A320-200

CFM56-5B4 Engine

TKE
QUESTIONNAIRE

GROUND TRAINING
- PAL ATC

For Training Only

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Training and Development Department
Flight Deck Crew Training

AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

TKE QUESTIONNAIRE TABLE OF CONTENTS

ATA 21 – Airconditioning - Pressurization ………………………………… . P 02

ATA 49 – Auxiliary Power Unit ………………………………………………. P 09

ATA 23 – Communications ……………………………………………………. P 11

ATA 24 – Electrical System ……………………………………………………. P 15

ATA 31 – Indicating / Recording Systems ……………………………………… P 20

ATA 26 – Fire Protections ………………………………………………………. P 22

ATA 27 – Flight Controls ………………………………………………………. P 24

ATA 22 – FMGS Navigation …………………………………………………… P 29

ATA 28 – Fuel System …………………………………………………………. . P 40

ATA 29 – Hydraulic System ……………………………………………………. P 46

ATA 30 – Ice and Rain ………………………………………………………….. P 53

ATA 32 – Landing Gear ………………………………………………………… P 56

ATA 35 – Oxygen – Emergency Equipment ……………………………………. P 62

ATA 36 – Pneumatic System ……………………………………………………. P 63

ATA 70 – Powerplant …………………………………………………………… P 65

Safety ………………………………………………………………… P 71

ATA 26 – Smoke (Fire Protection) ……………………………………………… P 72

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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Training and Development Department
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

(ATA 21) – AIRCONDITIONING - PRESSURIZATION

1. Hot air “FAULT” light illuminates on the air conditioning panel:

a. the hot air press reg. valve opens and the trim air valves close
b. the hot air press reg. valve closes and the trim air valves open
c. the hot air press reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close

2. In case of Air Conditioning System Controller dual lane failure:

a. no effect. as the other controller will take over.
b. the related Pack will operate in low flow
c. the related Pack will operate in high flow
d. the related Pack is lost, and the hot air pressure regulating valve and associated
trim air valves closes.

3. During normal flight the Avionics Ventilation System controls the temperature of the
cooling air by:
a. adding air conditioned air to the flow
b. extracting air overboard
c. adding avionics bay air
d. passing air through a skin heat exchanger

4. The RAM AIR switch should be used:

a. at any time
b. only when delta P is less than 1psi
c. when press is greater than delta 1psi
d. only when outflow valve has fully opened

5. Air Conditioning System Controller single lane failure:

a. no effect, as the second lane takes over.
b. no effect, as the other controller takes over.
c. pack is lost

6. Each Pack is consist of heat exchangers, compressor and turbine. The purpose of
the turbine is to:
a. expands and cools the air.
b. drives the compressor, expands and cools the air.
c. drives the compressor, cooling air fan and also expands and cools the air.

7. The Mixer Unit connects to cabin fans, LP ground connector, emergency ram air
inlet, Pack 1 and 2. The statement is:
a. True
b. False

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

8. Hot air press reg. valve failed open:
a. optimized regulation is lost
b. the temperature stays at the value selected when the failure occurs
c. no effect

9. Bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed valve open), the pack flow is automatically
selected to:
a. high
b. normal
c. low

10. Trim air valve, each one optimizes the temperature by:
a. adding hot air
b. adding fresh air
c. modulation of pack flow

11. Hot air pressure regulating valve:

a. regulates the pressure of hot air, tapped upstream of the packs
b. is springloaded open in the absence of air
c. opens automatically in case of duct overheat

12. Pack flow control valve:

a. pneumatically operated and electrically controlled
b. electrically operated and pneumatically controlled
c. opens automatically during engine starting

13. The temperature selectors are located in:

a. the cockpit overhead panel
b. the cabin stations
c. both

14. Pack flow may be selected from:

a. the cockpit overhead panel
b. the cabin stations
c. both

15. Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone cannot be
satisfied:
a. the minimum idle must be increased manually
b. the minimum idle is increased automatically
c. in any case, flight idle is sufficient

16. What is the maximum norm cabin alt:

a. 8000 ft
b. 9550 ft ± 350 ft
c. 14000 ft
Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

17. What is the maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin:
a. 0 psi
b. -1 psi
c. -2 psi

18. Is it possible to use simultaneously Packs and LP Ground Unit during long stops in a hot
airfield:
a. yes
b. no
c. yes, if external temperature is > 50°C

19. Trim air valves are modulated by:

a. air conditioning system controllers
b. anti-ice valve
c. hot air pressure regulating valve

20. The mixing unit is connected to:

a. packs, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector
b. packs, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector
c. packs and cabin air

21. Once set to “ON” the air conditioning packs operate:

a. automatically and independently of each other
b. normally and dependently of each other
c. automatically, pack 1 as a master, pack 2 as a slave

22. Emergency ram air inlet, when set to “ON”, the ram air valve will open:
a. in any case
b. provided the Ditching pb is not selected
c. when delta P < 1 psi and the Ditching pb is not selected

23. Hot-Air Pressure-Regulating Valve is controlled by the:

a. Air Conditioning System Controller 1
b. Air Conditioning System Controller 2
c. Air conditioning System Controller 1 and 2

24. Conditioned air is distributed to:

a. cockpit, cargo bays, and cabin
b. cockpit, forward and aft cabins
c. cockpit, avionics bay, cabin

25. The cabin zone temperature sensors are ventilated by the air extracted by the lavatory
and galleys fans:
a. true
b. false
Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

26. Temperature control is automatic and is regulated by:
a. air conditioning system controllers
b. trim air valves
c. pack 1 and 2 controllers

27. The Hot-Air Pressure-Regulating Valve closes automatically when;

a. both lanes of the Air Conditioning System Controller 1 fails
b. both lanes of the Air Conditioning System Controller 2 fails
c. either a or b is correct

28. The Hot-Air Pressure-Regulating Valve closes automatically when;

a. there is a duct overheat or pack overheat
b. cockpit trim air valve or cabin trim air valves fail
c. either a and b is correct

