. Where in a sentence is an opinion-marking signal usually written? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. at the end B. at the beginning

C. at the middle D. both at the beginning and end

The words or group of words that introduce opinions are called opinion-marking signals. They are
used as signal words that will help express and identify opinions. They are usually written in the
BEGINNING PART of a sentence.

Examples are:

FROM WHAT I KNOW, Filipinos are popular for being hospitable.

PERSONALLY, I think that Filipinos give importance to education.

MAYBE Filipinos are resilient because they find ways to survive.

527. Which of the following is an example of anadiplosis? *** Actual September 2023 LET

A. You are the sun of my life.

B. Our doubt is our passion, and our passion is our task.

C. She has all my love, my heart belongs to her.

D. If I know one thing, it's that I know nothing.

A figure of speech known as anadiplosis repeats a word or group of words from the end of one
clause or sentence at or near the start of the next clause or sentence. This passage from novelist
Henry James exemplifies anadiplosis: "Our doubt is our passion, and our passion is our task.”

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528. Which of the following is an example of euphemism? ***Actual March 2024 LET

A. unemployed B. passed away

C. unwell D. pass around

EUPHEMISMS are polite, mild phrases which substitute unpleasant ways of saying something sad
or uncomfortable. "Passed away” is a euphemism for death.

529. Which presents an abstract idea or a moral? ***Actual September 2023

A. epic B. myth

C. allegory D. folktale

An ALLEGORY is a story that contains another story. It has a "surface story" and a secret story
beneath it. Most allegories have a hidden story about politics, religion, or MORALITY, all of which
are complex themes that are difficult to understand.

530. Which tells a story? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. narrative, myth, folktale

B. narrative, exposition, science fiction

C. narrative persuasion, tale

D. narrative, argumentative, epic

NARRATIVES, MYTHS, AND FOLKTALES all have one thing in common: they tell stories. A
narrative is a spoken or written account of related events; a myth is a traditional story,
particularly one about a people's early history or explaining a natural or social phenomenon,
usually involving supernatural beings or events; and a myth is a story originating in popular
culture and typically passed down by word of mouth.

531. What literary genre does tall tale belong? ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. narrative non-fiction B. narrative fiction

C. fantasy non-fiction D. historical fiction

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A TALL TALE is a story in which the protagonist possesses exaggerated, supernatural abilities.
Tall tales show amazing people doing difficult things.

532. It is a short piece of writing or poem about a dead person, especially one written on his or her
gravestone. ***Actual September 2023 LET

A. anagram B. epigram

C. epitaph D. anataph

An EPITAPH is a short statement about a deceased person, often carved on his or her tombstone.
Epitaphs can be poetic, sometimes written by poets or authors themselves before dying.

An ANAGRAM is a type of word play in which the letters of a word or phrase are rearranged to
create new words and phrases. Example: A gentleman –> Elegant man.

An EPIGRAM is a short but insightful statement, often in verse form, that communicates a thought
in a witty, paradoxical, or funny way. Example: “I can resist everything but temptation." This brief
epigram by Oscar Wilde is remarkably witty: temptation is, by definition, something we attempt to
resist. By saying he can resist everything but temptation, the speaker is also saying he can resist
nothing.

Option D is just a distractor.

533. It is a humorous type of short poem; it seeks to entertain readers. A type of poetry that can be traced
back to the early 17th century as preserved folk songs whose popularity increased during the 18th century.
***Actual September 2023 LET

A. satire B. parody

C. limerick D. farce

A LIMERICK is humorous in tone and tells a brief story. It has five lines, an AABBA rhyme scheme,
and a specific meter. Edward Lear is one of the most famous poets, and he popularized the
limerick form.

The formal definition of SATIRE is “the use of humor, irony, exaggeration, or ridicule to expose
and criticize people’s stupidity or vices.” It’s an extremely broad category. The “or” in the
definition is key; most satires are humorous, ironic, and exaggerated, but they only have to be one
of these things to count as satire.

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The term PARODY is derived from the Greek phrase parodia, which referred to a type of poem
that imitated the style of epic poems but with mockery and light comedy.

A FARCE is a comedy in which everything is absolutely absurd. This usually involves some kind of
deception or miscommunication.

534. What is referred to as the linguistic technique that produces a special effect when reading a literary
piece?

A. rhetorical device B. literary device

C. poetic device D. images

A LITERARY DEVICE is a linguistic technique that produces a special effect when reading a
literary piece. This device can help readers appreciate, interpret, and analyze a work of art.
Writers can also employ these techniques to make their work achieve an aesthetic appeal so that
readers can enjoy the beauty of words.

535. “I already produced buckets of tears in praying for my brother.” What figure of speech is this sentence
referencing?

