14-07-2024

1901CPA404016240019 PF

PHYSICS

1) The velocity of a body moving with a uniform acceleration of 2 m/s2 is 10 m/s. Its velocity after an
interval of 5 sec is

(1) 20 m / sec
(2) 14 m / sec
(3) 16 m / sec
(4) 18 m / sec

2) A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest half of time at 40 km/h. Total distance
covered is 60 km. What is the average speed of the car?

(1) 60 km/h
(2) 80 km/h
(3) 120 km/h
(4) 180 km/h

3) A ball was attached to the end of a string and spun in a circle as shown in Figure 1 below. The
ball moved in a counter-clockwise direction when seen from above as shown in Figure 2.

Figure 1 (view from side)

Figure 2 (view from above) After several spins, the string was released when the ball was at point R.
Which diagram shows the direction that the ball would fly the instant the string was released?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) The velocity- time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in figure.The displacement
and distance travelled by the body in 6 seconds are respectively.

(1) 8 m,16 m
(2) 16 m, 8 m
(3) 16 m,16 m
(4) 8 m, 8 m

5) Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled road. Their distance versus time graphs are

shown. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Car A is faster than car D

(2) Car B is the slowest
(3) Car D is faster than car C
(4) Car C is the slowest

6) Which of the following graphs given below is impossible? (S = displacement, T = time)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) In which of the following cases of motion, the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement
are equal?

(1) If the car is moving on a straight road

(2) If the car is moving in circular path
(3) The pendulum is moving to and fro
(4) The earth is revolving around the sun

8) If the displacement – time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at an angles
of 30º and 60º with the time axis, then ratio of the velocities VA:VB will be : (Given tan 60º = and

tan 30º= )

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3)
(4) 3 : 1

9) Which of the following graphs is not possible?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

If the angular speed of the wheel of the bicycle is 300 rad/s and radius of wheel is 0.2 m, then linear
speed of the wheel of the bicycle is

(1) 90 m/s
(2) 60 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

11) Area under a v - t graph represents a physical quantity which has the unit:

(1) m2
(2) m
(3) m3
(4) ms-1

12) Body thrown in upward direction from ground with velocity 30 m/s . Find the height of the body
from the ground where its velocity becomes zero?

(1) 15 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 60 m

13) When a body is doing uniform circular motion then which of the following physical quantity will
remains constant?

(1) velocity
(2) displacement
(3) speed
(4) none of these

14) A car travels 100 km at a speed of 60 km/h and returns with a speed of 40 km/h. Calculate the
average speed for the whole journey.

(1) 48 km/h
(2) 52 km/h
(3) 43 km/h
(4) 27 km/h

15)

A body is moving with a uniform speed of 5 m/s in a circular path of radius 5 m. the centripetal
acceleration of the body is

(1) 25 m/s2
(2) 15 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

16)

Following graph shows:

(1) Increasing acceleration
(2) Decreasing velocity
(3) Decreasing acceleration
(4) None of the above

17) A freely falling object travels with a uniform :-

(1) acceleration
(2) velocity
(3) displacement
(4) speed

18) A stone is dropped from a height 45 m. What will be the distance travelled by it during the last
one second of motion? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4.5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 25 m
(4) 35 m

19) Two balls are dropped from height h and 2h respectively. The ratio of times of these balls to
reach the earth is

(1)
(2)
(3) 2:1
(4) 1:4

20) A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity (u) .the greatest height h to which it will rise is-

(1) u/g
(2) u2/2g
(3) u2/g
(4) u/2g

CHEMISTRY
1) The substance having least tendency to flow is

(1) Water
(2) Sodium
(3) Chlorine
(4) All have similar tendency

2) The boiling point of a liquid

(1) increases on increasing pressure

(2) decreases on increasing pressure
(3) is not affected by pressure
(4) depends upon mass of liquid

3) Which has the least energetic molecules?