29. When the pack flow control selector is positioned to HI, air flow is:
a. 80 % of normal
b. 150% of normal
c. 120% of normal

30. When using APU bleed to supply the Packs, with the Pack Flow Selector at LO, the Pack
air flow is:
a. 80% of normal
b. normal
c. 120% of normal

31. The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of:
a. pack overheat, engine fire push button released, engine start, ditching pb pressed
b. bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase
c. both a and b

32. Trim air valve failure

a. the optimized temperature regulation of the corresponding zone is lost.
b. the optimized temperature regulation of the corresponding zone is still available.
c. all zones are controlled to 24°C

33. There are how many trim air valves?

a. 2 - one for the cockpit and one for the cabin
b. 3 - one for the cockpit and two for the cabin
c. 4 - two for the cockpit and two for the cabin

34. During landing run, packs ram air inlet flaps open when the speed is less than:
a. 77 kts ( after 30 sec delay )
b. 70 kts ( after 3 minutes )
c. 70 kts ( after 20 sec delay )

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

35. When APU is supplying the Packs, the air conditioning system controller
sends a demand signal to increase air flow when a zone temperature cannot be satisfied:
a. to the pack ram air inlet flap
b. to the APU ECB
c. pack flow control valve

36. The ditching switch when selected ON sends a closure signal to:
a. outflow valve
b. ram air inlet and ventilation inlet extract valves
c. the pack flow control valves
d. all of the above

37. In flight, with cabin pressure controller 1 in use, if it fails:

a. you have to use the manual control
b. transfers automatically to cabin pressure controller 2
c. you have to select manually to cabin pressure controller 2
d. you have to set the landing elevation

38. In normal operation, pressurization is:

a. fully automatic
b. manually controlled
c. both a and b

39. The outflow valve is powered by:

a. one of two electric motors
b. one of three electric motors
c. three mechanically linked electric motors

40. During ground function operation, the outflow valve is:

a. fully opened
b. fully closed
c. positioned according to FMGS demands

41. To see the position of the outflow valve, it is necessary to call ECAM:
a. COND Page
b. BLEED Page
c. CAB PRESS Page

42. Two identical, independent, automatic digital pressurization controllers are used for
system control:
a. one controller active, one in standby
b. both controllers monitored by FMGC
c. no controller for climb phase and N°2 controller in cruise and descent

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

43. Which controller generates excess cabin altitude and pressure outputs for ECAM
indication in manual mode:
a. both
b. N°1
c. N°2

44. When Ram Air pb is set to ON, the outflow valve will open 50% when delta P is:
a. > 1.5 psi
b. < 3 psi
c. < 1 psi

45. The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid:

a. excessive positive pressure differential
b. excessive negative pressure differential
c. both a and b above

46. The safety valves are operated:

a. electrically
b. hydraulically
c. pneumatically

47. When landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing elevation is sent to the controller
from:
a. FMGC
b. FCU
c. ADIRS

48. When Mode SEL is set to MANUAL, the outflow valve is controlled by signals sent via
controller 1 or 2:
a. true
b. false

49. On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the outflow valve indicator changes to amber if:
a. fully closed
b. valve open (more than 95% during flight)
c. fully open on ground

50. On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the safety valve indication changes to amber if:
a. both safety valves are fully open
b. one safety valve is open
c. both safety valves are fully closed

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

51. On ECAM CAB PRESS page the cabin altitude indication changes to red, when the cabin
altitude is:
a. > 14, 000 ft
b. > 8, 500 ft
c. > 9, 550 ft

52. Following a SYS 1 fault:

a. Master Caution is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the crew.
b. System 2 must be selected by the crew
c. System 2 takes over automatically without crew action

53. Cabin pressurization starts at:

a. engine start
b. take-off power selection
c. lift-off

54. The safety valves open at:

a. 8.06 psi
b. 8.6 psi
c. 9.0 psi
d. 7.6 psi

55. In automatic mode, cabin pressurization is optimized by using information from:

a. FMGS landing field elev, dest. QNH and static pressure information
b. actual cruise level, cruise N1 setting and landing elevation input
c. selected cabin altitude rotary switch and FMGS landing elevation

56. During normal flight and with skin temp. below + 35 °C, the avionics ventilation system
controls the temperature of the cooling air by:
a. adding air from the cockpit
b. passing air through a skin heat exchanger
c. adding conditioned air to the flow
d. extracting air from overboard

57. When the Ram Air pb set to “ON” the emer. ram air inlet valve will open:
a. in any case
b. when ∆P < 1 psi and ditching is not selected
c. when P < 1 psi and ditching is not selected

58. The Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU) automatically depressurized the aircraft
in case of abnormal residual pressure, it automatically opens the outflow valve when:
a. the OFV is not fully open + both CPCs fail + a/c on ground + all engines shutdown
b. the OFV is not fully open + both CPCs fail + a/c in flight + all engines shutdown
c. the OFV is not fully open + both CPCs fail + a/c on ground + all engines running

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

59. When the RAM AIR pb is set to ON the outflow valve:
a. closes
b. opens each time
c. opens about 50% only when delta P is less than 1psi
d. opens when delta P is greater than 1psi

( ATA – 49) AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

1. When the APU master switch is released, a normal APU shutdown occurs:
a. without delay, in all cases
b. with a delay, in all cases
c. with a delay if the bleed air was in use
d. b and c are correct

2. What are the APU manual shut down possibilities in the cockpit?
a. APU master switch pb
APU fire pb switch
b. APU master switch pb
c. APU fire pb switch
APU shut off pb

3. Normal electrical system being available, you may restart the APU up to:
a. 31, 000 ft
b. 20, 000 ft
c. 41, 000 ft

4. When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump:

a. runs when tank pumps pressure is not sufficient
b. runs all the time
c. runs only in flight
d. runs when the APU fuel pump is selected ON

