Session 2024 – 2025

Class - IX

Subject- Social Science

Page 1 of 102
 Index
S.no. Chapters Page no.
History
1. The French Revolution
2. Nazism and the Rise of Hitler
3. Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution
4. Forest Society and Colonialism
5. Pastoralist in the Modern World

Civics
6. What is Democracy? Why Democracy?
7. Constitutional Design
8. Electoral Politics
9. Working of Institutions
10. Democratic Rights
Economics
11. The Story of Village Palampur
12. People as Resource
13. Poverty as a Challenge
14. Food Security in India
GEOGRAPHY
15. India : Size and Location
16. Physical features of India
17. Drainage
18. Climate
19. Natural Vegetation and Wild Life
20. Population

Page 2 of 102
Topic- The French Revolution

Page 3 of 102
 I. Events of French Revolution:
• In 1774, Louis XVI of the Bourbon family was the king of France.
• The French society was divided into three estates.
• The clergy and nobility had special rights. The Third estate formed the
majority of population and was unprivileged class.
• On 5th may 1789 Louis XVI called together the meeting of Estates General to
imposes new taxes.
• Members of Third Estate demanded one person on vote. • King rejected the
demand of the Third Estate.
• On June 20, 1789, they assembled in the hall of an indoor tennis court in the
ground of Versailles and declared themselves as National Assembly. They
demanded to curtail the power of the king.
• King ordered troops to move in Paris which angered the natives and they
destroyed the fort of Bastille.

• Their leader was Maximilian Robespierre and they were called ‘sans-
II
culottes’ meaning without knee breeches.
• On 10th August 1792 Jacobin’s planned an insurrection and
imprisoned the royal family. • On 21st September 1792 it declared
France a Republic.
• Louis XVI was sentenced to death on charge of ‘Treason’ and was
publicly executed on 21st January 1793. • The Jacobin leader
Robespierre ruled ruthlessly from 1793 to 1794 and his reign was
known as “Reign of Terror”.
• In July 1794 Robespierre was convicted of excessiveness and executed
on Guillotine.
Page 4 of 102
• The fall of Jacobin allowed the wealthier middle class to seize the
power and ruled through an Executive, made up of five members,
called Directory from 26th October 1795.
• However the frequent clash of directors with legislative council led to
political instability.
• This paved the way for the rise of military dictatorship under
Napoleon Bonaparte who ended directory in 1799 and became the
‘First Council and later crowned himself as – The Emperor of
France in 1804.
• Napoleon was defeated in the battle of Waterloo in 1815.

Page 5 of 102
III Multiple Choice Questions
Q.1 Who was the king of France during French Revolution?
(a) Louis XIV (b) Louis XV
(c) Louis XVI (d) Louis XIII
Q.2 In how many estates French society was divided during 18th century?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
Q.3 Who does wrote the book-The Social Contract’?
(a) Rousseau (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Mirabeau (d) Montesquieu
Q.4 When did Napoleon fight the ‘Battle of Waterloo’?
(a) 1804 (b) 1810 (c) 1832 (d) 1815
Q.5 Name the tax directly paid to the state?
(a) Tithe (b) Taille (c) Both (d) None of the above
IV French Revolution Political Cartoon Analysis:
Revolutionary Thought: Mockery Caricature

This cartoon from the time of the French Revolution

represents the weighed. Down by the
and the .

V The Struggle to Survive

The population of France rose from about 23 million in 1715 to 28
Million in 1789. This led to a rapid increase in the demand for
Food grains. Production of grains could not keep pace with the
Demand. So the price of bread which was the staple diet of the majority rose rapidly. Most
workers were employed as laborers’ in workshops whose owner fixed their wages. But wages did
not keep pace with the rise in prices. So the gap between the poor and the rich widened. Things
became worse whenever drought or hail reduced the harvest. This led to a subsistence crisis,
something that occurred frequently in France during the Old Regime.

Read the above given paragraph and fill the boxes of the given figure with appropriate terms from
among the following:

Food riots, Bad harvest, Disease epidemic

Page 6 of 102
Page 7 of 102
VI The Tennis Court Oath
Preparatory sketch for a large painting by Jacques-Louis David. The painting was intended to
be hung in the National Assembly.

The representatives of the third estate viewed themselves as spokes men for the whole French
nation. On 20 June they assembled in the hall of an indoor tennis court in the grounds of
Versailles. They declared themselves a National Assembly and swore not to disperse till they had
drafted a constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch. They were led by
Mirabeau and Abbé Sieyès. Mirabeau was born in a noble family but was convinced of the need
to do away with a society of feudal privilege. He brought out a journal and delivered powerful
speeches to the crowds assembled at Versailles.
Time to Think?
Answer the following Questions from the given paragraph:

1. Who assembled themselves at Tennis Court

Ans .

2. Mirabeau was born in which family?

Ans .

3. ON which date this historical event took place.

Ans .

4. According to you why this this is a famous event.

Ans .

Page 8 of 102
VII Story Board Speaks lot about the Monarch of France.
Below dialogues are given choose the appropriate option and complete your story board:

A. The meeting of three estates, the three estates were –clergy, nobility and poor middle –
class.
B .Mods of people stormed the prison of Bastille.
C. Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette.
D. We will all sweat until we make this constitution, I agree Sir.
E. There had been two bad harvests so what we will eat.
F. The declaration of the rights of man was modeled after the US declaration of Independence
and the US constitution.

Fill the correct option in the blanks:

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

VIII Reading Political symbols:

Identify the symbols which stand for liberty, equality
and fraternity.

Page 9 of 102
 Match the following:
Column A Column B
i Broken chains/Red cap (a) Liberty
ii Winged Woman, Law tablet, the eye (b) Fraternity
iii Bundle of rods or fasces, National (c) Equality
colours of France.
iv Snake biting (d) Eternity

IX Guess who is who? Some famous Personalities during French Revolution:

Page 10 of 102
X Map says to you #

Mark the important places given below:

1.Brest
2.Bordeaux
3.Paris
4.Marseilles

XI In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the Statements and Choose the correct option: Options are:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

1. Assertion : In 1774, Louis XVI of the Bourbon family of kings ascended the throne of France.
Reason: Under Louis XVI, France helped fifteen German colonies to gain their independence
from Britain.

2. Assertion: The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred as the Reign of Terror
Reason: The members of the Jacobian club belonged to the less prosperous section of society.

3. Assertion: The representatives of the First Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen of the
whole French nation.
Reason: They enjoyed certain privileges by Birth.

Page 11 of 102
Answer the following questions:

1. Name the three ‘Estates’ into which the French society was divided before the
Revolution.

2. What was tithes ?

3. Which philosopher had forwarded the principle of voting by the assembly as a

whole, where each member should have one vote, during the rule of louis XVI ?

4. ‘The National Assembly completed the draft of the Constitution in 1791’. Mention

any two features of the Constitution.

Page 12 of 102
5. Explain the impact of the French Revolution on the life of people of French.

6. What compelled Louis XVI to raise taxes in France?

7. Describe the status of the nobles in France before the revolution.

8. How did philosophers influence the thinking of the people of France ?

Page 13 of 102
9. Write three main features of the French Constitution of 1971.

10. Trace the event which led to the fall of Bastille.

11. What was the significance of ‘The Tennis Court Oath’ in the French Revolution?

12. Discuss the impact of abolition of censorship in France.

Page 14 of 102
13. Explain the role of Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s in the French Revolution.

14. Explain triangular slave trade carried on during 18th and 19th century.

Page 15 of 102
 Socialism in Europe and The Russian Revolution
I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION

1. After 1905,which elected representative body was formed in Russia

2.Name the international body which was formed in 1889 to coordinate the efforts of socialists all over
Europe.

3 Define the term conservatives.

4. Where did the Bolsheviks sign a peace treaty with the Germans in March 1918?

5.By what other name was the Russian Revolution of 1917 known?

6 What was 'Cheka 'in Russia after the revolution?

7. Name any two Indians who talked of the significance of the French Revolution.

8. Which of the following titles is associated with the Russian ruler?

a Emperor b Kaiser c Tsar d King.

9. Match the column

Column A. Column B
a Lenin. Tsar of Russia
b Nicholas. Leader of Bolshevik party
c Stalin. known as father of commmunism
d Karl Marx. Started collectivisation program in Russia

Page 16 of 102
10 In Russia Kulaks meant well to do peasants. (True /False)

11. The name of St.Petersberg changed to Petrograd after 1914 because :

a Russians disliked the earlier name
b Anti-German sentiments during the war made the Russians change the name.
c Russian monk Rasputin advised the Tsar to change the name.
d Russians wanted a shorter and simpler name.

12. According to Socialists ,private property was the roots of all evils in the society. (True /False)

13 Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Industry was found in pockets .Prominent industrial areas were St. Petersburg and Moscow. Craftsmen
undertook much of the production ,but large factories existed alongside craft workshops. Many factories
were setup in the 1890s, when Russia 's railway network was extended, and foreign investment in industry
increased. Coal production doubled and iron and steel output quadrupled. By the 1900s, in some areas factory
workers and craftsmen were almost equal in number.

1 What was the main occupation of Russia's people in the early 20th century?
a pastoralists b industrialists c agriculturists d craftsmen.

2 Who ruled Russia and its empire in 1914?

a Tsar Nicholas I b Tsar Nicholas II c Rural d Romanov

3 Which of the following religions was not practiced in the Russian empire?
a Muslim b Buddhists c Jainism d Catholics

4 Which of the following statement is incorrect about the condition of workers divided in social
groups?
a Workers were divided into social groups
b Workers were divided by skill they possess.
c Craftsworkers were on the high level as they require high training.
d Apart from males, women also formed a considerable working force in the factory.

14. Which one of the following was one of the three demands that 'Vladimir Lenin 'proposed in his
April theses?
a . To rename the Bolshevik party as the communist party.
b . To nationalise the Banks
c . To have common systems of election
d . To support the Provincial Government.

In the questions given below (Q 15 and Q16) these are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Options
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

Page 17 of 102
15 Assertion (A) : Conservatives were opposed to radicals and liberals.
Reason (R) They believed that past had to be respected and change had to be brought about through
a small process.

16 Assertion (A) The Tsar dismissed the first Duma within 75 days and re-elected second Duma within
three months.
Reason (R) He did not want any questioning of his authority.

II VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. Why did a lockout take place at a factory on the right bank of the River Neva on 22 February 1917?

2. What made autocracy unpopular in Russia ?

3 How was the Socialist Revolutionary Party divided over the strategy of organization?

4. Which events took place after the Tsar abdicted on 2nd March ?

5. What were Lenin's 'April These '?

III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS.