(1) Solids
(2) Liquids
(3) Gases
(4) Plasma

4) The substance showing sublimation property among the following is

(1) Common salt

(2) Copper sulphate
(3) Potassium nitrate
(4) Camphor

5) Assertion (A) : Gases exert pressure on the walls of the containers.

Reason (R) : The intermolecular force of attraction is very strong in gases.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

6) Let T = temperature, H = Humidity & V = Wind speed.

Which of the following are the best suited condition for drying up of clothes?

(1) T = 40oC, H = 10%, V = 45 m/s

(2) T = 28oC, H = 20%, V = 35 m/s
(3) T = 20oC, H = 30%, V = 25 m/s
(4) T = 15oC, H = 40%, V = 15 m/s

7) The process of inter-mixing of matter is called:

(1) Fusion
(2) Crystallisation
(3) Sublimation
(4) Diffusion

8) Seema visited a Natural gas compressing unit and found that the gas can be liquefied under
specific condition of temperature and pressure she got confused. Help her to identify the correct set
of conditions.

(1) Low temperature, low pressure

(2) High temperature, low pressure
(3) Low temperature, high pressure
(4) High temperature, high pressure

9) The microscopic view of three different substances are shown in the given diagram. Where T1, T2
and T3 are temperatures and F1 , F2 and F3 are the forces of attraction of the particles of the
respective states. Choose the correct order among the following.

(1) T1 < T2 < T3 and F1 < F2 < F3

(2) T1 > T2 > T3 and F1 > F2 > F3
(3) T1 < T2 < T3 and F1 > F2 > F3
(4) T1 > T2 > T3 and F1 < F2 < F3

10)

The state of matter which makes a flourscent bulb to glow

(1) Gas
(2) BEC
(3) Plasma
(4) Solid

11) Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

(1) Melting point and freezing point of a substance are different.

(2) Evaporation of liquids takes place only at its boiling point.
(3) The density of ice is more than water.
Boiling of liquid takes place when vapour pressure of liquid become equal to atmospheric
(4)
pressure.

12) Match the column:-

 Column -A Column-B
a Brownian motion (i) Force of attraction between particles of same substance
b Cohesive force (ii) Zig-zag motion
c Adhesive force (iii) Intermixing of particles of two or more different substances.
d Diffusion (iv) Force of attraction between particles of different substances
(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(2) a-(i), b- (iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)

13) A liquid and a solid together consisting a single phase is known as

(1) Solution
(2) Solute
(3) Solvent
(4) Emulsion

14) Air is regarded as a mixture because

(1) its pressure may vary.

(2) its temperature may change.
(3) its volume changes under different conditions.
(4) its composition may vary.

15) Brass contains

(1) Gold and copper

(2) Copper and zinc
(3) Zinc and silver
(4) Copper and silver

16)

Column-I Column-II
(A) Aluminium (p) Compound
(B) Fluorine (q) Metal
(C) Tellurium (r) Non- metal
(D) Limestone (s) Metalloid
Option B matches with
(1) p
(2) q
(3) r
(4) s
17) Study the graph and select the correct option.

(1) When water is cooled to 4°C, it contracts

(2) At 0°C, water freezes
(3) Volume of ice > Volume of water
(4) All of these

18) A mixture in which different constituents are mixed uniformly can also be called a

(1) heterogeneous mixture

(2) homogeneous mixture
(3) suspension
(4) colloidal mixture

19) A pure substance consists of ________ type of particle/particles

(1) Single
(2) Double
(3) Triple
(4) half

20) Assertion : A solution is homogeneous mixture

Reason : Components of a solution are mixed non uniformly.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

BIOLOGY

1)

Column-I Column-II
Schleiden and
(A) Nucleus (p)
Schwann
(B) Protoplasm (q) Leeuwenhoek
 Observed first
(C) (r) Robert Brown
living cell
(D) Cell theory (s) Purkinje
Option C matches with
(1) p
(2) q
(3) r
(4) s

2) Exception to cell theory is :

(1) Algae
(2) Bacteria
(3) Virus
(4) Fungi

3) Match the Column-I and Column-II.