5. Normal APU rotation speed (N%) is:

a. 100%
b. steady at 99%
c. steady at101%

6. APU Master Switch selected ON:

a. ON illuminates blue. APU system is supplied and APU starts at 95%, AVAIL comes on.
b. ON illuminates blue. APU system is supplied. APU starts as soon as start pb is
depressed and intake flap completely open

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

7. APU bleed air is controlled:

a. by ECB
b. not controlled
c. by APU bleed valve which operates as shut off valve

8. APU N indication becomes amber on ECAM SD, when:

a. N ≥107%
b. N ≥102%
c. N ≥ 99%

9. APU EGT indication becomes RED on ECAM SD, when:

a. EGT ≥ 1090°C and 675°C (start and running)
b. EGT ≥ 982°C and 700°C-742°C (start and running)
c. a and b are correct

10. On Ground, APU provides:

a. electric power + hydraulic power
b. electric power + bleed air

11. Air bleed extraction for Wing Anti-Ice:

a. is permitted
b. is not permitted

12. Can you start the APU using the A/C batteries:
a. Yes
b. No

13. The APU is supplied from the:

a. left fuel feed line
b. right fuel feed line

14. If Air bleed was used, after a manual shut down sequence the APU:
a. stops immediately
b. keeps running for four minutes
c. keeps running for a cooling period of 60 sec.

15. AVAIL light illuminates on the Start pb when:

a. external power is disconnected
b. APU N reaches above 99.5% or 2 sec after N reaches 95%
c. APU electric power is used

16. The APU has its own lubrication system:

a. yes
b. no

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

17. What determines the APU speed in accordance with air bleed demand:
a. electronic control box
b. air conditioning system
c. air intake system

18. Besides the master switch on the cockpit APU panel, APU shutdown is possible by:
a. switching off the left fuel pump
b. pushing the APU fire push button
c. pressing APU shut off pb on external Interphone Panel under the nose fuselage
d. either b or c

19. The supply of electrical power has priority over bleed air supply:
a. no
b. yes
c. sometimes

20. Master switch ON, the:

a. APU starts
b. ECB is electrically supplied
c. Air intake flap closes

21. On ground normal APU rotation speed (N%) without air conditioning is:
a. 100%
b. steady at 99%
c. steady at 101%

(ATA-23) COMMUNICATIONS

1. If RMP 2 fails:
a. the whole system is inoperative
b. VHF2 and HF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
c. All COM systems can be controlled by any other RMP
d. Only VHF2 frequencies cannot be controlled

2. In normal operation, RMP1 is dedicated to:

a. HF1 and HF2
b. VHF1
c. VHF2
d. HF1

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

3. If you select VHF2 on RMP1, the SEL light illuminates on:

a. RMP1 and RMP2
b. RMP1, RMP2 and RMP3
c. RMP1 only
d. RMP2 only

4. To activate the voice recorder before engine start you have to press:
a. the CVR erase pb
b. the Ground Control pb
c. the CVR test pb

5. You push MECH transmission key on the ACP panel:

a. you can speak to ground mech through the handset
b. you can speak to ground mech via ACP INT pb
c. you are on line with ground mech via ACP CAB pb

6. You want to erase the CVR recording:

a. you push the erase pb one time
b. you push the erase pb for 2 seconds in flight
c. you push the erase pb more than 2 seconds and check that parking brake is ON

7. Interphone system permits you to speak to:

a. the cabin attendants
b. all occupants in the cockpit
c. the mechanic on the ground
d. all the above

8. Can you obtain an amplitude modulation “A M ” green light on RMP2:

a. Yes
b. No

9. How do you receive ATIS information using the VOR?

a. selecting ON VOICE pb on the ACP and VOR reception knob
b. selecting ON VOICE pb only

10. How do you cancel ON VOICE green light?

a. by depressing again the ON VOICE pb
b. by depressing the VOR reception pb
c. both

11. What is the function of the RESET pb on the ACP?

a. to restart system operation
b. to cancel the previous selections
c. to cancel any lighted calls

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

12. When using the OXY Mask or Boom headset, if the INT/RAD key is set to INT. Will
interphone background noise be heard when using the sidestick PTT for radio
transmissions?
a. yes
b. no

13. You make a STBY/NAV selection on a pedestal RMP. Can you confirm that selection on
MCDU-RAD/NAV page:
a. yes
b. no

14. Is STBY/NAV tuning possible on RMP-3

a. yes
b. no

15. Can you hear the beacon identification selected through the STBY/NAV:
a. yes, by pressing corresponding reception knob
b. yes, by pressing a LSK on the MCDU

16. Can you hear the Voice Recorder test signal through the cockpit loud speakers, with the
parking brake released:
a. yes
b. no

17. You receive a SELCAL on VHF2, What happens on your ACP:

a. amber sign CALL flashes on VHF2 key
b. three green bars come on
c. white SELCAL appears on VHF2 pb and VHF2 reception selector illuminates white

18. Can you speak on VHF and the PA at the same time:
a. never
b. yes by pressing RAD toggle sw and PA key
c. yes by using stick PTT command and PA key

19. When you select CAPT 3 on the audio switching panel:

a. the captain uses headset of 3rd occupant
b. 3rd occupant uses captain equipment
c. the captain uses his acoustic equipment and the 3rd occupant ACP

20. Can you select VOR 2 frequency with RMP1?

a. yes
b. no

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

21. If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, SEL light illuminates white:

a. on RMP 2
b. on RMP 1
c. on RMP 1 and 2

22. If RMP 1 fails the crew can only use RMP2:

a. by switching off RMP 1, then using RMP 2
b. by using overhead panel audio switching: CAPT 3

23. In case of dual FMGC failure, selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with:
a. RMP 1 only
b. RMP 1 and 2 only
c. RMP 1, 2 and 3

24. For communication with ground mechanic at the engine nacelle, the crew must use the
following audio system selection:
a. Mech + INT
b. ATT + CAB
c. any of the above