1. 'Liberals were not democrats '.Explain .

Page 18 of 102
 2. What was the basic principle of the Marxist theory?

3. Mention the steps taken by the Tsar just before the Russian Revolution ?

4. Why did the Realist autocracy collapse in 1917?

5. How did Social Democrats disagree with Socialist Revolutionaries?

IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION.

1. What changes did industrialization bring to the then society in Russia?

2. Describe the civil war that took place in Russia after the October Revolution and it's consequences.

3.What steps were taken to improve the condition of factory workers and peasants in Russia after the civil
war.

Page 19 of 102
4. Explain the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR.

5. Why did the Kerenskii government become unpopular in Russia ?

V MAP SKILLS

Seven features A, B, C, D, E, F and G are marked on the political map of the world. Identify these features
with the help of given information and write their correct names .

1 Central Powers of First World War

2 Allied Powers of First World War

Page 20 of 102
 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler
I. Introduction: Know about Hitler

In the spring of 1945, a little eleven-year-old German boy called Helmuth was lying in bed when he overheard
his parents discussing something in serious tones. His father, a prominent physician, deliberated with his wife
whether the time had come to kill the entire family, or if he should commit suicide alone. His father spoke about
his fear of revenge, saying, ‘Now the Allies will do to us what we did to the crippled and Jews.’ The next day,
he took Helmuth to the woods, where they spent their last happy time together, singing old children’s songs.
Later, Helmuth’s father shot himself in his office. Helmuth remembers that he saw his father’s bloody uniform
being burnt in the family fireplace. So traumatised was he by what he had overheard and what had happened,
that he reacted by refusing to eat at home for the following nine years! He was afraid that his mother might
poison him. Although Helmuth may not have realised all that it meant, his father had been a Nazi and a
supporter of Adolf Hitler. Many of you will know something about the Nazis and Hitler. You probably know of
Hitler’s determination to make Germany into a mighty power and his ambition of conquering all of Europe.

II. Birth of Weimar Republic:

Page 21 of 102
Fill in the blanks:
Check your Knowledge:

1. Germany, a powerful empire in the early years of the twentieth century, fought the First
World empire
2. Against the Allies
3. All joined the war enthusiastically hoping to gain from a
4. Little did they realise that the war would stretch on, eventually draining Europe of all its
5. Germany made initial gains by occupying and The Allies, strengthened
by the US entry in 1917, won , defeating Germany and

III. Peace Treaty of Versallies:

The peace treaty at Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating peace. Germany lost its overseas
colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 per cent of its territories, 75 per cent of its iron and 26 per cent of its coal
to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
Answer the following in short:

1. Why was peace treaty signed?

Ans

2. Which regions were given Germany to overseas?

Ans

IV. Read the picture and answer the following questions:

A Nazi poster of 1920.It asks workers to vote for Hitler:

Page 22 of 102
Q1. What do they tell us about Nazi Propaganda.

Ans

Q2.How Nazis trying to mobilize different sections of the population?

Ans

V. A Nazi poster attacking jews below observe and answer the question:

Q1. What do you think this poster is trying to depict?

Ans

VI. Case study of Youth in Nazi Germany:

Media was carefully used to win support for the regime and popularise its worldview. Nazi ideas were spread
through visual images, films, radio, posters, catchy slogans and leaflets. In posters, groups identified as the
‘enemies’ of Germans were stereotyped, mocked, abused and described as evil. Socialists and liberals were
represented as weak and degenerate. They were attacked as malicious foreign agents. Propaganda films were
made to create hatred for Jews.

What do you Think?

Q1Why was Media did Nazi propaganda

Ans

Q2. Who were identify as “Enemies”?

Ans

Q3What were the medium through which feeling of hatred spread?

Ans

Page 23 of 102
VII. Show Case what you know?

Observe carefully and comment.

1 What does the below image depicts write your views?

Nuremberg rally 1936………………..

2. Do you think it’s a correct way to shows power as Hitler did seeing his rallies what you feel give your own
perceptions?

3 What image of Hitler comes to your mind from the above image? Do you think he was not what he was portrayed.
Comment.

Page 24 of 102
4. Write your own imagination if you were in Nazis time taking a ride of freight cars.

– Sleeping on the line. During the Great Depression the unemployed could not hope for either wage or shelter. On
winter nights when they wanted a shelter over their head, they had to pay to sleep like this… ............... The above
picture gives an idea of great depression.

5. What was great depression?

VIII. Lets revive Reconstruction:

Hitler assigned the responsibility of economic recovery to the economist Hjalmar Schacht . This project
produced the famous German superhighways and the people’s car, the Volkswagen.

1. Such posters suggested that owning a car was no longer just a dream for an
ordinary worker.

What does the above poster announces?

2. By the end of 1940, Hitler was at the pinnacle of his power. He attacked the Soviet Union in June 1941. In
this historic blunder Hitler exposed the German western front to British aerial bombing and the eastern front to

Page 25 of 102
the powerful Soviet armies. The Soviet Red Army inflicted a crushing and humiliating defeat on Germany at
Stalingrad.

What according to you could have been the reason why Hitler did such a blunder? Use the words in bracket to
make your answer complete (Pinnacle of his power, Dream to claim international power)

3. When Japan extended its support to Hitler and bombed the US base at Pearl
Harbor, the US entered the Second World War. The war ended in May 1945 with
Hitler’s defeat and the US dropping of the atom bomb on Hiroshima in Japan.

Why did USA resisted involvement in the war. What is your perception seeing the
case of Russia and Ukaraine?

4. The Nazi Cult of Motherhood. Look at the two images below and answer the following from your previous
knowledge of chapter read.

IX. Hot Question of the day:

Q. What is present situation of Russia and Ukaraine when they are on the edge of war… ................ Write in
human activites and what it will led to humanity?

X. Pastor Niemoeller, a resistance fighter, observed an absence of protest, an uncanny silence, amongst ordinary
Germans in the face of brutal and organised crimes committed against people in the Nazi empire. He wrote
movingly about this silence:

‘First they came for the Communists, Well, I was not a Communist – So I said nothing.
Then they came for the Social Democrats, Well, I was not a Social Democrat So I did nothing, Then they
came for the trade unionists,
Page 26 of 102
But I was not a trade unionist.
And then they came for the Jews, But I was not a Jew – so I did little.
Then when they came for me, There was no one left who could stand up for me.’
Last not least above Poem of grief by Pastor Niemoeller shows grief and suffering of Jews people.
What do you feel if you come across certain Jews people.

XI. OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS.

1. In 1940 ,the Tripartite pact was signed by which of the following group of powers?
a. Italy ,Germany ,Japan b. Germany, Austria, Russia
c. Japan,Italy, France. d. Austria,Germany ,Japan

2. Name the original name of the Nazi party.

3. wrote the book ‘Third Reich of Dreams’.

4. Name the countries which formed the Axis Powers during the second World War.

5. Match the column:

Column A Column B
a. Name given to the German Parliament 1 Jungvolk
b. Making up of a wrong done . 2 Reichstag
c. Nazi Youth groups for children 3 Raparation
d. The name of the world’s biggest stock exchange 4 Wall street exchange located in the USA

In the Q 6 and Q7 given below ,there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) And Reason (R) .Read the
statements and choose the correct options .

a. A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A .

b. A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is True.

6 Assertion (A) Japan extended its support to Hitler and bombed the US base at Pearl Habour
Reason (R) The US entered the Second World War.

7. Assertion (A) The Enabling Act passed on 3rd March 1993, established democracy in Germany.
Reason(R) It gave Hitler all power to rule by decree and without the consent of the Parliament.

Page 27 of 102
 8. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow .

On 30th January 1933, President Hindenburg offered the Chancellorship ,the highest position in the
cabinet of ministers to Hitler. .By now the Nazis had managed to rally the conservatives to their cause .Having
acquired power, Hitler set out to dismantle the structures od democratic rule . A mysterious fire that broke out
in the German Parliament building in February facilitated his move . The Fire Decree of 28 th February 1933
indefinitely suspended civic rights like freedom of speech ,press and assembly that had been guaranteed by the
Weimer constitution . Then he turned on his archenemies ,the communists ,most of whom were hurriedly
packed off to the newly established concentration camps .
1. What major developments took place when Hitler attained the position of Chancellorship?

2. What do you mean by the concentration camps ?

3. Which Act led to the establishment of dictatorship in Germany ?

9. Identify the picture .

a. What does the picture announces?

Page 28 of 102
 b. What does the picture depict ?

10. Who were mockingly called November criminals?

11. The Nordic Germans Aryans were

1. Jews living in Germany
2. Aryans of German origin
3. Jews of German Origin
4. Germans of Aryan origin

12. Who was the propaganda Minister of Hitler ?

13 --------------- is a situation when price rise phenomenally.

14. Who occupied Germany’s leading industrial area Ruhr to claim their gold ?

XII. VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS .—

1. Which incident persuaded the USA to join World War II?

Page 29 of 102
 2. How did Hitler reconstruct Germany?

3. How was Germany defeated in World War I

4. How did Germany adopt democratic constitution ?

5. What is referred to as the Great Depression?

6. Which article of the Weimar Constitution gave the President the power to impose

7. Emergency, suspend civil rights and rule of decree in Germany?

III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION –

1. What was the new style of politics devised by Hitler?

Page 30 of 102
 2. Mention the problems faced by the Weimar Republic from the very beginning ?

3. How did the common people react to Nazism?

4. Hat were the effects of the economic crisis on Germany?

5. How was media used to propagate Nazism?

6. What was the impact of World War I on the European society ?

IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-

1 Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating hatred for the Jews ?

2 How did the Nazis seek to implement a pure German racial state ?

3 Explain the role played by women in Nazi society.

Page 31 of 102
 4 What efforts were made by Hitler to establish dictatorship?

5 How was the holocaust practiced in Germany ?

IV On a map of the world locate and label

1. Axis power ----Germany
2. Allied power ---France
3. Territories Under German expansion ---- Belgium ,Poland

Page 32 of 102
 FOREST SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM

I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS.

1. According to 1878 Amendment of Forest Act ,'Protected Village referred to which of the following?
a. A forest where entry was prohibited.
b. A forest which was protected by forest department .
c. A forest where wild animals were protected by state.
d. Japan, Italy, France.
e. A forest where villagers could collect firewood, fodder, leaves, etc for their use.