Shape Example
i. Spherical a. RBC
ii. Slipper b. Muscle cell
iii. Spindle c. Paramecium
iv. Discoidal d. Eggs
(1) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d
(2) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - a
(3) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
(4) i - a, ii - b, iii - d, iv - c

4) Cellular organelles with membranes are :

(1) Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria

(2) Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
(3) Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei

5) Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Proteins
(3) Glycolipids
(4) Cellulose

6) A cell will swell up if

The concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher than the concentration of water
(1)
molecules in surrounding medium.
 The concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules
(2)
concentration in the cell.
(3) The concentration of water molecules is same in the cell and in the surrounding medium.
(4) Concentration of water molecules does not matter.

7) Mark the correct statements related to cell wall

(a) Non-living rigid structure
(b) Present in fungi and plants
(c) Provides barriers to undesirable molecules
(d) Middle lamella represents the outermost boundary of a plant cell

(1) a, b, d
(2) d only
(3) c, d
(4) All are correct

8) Three cousins have a similar appearance but different face shapes. Which of these cell
components are most involved in determining the basic shape of each girl’s face?

(1) Genes, chromosomes, and nucleus

(2) Cytoplasm, chloroplasts, and genes
(3) Vacuoles, nucleus, and chromosomes
(4) Chromosomes, chloroplasts, and vacuoles

9) Chromosomes are made up of

(1) DNA
(2) Histon proteins
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of these

10) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II

Without any requirement of

a. Osmosis 1.
energy

b. Active transport 2. ATP energy is utilised

c. Passive transport
(1) a-1, b-2, c-2
(2) a-2, b-2, c-1
(3) a-2, b-1, c-2
(4) a-1, b-2, c-1

11) Mitosis actually means

(1) Reduction in number of chromosomes

(2) Division of nucleus only.
(3) Division of cytoplasm only
(4) Both nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions

12)

Which of the following is not a role of cytoplasm?

(1) Intracellular distribution of nutrients.

(2) Site of chemical reaction like glycolysis & synthesis of fatty acids.
(3) Exchange of materials between cell organelles
(4) Digestion of foreign substances

13) Centriole is associated with

(1) DNA synthesis

(2) Transportation
(3) Spindle fibres formation
(4) Respiration

14) Lysosomes are the reservoirs of

(1) Fat
(2) RNA
(3) Secretory glycoproteins
(4) Hydrolytic enzymes

15) Assertion : The golgi apparatus mainly performs the function of packaging materials.
Reason : Materials to be packed in the form of vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with
trans face of the golgi apparatus.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

16) Membrane biogenesis is associated with which of the following cell organelles ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (2)

17)

The structures found in chloroplast are-

(1) Thylakoids, cristae, circular DNA and stroma

(2) Grana, stroma lamellae, circular DNA and stroma
(3) Cristae, oxysomes, circular DNA and matrix
(4) None of the above

18) The sedimentation coefficient of complete ribosome in bacterial cell is –

(1) 70S
(2) 80S
(3) 78S
(4) 60S

19) According to you, what kind of transport is shown in the given diagram?

(1) Simple diffusion.

(2) Passive transport
(3) Active transport
(4) Osmosis

20) Study the given flow chart regarding some cell organelles present in a cell.
 Which of the following options is incorrect
regarding X, Y and Z?

(1) Organelle X can transform solar energy into chemical energy of carbohydrates.
Enzymes of organelle Y are present in the acrosome of human sperm cell which digest the
(2)
limiting membrane of ovum during fertilization.
On starvation, organelle Z digests stored food contents and other cellular components; this
(3)
process is called as autophagy.
(4) Organelle X can bring about stepwise oxidation of carbohydrates to produce CO2 and water.