25. Cockpit Voice Recorder is energized, on ground as soon as aircraft electrical network is
supplied but only for 5 minutes. It starts again as soon as:
a. GND CTL is on
b. One engine is running
c. a or b

26. If an RMP fails, the selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP and frequencies
and bars disappear from this RMP:
a. yes
b. no

27. What is the main purpose of the RMP:

a. to select radio frequencies
b. to select NAV AIDS when the FMGS has failed
c. both

28. Can you use service Interphone system in flight:

a. yes
b. no

29. If ATC mode selector at AUTO:

a. selected ATC operates only in flight
b. selected ATC operates when FLEX or TOGA power is selected for T.O
c. selected ATC operates as soon as one engine is running

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

30. On ATC control panel the ATC FAIL light comes on if:
a. selected transponder fails
b. system 1or 2 has failed

31. On RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls:

a. the power supply to the RMP
b. only the STBY NAV function of RMP
c. only the COM functions of RMP

32. STBY NAV has been selected by the use of NAV key:
a. VHF function is lost on this RMP
b. VHF is still available but only the last frequency selected can be used
c. NAV key has no effect on Radio COM frequency selection

(ATA-24) ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

1. In normal configuration, How is DC ESS BUS supplied?

a. from TR1
b. from ESS TR
c. from TR 2
d. from Bat 2

2. What happens in case of total loss of main generators?

a. the RAT is automatically extended and powers the yellow system which drives the
emergency generator
b. the RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue system which drives the
emergency generators
c. the RAT has to be manually extended
d. the RAT extended and mechanically connected to the emergency generator

3. AC ESS Bus is normally supplied by?

a. AC BUS 1
b. AC BUS 2
c. Emergency Generator
d. Static Inverter

4. DC BAT BUS can be supplied by:

a. DC bus 1 or batteries
b. DC bus 1, DC bus 2 or batteries
c. DC bus 2 or batteries

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

5. AC BUS TIE contactors enable the electrical system:

a. to be connected in a parallel
b. to be supplied by any generator or external power
c. to be supplied by APU GEN or EXT PWR only

6. What happens during the EMER GEN test?

a. the ram air turbine (RAT) is extended
b. if the blue system is pressurized, the emergency generator comes on line
c. the green system is pressurized and the emergency generator comes on line supplied
by hot bus 2

7. Normal minimum battery voltage before APU start is:

a. 22 V c. 27.5 V
b. 25.5 V d. no minimum

8. When disconnecting the IDG, the button should be pressed:

a. for no more than 3 secs.
b. for longer than 3 secs.
c. until fault light goes out
d. for no more than 5 secs.

9. On the EMER ELEC PWR panel, a red FAULT light illuminates under the “RAT and
EMER GEN” label. What does it mean?
a. RAT is not extended
b. emergency generator is not supplying when AC bus 1 and 2 are not powered (above 100 kts)
or DC bat bus is not powered
c. emergency generator is supplying but AC ESS bus is not powered
d. emergency generator is not supplying when AC bus 1 and 2 are not powered

10. What happens when the GEN 1 LINE pb is set to OFF?

a. AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered and emergency generator is automatically connected
b. AC BUS 1 is powered by the GEN 2 because the GEN 1 is deactivated
c. AC BUS 1 is powered by the GEN 2 because the GEN 1 line contactor is opened
d. AC BUS 1 is not powered because the GEN 1 line contactor is opened and transfer contactor
is not closed.

11. In cold aircraft configuration (no AC and no DC supply), where the batteries voltage can
be checked?
a. on the ECAM ELEC page
b. on the ELEC overhead panel
c. there is no indication

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016

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12. AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by:

a. AC BUS 1
b. AC BUS 2
c. Static inventer

13. IN flight, On Batteries Only, the AC ESS SHED BUS and the DC ESS SHED BUS are lost:
a. yes
b. no

14. The static inventer works:

a. always
b. when A/C is in flight and on batteries only
c. when one main generators fails

15. On ground, what happens when the “RAT and EMER GEN MAN ON P/B” is pressed in:
a. the RAT is extended
b. the emergency generator is activated
c . nothing

16. The static inverter transforms the DC voltage from the battery bus into:
a. single phase 115 V – 400 HZ AC current
b. three phase 115/200 V – 400 HZ AC current

17. In flight, in case of loss of all main generators, emergency generator not running,
the static inverter supplies:
a. APU and ENG start + AC ESS bus
b. ENG start + AC ESS + AC ESS shed bus
c. ENG start

18. The external power has priority over the APU GEN:
a. yes
b. no

19. GEN 1 and GEN 2, when operating, have priority over APU GEN:
a. yes
b. no

20. With APU available, if one generator fails, the failed generator is replaced by:
a. the APU
b. the other GENERATOR

21. The ESS TR may be used to replace a faulty TR:

a. yes
b. no

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

22. In flight, in case of loss of all generators, emergency generator not running,
the DC ESS bus is supplied by:
a. BAT 2
b. ESS TR
c. both

23. In flight, in case of loss of all main generators, emergency generator running,
the DC ESS BUS is supplied by:
a. Hot bus
b. ESS TR
c. Both

24. The IDG regulates the generator:

a. speed
b. voltage
c. frequency

25. Generators are sometimes connected in parallel:

a. yes
b. no

26. If AC bus 1 fails the AC ESS BUS is supplied by the:

a. EMER GEN
b. AC bus 2
c. static inverter

27. In case of total electrical loss the AC ESS BUS is supplied by:
a. static inverter
b. EMER GEN
c. both

28. In emergency configuration, AC ESS SHED BUS is automatically:

a. shed if the RAT stalls
b. supplied by static inverter when L/G is down

29. Only one generator is operating in flight:

a. main galley is automatically shed
b. secondary galley is automatically shed
c. all galleys are shed

