Corporation Bank PO Solved Question Paper 2010 (Reasoning Ability) Article Category: Bank PO Question Papers, Bank Exam

Question Papers, Bank Recru itment Share 1. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DREO using eac h letter only once in each word? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (2) 2. Pointing to a boy, Urmila said, "He is the son of my grandfather's only daugh ter." How is Urmila related to the boy? 1) Mother 2) Maternal Aunt 3) Paternal Aunt 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (5) 3. In a row of forty boys facing North, R is twelfth from the left end and T is eighteenth from the right end. How many boys are between R and T in the row? 1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Ans: (1) 4. Mohit correctly remembers that his father's birthday is not after eighteenth of April. His sister correctly remembers that their father's birthday is before twentieth but after seventeenth of April. On which day in April was definitely t heir father's birthday? 1) Seventeenth 2) Nineteenth 3) Eighteenth

4) Seventeenth or Eighteenth 5) None of these Ans: (3) 5. W walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 50 metres, agai n he took a left turn and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting poin t? 1) 80 metres 2) 100 metres 3) 130 metres 4) 50 metres 5) None of these Ans: (4) 6. In a certain code BLACK is written as 'ALBKC' and SMART is written as 'AMSTR' . How is CLOCK written in that code? 1) CLOKE 2) CLOCK 3) OLCKC 4) OLCCK 5) None of these Ans: (3) 7. What should come next in the following number series? 975311864229753186422975318642975 1) 1 2) 5 3) 3 4) 5 5) None of these Ans: (3) 8. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 83416759 are in terchanged. Similarly, the positions of the second and the sixth digits are inte rchanged, and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the ri ght end after the rearrangement? 1) 3 2) 8

3) 4 4) 6 5) None of these Ans: (2) 9. M is brother of K. T is sister of K. R is father of M. J is wife of R. How ma ny sons does J have? 1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (4) 10. In a certain code 'GONE' is written as 'NOEGG' and 'LOAD' is written as 'AOD LL'. How is 'SORT' written in that code? 1) ROSIT 2) ROTSS 3) RSTOO 4) OTRSS 5) None of these Ans: (2) 11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONTRAST each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (4) 12. In a certain code GONE is written as GOLD written in that code? 1) 5@%3 2) 5%@33) 5#@3 5%2# and MEDAL is written as 4#3$@ . How is

4) 5%#3 5) None of these Ans: (2) 13. The positions of how many digits in the number 89154326 will remain unchange d after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (5) 14. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having scored different marks, B has scored mor e marks than E and D. B has not scored the highest marks among them. Who among t hem scored the second-highest marks? 1) B 2) C 3) E 4) D 5) Data inadequate Ans: (5) 15. In a certain code language 'how old are you' is written as '9734' and 'he is old' is written as '2 75'. How is 'he' written in that code language? 1) 2 2) 5 3) 2 or 5 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (5) Directions (Q. 16-18): Following questions are based on the five three-digit num bers given below: 528 739 846 492 375

16. Which of the following represents the sum of the first two digits of the hig hest number?

1) 7 2) 10 3) 12 4) 13 5) None of these Ans: (3) 17. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each number are inter changed, which of the following will be the third digit of the second lowest num ber? 1) 8 2) 9 3) 6 4) 2 5) 5 Ans: (2) 18. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each number are interc hanged, which of the following will be the middle digit of the third highest num ber? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 9 5) 7 Ans: (3) Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: (i) 'P Q' means' P is sister of Q' (ii) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of 'Q'. (iii) p - Q' means 'P is father of Q'. (iv) 'P Q' means 'P is brother of Q'. 19. Which of the following represents 'W is grandfather of H'? 1) W +T - H

2) W T - H 3) W T + H 4) W T + H 5) None of these Ans: (5) 20. Which of the following represents 'M is nephew of R ? 1) M T - R 2) R T - M 3) R T + M J 4) R T M J

5) None of these Ans: (4) Directions (Q.21-26): In each of the questions below are given four statements f ollowed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even' if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions l ogically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 21. Statements: All rockets are poles. Some poles are trams. Some trams are ropes. All ropes are tents, Conclusions: I. Some tents are trams. II. Some ropes are rockets. III. Some trams are rockets. IV. Some poles are rockets. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only I and III follow 4) Only I and IV follow 5) None of these Ans: (4) 22. Statements:

All dials are mirrors. All mirrors are spoons. Some spoons are decks. Some decks are chairs. Conclusions: I. Some decks are mirrors. II. Some spoons are dials. III. Some decks are dials. IV. Some chairs are spoons. 1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows 4) Only III follows 5) Only IV follows Ans: (3) 23. Statements: Some houses are forests. All forests are trees. Some trees are hills. All hills are buses. Conclusions: I. Some buses are trees. II. Some trees are houses. III. Some hills are houses. IV. Some buses are forests. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I, II and IV follow 3) Only I, II and III follow 4) All I, II, III and IV follow 5) None of these

Ans: (1) 24. Statements: Some lakes are rivers. Some rivers are mountains. Some mountains are books. Some books are papers. Conclusions: I. Some books are rivers. II. Some papers are lakes. III. Some mountains are lakes. IV. No paper is a lake. 1) None follows 2) Only either II or IV follows 3) Only II follows 4) Only IV follows 5) Only either II or IV and III follow Ans: (2) 25. Statements: Some tigers are horses. All horses are goats. All goats are dogs. Some dogs are cats. Conclusions: I. Some cats are tigers. II. Some dogs are horses. III. Some goats are tigers. IV. Some cats are horses. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only II and III follow

4) Only II, III and IV follow 5) None of these Ans: (3) 26. Statements: All notebooks are pens. No pen is a table. Some tables are desks. All desks are tanks. Conclusions: I. Some tanks are pens. II. Some desks are notebooks. III. Some tanks are tables. IV. No tank is a pen. 1) Only I follows 2) Only III follows 3) Only IV follows 4) Only either I or IV follows 5) Only either I or IV and III follow Ans: (5) Directions (Q. 27-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, V, Wand Z are sitting round a circle facin g the centre. T is second to the right of R, who is third to the right of P. S i s second to the left of P and fourth to the right of Q . Z is third to the right of V, who is not an immediate neighbour of P. 27. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting between t he second and the third persons? 1) VTS 2) TZS 3) QRV 4) PWQ 5) VRT Ans: (5) 28. Who is second to the right of T?

1) S 2) Z 3) P 4) R 5) None of these Ans. (2) 29. What is P's position with respect to S? 1) Fourth to the left 2) Fourth to the right 3) Fifth to the left 4) Sixth to the left 5) Third to the right Ans: (4) 30. Who is on the immediate left of Z? 1) T 2) P 3) S 4) V 5) None of these Ans: (3) 31. Who is second to the right of W? 1) R 2) Q 3) Z 4) S 5) None of these Ans: (1) Directions (Q.32-37): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the q uestions given below: W 7@ I R P 3 9 B A $ 4 H D 5 M E 2 % T * 8 d U Q N 1V 6 # K F 32. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which i

s immediately preceded by a consonant and immediate followed by a symbol? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (1) 33. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the foll owing will be the fifteenth from the left end? 1) E 2) 5 3) D 4) 2 5) None of these Ans: (1) 34. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is i mmediately preceded by a symbol, and immediately followed by a consonant? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (2) 35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positio ns in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) T * 2 2) Q N d 3) 3 9 R 4) 6 V K 5) % T E Ans: (4)

36. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty second from t he right end of the above arrangement? 1) H 2) # 3) T 4) @ 5) None of these Ans: (3) 37. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is i mmediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans: (5) Directions (Q.38-43): In each question below is given a group of letters followe d by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the group of lette rs based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations corre ctly represents the group of letters, mark 5), ie 'None of these' as your answer . . Letter : B A D E F H J K M I U 0 W F P

Digit/Sym. Code: 6 $ 7 8 # 1 2 * % 3 4 9 @ 5 Conditions: (i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, their co des are to be interchanged. (ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as d . (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both ar e to be coded as the code for the vowel. 38. EKFUDH 1) 8*#78 2) 1*#78 3) d*#78

4) 1*#71 5) None of these Ans: (2) 39. JMEIUD 1) d%83d 2) 2%832 3) 7%837 4) 2%837 5) None of these Ans: (1) 40. PEJDWU 1) 58279 2) d8279d 3) 8279 4) 582795 5) None of these Ans: (3) 41. DMEAKJ 1) 7%8$*2 2) 2%8$*7 3) 7%8$*7 4) d%8$*d 5) None of these Ans: (4) 42. IBHWPO 1) 361954 2) 461953 3) 361953 4) 461954 5) None of these