2. Which of the following forest communities is wrongly matched with the place of their living?
a. Santhals —Jharkhand
b. Gonds —Chhatisgarh
c. Korava —Madras Presidency
d. Oraon —-hhattisgarh

3. Name three pastoralist and nomadic communities of the Madras Presidency.

4. Which river flows through Bastar region?

5. Dietrich was an inhabitant of Randublatung village who started a movement against state ownership of
forest (True /False)

6 Match the column

Column A. ColumnB
a Sacred groves. Dutch
b Scorched earth policy. Brazil
c Tribesof Bastar. Central America
d Manioc. Sarnas, Rai
e Milpa. Maria and Halbas.

7 Case based questions

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Deforestation is not a recent problem. The process began many centuries ago, but under colonial rule it
became more systematic and extensive.
In 1600,approximately one-sixth of India's landmass was under cultivation. Now that figure has gone up to
about half. As population increased over the centuries and the demand for food went up, peasants extended the
boundaries of cultivation, clearing forests and breaking new land. In the colonial period, cultivation expanded
rapidly for a variety of reasons.

(I) means cutting of forests on a large scale.

a Cultivation b Deforestation c clearing d uprooting.
Page 33 of 102
(II) Which of the following crops that were directly encouraged for production by the British?
a Sugar, rice, wheat, wool.
b Jute, sugar, cotton, wheat.
c Rice, maize, wheat, pulses
d Indigo. cotton wool, rice

(III) According to the Britishers , forests were ………………..

8. The colonial power in Indonesia was-

9. Wooden planks laid across railway tracks to hold these tracks in a position are called -

10. George Yule was a British administrator who killed 400 Tigers (True /False)

11. Write any two local terms for Swidden agriculture used in India.

12. Name the river that flows through Bastar region.

13. Santhals and Oraons were recruited to work on

In the questions (Q14 and Q15)given below ,there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option
Options
(a) A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A) Under colonial rule scale of hunting increased to such an extent that various species
became almost extinct
Reason (R) According to Britishers, by killing dangerous animal they would civilize India.

15. Assertion (A) Shifting cultivation was regarded as beneficial by the European foresters.
Reason (R) Shifting cultivation create difficulty for the government to calculate taxes on the use of forests .

Page 34 of 102
II VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS .—
1. Why did the Dutch feel the need to enact forest laws in Jawa?

2. What did the World Bank propose in 1970s?

3. How was the message given to the villagers to rebel against the British Government?

4. How did some people benefit from the laws of forest department?

5. Why did the British encourage the production of commercial crops in India?

III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1 .Why was hunting popular in India and what were its effects ?

2 .Who was appointed as the first Inspector General of Forests in India? Explain any three reforms
introduced by him.

3 .Why did the government ban shifting cultivation? What was the result?

4 .Describe the main causes of the revolt of Bastar.

Page 35 of 102
5 .What new developments have occurred in forestry in Asia and Africa in recent times?

IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1 How did commercial farming lead to a decline in forest cover during colonial period ?

2 Describe the life of the tribal people of Bastar.

3.Which new demands were created on Indian forests due to the spread of railways from 1850s? How were
they met with? Explain

4 Though the British suppressed the Bastar rebellion ,yet it is considered as a major victory for the rebels
.Justify the statement.

5 Explain the provisions of the Forest Act of 1878.

Page 36 of 102
 Pastoralists in the Modern World
Q1.Which of the following regions is known for its traditional pastoral nomadic communities?
(a) Coastal areas
(b) Plateau regions
(c) Urban centers
(d)Rainforests

Q2. The term “Pastoralism” refers to:

(a) Farming and cultivation of crops
(b) Hunting and gathering of food
(c) Rearing and herding of animals
(d) Trade and commerce in urban centers.

Q3. The Maasai community is a pastoral nomadic tribe found in:

(a) Australia
(b) Central Asia
(c) East Africa
(d) South America

Q4. Pastoralists are known for their seasonal movement in search of:
(a) Gold and precious metals
(b) Fertile land for cultivation
(c) Water and fresh pastures
(d) Valuable artifacts

Q5. ......................... has played a significant role in supporting pastoralist communities in various parts of the
world.
(a) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
(b) World Health Organization (WHO)
(c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(d) International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)

Q6. In what ways lives of Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir similar to that of Gaddi shepherds of
Himachal Pradesh?
I. They both have a similar cycle of seasonal movement
II. They both spend their winters on low hills of Siwalik range, grazing their herds in dry scrub forests
II. In April, they begin their upward journey again for their summer grazing grounds

Options:
(a) I and II. (b) II and III. (c) I, II and III. (d) Only III

Q7. Why were some forests classified as “protected”?

i. In these the customary grazing rights of pastorals were granted but their movements were severely
restricted.
ii. The colonial officials believed that grazing destroyed the saplings and young shoots of trees that
germinated on the forest floor.
Options:
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) I and I (d) None

Page 37 of 102
Q8. Life of the pastoral groups were sustained by
I. Correct judgement of how long the herds could stay in one area, know where to find water and pasture.
II. Correct calculation of timing, their movements and ensuring they could move through territories.
III. Setting up relationship with farmers on the way, so that the herds could graze.
Options:
(a) Only I. (b) Only II. (c) I and III. (d) I, II, and III

Q9. By October, the Dhangars harvested their bajra and started on their move to the west. Why were they
welcomed by the Konkani peasants?
(a) They married off their children in each other’s communities
(b) The Dhangars brought bajra for them
(c) Dhangar flocks manured their fields and fed on the stubble
(a) None of the above

In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason ®. Read the
Statements and Choose the correct option: Options are:

(a) Both (A) and ® are true and ® is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and ® are true but ® is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but ® is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but ® is correct.

Q10. Assertion (A): Not all Pastoralists operated in the mountains.

Reason ® : They were also to be found in Plateaus, Plains and Deserts of India.

Q11. Assertion (A): With the onset of the Monsoon the Dhangars left the konkan and the coastal areas with
their flocks and returned to their settlements on the dry Plateau.
Reason ®: The sheep could not tolerate the wet monsoon conditions.

Q12. Assertion (A) : In 187 1, the colonial government in India passed the Criminal Tribes Act.
Reason (R) : By this Act many communities of craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as
Criminal Tribes.

Q13.Assertion (A): The Maasai Cattle herders lived Primarily in the West Africa.
Reason ®: Maasailand stretched over a vast area from North Kenya to the steppes of Northern Tanzania.

Q11. Carefully observe the picture and Identify the correct option.

Page 38 of 102
 Which community is depicted in the above ?

(a) Gujjar. (b) Raikas. (c) Gaddi. (d) Bhotiyas

Q12. Carefully observe the picture and identify the correct option.

Young men go through an elaborate ritual before they become Warriors, identify the community

(a) Massai (b) Berbers (c) Somali (d) Boran

Q13 Answer the following questions

1. Give one advantage of changing grazing lands into cultivated farms by British in India.

2. The Criminal Tribes Act, 1871 classified the communities of craftsman, traders and pastoralists as

3.What happened to the animal’s stock when pasture lands were turned into cultivated lands ?

4. What do you know about the lifestyle of Gujjars of Garhwal and Kumaun ?

Page 39 of 102
5. Discuss the main features of the pastoral nomads of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

6. What factors had to be kept in mind by the pastoralists in order to survive ?

7. Explain any three laws which were introduced by the colonial government in India, which changed the lives
of pastoralists.

8. Where do the Raikas live ? Mention characteristics of their economy and life ?

9. Discuss the main features of life of the Dhangars pastoral community of Maharashtra.

10. What were the social changes that occurred in the Maasai pastoral community?

~~~×××~~~

Page 40 of 102
 Civics
Chapter -1 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?
Q.1. Objective Type Questions: -
i) Democracy must be based on -
(a) One-party system
(b) Free and fair election
(c) Choice from only the ruling party
(d) All the above

ii) Which of the following is the drawback of democracy?

1. Instability and delays
2. Corruption and hypocrisy
3. Politicians fighting among themselves
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above

iii) Find out the apt meaning of referendum from the following:
(a) The military deposes existing government and assumes power.
(b) The denial of political freedom of citizens.
(c) One vote one value to all the adult citizens of the country.
(d) A general vote by the people on a single political question.

iv) In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is False but Reason is true
1. Assertion (A): A democratic government can do whatever it likes, simply because it has won an
election.
Reason (R): A democratic government rules within the limits set by constitutional law and citizens’
rights.

2. Assertion (A): Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.

Reason (R): The poorest and the least educated have the same status as the rich and the educated.

3. Assertion (A): India is a Republic.

Reason (R): People have supreme right toi make decisions on internal as well as external matters.

v) Which body in Indian political system is an example of direct democracy?

(a) Zila Parishad (b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Gram Sabha (d) Vidhan Sabha

Page 41 of 102
 vi) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Lowest participation of women in public life Saudi Arabia
Institutional Revolutionary Party Mexico

Casteism and communalism Estonia

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

(c) All of the above (d) None of the above

vii) Observe the picture and identify the country that follows similar policy.

viii) Analyse the given picture and answer the following question:-

What is being depicted about democracy in the given

picture?
(a) Unity in diversity
(b) Power of democracy
(c) Political Conflicts
(d) None of these

ix) Identify the correct option:-

List I List II
A. Legal Framework Order 1. Ruling party in China
B. National People’s Congress 2. Issued by Musharraf
C. Institutional Revolutionary Party 3. Leader Robert Mugabe
D. ZANU - PF 4. Formed in 1930 in Mexico

CODES
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 1 2 4

Page 42 of 102
 x) Rewrite the incorrect statement –
1. In Saudi Arabia , women got the right to vote in 1990.

2. Myanmar is not a true democracy because it is ruled by military rulers.

Q.2. Very Short Answer Type Questions: -

i) State the freedoms which are usually taken away when democracy is overthrown by a military regime.

ii) Give two examples of the countries from your book where the principles of democracy were violated.

iii) What is the most common form of democracy in recent times? Define it.

Q.3. Short Answer Type Questions:

i) Elections in China do not represent people’s verdict. Explain.

ii) What according to you is the most important principle of democracy?

Q.4. Long Answer Type Questions:

i) Even democracy has a fair share of demerits. Point out such demerits.

~~~×××~~~

Page 43 of 102
 Chapter- 2 Constitutional Design

Q.1. Objective Type Questions: -

i) Every document presented and every word spoken in the Constituent Assembly has been recorded and
preserved. These are called-
(a) Constituent Assembly Debates
(b) Constituent Assembly Minutes
(c) Constituent Assembly Agenda
(d) Constituent Assembly Daily

ii) Which of the following sentences is wrong about Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(а) He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
(b) He was born in Maharashtra.
(c) He was law minister in post-independence India.
(d) He was the founder of the Republican Party of India.

iii) Read the picture carefully and answer the question.