30. Can you reconnect the IDG in flight?

a. yes
b. no

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

31. When GEN 1 or GEN 2 is selected off:

a. the GEN is deenergized and line contactor is open
b. the GEN is still energized and line contactor is open

32. When the EXT PWR pb green AVAIL lite is illuminated, this means that:
a. the EXT PWR is connected to the A/C
b. the A/C network is supplied

33. When are the batteries supplying the DC BAT BUS:

a. APU starting
b. loss of AC bus 1
c. loss of AC bus 1+2 (speed < 100 kts)
d. a + c

34. When you want to check battery voltage, you must set the BAT pb to:
a. auto position
b. off position

35. The battery FAULT light illuminates when:

a. battery voltage < 25V
b. battery pb set at OFF in flight
c. charging current increases at an abnormal rate

36. In certain cases, the static inverter is supplied by:

a. BAT 1 and BAT 2
b. BAT 1
c. DC BAT BUS

37. BUS TIE contactors when closed enable AC BUS 1 and 2:

a. to be supplied by anyone of the main generators or external power
b. to be supplied by APU generator or external power only
c. to be connected in prallel

38. In case of the TR (1 or 2) failure, does the ESS TR supply the DC ESS BUS:
a. yes
b. no

39. The green EXT PWR pb AVAIL light is ON what does it mean?
a. the EXT power is plugged in, and parameters are normal
b. the A/C network is supplied

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

(ATA-31) INDICATING / RECORDING SYSTEMS

1. Select the correct statement:

a. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD1-PFD2
b. DMC 1 supplies data to ND1-ND2
c. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD1-ND1-ECAM DUs

2. In case of PFDU failure, the PFD image is transferred to the NDU:

a. manually
b. automatically
c. either manually or automatically

3. If the upper ECAM display is lost, the E/WD automatically transfers to lower ECAM
display, if a system display is required:
a. it displays automatically
b. press the RCL button
c. switch off the corresponding ECAM display selector
d. press and hold the relevant system pb

4. Which computer processes the red warnings:

a. SDAC
b. FWC
c. DMC

5. What is the basic role of the DMC's:

a. acquire data from different sensors and computers and send it to the DUs
b. generation of audio warnings
c. generations of amber warnings

6. What is the meaning of the “INVALID DATA” message displayed in the DUs?
a. corresponding LCD is not energized
b. electrical supply is good and corresponding DMC failed
c. as in answer b. plus it is possible to get an image on again, by switching EIS DMC

7. Can you read amber warnings on FMA part of your PFD:

a. yes
b. no

8. Do the “CHECK ATT” messages appear on both PFDs at the same time?
a. yes
b. no

9. FAC's calculate speed trend and VLS. The extremities of the trend vector or VLS segment
indicates: speed value at the next 10 sec. and 1.23 VS1G with present setting, is it correct?
a. yes
b. no
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

10. VLS indication is inhibited:
a. from touchdown until 10 sec. after lift-off.
b. with speed brakes extended
c. in both cases

11. FAC's compute VLS, F, S, shown on the PFD according to the position Flap Selector.
Is above statement correct?
a. yes
b. no

12. Altitude amber window appears, flashing:

a. when A/C goes below MDA
b. when A/C deviates from its selected altitude or selected FL
c. both answers are correct

13. R.A. Gives height on PFD:

a. at the bottom of altitude sphere
b. on the altitude scale
c. both indications

14. On the horizons line you find a cyan HDG or TRK symbol, is your FD pb switched ON?
a. yes
b. no

15. When your FD bars flash for 10 sec. and then remain steady:
a. reversion to the HDG V/S basic modes has occurred
b. ALT capture is active and you select another FL or at 1st AP or FD engagement
c. Loss of LOC or G/S in LAND mode or loss of LAND mode
d. all of the above is correct

16. During take-off, FMA show “SRS”, what is the order of horizontal FD bar:
a. climb at V2 + 10 kt with both engines running
b. climb at V2 with both engines running

17. TRK-FPA is the selected mode for AFS, the inertial FPV is normally on the horizon line.
Can you see it in red colour:
a. yes
b. no

18. The PFD displays Yaw Bar in green below 30 ft radio height , if localizer
signal is available:
a. during TO (in RWY mode) or upon landing (in FLARE or ROLL OUT mode)
b. during TO or upon landing (in FLARE or ROLL OUT mode)
c. during TO (in RWY mode) only
d. all of the above is correct

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

19. Can you read optional data (WPT or VOR. D. NDB...), on rose VOR or rose ILS:
a. yes
b. no

20. With radar selected on, what can you read on ND about antenna setting:
a. tilt angle
b. tilt angle + gain mode

21. What happens when ND shows red circle with “MAP NOT AVAIL” message:
a. MCDU failure
b. ADIRS not aligned, aircraft position delivered by FMGC is not valid
c. Engines not running

(ATA-26) FIRE PROTECTION

1. What additional external warnings are activated in case of an APU fire on ground only?
a. APU fire light accompanied by an external horn warning
b. an external horn warning
c. a fire bell warning

2. Where are the engine fire detectors located?

a. on the fan and the turbine
b. on the pylon, the fan and the core
c. on the core and the gearbox

3. The agent pushbutton is active when?

a. the corresponding “DISCH” light is on
b. engine fire pb illuminates
c. engine fire pb is pressed and released

4. What does the TEST pb verify?

a. the detection system loop circuit integrity
b. the squib circuits of the extinguishing system
c. both

5. The Engine and APU fire protection system includes:

a. 1 fire agent bottle for each engine – 1 fire agent bottle for the APU
b. 2 fire agent bottles for the engine – 2 fire agent bottles for the APU
c. 2 fire agent bottles for each engine – 1 fire agent bottle for the APU

6. Is the extinguishing system controlled by the FDU:

a. yes
b. no

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

7. When Engine Fire pb is released out which corresponding valves are closed:
a. fuel crossfeed valve
b. LP fuel and hydraulic fire valves
c. HP fuel SOV