MATHEMATICS

1) An exterior angle of a triangle is 120o and if one of the interior opposite angles is 40o, then the
other two angles of triangle are

(1) 80o, 40o

(2) 80o, 60o
(3) 90o, 30o
(4) 50o, 70o

2) In ΔABC, BD bisects and perpendicular to AC. If the length of the sides of the triangle are
expressed in terms of x and y (as shown in the figure), then the values of x and y respectively are

(1) 5, 8
(2) 6, 12
(3) 8, 4
(4) 12, 4
3) In the given figure, if then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Which of the following is not a criterion for congruency ?

(1) A-A-S
(2) S-A-S
(3) S-S-A
(4) A-S-A

5) In the given figure, if then

(1) D is the mid-point of BC

(2) AD is the angle bisector of
(3) AD is the perpendicular bisector of BC
(4) All of these

6) In the given figure, ΔABC is congruent to

(1) ΔBDC
(2) ΔBEC
(3) ΔADB
(4) None of these
7) In the given figure, x + y is equal to

(1) 210o
(2) 230o
(3) 270o
(4) 190o

8) In the given figure, if then the value of x is

(1) 18o
(2) 22o
(3) 32o
(4) 44o

9) In the given figure, y can be expressed in terms of x as

(1)

(2)

(3) x

(4)

10) One of the angles of a triangle is 90o. If one of the remaining angles is twice the other, then the
smaller of the remaining angles is
(1) 30o
(2) 45o
(3) 50o
(4) 60o

11) If all the angles of a triangle are equal, then each of them is equal to

(1) 90o
(2) 45o
(3) 60o
(4) 30o

12) Statement - 1 : If two plane figures are congruent, then their areas are equal.
Statement - 2 : If areas of two plane figures are equal, then they are congruent.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

13) In the given, if AC = AE, AB = AD and then

(1)
(2) BC = DE
(3) AD = AC
(4) Both (1) and (2)

14) In the given figure, if ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AD = BC and then

(1)
(2) BD = AC
(3)
(4) All of these

15) In the given figure, ΔABC is a right triangle. If and AD = DC, then ΔABD and ΔCBD are

congruent by

(1) A-A-A congruence criterion

(2) S-S-A congruence criterion
(3) A-S-A congruence criterion
(4) S-A-S congruence criterion

16) Two circles are congruent, if they have

(1) Same centre

(2) Equal circumference
(3) Equal radius
(4) Both (2) & (3)

17) In the given figure, if PQ || RS, and then the value of x is

(1) 105o
(2) 145o
(3) 135o
(4) 160o
18) In the given figure, if then the value of x is

(1) 63o
(2) 35o
(3) 82o
(4) 98o

19) In the given figure, AB || CD, P and R are the points on AB and CD respectively. If Q is a point in

between AB and CD, then the value of x is

(1) 30o
(2) 50o
(3) 60o
(4) 90o

20) In the given figure, If AB || CD and EF || CD, then the value of x is

(1) 30o
(2) 36o
(3) 45o
(4) 52o

MAT

1) Find the missing term.

118, 114, 105, 89, 64, __?__

(1) 28
(2) 26
(3) 38
(4) 34

2) Find the missing term.

11, 13, 17, 19, 23, __?__

(1) 32
(2) 31
(3) 30
(4) 29

3)

Find the missing term in the following series.

_aa_ba_bb_ab_aab

(1) aaabb
(2) babab
(3) bbaab
(4) None of these

4)

Replace the question mark (?) in the series given below with the suitable option.
2, 3, 7, 16, 32, ?

(1) 57
(2) 37
(3) 48
(4) 55

5) Find the mising term in the given series.

113, 225, 449, ?, 1793

(1) 789
(2) 786
(3) 897
(4) None of these

6) 5, ?, 8, 56, 7, 63, 9

(1) 45
(2) 35
(3) 40
(4) 42

7) 2, 10, 30, 68, ?