A. hyperbole B. paradox

C. irony D. pun

HYPERBOLE is a figure of speech in which an author or speaker purposely and obviously

exaggerates to an extreme. We use it to emphasize or enhance a description's creativity and
humor.

A PARADOX is a statement that contradicts itself or that must be both true and untrue at the same
time. Paradoxes are quirks in logic that demonstrate how our thinking sometimes goes haywire,
even when we use perfectly logical reasoning to get there. Example: “This is the beginning of the
end.”

A PUN is a joke based on the interplay of homophones—wwords with the same pronunciation but
different meanings. It can also play with words that sound similar but are not exactly the same.

536. A common genre of creative writing that's a work of author's imagination.

A. Novel B. Fiction

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C. Non-fiction D. Tragedy

Anything imagined or invented is referred to as FICTION. Generally speaking, the term "fiction"
refers to creative works composed in prose or everyday language that do not adhere to a meter,
unlike poetry. Fiction is most closely connected with written creative works, but it can also refer
to plays, movies, and other forms of media.

537. Which of the following is NOT true about diction?

A. It is the prescribed words used by the writers.

B. It is the word choice an author uses to convey a particular tone.

C. It includes formality of the language, the emotional content, and the sounds of words.

D. It is the combination of denotation, connotation, concrete and abstract words, and sound devices.

Diction refers to the selection of words in a literary work. A work’s diction forms one of its
centrally important literary elements, as writers use words to convey action, reveal character,
imply attitudes, identify themes, and suggest values. It includes the formality of the language, the
emotional content, the imagery, the specificity, and the sounds of the words.

538. Which statement best describes the similarity of creative writing with other forms of writing?

A. It requires cross-referencing with other sources of information, whether print or online, to establish the
veracity of facts used.

B. It follows a templated style of writing, regardless of topic or subject.

C. It utilizes rhyming patterns to emphasize the melody and rhythm created by the selection of appropriate
words in a line or verse.

D. It applies conventions of writing such as rules of grammar and/or mechanics.

A common misconception in creative writing is that it does not care about grammar rules. In fact,
creative writers and literary artists have to make sure that their works observe established rules
in grammar, including mechanics (spelling and punctuation). Following conventions or rules in
writing is also a sign of discipline and focus for both the writer and the literary piece.

539. This is a line of poetry that ends with a natural pause, usually indicated by punctuation.

A. Enjambment B. End rhyme

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C. Caesura D. Free verses

A CAESURA is a line break in poetry. These breaks can be generated by natural gaps and pauses in
speech, as well as by punctuation marks. In poetic analysis, the sign // commonly denotes a
caesura. An example of a caesura in poetry might look like this:

''I love to hear her speak, // yet well I know

That music hath a far more pleasing sound''

These words from William Shakespeare's Sonnet 130 are a typical example of a caesura in poetry.

540. A figure of speech in which a thing, a place, an abstract quality, an idea, a dead or absent person, is
addressed as if present and capable of understanding is called:

A. Alliteration B. Apostrophe

C. Synecdoche D. Metonymy

APOSTROPHE is addressing an absent person or thing that is an abstract, inanimate, or inexistent

character.

Example: “Death be not proud, though some have called thee.” - John Donne, “Death Be Not Proud”

LANGUAGE, CULTURE, AND SOCIETY

• Demonstrate knowledge and application of the relationship of language, culture, and society in the
perspective of English language teaching and learning.

• Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of language learning environments that regard to

community contexts.

541. Edward T. Hall's seminal work, "Beyond Culture," introduced the concepts of high-context and low-
context cultures. High-context cultures, according to him, transmit messages that convey meanings that are
.

A. Explicitly stated within the words

B. Not clearly communicated

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C. Of significance for only a short period of time

D. Implied from the physical surroundings

In HIGH-CONTEXT SOCIETIES, messages are suggested by their physical surroundings. This

suggests that nonverbal clues, context, and the environment transmit the message's meaning,
rather than the words themselves directly expressing it. People in high-context cultures rely
extensively on common cultural knowledge and understanding to determine the underlying
meaning of a communication.

LOW-CONTEXT SOCIETIES, in contrast, clearly communicate messages within the words

themselves.

542. The sociological theory that language creates a particular way of thinking and perceiving is:

A. Sociobiology B. The Davis-Moore theory

C. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis D. The language theory

The SAPIR-WHORF HYPOTHESIS is a sociological theory that suggests language shapes and
impacts our thoughts and perceptions. According to this hypothesis, our language influences how
we think about and experience the world around us. It implies that different languages have
distinct structures and vocabularies, which influence how speakers of those languages think and
see reality. This hypothesis highlights the influence of language on our cognitive processes and
cultural viewpoints.

543. The study of ways in which non-native speakers acquire, comprehend, and use linguistic patterns or
speech acts in a second language is known as .