8. How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished:

a. from APU fire panel
b. automatically
c. from external power panel

9. How can a thermal discharge of the APU fire bottle be detected when no electrical power is
connected:
a. by the FDU
b. by the ECAM
c. by the red disc indicator missing

10. How many fire detection loops does the APU fire detection system comprise:
a. three
b. two
c. one

11. What systems are isolated when APU fire push button is released out:
a. fuel, electricity
b. air, electricity
c. fuel, air, electricity

12. When Engine Fire pb is released out, which valve is affected:

a. LP fuel is shut off valve, Hyd, Bleed, Pack + Elec Gen relay will de-energize.
b. Hydraulic fire shut off valve
c . Fuel SOV

13. When the APU Fire pb is released out, the:

a. APU generator is de-energized
b. APU generator is disconnected
c. APU generator is energized

14. Is it necessary to use the APU shut off switch on the external power panel in case
of APU fire auto extinguishing on ground:
a. yes
b. no

15. When the ENG Fire pb is released out, what aircraft systems are isolated:
a. fuel, electricity, air
b. fuel, hydraulic, air
c. fuel, air, electricity, hydraulic

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

16. When an ENG Fire pb is released out, the squib light are illuminated:
a. yes
b. no

17. Which systems are tested through the Fire test pb?
a. the fire detection system
b. the extinguishing system
c. both

(ATA-27) FLIGHT CONTROL S

1. The pitch direct law is:

a. a load factor demand with no protection
b. a direct side stick to elevator relationship
c. a direct side stick to elevator relationship with AUTOTRIM operation
d. achieved through the THS using manual trim control

2. When is the THS not available?

a. after blue hydraulic system failure
b. after yellow and green failure
c. never lost, always available manually
d. after loss of FAC 1 and 2

3. The PFD displays in amber the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” in
a. Normal Law
b. Alternate Law
c. Direct Law

4. Which surfaces are used for lift dumping?

a. all spoilers
b. spoilers 1 to 3
c. spoilers 1 to 4

5. Which signals cause rudder pedal movement?

a. yaw damping signals
b. rudder trim signals
c. turn coordination signals

6. If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed:

a. pitch control is provided by the FAC's
b. pitch control can only be achieved from the trim wheel
c. the elevator and pitch trim are controlled by SEC 1 or 2

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Training and Development Department
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

7. If FAC 1 and 2 have failed:
a. the rudder can always be controlled from the pedals
b. the rudder control is lost
c. the rudder control is provided by SEC 3

8. When both sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction:

a. the surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflections of both sticks
b. the surface movement is proportional to the last stick deflected
c. the surface movement is proportional to the first stick deflected
d. the left stick has a priority

9. The elevator, ailerons, spoilers are:

a. hydraulically activated and mechanically controlled
b. electrically activated and hydraulically controlled
c. hydraulically activated and electrically controlled

10. Rudder control is electrical for yaw damping and trim:

a. yes
b. no

11. What statement is correct:

a. ground spoiler function: all spoilers deploy
b. speed brake function: spoilers 1, 2, 3 deploy
c. roll function: ailerons + spoilers 4 and 5 deploy

12. How many control modes are there on the elevators servo jacks?
a. 2 - active and damping
b. 3 - active, damping and centering
c. 4 - active, semi-active, damping and centering

13. What are the limits for maneuvre protection:

a. +2.5 G, -1 G clean
b. +2.0 G, -0 G when Flaps extended
c. a and b are correct

14. Which ELAC normally controls the elevators and the stabilizer:
a. ELAC 1
b. ELAC 2

15. How many hydraulic motors drive the screw jack of the stabilizer:
a. 2
b. 3

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

16. How many electric motors can control the hydraulic motor of the stabilizer:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

17. If neither ELAC 1 nor ELAC 2 are available, pitch control is automatically transferred to:
a. SEC 1 or SEC 2
b. SEC 1 or SEC3
c. Sec 3

18. In normal law, the flight mode changes to the landing mode when passing:
a. 50 ft
b. 100 ft

19. At landing when passing 30 ft:

a. the altitude is memorized
b. the altitude is progressively reduced to 2º nose down over a period of 8 secs.

20. How can a deactivated stick be reactivated:

a. by momentary action on take over push button of the active stick
b. by momentary action on either stick take over push buttons
c. by momentary action on take over push button of deactivated stick

21. In roll normal law, the bank angle protection is active when bank angle is:
a. > 45 degrees
b. > 33 degrees
c. > 67 degrees

22. The roll normal law provides combined control of the:

a. ailerons + spoilers 2 to 5 + rudder
b. ailerons + spoilers 2 to 5

23. If ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 have failed:

a. roll control is provided by ailerons only
b. roll control is provided by ailerons and spoilers
c. roll control is provided by spoilers only

24. In flight, if a WTB (wing tip brake) is activated, can you release it:
a. yes
b. no

25. What happens when SFCC 1 fails:

a. nothing
b. flaps and slats operate at half speed
c. flaps system lost

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

26. If one Flap power control unit fails, what happens:
a. nothing
b. flaps at half speed
c. flaps are lost

27. If CONF. 0 is not selected after take-off, the flaps automatically retract at:
a. >180 kts
b. 210 kts
c. V2

28. After an automatic retraction of the flaps with CONF. 1, the flaps will
automatically re-extend when speed decreases:
a. yes
b. no

29. Is it possible to select an intermediate position with the flaps and slats selector:
a. yes
b. no

30. If you are flying at an angle of attack more than Alpha Prot, what happens when
you release the stick:
a. speed returns to VLS
b. speed returns to Alpha Prot

31. When ALT LAW is active, the High Speed and High Angle of Attack protections are:
a. degraded
b. lost

32. When ALT LAW is active, the Yaw Damping is:

a. available (damper authority is limited to ±5 degrees of rudder deflection)
b. lost