What does the picture depict?

iv) In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Assertion is False but Reason is true

1. Assertion (A): Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.
Reason (R): A constitution is about institutions, not about values.

2. Assertion (A): India emerged as an independent country amidst heavy turmoil.

Reason (R): The Indian Constitution came into force with effect from 26th January 1950.

Page 44 of 102
v) What kind of ‘Justice’ does our Preamble provide?
(a) Economic Justice (c) Social Justice
(b) Political Justice (d) All of the above

vi) Which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they sat down to make the
Constitution?
(a) Universal adult franchise
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Protection of the rights of minorities
(d) All of the above

vii) Read the quotation given below. Write the idea expressed in it.

(a) No discrimination (b) Everyone should live in harmony

(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above

viii) The image captures the spirit at South Africa today. South Africans call themselves a
‘rainbow nation’. Can you guess why?

Page 45 of 102
ix) Identify the correct option:-
List I List II
A. TT Krishnamachari 1. Vice – Chairman of Constituent Assembly
B. HC Mookherjee 2. Members of Drafting Committee
C. Sardar VallabhBhai Patel 3. Chairman of Constituent Assembly
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 4. Deputy Prime Minister
CODES
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 1 2 4

x) Rewrite the statement –

1. Many institutional details and procedures in Indian Constitution has been adopted from the Charter
Act, 1853.

2. Constitution generates a degree of distrust and incoordination for different kind of people to live
together”.

Q.2. Very Short Answer Type Questions: -

i) How was the system of apartheid being unjust? Quote two examples from your book.

ii) Why do you think Constitution makers made provisions for amendments in the Indian Constitution?

iii) What do you know about ‘The Long Walk to Freedom’?

Q.3. Short Answer Type Questions:

i) Describe the weaknesses of democracy observed in India.

ii) Assess the contribution made by the Constituent Assembly to form the Indian Constitution.

Page 46 of 102
Q.4. Long Answer Type Questions:
i) What should the Indian Constitution effectively do to make India a democratic country? Explain.

ii) “The South African Constitution inspires democrats all over the world”.Comment.

Q.5. Source Based Questions:

Read the source given below and answer the following questions.

Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny, and now the time comes when we shall redeem our pledge, not
wholly or in full measure, but very substantially. At the stroke of the midnight hour, when the world sleeps,
India will awake to life and freedom. A moment comes, which comes but rarely in history, when we step out
from the old to the new, when an age ends, and when the soul of a nation, long suppressed, finds utterance. It is
fitting that at this solemn moment we take the pledge of dedication to the service of India and her people and to
the still larger cause of humanity. Freedom and power bring responsibility. The responsibility rests upon this
Assembly, a sovereign body representing the sovereign people of India. Before the birth of freedom we have
endured all the pains of labour and our hearts are heavy with the memory of this sorrow. Some of those pains
continue even now. Nevertheless, the past is over and it is the future that beckons to us now. That future is not
one of ease or resting but of incessant striving so that we may fulfill the pledges we have so often taken and the
one we shall take today. The service of India means the service of the millions who suffer. It means the ending
of poverty and ignorance and disease and inequality of opportunity. The ambition of the greatest man of our
generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye. That may be beyond us, but as long as there are tears
and suffering, so long our work will not be over.

i. “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye”. Who is
being referred to as the greatest man?

a. Sardar Patel b. Somnath Lahiri

c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Baldev Singh

ii. What is the meaning of the quotation given in question one?

a. Ending of freedom in Indian Society b. Ending of Laws in Indian Society
c. Ending of inequality in Indian Society d. Both A and B

Page 47 of 102
iii. What does ‘sovereign’ mean?
a. The head of the state is an elected person and not a hereditary position.
b. A form of government where people enjoy equal political rights, elect their rulers and hold
them accountable.
c. Wealth is generated socially and should be shared equally by society.
d. People have the supreme right to make decisions on internal and external matters.

iv. “There are no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in India, in what way they think, how
they wish to express their thoughts.” This means they enjoy
a. Liberty
b. Secularism
c. Fraternity
d. Socialism

Creative Corner:-
State some amendments that you want to incorporate in the Indian Constitution.
~~~×××~~~

Page 48 of 102
 Chapter-3 – Electoral Politics
Q.1. Objective Type Questions: -
i) Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government
(b) People elect the representatives of their choice in an election
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary
(d) Elections enable people to indicate which policies they prefer

ii) In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?
(a) Rajya Sabha.
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha.
(d) All of the above

iii) Which is not a sign of democratic elections?

(a) Everyone should have one vote and every vote should have equal
(b) There should be something to choose from. Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
and should offer some real choice to the voters’
(c) Elections must be held regularly after every few years.
(d) It is a must the candidate preferred by the people should get elected

iv) In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Assertion is False but Reason is true

1. Assertion (A): The main function of Election Commission is to conduct elections for legislature,
President and Vice – President.
Reason (R): Election Commission works under the legislature.

2. Assertion (A): Once the constituencies are decided, the next step is to decide who can and who cannot vote.
Reason (R): This decision can be left to anyone till the last day.

3. Assertion (A): Anyone who can be a voter can also become a candidate in elections.
Reason (R): Minimum age of in order to be a candidate the minimum age is 35 years.

v) Which of the following pair is correctly matched?

(1) Electoral Roll Voters’ List
(2) EPIC Ballot paper
(3) Chief Election Commissioner President of India
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) Only 1 and 3

Page 49 of 102
 vi) Complete the following table: -

Lok Sabha Rajya sabha

Lower Chamber
Upper Chamber

vii) Analyse the graph carefully and choose the best option to highlight the situation in the voter turnout of
UK and India.
.

1. Over the last fifty years, the turnout in Europe and North America has declined.
2. In India the turnout has either remained stable or actually gone up.
3. In India the poor, illiterate and underprivileged people vote in larger proportion as compared to the
rich and privileged sections.
4. The interest of voters in election related activities has been increasing over the years.
(a) Only 1and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 3and 4 (d) Only 1 and 4

viii) In the context of election, which of the following moral code of conduct is violated in the given
picture.

(a) Appeal to them in the name of caste or religion

(b) Misuse of money power Bribe or threaten voters
(c) Use any place of worship for election propaganda
(d) None of these

Page 50 of 102
ix) Observe the picture carefully and choose the option that is correct about it :-

(a) Nowadays, candidates who spend a lot of money on ‘buying votes’ often win the election.
(b) During an election campaign a candidate makes plenty of promises but he is unable to fulfil
all of them.
(c) Before election, the candidate tries to appease the voters by false promises. After the
election, the elected leader forgets the demands of the common man.
(d) None of the above

x) Rewrite the statement –

1. “Only those parties that are recognised as national parties can contest in elections for Parliament”

2. “In financial matters, the Lok Sabha is not powerful than the Rajya Sabha”.

Q.2. Very Short Answer Type Questions: -

i) Define the term –
a) Rigging

b) Voters

Page 51 of 102
 ii) Differentiate between general election and by-election.

iii) Mention the meaning of election manifesto?

Q.3. Short Answer Type Questions:

i) Our Constitution makers were aware of the problems of political competition. Yet they opted for
free competition in elections as the way to select our future leaders. They did so because this system works
better in the long run. What made our leaders believe in this? State some merits of political competition to
support their views.

ii) Explain the meaning of Reserved Constituency. Why is there a provision of reservation of seats in
the legislatures?

Q.4. Long Answer Type Questions:

i) “Election campaigns are needed to be regulated”.Why? How it is made possible?

ii) Analyse the ‘Model code of Conduct’ for election campaign?

Page 52 of 102
Q.5. Case Study based questions –

Once the constituencies are decided, the next step is to decide who can and who cannot vote.
This decision cannot be left to anyone till the last day. In a democratic election, the list of those who are
eligible to vote is prepared much before the election and given to everyone. This list is officially called the
Electoral Roll and is commonly known as the Voters’ List. This is an important step for it is linked to the
first condition of a democratic election: everyone should get an equal opportunity to choose
representatives. Earlier, we read about the principle of Universal adult franchise. In practice it means that
everyone should have one vote and each vote should have equal value. No one should be denied the right
to vote without a good reason. Different citizens differ from one another in many ways: some are rich,
some are poor; some are highly educated, some are not so educated or not educated at all; some are kind,
others are not so kind. But all of them are human beings with their own needs and views. That is why all of
them deserve to have an equal say in decisions that affect them. In our country, all the citizens aged 18
years and above can vote in an election. Every citizen has the right to vote, regardless of his or her caste,
religion or gender.

a) What are the requisites for democratic elections?

b) Define the term Universal adult franchise.

Creative Corner:-
Draw a poster with symbol and a slogan for your political party for the election.

Page 53 of 102
 Working of Institutions

Q.1. Objective Type Questions:

i) Which one of the following statement about the President is wrong?
(a) He is the head of the state.
(b) He is the highest formal authority in the country.
(c) He exercises only nominal powers.
(d) He is elected directly by the people

ii) Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the
Rajya Sabha cannot rejected it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by.
(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 17 days

iii) Two features of Indian judicial system are:

(a) Independent Judiciary
(b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary
(d) Both (a) and (b)
iv) Observe the picture carefully and answer the following:
Why does the ministerial aspirants waiting to become the part of cabinet?

Page 54 of 102
v) Complete the given table with appropriate answers :

Position Appointed by
President ?
Prime Minister ?
Council of ministers ?

vi) Analyse the picture carefully and answer the question. What does the picture of Indira Gandhi
with her cabinet in early 1970s depicts?

vii) What is meant by ‘Office Memorandum’?

(a) Order issued by the Government of India
(b) Memoirs of the leaders of the past
(c) Important defence documents
(d) None of the above
viii) In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward.
Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Assertion is False but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India has made the President the Supreme Commander of
Armed Forces
Reason (R): Democracy maintains civilian supremacy over the military force.

Page 55 of 102
2. Assertion (A): In India, the Judiciary is independent of the Executive.
Reason (R): Judiciary favours the government and helps in the implementation of its plans.

ix) Rewrite the statement –

1. “India has a Presidential system of government”.

2. “A bill passed by the Houses of Parliament can become a law without the
President's assent”.

x) Which of these are correct so far as powers of the Parliament are concerned, apart from making laws?
(a) Exercising control over the government
(b) Controlling finance of the country
(c) Serving as the highest forum of discussion and debate
(d) All of the above

xi) Match the Column: Who did what in this case of reservations for backward classes?
Column A Column B
1. Supreme Court a. Made formal announcement about this decision
2. Cabinet b. Upheld reservations as valid
3. President c. Implemented the decision by issuing an order
4. Government Officials d. Took the decision to give 27% job reservations
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(c) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d (d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

Q.2. Very short Answer Type Questions:

i) What is the full form of SEBC?

ii) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?

iii) What do you know about Mandal Commission?

iv) What do you understand by public interest litigation?

v) Analyse the meaning of Parliament.

Page 56 of 102
Q.3. Short Answer Type Questions:
i) State the meaning of judicial review?

ii) What does the independence of the judiciary mean?

iii) Who are the major functionaries in India?

iv) What are three categories of ministers which constitute the council of Ministers?

Q.4. Long Answer Type Questions:

i) Mention the powers and functions of the President of India.

ii) In what ways Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha?

Page 57 of 102
iii) What are the various ways by which parliament exercises authority?

iv) Write a short note on the Mandal Commission.

Q.5. Case Study based questions –

Read the given extract and answer the following questions:-

The Constitution does not say very much about the powers of the Prime Minister or the
ministers or their relationship with each other. But as head of the government, the Prime
Minister has wide ranging powers. He chairs Cabinet meetings. He coordinates the work of
different departments. His decisions are final in case disagreements arise between
departments. He exercises general supervision of different ministries. All ministers work
under his leadership. The Prime Minister distributes and redistributes work to the ministers.
He also has the power to dismiss ministers. When the Prime Minister quits, the entire ministry
quits. Thus, if the Cabinet is the most powerful institution in India, within the Cabinet it is the
Prime Minister who is the most powerful. The powers of the Prime Minister in all
Parliamentary democracies of the world have increased so much in recent decades that
parliamentary democracies are some times seen as Prime Ministerial form of Government. As
political parties have come to play a major role in politics, the Prime Minister controls the
Cabinet and Parliament through the party. The media also contributes to this trend by making
politics and elections as a competition between top leaders of parties. In India too we have
seen such a tendency towards the concentration of powers in the hands of the Prime Minister.
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, exercised enormous authority because he
had great influence over the public. Indira Gandhi was also a very powerful leader compared
to her colleagues in the Cabinet. Of course, the extent of power wielded by a Prime Minister
also depends on the personality of the person holding that position.

a) Parliamentary democracies are sometime seen as of government.

b) Mention the powers of Prime Minister.