Ans: (1) 43. UKPDMI 1) 5*7%3 2) d*57%d 3) 3*57% 4) *5%73 5) None of these Ans: (5) Directions (Q.44-49): In the following questions, the symbols @, , %, * and $ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 'P Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. 'P $ Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'. 'P @ Q' means' P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q. 'P * Q' means 'P is neither equal to nor greater than Q'. 'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'. Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true , find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are defi nitely true and give your answer accordingly. 44. Statements: D @ M, M $ B, B * R, R % T Conclusions: I. B * D II. B @ D III.T * M 1) None is true 2) Only I is true 3) Only II is true 4) Only III is true 5) Only either I or II is true Ans: (5) 45. Statements: W F, Conclusions: I. K % W F @ D, D * K, K $ J

II. D $ W III. F * K 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) AII I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (4) 46. Statements: R * K, K M, M % T, T $ J Conclusions: I. J * M II. J * M III. K J 1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only I and II are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (3) 47. Statements: R @ K, T K, T $ M, M * W Conclusions: I. W % K II. MR III. TR 1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only III is true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (5)

48. Statements: T $ N, N % B, B @ W, K W Conclusions: I. K $ B II. K $ T III. T % B 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (5) 49. Statements: Z % V, V * J, J M, M @ R Conclusions: I. R % V II. M % V III. Z % M 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans: (1) Directions (50-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the giv en questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numb ers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is a n illustration of input and rearrangement. Input Step I Step II Step III : gone 93 over 46 84 now for 31 : 31 gone 93 over 46 84 now for : 31 over gone 93 46 84 now for : 31 over 46 gone 93 84 now for

Step IV Step V

: 31 over 46 now gone 93 84 for : 31 over 46 now 84 gone 93 for

and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions t he appropriate step for the given input. 50. Step III of an Input: 15 window 2993 86 sail tower buy Which of the followin g will be step VI? 1) 15 window 29 tower 86 sail 93 buy 2) 15 window 29 tower 86 93 sail buy 3) 15 window 29 tower 93 86 sail buy 4) There will be no such step 5) None of these Ans: (1) 51. Input: station hurry 39 67 all men 86 59 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Three 5) None of these Ans: (2) 52. Step II of an input is : 49 zone car battery 56 87 71 down Which of the foll owing is definitely the input? 1) car 49 battery zone 56 87 71 down 2) zone 49 car battery 568771 down 3) battery car 49 zone 56 87 71 down 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Ans: (4) 53. Input: news 79 53 glory for 46 29 task Which of the following will be step I V? 1) 29 task 46 news 53 glory 79 for 2) 29 task 46 news 53 79 glory for

3) 29 task 46 news 79 53 glory for 4) 29 news 79 53 glory for461ask 5) None of these Ans: (2) 54. Step III of an input is: 27 tube 34 gas chamber row7453 Which of the followi ng steps will be the last but one? 1) VI 2) VII 3) VIII 4) V 5) None of these Ans: (4) 55. Step II of an Input: 19 year 85 74 near gone 26 store How many more steps wi ll be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) Five 5) None of these Ans: (2) Directions (Q.56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the q uestions given below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students of a school. They study in Std VI, VII and VIII with not more than three in any Std. Each of them has a favourite s ubject from Physics. Geography, English, Marathi, Mathematics, Chemistry, Biolog y and Economics not necessarily in the same order. D likes Chemistry and studies in Std VIII with only H.B does not study in Std VII. E and A study in the same Std but not with B. C and F study in the same Std. Those who study in Std VI do not like Mathematics or Biology. F likes Physics. The one who studies in Std VII I likes English. C does not like Geography. A's favourite subject is Marathi and G does not like Biology. 56. Which subject does H like? 1) English 2) Marathi 3) Science 4) Data inadequate

5) None of these Ans: (1) 57. What is G's favourite subject? 1) Biology 2) Physics 3) Marathi 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (5) 58. What is C's favourite subject? 1) Economics 2) Biology 3) English 4) Geography 5) Data inadequate Ans: (1) 59. Which of the following combinations of student-Std Subject is correct? 1) C- VII- Economics 2) D-VI- Chemistry 3) G-VII-Physics 4) B-VIII- Mathematics 5) None is correct Ans: (5) 60. Which of the following groups of students study in Std VII? 1) EAF 2) ECG 3) EAG 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans: (3)

Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization: The candidate must (i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55 per cent marks. (ii) have a postgraduate degree/diploma in Marketing Management with at least 60 per cent marks. (iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least five 'years in the mar keting division of an organisation. . (iv) have secured at least 45 per. cent marks in the selection examination. (v) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions except (a) at (iii) above, but has post-qualification work experience of at least three years as Deputy Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing. (b) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in the selection ex amination, the case is to be referred to VP-Marketing. In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the co nditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of ac tion as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information p rovided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.05.2010. Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected. Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected. Mark answer 3) if the case is to be referred to GM- Marketing. Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to VP- Marketing. Mark answer 5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision. 61. Nidhi Agrawal has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection interview 0 per cent marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the ting division of an organisation for the past eight years after completing ostgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 65 per cent marks. She has ed 59 per cent marks in BSc. Ans: (2) 62. Navin Desai has secured 56 per cent marks in BA. He has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate degree in Marketing with 62 per cent marks. He has secured 62 p er cent marks in the selection examination and 38 per cent marks in the selectio n interview. Ans: (4) and 4 marke her p secur

63. Sabina Handa has been working for the past four years as Deputy Marketing Ma nager in an organisation after completing her postgraduate diploma in Marketing Management with 65 per cent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in both sele ction examination and selection interview. She has also secured 58 per cent mark s in BCom. Ans: (3) 64. Manoj Malhotra has secured 65 per cent marks in BSc and 60 per cent marks in postgraduate degree in Marketing Management. He has also secured 50 per cent ma rks in both selection examination and selection interview, He has been working i n the marketing division of an organisation for the past six years after complet ing his postgraduation in Marketing. Ans: (1) 65. Varsha Akolkar has secured 59 per cent marks in BA. She has secured 42 per c ent marks in the selection interview and 48 per cent marks in the selection exam ination. She has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for t he past seven years after completing her postgraduation in Marketing Management with 57 per cent marks. Ans: (2) 66. Utpal Goswami has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past five years after completing his postgraduate diploma in Marketing M anagement with 65 per cent marks. He is. a first-class Science graduate with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 45 per cent marks in the selection examination an d 40 per cent marks in the selection interview. Ans: (1) 67. Anindita Ghosh has been working for the past eight years in an organisation after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 70 per cen t marks. She has secured 56 per cent marks in BA. She has also secured 50 per ce nt marks in the selection examination and 45 per cent marks in the selection int erview. Ans: (5) 68. Samir Phukan has been working in the marketing division of an organisation f or the past five years after completing his post graduate diploma in management with 65 per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in BCom. He has also se cured 50 per cent marks in both selection examination and selection interview. Ans: (5) 69. Nimisha Patil has secured 59 per cent marks in BCom. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both selection examination and the selection interview. She h as been working as Deputy Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past thre e years after completing her postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 63 per cent marks. Ans: (3) 70. Sadashiv Ghatge has secured 60 per cent marks in BCom. He has been working f or the past five years in the marketing division of an organisation after comple ting his post- graduate degree in Marketing Management with 68% marks. He has se cured 35 per cent marks in the selection interview and 62 per cent marks in the

selection examination. Ans: (4) Directions (Q. 71-75): In each question below is given a statement followed by t wo assumptions numbered land II. An assumption is something supposed or taken fo r granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer 1) if only Assumption I is implicit. Give answer 2) if only Assumption II is implicit. Give answer 3) if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit. Give answer 4) if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit. Give answer 5) if both Assumptions I and II are implicit. 71. Statement: The largest domestic airlines corporation has announced new summe r schedules in which more number of flights in trunk routes are introduced. Assumptions: I. More number of passengers may travel by this airlines corporation during summ er months in trunk routes. II. Other airlines companies 'may also increase the number of flights in all the sectors. Ans: (1) 72. Statement: The chairman of the company decided to hold a grand function to c elebrate silver jubilee during the next weekend and invited a large number of gu ests. Assumptions: I. The company officials may be able to make all the necessary preparations .for the silver jubilee celebration. II. Majority of the guests invited by the chairman may attend the function. Ans: (5) 73. Statement: The largest computer manufacturing company slashed the prices of most of the desktop models by about 15 per cent with immediate effect. Assumptions: I. The company may incur heavy losses due to reduction in prices of the desktop. II. The sales of desktop manufactured by the company may increase substantially in the near future. Ans: (2) 74. Statement: The school authority decided to rent out the school premises duri ng weekends and holidays for organising various functions to augment its resourc