33. When in CONF 1+F, the flaps retract to 0º automatically at 210 kts:
a. Alpha/Speed Lock function
b. Automatic Retraction function
c. Flap Load Relief function

34. How many hydraulic systems activate the rudder:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

35. Lift augmentation is achieved on each wing by:

a. 3 flap surfaces + 4 slat surfaces
b. 2 flap surfaces + 5 slat surfaces

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

36. Slat retraction from 1 to 0 is inhibited if angle of attack exceeds 8.5º or speed
goes down below 148 KTS, this function is called:
a. Alpha/Speed Lock
b. Automatic Retraction System (ARS)
c. Flap Load Relief System (FLRS)

37. In alternate law, the change to direct law occurs when:

a. landing gear down or at the selection of flaps 2 (LGCIU 1 + 2 fault)
b. landing gear down
c. passing 50 ft

38. Slats SYS 1 fault on the ECAM warning display means:

a. SFCC 1 has failed
b. the slat channel in one SFCC has failed

39. With hydraulic blue system remaining and before landing gear extension,
the flight control law is:
a. alternate
b. normal
c. direct

40. In flight control normal law, the stall warning is activated:

a. if slats are not extended when reaching a speed of 148 knots
b. when Alpha Max is reached
c. when Alpha Prot is reached
d. angle of attack corresponding to stall warning cannot be reached in normal law

41. The pitch normal law provides:

a. manoeuvre protection + pitch attitude protection + high speed protection
b. manoeuvre protection + high angle of attack protection + high speed protection
c. manoeuvre + high angle of attack + high speed + pitch attitude protection
d. manoeuvre protection + pitch attitude protection + low speed stability

42. When is the THS not available?

a. after yellow and green hydraulic system failure
b. never lost, always available manually
c. after blue hydraulic system failure
d. after loss of FAC 1 and 2

43. Flight control computers are:

a. 2 ELACs - 2 SECs - 3 FACs
b. 2 ELACs - 3 SECs - 2 FACs
c. 3 ELACs - 2 SECs - 2 FACs

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

44. When bank angle protection is active, is auto trim is inoperative?
a. Yes
b. No

(ATA – 22) FMGS NAVIGATION

1. What does it mean when the ADR fault light illuminates steady on then ADIRS CDU?
a. a fault is detected in air data reference
b. no present position entry after 10 min.
c. alignment has been completed

2. On the pedestal mounted switching panel, the ATT HDG and Air Data selectors are at
NORM, meaning:
a. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1, ND1
ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2, ND2
b. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1, ND1 and DDRMI
ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2, ND2
c. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1
ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2

3. Tuning of VOR/DME and ILS is provided by:

a. Automatic tuning
Manual tuning
Back up tuning
b. Automatic tuning
Manual tuning
c. Automatic tuning
Back up tuning

4. In case of failure of FMGC 1 and 2:

a. VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 and 2 can be tuned through RMP1
b. VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 can be tuned through RMP1
c. RMP1 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 1
RMP2 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 2

5. The ALIGN light flashes:

a. within five minutes of NAV mode selection when present position has not been entered
b. during the alignment phase in case of IRS alignment fault
c. when alignment has been completed

6. The FMGS consist of the following main components:

a. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 FCU control panels
b. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 1 FCU control panel
c. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 ECAM
d. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 ECAM – 1 FCU control panel
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

7. Normal electrical power supplies the A/C and the MCDU CRT is dark, without any other
warning. It means:
a. the FMGC is off
b. the FMGC has failed
c. the MCDU CB is pulled
d. the MCDU “BRT” knob is dimmed

8. On the ground, when electrical power is initially supplied to the A/C, the MCDU will
automatically display:
a. Airport page
b. INIT A page
c. Data Index page
d. A/C Status page

9. You press “ALIGN IRS” prompt on INIT A page. On the ADIRS CDU the ALIGN lights
flash but no message is displayed on the CDU:
a. the system can only be used in ATT mode
b. the system is unable to enter NAV mode to compute coordinates: switch it off
c. make a second “present position” entry

10. These messages appear on copilot side ND:

“SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE” & “MAP NOT AVAIL”:
a. the IRS's have not reached complete alignment
b. the F-PLN entered in captain's FMGC has not been transferred into copilot's FMGC
c. single FMGC operation and the two EFIS control panels are not set at
the same range & mode

11. Engines running, ready to taxi, a message appears: “CHECK GW”. Access to INIT B
page is no longer available. On which page is it possible to insert the correct GW:
a. T/O performance page
b. Progress page
c. Fuel prediction page

12. Aircraft on RWY centerline, ready for take-off. To preset a HDG of 233 degrees:
a. pull HDG knob to disarm NAV mode
Set 233 degree and press HDG knob to engage
b. Turn HDG knob, set 233 degree and pull to engage
c. Turn HDG knob, set 233 degree
Pull HDG knob when ATC clears to turn to 233 degree

13. One of the SRS disengagement conditions is not true:

a. disengages automatically at FCU alt
b. disengages automatically at acceleration altitude
c. disengages manually by pulling the speed knob
d. disengages by setting a new FCU altitude
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

14. Control of the A/C can be automatic or manual. Guidance of the A/C can be
managed or selected.
How do you understand this situation.
Managed guidance – manual control – selected speed:
a. FMGC computes and sends steering orders for navigation purpose.
The pilot flies through the sidestick.
Speed is adjusted in the FCU window
b. The auto-pilot follows the F – PLN
The pilots set the necessary data for longitudinal and lateral control of the A/C.
The target speed is computed and displayed by the FMGC

15. A hold has been entered in the F-PLN, speed and NAV are managed. You want to
leave this hold:
a. Use the CLR key
b. Hold is automatically cancelled when overflying the fix
c. Activate IMM “EXIT*” prompt

16. For A/C position determination, FMGC uses data from:

a. DME, VOR or ILS systems
b. Clocks + Ground Speed Computation
c. 3 ADIRS
d. a. and c.