~~~×××~~~
Page 58 of 102
 Chapter-5– Democratic Rights
Q.1. Objective Type Questions:
i) How many Fundamental Rights do we have?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (9)
ii) Which of the Fundamental Rights is called ‘the heart and soul’ of the Indian
Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Freedom of Religion
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
iii) The National Human Rights Commission of India was set up in:
(a) 1993 (b) 1994 (c) 1995 (d) 1996

iv) Observe the picture carefully and answer the question.

a) Under which right citizens are demonstrating?

b) Do this type of gesture in India is suitable or not ?

v) Which of the following is not a fundamental duty of an Indian citizen?

a) To vote in elections
b) To protect and improve the natural environment
c) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
d) To follow the directions of the President

vi) In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read
both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Assertion is False but Reason is true

Page 59 of 102
 1. Assertion (A): Democratic government has to be answerable to the people of the country
for any steps taken by the government.
Reason (R): It is not a fundamental property of a democratic government.

2. Assertion (A): Every person has a right to profess, practice and propogate the religion.
Reason (R): The fundamental rights in the constitution are not important because they are
not enforceable.

vii) Rewrite the statement –

1. “ Selling and buying of men, women or children for moral purpose is Traffic”.

2. “ A informal document containing an order of the court to the Government”.

viii) One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is ‘traffic’. What does it mean?
a) Transport system
b) Buying and selling of human beings
c) Buying and selling of goods
d) none of the above
ix) Which fundamental right is being violated under the following circumstances.
a) A student belonging to SC category is not being allowed to use a public park.
b) Citizens are not being allowed to hold a meeting.
c) A women was sold to a rich landlord.
d) You are being denied admission to a government college on the basis
of your religion.

Q.2. Very short Answer Type Questions :

i) Define:
a) Covenant –

b) Human Rights –

ii) Mention any two freedoms provided under Right to Freedom.

iii) Describe the ethnic massacre in Kosovo.

Page 60 of 102
iv) How the scope of rights has expanded in recent times.

Q.3. Short Answer Type Questions :

i) Mention any four features of the Right to Equality as a Fundamental Right.

ii) If rights are like guarantees, they are of no use if there is no one to honour them. How
are our right secured under the Constitution?

iii) How can citizens exercise their freedom to hold rallies and demonstrations?

Q.4. Long Answer Type Questions :

i) Explain the three evils declared illegal under the Right against Exploitation.

ii) Mention the powers of NHRC.

Page 61 of 102
iii) The Right to Freedom is actually a cluster of several rights.’ Discuss.

Think and Answer:-

i) Can a person change his religion? Support your answer with concerned Fundamental
Right.

~~~×××~~~

Page 62 of 102
 Economics
The story of village Palampur

Q1. Fill the blocks given below from the concept map:

Q2.Choose the correct option:-

1. Which one among the following is not a fundamental requirement for production?
a. Land c. Knowledge
b. Labour d. Public health
2. What is needed to be able to put together land, labour and physical capital and produce an
output?
a. Wealth c. Enterprise
b. Knowledge d. Both B and C
3. Which one among the following is not a common economic activity in rural areas?
a. Dairy c. Transport
b. Small scale manufacturing d. Tourism
4. Which of the following statements is not true about small-scale
manufacturing in villages?
a. Farmers engage in it to supplement their income.
b. Farmers take help of their family members
c. The production is done mostly at home.
d. Farmers produce articles for their own use.

5. Money in hand is an example of

a. Human capital c. Working capital
b. Fixed capital d. Physical capital
d. cultivating crops and rearing
6. Multiple Cropping refers to: animals on the same farm
a. Cultivation of wheat and rice
b. cultivation of two crops in
alternate rows
c. cultivating more than one crop
on the same field each year

Page 63 of 102
 7. Which one of the following is not an effect of modern farming?
a. soil degradation
b. deforestation
c. decrease in groundwater
d. water pollution

8. Marginal farmers are -

a. Who use modern methods for farming
b. Who practice crop rotation for farming
c. Who did not have sufficient land for farming, raw materials and money in hand
d. Who have Fixed deposits in financial institutions

9. Complete the table:-

Month Month Source of irrigation (Rain, tanks, tubewells,

Name of crop
sown Harvested canals, etc.)

Wheat

Rice

Jower and
Bajra

10. Identify the work being done on the field in the pictures and arrange them in a proper sequence.
The proper sequence of the activities is given below (the numbers are to be marked alongside each picture).
(1) Plowing by bullocks
(2) Sowing
(3) Spraying of insecticides
(4) Cultivation by traditional methods
(5) Cultivation by modern methods
(6) Cutting of crops

Page 64 of 102
Q 3. Source Based Questions:

Palampur is well-connected with neighbouring villages and towns. Raiganj, a big village, is 3 kms from
Palampur. An all-weather road connects the village to Raiganj and further on to the nearest small town of
Shahpur. Many kinds of transport are visible on this road starting from bullock carts, tongas, bogeys (wooden
cart drawn by buffalos) loaded with jaggery (gur) and other commodities to motor vehicles like motorcycles,
jeeps, tractors and trucks. This village has about 450 families belonging to several different castes. The 80 upper
caste families own the majority of land in the village. Their houses, some of them quite large, are made of brick
with cement plastering. The SCs (dalits) comprise one third of the population and live in one corner of the
village and in much smaller houses some of which are of mud and straw.

Answer the following MCQ questions with appropriate options given below:
1. What are the mode of transportation in Palampur?
a) Cycle b) Train c)Bullock carts d)None of the above

2. How many families live in Palampur?

a) 200 b) 450 c) 369 d) 400

3. Which is the nearest small town?

a) Bilaspur b)Shahpur c)Shazapur d) Amritpur

4. What is the composition of SC caste in Palampur?

a) One Third b)Two third c)Nil d)One fourth

5. Who owns the majority in the village?

a) Poor villagers b) Upper caste c) Lower caste d) Schedule
caste

Q 4 .The distribution of farmers in India and the amount of land they cultivate is given in the following
Graph Discuss in the classroom.

Write your comments here:-

Page 65 of 102
 People as Resource
Q.1. Objective Type Questions:
i) What helps an individual to make better use of the economic opportunities available before him?
(a) Compensation (b) Employment
(c) Education (d) None of the above

ii) The literacy rate during 2010-11 was

(a) 64% (b) 74%
(c) 70% (d) 80%

iii) Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under

(a) One year (b) Three year
(c) Two year (d) Four year

iv) People who depend on agriculture usually face unemployment.

1. Educated 2. Seasonal 3. Disguised
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2 & 3 (d) Only 3

v) Services of housewives are included in

(a) National Income (b) Domestic Income
(c) Household income (d) None of the above

vi) Identify the economic activity shown in the given picture:

Page 66 of 102
vi) Complete the given table with appropriate answers:
Natural Resources Human – Made Resources Human Resources
Water Vehicle ?
? ? Doctor

Secondary Activity Tertiary Activity Unemployment

? Transportation ?
Construction ? Disguised
vii) Observe the picture carefully and answer the question.
Do you notice any difference between two friends? Mention any one.

viii) In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is False but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A): Development of human resources leads to the development of society.

Reason (R): It does not enhances the ability to contribute in the creation of the Gross National
Product.

2. Assertion (A): The facilities for the formation of human capital have remained adequate.
Reason (R): The resources allocated to human capital formation have been much less than the
resources required.

Page 67 of 102
 ix) Rewrite the statement –
1. “An ideal economy is that in which there are more people who consumes and less who earns.”

2. “ Increase in unemployment is an indicator of vibrant economy”.

x) Match the Column:

Column A Column B
1. Quarrying a. Human capital
2. Quaternary b. Residential school
3. Training c. Primary Activity
4. Navodaya d. Tertiary Activity

Choose the correct option :

(a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(c) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d (d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

Q2. Case Study based questions -

There was a village inhabited by several families. Each family produced enough to feed its members.
Each family met its needs by the members making their own clothes and teaching their own children.
One of the families decided to send one of its sons to an agriculture college. The boy got his admission
in the nearby college of agriculture. After some time he became qualified in agro- engineering and came
back to the village. He proved to be so creative that he could design an improved type of plough, which
increased the yield of wheat.
Thus a new job of agro- engineer was created and filled in the village. The family in the village sold the
surplus in a nearby neighbouring village. They earned good profit, which they shared among
themselves. Inspired by this success all the families after some time held a meeting in the village. They
all wanted to have a better future for their children too.

a) Mention the cause of prosperity in the family of village.

b) Why the other families are inspired?

Q 3. Very short Answer Type Questions:

i) Analyse the positive side of a large population.

Page 68 of 102
 ii) “Human resources are superior as compare to other resources” Justify the statement.

iii) Unemployment wastes which resources. Explain.

iv) Which sector of the Indian economy absorbs the maximum labour?

Q.3. Short Answer Type Questions:

i) What is the meaning of vocational education? Also mention the benefits.

ii) A person is making envelops with the help of papers. In which sector should his activity be included? Also
give other examples of the activities included in the same sector.

iii) List five non-economic activities.

Page 69 of 102
Q.4. Long Answer Type Questions:

i) Distinguish between the working conditions of an educated and uneducated women.

ii) Describe the factors responsible for unemployment in India?

iii) Can we tackle the problem of unemployment? Give some suggestions for the same.