es to meet the growing needs of the school. Assumptions: I. The parents of the school students may protest against the decision of the sc hool authority. II. There may not be enough demand for hiring the school premises for organising functions. Ans: (4) 75. Statement: The local civic body has urged all the residents to voluntarily r educe consumption of potable water by about 30 per cent to tide over the water c risis. Assumptions: I. Many residents may reduce consumption of potable water. II. Many activists may welcome the civic body's move and spread awareness among residents. Ans: (1) Directions (Q.76-80): Below is given a passage followed by several possible infe rences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to exam ine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer 1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie it properly follows fro m the statement of facts given. Mark answer 2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not 'definitely true' in the light of the facts given. Mark answer 3) if the 'data are-inadequate', ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. Mark answer 4) if the inference is 'probably false', though not 'definitely fals e' in the light of the facts given. Mark answer 5) if the inference is 'definitely false', ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts. Asia has become the growth centre of the world economy in recent years. Within t he region, India and South Korea are the third and fourth largest economies afte r China and Japan. Though the Asian growth stories mainly revolve around India a nd China, South Korea has remained a key player for these' countries as one of t heir major trading and investment partners. South Korea adopted outward-oriented economic policies with the beginning of its first five-year economic developmen t plan in 1962, which resulted in high growth and the integration of the Korean economy with the rest of the world. Subsequently, high and consistent economic g rowth made South Korea one of the high-income economies in Asia. Korea is still growing at a faster rate compared to other developed economies. India on the oth er hand adopted an import substitution policy since its Independence until the e arly 1990s. Since then India has introduced wide-ranging economic policy reforms and is moving towards market-driven economy. This has resulted in consistent hi gh economic growth over the last one-and-a-half decades.

76. Only Korean economy is considered as robust by the international community. Ans: (5) 77. Japan's economic growth over the last decade is the highest in Asia. Ans: (4) 78. The 'Korean economy is traditionally different than the Indian economy in it s approach . Ans: (1) 79. The economic growth of India prior to 1990s was much higher than the present growth rate. Ans: (5) 80. India and China together are considered to be the driving force of the Asian economy. Ans: (2) Directions (Q.81-85): In each question below is given a statement followed by tw o courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administr ative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regar d to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the state ment, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide whi ch of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer 1) if only course of action I follows. Give answer 2) if only course of action II follows. Give answer 3) if either course of action I or II follows. Give answer 4) if neither course of action I nor II follows. Give answer 5) if both courses of action I and II follow. 81. Statement: There have been sporadic cases of stone throwing and damaging veh icles in the locality during the day following altercation between two local you th clubs last night. Courses of action: I. The local police administration should arrest all those who are caught commit ting these acts. II. The local police administration should call a meeting of office bearers of b oth the clubs of the locality to bring the situation under control. Ans: (2) 82. Statement: A huge truck overturned on the middle of the main road and blocke d most part of the road, causing a huge traffic jam. Courses of action: I. The traffic department should immediately deploy its personnel to divert traf

fic through other roads. II. The traffic department should immediately send men and equipment to-move the truck and clear the road. Ans: (3) 83. Statement: Some workers of the company making diamond jewellery were caught while there were leaving the premises as they were trying to smuggle small piece s of diamonds hidden in their purses. Courses of action: I. The management of the company should immediately put on hold all activities i n the premises till a fool-proof security system is in place. II. The belongings of all the workers should thoroughly be searched before they leave the premises of the company. Ans: (2) 84. Statement: A huge tidal wave swept away many fishing boats and hutments of t he fishermen living along the coastline. Courses of action: I. The fishermen should henceforth be restrained from constructing their huts al ong the coast line. II. The local administration should send a team of officials to assess the exten t of damage and suggest remedial measures. Ans: (2) 85. Statement: A large number of invitees who attended the marriage function fel l ill due to food poisoning and were rushed to various hospitals located in the area. Courses of action: I. The government should ban such marriage functions till further notice. II. The local hospitals should be advised by the government to provide best serv ices to the affected peo