A. Contrastive Rhetoric B. Jargonized Expression

C. Intra-language Variety D. Inter-language Pragmatics

INTERLANGUAGE PRAGMATICS is the study of the ways non-native speakers acquire,

comprehend, and use linguistic patterns or speech acts in a second language.

544. Which of the following best describes the concept of Universal Grammar?

A. The grammatical rules that are established before the introduction of slang and jargon

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B. A set of principles that apply to all languages and are unconsciously accessible to every human
language user

C. The grammatical rules that all the dialects of a language have in common

D. A set of principles that should be followed when writing or when speaking in a formal setting

UNIVERSAL GRAMMAR is a collection of rules that apply to all languages and are instinctively
available to every human language user. It implies that humans have an innate ability to learn
languages and that there are underlying grammatical laws that apply to all languages. This
concept argues that language development is reliant not just on contextual conditions but also on
a universal cognitive framework that facilitates language learning.

545. When speakers of two mutually unintelligible languages come into contact, the need for
communication often requires that they develop a common code that contains features of both languages.
This is then learned as a first language by subsequent generations of children. The vocabulary is gradually
expanded, and the grammar becomes more complex over time, until the language is similar in structure to
other human languages. Which of the following linguistic phenomena is described in the above passage?

A. Creolization B. Hypercorrection

C. Motherese D. Deep structure

The text describes the linguistic phenomenon known as CREOLIZATION. When speakers of two
mutually incomprehensible languages come into contact, they create a common code that
incorporates elements of both languages. Successive generations of children then learn this code
as their first language, and as time passes, the vocabulary expands and the grammar becomes
more intricate, culminating in a language that shares a structure with other human languages.

546. When speaking with strangers, a speaker uses Standard English, but when interacting with people she
knows from her own social circle, she employs a different dialect. Which of the following forms of language
behavior exemplifies this phenomenon?

A. Hypercorrection B. Negative transfer

C. Borrowing D. Code-switching

CODE-SWITCHING is the practice of shifting between two or more languages or dialects during a
discussion or encounter. In this example, the speaker speaks Standard English to strangers but
uses a different dialect while dealing with members of her own social circle. This activity
exemplifies code-switching because the speaker is actively altering her language or dialect in
response to the social environment and identity of the individuals she is talking with.

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547. Which sociolinguistic concept describes the phenomenon in which speakers consciously adopt aspects
of another language or linguistic variation, frequently as a result of cultural influence or social prestige?

A. Language attrition B. Linguistic accommodation

C. Language interference D. Linguistic borrowing

LINGUISTIC BORROWING, in sociolinguistics, is the intentional adoption of elements from

another language or linguistic variety. This might happen due to cultural influence, social prestige,
or a desire to transmit unique meanings or notions that do not have exact equivalents in the
speaker's native language.

548. Which term best describes the comparison of interactions between people from different cultural
backgrounds?

A. Intracultural communication B. International communication

C. Cross-cultural communication D. Interraccial communication

CROSS-CULTURAL COMMUNICATION is the study of interactions among people from various

cultures. Understanding and effectively talking with people from various cultural backgrounds
requires taking into account their values, beliefs, and communication styles. This term focuses on
the comparisons and interactions between people from different cultures, making it the most
relevant response in this circumstance.

INTRACULTURAL COMMUNICATION refers to exchanges within the same culture, whereas

international communication refers to communication between nations. Interraccial
communication is a misspelling of interracial communication.

549. According to Hall, low-context messages are .

A. Overt B. Covert

C. Formal D. Informal

Hall describes low-context messages as overt. OVERT messages are clear and straightforward,
communicating information without depending on context or shared understanding. In low-
context communication, the message is clear and unambiguous, with little possibility for
interpretation or inconsistency. Individualistic societies commonly use this style of
communication, emphasizing directness and clarity.

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550. Which of the following varieties of language is present when a grammatically simplified form of a
language for communication between people not sharing a common discourse is used? ***Actual March
2024 LET

A. Dialect B. Register

C. Jargon D. Pidgin

A PIDGIN is a linguistic communication method used by groups that do not speak the same
language. Pidgins typically emerge in contexts involving trade, colonization, enslavement, and
other environments in which people of diverse linguistic groups must learn to interact efficiently.

A DIALECT is a language variety that may include distinct word pronunciations, spellings, or word
choices.

JARGONS are specialized terms or phrases used by a particular occupation or group to describe
events that occur within that profession or organization. Individuals not involved in such
industries may struggle to grasp these jargon terms. Jargon frequently contains technical jargon,
acronyms, or specialized vocabulary that is unique to a certain subject, industry, or group.

In linguistics, the REGISTER refers to how a speaker employs language differently under different
circumstances.

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