~~~×××~~~

Page 70 of 102
 Poverty as a challenge

Q.1. Objective Type Questions:

i) Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?
(a) Scheduled castes (b) Scheduled tribes
(c) Casual labourers. (d) All the above
ii) NFWP is stand for:
(a) National Federation for Work and Progress
(b) National Forest for Wildlife Protection
(c) National Food and Wheat Processing
(d) National Food for Work Programme
iii) was the scheme started in 1993 to create self-employment
opportunities for educated unemployed youth in ruralareas and small towns.
iv) From the reference of the picture answer the question:
Why do people migrate from place to place?

Page 71 of 102
 v) Complete the given table with appropriate answers :

Area Calorie requirements

Rural ?
Urban ?

vi) Analyse the graph carefully and answer the question

Mention the most vulnerable group among these.

vii) Case Study based questions –

Sivaraman lives in a small village near Karur town in Tamil Nadu. Karur is famous
for its handloom and power loom fabrics. There are a 100 families in the village. Sivaraman an
aryunthathiyar (cobbler) by caste now works as an agricultural labourer for ₹160 per day.
But that’s only for five to six months in a year. At other times, he does odd jobs in the town. His
wife Sasikala too works with him. But she can rarely find work these days, and even if she does,
she’s paid ₹ 100 per day for the same work that Sivaraman does. There are eight members in the
family. Sivaraman’s 65 year old widowed mother is ill and needs to be helped with her daily
chores. He has a 25-year-old unmarried sister and four children aged between 1 year to 16 years.
Three of them are girls, the youngest is a son. None of the girls go to school. Buying books and
other things for school-going girls is a luxury he cannot afford. Also, he has to

Page 72 of 102
 get them married at some point of time so he doesn’t want to spend ontheir education now.
His mother has lost interest in life and is just waitingto die someday. His sister and elder
daughter take care of the household.Sivaraman plans to send his son to school when he comes of
age. His unmarried sister does not get along with his wife. Sasikala finds her a burden but
Sivaraman can’t find a suitable groom due to lack of money.
Although the family has difficulty in arranging two meals a day, Sivaraman manages to buy
milk once in a while, but only for his son.

a) Why Sivaraman plans to send school to his son only?

b) Why Sivaraman is having difficulty to find groom for his sister?

viii) In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward.
Read both statements carefully and choose the correctanswer from the below:
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correctexplanation of
assertion
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correctexplanation of
assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is False but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A): Regional disparities in India are high and have been rising in recent
years.
Reason (R): Because of that, some areas have been face continuouspolitical instability.

2. Assertion (A): Addressing the problem of poverty through self- employment schemes is the
most effective means of poverty alleviation.Reason (R): Self-employment schemes improve
the rate of participationand also empower the poor.

ix) Rewrite the statement –

1. “ Development is just about factories, dams and otherinfrastructure, it is not
about human beings”.

2. “ While determining the poverty line, higher calorie intake is fixedin urban areas”.

Page 1 of 102
 x) Define the term –
a) Social exclusion

b) Poverty line

Q2.Very short Answer Type Questions :

i) Evaluate the term poverty?

ii) What is the full form of NSSO ?

iii) How is poverty defined by the World Bank?

iv) Which states of India have seen a significant decline in poverty?

v) Mention your suggestion to combat the problem of poverty.

Q3. Short Answer Type Questions :

i) What are the indicators used by social scientists to understandpoverty?

Page 2 of 102
 ii) What does social exclusion mean?

iii) What are the major reasons for less effectiveness of anti-povertymeasures?

iv) Illustrate the seriousness of poverty in India?

v) How are socio-cultural and economic factors responsible forpoverty?

Q4.Long Answer Type Questions :

i. Discuss the major reasons of poverty in India.

ii. Mention the main features of National Rural EmploymentGuarantee Act, 2005.

Page 3 of 102
iii. Give an account of inter-state disparities in poverty in India.

iv. Mention the targeted anti-poverty programmes undertaken by thegovernment.

v. Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India.

~~~×××~~~

Page 4 of 102
 Food Security in India

Q.1. Objective Type Questions:

i) Consider the following statements:
1. A third dimension “accessibility” in food security was added by
Amartya Sen in 1975 World Food Summit.
2. The 1995 World Food Summit recognised that "poverty eradication is
essential to improve access to food".
Which of the above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) None of the above
ii) Season hunger is prevalent in
(a) rural areas (b) urban areas
(c) both rural and urban areas (d) metro cities
iii) Massive starvation takes place due to :
(a) rise in the price of essential commodities
(b) decline in production of foodgrains
(c) drought
(d) both (a) and (b)
iv) Which of the following are the special target group of the Antyodaya Yojana?
(a) People above poverty line
(b) People below poverty line
(c) People in government services
(d) People in private sector

v) The society which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions is :

(a) Amul (Gujarat)
(b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra)
(c) Mother Dairy (Delhi)
(d) None of the above

vi) Study the graph carefully and answer the following:

Production of Foodgrains in India (Million Tonnes)

a) In which year did our country cross the 200 Million tonne per year mark in food grain
production?
b) Is production increase consistent in India since 2000–01?
Page 5 of 102
vii) Match the Column:

Column A Column B
1. ICDS a. Issue Price
2. Organisation buys food grains from the farmers b. Integrated Child Development Services
and supplies to the fair price shops
3. The price at which food grains are distributed in c. to reduce the wastage and for the maximum
the deficit areas and among the poor strata of the utilization of the articles.
society
4. Rationing d. Food Corporation of India
Choose the correct option :
(a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(c) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d (d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

viii) Analyse the picture carefully and answer the question.

How the above ration shop is beneficial for poor?

ix) In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both
statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the below:
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
c)Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is False but Reason is true.
1. Assertion (A): Public Distribution System has solved the problem of hunger and food security
in India.
Reason (R): Government provides higher prices as compare to market to farmers for raising the
production of crops.

2. Assertion (A): Punjab and Haryana are leading agriculture producing states.
Reason (R): Bihar supplies most of the food grains in majority states of India for ensuring food
security.

Page 6 of 102
 x) Rewrite the statement correctly–
1. “Accessibility means food is within reach of every wealth person only”.

2. “The food procured by the FCI is distributed through private shops and malls among the
poorer section of the society”.

Q2. Case Study based questions –

a) Read the extract given below and answer the following questions:-
Ramu works as a casual labourer in agriculture in Raipur village. His eldest son Somu who is 10
years old also works as a pali to look after the cattle of the Sarpanch of the village Satpal Singh. Somu
employed for the whole year by the Sarpanch and is paid a sum of Rs 1,000 for this work. Ramu has three
more sons and two daughters but they are too young to work on the field. His wife Sunhari is also (part time)
working as house cleaner for the livestock, removing and managing cow dung. She gets ½ litre milk and
some cooked food along with vegetables for her daily work. Besides she also works in the field along with
her husband in the busy season and supplements his earnings. Agriculture being a seasonal activity employs
Ramu only during times of sowing, transplanting and harvesting. He remains unemployed for about 4
months during the period of plant consolidation and maturing in a year. He looks for work in other activities.
Some times he gets employment in brick laying or in construction activities in the village. By all his efforts,
Ramu is able to earn enough either in cash or kind for him to buy essentials for two square meals for his
family. However, during the days when he is unable to get some work, he and his family really face
difficulties and sometimes his small kids have to sleep without food. Milk and vegetables are not a regular
part of meals in the family. Ramu is food insecure during 4 months when he remains unemployed because of
the seasonal nature of agriculture work.
a) Explain the term food insecure.

b) Why agriculture provides seasonal employment ?

xii) Fill the blank in the table with appropriate answer.

Name of Year of Coverage target Latest volume Issue price

scheme introduction group (Rs Per kg.)
PDS Up to 1992 Universal - W – 2.34 R- 2.89
RPDS …………… Backward blocks 20 kg of food grains W – 2.80 R – 3.77
TPDS Poor and non – poor 35 kg of food grains BPL – W- 4.15; R –
…………… ,BPL, APL 5.65
APL –W –6.10; R –
8.30
AAY 2000 ……………….. 35 kg of food grains W – 2.00 ; R – 3.00
APS 2000 Indigent senior 10 kg of food grains Free
citizens
NFSA 2013 5 kg per person per W – 2.00 ; R – 3.00
…………………. month ;Coarse grains – 1.00

Q.2. Very short Answer Type Questions:

Page 7 of 102
 i) Why are food grains procured by the Food Corporation of India ?

ii) List down the dimensions of food security.

iii) How is food security affected during a calamity?

Q.3. Short Answer Type Questions :

i) Explain the impact of the Green Revolution.

ii) Describe the role of FCI.

iii) State the need food security? State some consequences of the excessive reserves of foodgrains in India.

Q.4. Long Answer Type Questions :

i) Discuss the role of Indian government in food security.

ii) How does social inability to buy food also play a critical role in food insecurity?

Page 8 of 102
iii) ‘The food insecure people are disproportionately large in some regions of the country’ Explain.

~~~×××~~~

Page 9 of 102
 CHAPTER-GEOGRAPHY
INDIA : SIZE AD LOCATION

I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION

1. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which Indian states?
a) Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Mizoram
b) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and Assam
c) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and West Bengal
d) Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, and Arunachal Pradesh

2. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?

a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Gujarat

3. The Palk Strait lies between India and:

a) Sri Lanka
b) Maldives
c) Bangladesh
d) Myanmar

4. Which of the following union territories is located in Eastern coast in India?

a) Daman and Diu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli
b) Puducherry
c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
d) None of these

5. Which of the following states do not share land border with Myanmar?
a) Manipur
b) Nagaland
c) Tripura
d) Mizoram

6. Given below are the two statements labelled as Assertion (A)and Reason(R).
Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Options
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

(i) Assertion: India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km

Reason: The land mass of India has an area of 3.28 million square km.