(1) 126
(2) 130
(3) 140
(4) None of these

8) 62, 64, 30, 32, ?, 16

(1) 16
(2) 18
(3) 14
(4) 12

9) 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, ?, 720

(1) 100
(2) 104
(3) 108
(4) 120

10) 7, 8, 11, 17, ?, 42

(1) 21
(2) 25
(3) 27
(4) 33

11) In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing

character accordingly.

(1) 7C
(2) 10C
(3) 12C
(4) 13C

12) Find the missing number :

(1) 6
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 18

13)

(1) 2
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 19

14)

(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) 18

15)

(1) 222
(2) 212
(3) 132
(4) 122

16)
(1) 70
(2) 80
(3) 90
(4) 100

17)

(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 11
(4) 7

18)

Find the missing character from among the given alternatives.

(1) 22
(2) 34
(3) 32
(4) 36

19) Find the number which comes in place of question mark.

(1) 36
(2) 66
(3) 24
(4) 28

20) Directions : Find the missing number in the given figure.

(1) 8710
(2) 1078
(3) 8107
(4) 789

SST

1)

The newly elected assembly abolished the monarchy and declared France a republic on 21st
September

(1) 1792
(2) 1794
(3) 1798
(4) 1892

2) Which of the following were the national colours of France during the French Revolution?

(1) Blue-green-yellow
(2) Red-green-blue
(3) Blue-white-red
(4) Yellow-red-white

3)

Population of France rose to_______ million in 1789.

(1) 23
(2) 28
(3) 30
(4) 26

4) The Third Estate comprised of

(1) Poor servants and small peasants, landless labourers

(2) Peasants and artisans
(3) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers etc.
(4) All the above

5) Which among the following is a work of Locke ?

(1) The Spirit of the Laws

(2) The Social Contract
(3) Two treatises of Government
(4) None of these
6) It was a group of persons invested with special functions in the Church.

(1) Clergy
(2) Jacobin
(3) Tithe
(4) Taille

7) How does a ‘Subsistence Crisis’ happen?

(1) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains

(2) Food prices rise and the poorest cannot buy bread
(3) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots
(4) All the above

8) Assertion (A): The Period of 1793-94 is referred as reign of terror.

Reasons (R): A policy of severe control and punishment was adopted by the Robespierre.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) A is wrong but R is correct

9) Which of the following were established as "natural and inalienable' rights by the constitution of
1791 ?
(A) Right to life
(B) Freedom of Speech
(C) Freedom of Opinion
(D) Equality before law

(1) Only A
(2) A, C, D
(3) A & B
(4) A, B, C, D

10) Statement I : In 1789, Louis XVI faced empty treasury and growing discontent within society of
the Old Regime.
Statement II : In 1789, Convocation of Estates General was called to limit the powers of the king and
to guarantee basic rights to all human beings.

(1) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statements are true.
(4) Both Statements are false.

11) Which of the following statements is/are about democratic countries?

I. Government is mainly dominated by army officers.
II. Women do not have right to vote.
III. The final decision making power rests with those who are elected as people's representatives.
IV. Candidates need approval from the largest party to contest elections

(1) I, II & III

(2) III & IV
(3) Only III
(4) Only I

12) In which of the following countries does Russian minority find it difficult to get the Right to vote?

(1) Saudi Arabia

(2) Pakistan
(3) India
(4) Estonia

13) Democracy must be based on ____________.

(1) One-party system

(2) Free and fair election
(3) Choice from only ruling party
(4) All of the above

14) Frequent change of leadership in a democracy results in-

(1) Political competition

(2) Instability of the government
(3) Corruption
(4) None of these

15)

Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000, which party is ruling the country.

(1) Republic Party

(2) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(3) Institutional Revolutionary Party
(4) Mexican Institutional Party

16)

The main reason why we cannot consider China as a democratic country is because –

(1) Decision making does not lie with elected representatives’

(2) There is no One Vote One Value
(3) There is no free and fair election practice
(4) It does not work within the limits of the constitutional laws
17) Which party of Zimbabwe helped its country to gain independence ?