(ii) Assertion: Suez Canal was opened in 1869.

Reason: It enables a more direct route for shipping between Europe and Asia

7. Which of the following is correctly matched location of India with its neighbours?
(i) North – West : Pakistan, Afghanistan
Page 10 of 102
 (ii) North : China, Nepal, Bhutan
(iii) East : Myanmar, Bangladesh
(iv) South : Srilanka, Maldives
a) All are correct
b) Only (i) is correct
c) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
d) None is correct
8. My friend hails from a country which is India’s neighbouring country and is situated to the south of
Lakshadweep Island. Which of the following can it most possibly be?
a) Myanmar
b) Sri Lanka
c) Maldives
d) None of the above
9. Which of the following is not an advantage of India’s contact with the World?
a) The ideas of holy and religious books like Upanishads and Ramanaya, the stories of Panchtantra and
the decimal system could reach the other countries.
b) It established a system of trade with the rest of the World.
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
10. Tina’s aunt lives in Sri Lanka. She wants to visit India. Which places will she have to cross to reach India?
a) Gulf of Mannar
b) Palk Strait
c) Both A and B
d) None of these

II VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

a) Why is India called a subcontinent?

b) Why do the days and nights are almost of equal duration at Kanniyakumari?

c) Why countries of the world selected their own Standard Meridians?

III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS.

a) How had the passes through the mountains been useful in the ancient times for India?

b) Explain the two types of states found in India before 1947.

Page 11 of 102
 c) Write a note on the location and size of India.

IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION.

a) How does India occupy an important strategic position in South Asia?

b) Although the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland is about 30° the east - west extent
appears to be smaller than the north south extent. Why?

V CASE STUDY.
The Indian landmass has a central location between East and West Asia. India is a southward extension of the
Asian continent. The trans-Indian Ocean routes, which connect the countries of Europe in the West and the
countries of East Asia, provide a strategic central location for India. Note that the Deccan Peninsula protrudes
into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa, and Europe from the
western coast and with Southeast and East Asia from the eastern coast. No other country has a long coastline on
the Indian Ocean as India has and indeed, it is India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean, which justifies the
naming of an Ocean after it.
India’s contacts with the World have continued through ages but her relationships through the land routes are
much older than her maritime contacts. The various passes across the mountains in the north have provided
passages to the ancient travelers, while the oceans restricted such interaction for a long time. These routes have
contributed to the exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times. The ideas of the Upanishads and the
Ramayana, the stories of Panchtantra, the Indian numerals, and the decimal system thus could reach many parts
of the world. The spices, muslin, and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries. On the
other hand, the influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of domes and minarets from West Asia
can be seen in different parts of our country.

a) What provides a strategic central location for India?

b) How did India get benefit from its long coastline?

Page 12 of 102
 c) What is India’s contribution to the world? What India has learned from other countries of the world?

VI Locate and label the following in the map of India

a) Tropic of cancer and Standard Meridian of India
b) Palk starit and Gulf of Mannar
c) Two Union Territories on the Western Coast.

Page 13 of 102
 Chapter- 2 Physical Features of India
I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION:

1. The soil containing calcareous deposits is locally known as .

a. Bhangar
b. Khadar
c. Kankar
d. Bhabar
2. Why are the Himalaya considered as a youthful topography?
a. The Himalayas have high mountains peaks
b. The Himalayas have deep valleys
c. The Himalayas have fast flowing rivers.
d. All the above
3. Arrange the given ranges of the Himalayas starting from the western most and moving eastwards

Assam Himalayas ,Kumaon Himalayas , Nepal Himalayas and Punjab Himalayas .

4. Find the incorrect option.

a. Western part of Northern Plain –Punjab plain
b. Punjab plain –Doabs
c. Jhelum river –Tributary of Ganga river.
d. Ganga plain between Ghaghar and Teesta river.

5. Classify the following mountain ranges into Himalayan mountain and Deccan mountain

Zaskar , Aravalli. Pir Panjal ,Satpura ,Kaimur Hills ,Dhola Dhar

HIMALAYAN MOUNTAINS DECCAN MOUNTAINS

Page 14 of 102
 6. Given below are the two statements labelled as Assertion (A)and Reason(R).
Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Options
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

(a) Assertion (A): The Northern plains are agriculturally very productive part of India .
Reason(R): The Northern Plains have fertile soil cover, adequate water supply, favourable
climate and terrain.

(b) Assertion (A): The rivers flowing from the mountains to the plains tend to lose their speed .
Reason (R): The slopes become gentler over plains .

7. A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to other side is called

a. Valley
b. Pass
c. Strait
d. Mound
8. Which two hills are located to the South – East of the Eastern Ghats?
a. Mizo hills and Naga hills
b. Javadi hills and Shevroy hills
c. Patkai hills and Manipuri hills
d. Garo hills and Jayantia hills
9. Which part of the Himalayas is perennially snowbound?
a. Great Himalayas or Himadri
b. Lesser Himalayas or Himachal
c. Shivaliks
d. Purvanchal
10. Which of the following is the highest peak in India?
a. Mt. Everest
b. Kanchenjunga
c. Nanga Parbat
d. Nandadevi

II VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. How would you agree that Himalayas are the most recent landforms ?

2. What are Barchans ?

3. What is the contribution of Northern chain of mountain blocks?

III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS.

1. Write the characteristics of Central Highlands.

Page 15 of 102
 2.Why are the Northern plains the agriculturally productive parts of India ?

3. What is the significance of the Himalayas?

IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION.

1. Distinguish between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.

2. Describe the formation of the Himalayas.

3. What is the contribution of India’s unique physical features to India’s natural resources?

V CASE STUDY.
Read the source and answer the following questions.
The folds of the Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature .The core of this part of Himalayas is
composed of granite .It is perennially snow bound and a number of glaciers descend from this range. The
range lying to the south of the Himadri forms the most rugged mountain system and is known as
Himachal or lesser Himalayas. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.
The altitude varies between 3700 and 4500 metres and the average width is of 50 km. While the Pir
Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range the Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges
are also prominent ones.
The range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and the Kullu valley in Himachal
Pradesh. This region is well known for its hill stations. The outer most range of the Himalayas is called
the Shiwaliks . They extend over a width of 10-50 kms and have an altitude varying 900 and 1100 metres
. These ranges are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by the rivers from the main

Page 16 of 102
Himalayan ranges located farther North .These valleys are covered with thick gravel and alluvium. The
longitudinal valley lying between Dun, Kotli Dun and Patli dun are some of the well known duns .

1. Which of the following is the feature of the Great Himalayas ?

a. The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite .

b. It is perennially snowbound .
c. It has a number of glaciers .
d. All the above

2. Which is the longest range of Himachal?

3. Name the outer most range of Himalayas.

VI Locate and label the following in the map of India

a. Mountain Peaks ---Anai Mudi
b. Mountain range –Aravallis , Vindhyas , Satpura.
c. Coastal Plain ----Northern Circar , Konkan

Page 17 of 102
 Chapter- 3 DRAINAGE
I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION.

1. What is the major objective of the National River conservation plan ( NRCP)

2. Name the main rivers of the following tributaries of:-

Gandhak -
Dihang -
Tungabhadra -
3. Rewrite the statement correctly if it is false:-
The water in a delta is salty as it is close to the sea.

4. Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns resembling the branches of a tree?
a. Radial b Dendritic c Trellis d Rectangular
5. Brahmaputra enters India in the state of .

6. Which place is located on the water divide between the Indus and the Ganga river system?
a Ambala b. Nainital c Haridwar d Ranikhet

7. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A)and Reason (R). Read the statements and
choose the correct options .
a Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
b Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c A is true but R IS False .
.d A is false but R is true .

a) Assertion (A) The Brahmaputra river has huge deposits of silts on its bed causing the river bed
to rise .
Reason (R)During the rainy reason ,Brahmaputra cause widespread devastation .

b) Assertion (A) The coastal rivers in west are short .

Reason (R) The coastal plains between the Western Ghats and the Arabian sea are very narrow .

8. Identify the given pictures:-

A.

B.

Page 18 of 102
 9. Where is the northern most point of the Ganga delta ?
10. The River makes the second biggest waterfall in India .

II VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. Mention the cause behind widespread devastation caused by Brahmaputra river.

2. Why does river Brahmaputra carry less water and silt in Tibet ?

3. Why are peninsular rivers called seasonal ?

III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. Explain any three features of Peninsular rivers .

2. Discuss the main features of Indus river system.

3. Compare the east flowing and the west flowing rivers of the peninsular plateau.

IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. Give main arguments against the large dams . Discuss how can it be ensured that the large dams
do not threaten the environment .

2. Lakes all over India attract a lot of tourists . Do you think increasing tourism at lakes damages
them and the ecosystem ?Give reasons in support of your answer.

Page 19 of 102
 3. Explain the use of salt water lakes in India with particular reference to Chilika and Sambhar lakes.

V On an outline map of India locate , identify or mark the following

1.Rivers Mahanadi , Krishna , Narmada.
2. Lakes Sambhar , Chilika lake

Page 20 of 102
 Chapter-4 CLIMATE
I OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS.

1.Which one of the following warm currents replaces the Peruvian cold climate?
a Kuroshio
b El Nino
c South Pacific Current
d Gulf stream

2 Which of the following states suffer from loo?

a Tamil Nadu
b Uttar Pradesh
c Gujarat
d None of these

3 Which of the following crops is associated with the winter rainfall?

a Zaid
b Rabi
c Kharif
d None of these.

4 The full form of ITCZ is The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone. (True /False)

5 Centrifugal force is responsible for the deflection of winds from its normal path.( True /False )

6.Mawsynram is located in the hills

7 The amount of dust present in the atmosphere is called Humidity (True False)

8 In the question Q 8 given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion A and Reason R

9 . Read the statements and choose the correct options.

Options
a Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

Assertion A Drass in Jammu and Kashmir has a very low temperature

Reason R It is located at a greater altitude .

10 Study the climate data of Varanasi and answer each of the following questions

Page 21 of 102
a. Name the month with maximum rainfall in the year. How much is the rainfall in this month?

b. What is the annual range of temperature here?

c .Which three months have the least rainfall?

d .Name the hottest month and its temperature.

10 Identify the incorrectly matched pair from the following:-

a Loo – Uttar Pradesh
b Kaal Baisakhi — West Bengal
c Mango showers —-Kerala
d Temperature cyclones —Jammu and Kashmir.

Case based questions:-

11 Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

By early June. low -pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies. It attracts ,the trade winds
of the Southern Hemisphere .These south-east trade winds originate over the warm subtropical areas
of the southern oceans. They cross the equator and blow in a south westerly direction entering the
Indian peninsula as the south -west monsoon. As these winds blow over warm currents, they bring
abundant moisture to the subcontinent. These winds are strong and blow at an average velocity of
30km /hr. With the exception of the extreme north -west, the monsoon winds cover the country in
about a month.

A Which statement justify the uncertainty of the monsoon?

a Monsoon is the seasonal reversal of winds
b. Monsoon is irregular in its arrival and its retreat
c Monsoon generally unite the population of the country.
d Monsoon have tendency to take breaks in rainfall.

B. winds originate over the subtropical areas of the southern oceans.

12 Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

October -November with the apparent movement of the sun towards the south, the monsoon trough or
the low-pressure trough over the Northern plains becomes weaker. This is gradually replaced by a
high -pressure system. The south -west monsoon winds weaken During and start withdrawing
gradually. By the beginning of October, the monsoon withdraws from the Northern Plains .

a What do you mean by ' October heat '?

b Which months of a year form a period of transition from hot rainy season to dry winter
conditions?

Page 22 of 102
c Write the features of retreating monsoon season .

13.Study the table given above and answer the following questions

Station Latitude Altitude

A 12degree N 909m

B 26 degree N 160 m

a What type of climate does station A have and why?

b What type of climate does station B have and why?

14 What is weather?

15 Which parallel of latitude passes through the Centre of India?

II VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. India would have been an arid land or desert if there had been no phenomena of monsoons. Explain the
lines by example.

2. Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to west in Northern India? Give reasons.

3. Why do the monsoon winds change their direction? Give reason.

4. Distribution of tropical cyclones is a distinguishing feature of the monsoon. How do tropical cyclones
influence distribution of rainfall in India?

III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. How is the El Nino phenomenon connected with the Southern Oscillation?

2. Describe the main features of the Retreating monsoon season in India.

Page 23 of 102
3. What are jet streams and how do they affect the climate of India?

4. The coastal areas of India do not register any significant change in temperature even during the winter
and summer season.Why ?

IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. Explain the major controls of the climate of the world.

2. 'Monsoon in India is considered as a unifying bond.' Justify the statement.

3. Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.

V On an outline map of India show the following

(a) the areas receiving rainfall less than 20cm
(b) the areas receiving rainfall over 400cm

Page 24 of 102
Page 25 of 102
 Natural Vegetation And Wild Life
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in the world network
of biosphere?
a. Manas.
b. Gulf of Mannar.
c. Nilgiri
d. Nanda Devi.
2. One step taken by the Indian Government to conserve the forest is the setting of the
Forest Research Institute at
a. Dehradun
b. Patlidun
c. Delhi.
d. Uttar Pradesh
3. Which type of vegetation is found only in the northwestern part of India?
a. The Mangrove Forests
b. The Thorn Forests and Scrubs
c. The Tropical Deciduous Forests
d. The Tropical Evergreen Forests
4. In which areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to the
corresponding change in natural vegetation?
a. In mountainous areas
b. In deltas
c. In deserts
d. In plains
5. From the point of view of natural vegetation and wildlife, India belongs to which of
the following categories?
a. One of the twelve mega biodiversity countries of the world
b. The richest wildlife zone in the world
c. The country with the greatest forest cover
d. A country lacking in biodiversity cover
6. Due to which of the following reasons does the vegetation on the slopes of the
Himalayas and the hills of the peninsula above the height of 915 metres change
from tropical to subtropical, temperate and alpine vegetation?
a. Soil
b. High humidity
c. Fall in temperature
d. Very heavy rainfall
7. Why are the southern slopes in Himalayan region covered with thick vegetation as
compared to northern slopes of the same hills?
a. On account of more exposure to sunlight
b.On account of more precipitation

Page 26 of 102
 c.On account of less exposure to colder winds
d. All of the above
8. How do forests influence the climate of a place?
a. Modify local climate
b. Control wind force and temperature
c. Cause rainfall
d. All of the above
9. India’s natural vegetation has undergone many changes due to which of the
following factors?
a. Growing demands for cultivated land
b. Development of industries and mining
c.Overgrazing of pastures
d.All of the above
10. Moist tropical deciduous forests are more prominent in the eastern and central parts
of India because :
a. Most of the rivers are found in these parts.
b.The soil is ideally suited for such activities
c.These areas experience 100 to 200 cm of annual rainfall
d.There is commercial significance of such forests in these areas.
11. Case based question
1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
In regions less than 70cm of rainfall, the natural vegetation consists of thorny trees
and bushes. this type of vegetation is found in the north -western part of the country
including semiarid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhatisgarh, Uttar
Pradesh, Haryana. Acacias, palms, euphorbias and cacti are the main plant species.
Trees are scattered and have long roots penetrating deeply into the soil in order to
get moisture. The stems are succulent to conserve water. Leaves are mostly thick
and small to minimize evaporation. These forests give way to thorn forest and
scrubs in arid areas.

1. Which type of forest dominate the north western part of the country?
a. Montane forest
b. Thorny forest.
c. Alpine forest.
d. Evergreen forest
2. Which is not a characteristic of Thorny Forest?
a. Rainfall less than 100cms
b. wild asses, lion and fox are the common animals.
c. palms, Euphrates are the main plants.
d. includes semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan and Haryana
2. Complete the following table.
Name the animals found height

Page 27 of 102
 a. wet temperate
land
b. temperate forest
c. alpine
d. Tundra
14. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion A
and Reason R. Read the statements and choose the correct options.

Options

a. Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is True but R is False
d. A is false but R is true.
Assertion A: In India, there is huge demand of fauna only.

Reason R: India has variety of land, soil temperature and rainfall patterns.

3. A Study the bar graph and answer the following questions.

a. Name the state having maximum area under forest
cover.
b. Name the union territory having minimum area under forest cover and
give reason as to why?

II VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS :-

1. When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented in India?

Page 28 of 102
 2. For what purpose do the people in the forest use bamboo?

3. Why do the windward or western slopes of the western ghats have a denser
vegetation than the eastern or leeward slope?

4. Why are cultivated crops, fruits and vegetables not considered as natural
vegetation?

III SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. A great variety of flora and fauna is found in India. Give three geographical factors
responsible for the diversification of flora.

2. Distinguish between Thorn Forest and mangrove forest.

3. Several measures have been taken by the Government to protect the wild life. List
few of the measures.

IV LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

1. Why are the forests important to man? What has been the result of man’s
interference with nature?

2. Give a brief account of the wild life in India in five points.

Page 29 of 102
 3. Mention the ways in which the desert plants adapt themselves to their surroundings.

V MAP SKILLS

Locate and label the following on the map of India

1. Corbett national park
2. Ranthambore.
3. Dachigham wildlife sanctuary.
4. Rajaji wild life sanctuary.
5. Simlipal national park

Page 30 of 102
 Population
Q1. According to the Census, a “literate” person is one who
(a) Can read and write his/her name
(b) Can read and write any language
(c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
(d) Knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)

Q2. The magnitude of population growth refers to :

(a) The total population of area
(b) The number of persons added each year
(c) The rate at which the population increases
(d) The number of females per thousand males

Q3. What is sex ratio defined as?

(a) The number of females per 1000 males in the population
(b) The number of males per 10000 females in the population
(c) The number of females per 100 males in the population
(d) The number of females per 10 males in the population

Q4. The rate or pace of population increase per year is referred to as which of the following?
(a) Absolute increase
(b) Magnitude of increase
(c) Annual growth rate
(d) Population change

Q5. Occupational structure refers to distribution of workforce

(a) In primary sector activities
(b) In secondary sector activities
(c) In tertiary sector activities
(d) Between a male and a female
(a) I and II. (b) I, II and III. (c) I and IV. (d) I, II, III and IV

Q6. Which of the following statements about population growth between 1951 to 1981 is true ?
I. The annual rate of population growth was gradually decreasing
II. The annual rate of population growth was steadily increasing
III. The annual rate of population growth was static
IV. Census reports were not available for all decades
(a) Only I (b) I and II (c) Only II ( d) I, II and IV

Q7. Which of the following reasons is responsible for uneven population distribution in India?
I. Variations in topography or relief in different parts of India
II. Variations in climate and rainfall distribution
III. Variations in the rate of industrialisation and urbanisation

(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) I, II and III (d) I, II and III

Q8. Which of the following statements about population is correct?

I. Population is a dynamic phenomenon
II. The number, distribution and composition of population are static
III. Population of a country always increases with time
IV. Migrations do not affect the population of a country

(b) Only I. (b) Only II. (c) III and IV. (d) I, II, III and IV

Page 31 of 102
In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason ®. Read the
Statements and Choose the correct option: Options are:
(a) Both (A) and ® are true and ® is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and ® are true but ® is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but ® is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but ® is correct

Q9. Assertion: Education is an investment in human capital.

Reason: Education helps to develop the skills and knowledge of individuals, which in turn can lead
to higher productivity and income levels.

Q10. Assertion: The traditional sector of the economy is characterized by low productivity and low
income levels.
Reason: The traditional sector comprises activities such as agriculture, handicrafts, and petty trade, which
are often carried out by unskilled and semi-skilled workers.

Q11. Assertion: The government can play an important role in human resource development.
Reason: The government can invest in education, healthcare, and training programs to develop the skills
and abilities of individuals.

Q12. Observe the picture carefully and the question

Population density stands for :
(b) It calculated by the number of males per unit area
(c) It is calculated as the number of persons per unit area.
(d) It is calculated by the number of females per unit area.
(d) It is calculated by the unit of area acquired by immigrants

Q13. Observe the picture carefully and answer the following question.
According to data, the population of the country:
(b) Increases.
(c) Decreases.
(d) Stable.
(e) None

Q14. Discuss the major components of population growth.

Q15. How is migration a determinant factor of population change?

Q16. What are the advantages of having a healthy population?

Page 32 of 102
Q17. What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?

Q18. Distinguish between population growth and population change.

Q19. Evaluate the NPP 2000 and Adolescents.

Q20. Analyse the push and pull factors of migration.

Page 33 of 102