(1) National Liberation Front

(2) ZANU-PF
(3) NCP
(4) Peoples Liberation Front

18) Which one of the following is the correct explanation of democracy?

(1) Government nominated by the rich

(2) Government appointed by rulers
(3) Government elected by the people
(4) Government formed by coalition

19)

A democratic government is better than a non- democratic government because

(1) It fulfills all the wishes of the people

(2) It is more accountable form of government
(3) It may and not respond to the needs of the people
(4) It ignores the demands of the people

20)

Match the columns

Column I Column II
A system of governance which is
(A) Referendum (p) run by the people's elected
representatives
Government headed by a King or
Woman
(B) (q) Queen whose powers are limited
Franchise
by a Constitution
Constitutional System of election in which women
(C) (r)
Monarchy are given the right to vote
An occasion when all the people of
Nominal
(D) (s) a country can vote on an important
Democracy
issue.

A B C D
(1) p q r s
(2) s r p q
(3) s r q p
(4) s p r q
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 4 3 1 4 3 2 3 4 1 1 4 2 3 4 2 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 4 4 4 3 4 3 1 2 1 3 2

MATHEMATICS

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 4 3 3 4 4 2 4 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 2 2

MAT

Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 4 3 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 1 4 1 2 3 3 1 3

SST

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 2 4 3 1 4 1 4 1 3 4 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

5) The speed is more if the slope is more.

18)

19)

CHEMISTRY

21)

Sodium being a solid has least fluidity.

23)

Solids (Fact)

28)

On increasing pressure and lowering the temperature the forces of attraction increases in gas.

33)

In a solution, one substance is mixes well with another substance and makes a clear homogeneous
solution.

34)

Option (4)
Air is composed of mixture of gases i.e. oxygen (21%), Nitrogen (78%), CO2 (0.03%), Argon (0.97%),
water vapour and other gases.
 35)

Option (2)
Brass is an alloy which contains 30 % zinc and 70 % copper.

BIOLOGY

56) Option (1) represents endoplasmic reticulum which is involved in membrane biogenesis.

57) Chloroplasts contain grana, stroma lamellae, circular DNA and ribosomes.

59)

Here movement of molecule is against the concentration gradient and ATP is used so it is active
transport.

MATHEMATICS

MAT

81)

82)

Logic: Continuous prime numbers.

83) The series is as follows

baab / baab / baab / baab
Required answer = bbaab

84) In the given series, following pattern is used.

? = 57

85)
 86)

87)

88)

89)

90)

91)

In each row, out of the letters A, B and C, each of these must appear once. In each column, the
product of the first and third numbers is equal to the second number. So, the missing number will be
(2 × 5) i.e. 10 and the letter will be C. The correct letter is 10C.

92)

93)

(7 + 9) – (2 + 4) = 10
(9 + 3) – (4 + 6) = 2
 94)

(5 × 3 × 4 × 2) ÷ 10 = 12
(5 × 6 × 2 × 3) ÷ 10 = 18
(5 × 2 × 2 × 9) ÷ 10 = 18

95)

96)

The pattern is:

(17–7)2 + (8–6)2 = 104,
(32 – 24)2 + (17–11)2 = 100.
So, missing number = (52–48)2 + (57– 49)2 = 80
So the answer is option (2).

97)

The number on the right is half of the product of the other two numbers.
(18 × 4)/2 = 36
(15 × 6)/2 = 45
In the same manner,
(8 × x)/2 = 44
⇒ x = 11

98) Clearly, we have = = 12 ; = 21

So, missing number = = 32

99)

100)

Numbers placed along the sides of the triangle are the squares of the digits of the number at the
centre of the triangle.

Therefore, the number at the centre would he (64 = 8, 100 – 10, 49 = 7) 8107.

SST