17. In flight, following a manual position up-dating of the FMGC:

a. it is also necessary to up-date the IRS position
b. an IRS cannot be up-dated during A/C motion

18. The Expedite mode is active. To disengage it, one of these statements is not correct:
a. pull the V/S – FPA knob
b. pull the SPD knob
c. pull the ALT knob
d. press again the EXPD PB to cancel this mode

19. What are the basic modes of the AP/FD:

a. Pitch and Roll
b. HDG and VS
c. ALT and NAV
d. SPD and HDG

20. The engagement of both autopilots is possible:

a. when “LAND” illuminates green on FMA
b. when A/C is stabilized at G/S interception altitude
c. as soon as the LOC has been intercepted
d. after APPR pb switch is pressed and illuminates

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

21. Can you read the HDG on the PFD:
a. yes
b. no

22. A/C is in clean configuration and in Normal Law. When the FAC detects a too
high angle of attack:
a. stall warning is activated
b. THR LK flashes on FMA
c. Alpha floor function operates

23. During ILS approach, LAND 3 Fail Passive (also called CAT 3 single),
one engine fails below 100 feet RA: This causes a landing capability down grading
and you must go around:
a. true
b. false

24. During an ILS approach the NAV mode will be deactivated at:
a. Glide Slope capture
b. Localizer capture
c. a. + b.

25. Can you display FD bars and FPV at the same time, for cross-checking on different PFDs;
a. yes
b. no

26. Certified FMGS limitations. Max wind conditions for CAT III automatic approach
performed in managed speed guidance with A/THR:

Head wind Tail wind Cross wind

a. 30 KT 10 KT 20 KT
b. 40 KT 10 KT 15 KT
c. 20 KT 10 KT 20 KT

27. The continuous cavalry charge audio identifies only one of the following situations:
a. Over speed for the actual A/C configuration
b. Fire or oil low press on one engine
c. Autopilot Disengagement
d. Excessive cabin altitude
e. Auto land warning, requiring a Go Around

28. Setting the thrust levers at idle will disengage the A/THR mode. A/THR will reengage:
a. as soon as the thrust levers position is changed
b. when A/THR pb is pressed on the FCU
c. provided the levers are set in CLB gate
d. provided the levers are moved from idle position and A/THR pb is pressed

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

29. In one of the cases listed below, A/THR does not disengage:
a. when the two thrust levers are set at idle position
b. pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU
c. when the aural warning announces “RETARD!”
d. pressing the instinctive disconnect button

30. The LOC pb, on the FCU, is pressed to ARM LOC mode. This mode is used for:
a. performing a published localizer approach
b. tracking a VOR beam during an approach
c. performing those non-precision approaches: VOR-ADF-R NAV
d. approaching on an ILS with no G/S
e. a and d are correct

31. What does a triple click mean, during an ILS approach:

a. a level 3 warning to the crew
b. a primary failure is occurring, prepare for Go Around
c. flaps are set at 3 and the landing gear is not down
d. landing capability down grading warning

32. The active F-PLN is erased when:

a. the pilot calls the A/C status page
b. the wheels touch the runway at landing
c. the A/C has been on ground for 30 seconds following the landing
d. one engine is shut down at parking place

33. Following a dual engine generator failure, EMER GEN supplies the A/C:
a. FMGC 1 is available (NAV function only)
b. FMGC 2 only is available
c. both FMGCs are available
d. no FMGC is available

34. In which case are: AP/FD, ATS and Landing Capacities totally lost:
a. 2 IRSs failure or 2 ADRs failure
b. 2 RAs failure
c. 2 ILSs failure
d. both FACS failure

35. The mandatory parameter used by the alpha floor detection is:
a. A/C minimum speed
b. A/C weight
c. A/C maximum speed
d. A/C angle attack

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

36. Rudder travel limitation is a function of:
a. FAC only
b. FAC in normal and ELAC in alternate
c. ELAC only
d. ELAC in normal and FAC in alternate

37. When the two YAW damper functions are engaged:

a. YAW damper 1 has priority, YAW damper actuator 2 is slaved
b. YAW damper 2 has priority, YAW damper actuator 1 is slaved
c. YAW damper 1 and 2 are active, the two actuators pressurized
d. a hydraulic device gives priority to YAW damper 1

38. The safety tests are automatically performed:

a. on ground, at computer power up
b. in case of discrepancy between 2 computers
c. in flight when a failure occurs
d. in flight at autopilot engagement

39. When the two rudder trim functions are engaged:

a. Rudder trim 1 and 2 control their motors together
b. Rudder trim 1 controls the single trim motors
c. Rudder trim 1 controls its motor, rudder trim 2 is in standby
d. A mechanical device gives priority to rudder trim 1

40. The FMGC functions are:

a. flight guidance and flight envelope protection
b. flight management and flight envelope protection
c. flight management and flight guidance
d. flight envelope protection and yaw axis control

41. The trim function of the FAC is:

a. A Pitch Trim
b. A Rudder Trim
c. An Aileron Trim
d. A Pitch Trim and Rudder Trim

42. In flight, in case of temporary loss of electrical power on FAC 2, FAC 2 pb “FAULT”
comes on and:
a. it will be automatically reset
b. it can be manually reset and the safety tests are performed
c. it can be manually reset and the safety tests are not performed
d. there is no way to reengage FAC 2

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

43. The AFS computers are:
a. FMGC and ELAC
b. FMGC and SEC
c. FMGC and FAC
d. ELAC and SEC

44. With AP1 and AP2 not engaged, FD1 and FD2 engaged and A/THR active:
a. FMGC1 controls engine 1, FMGC 2 controls engine 2
b. FMGC1 control both engines
c. FMGC2 controls both engines
d. flight controls and engines are controlled by only one FMGC

45. The autopilot does not disengaged in case of override on: (in flight)
a. the sidestick in roll
b. the sidestick in pitch
c. the rudder pedals
d. a rudder pedal deflection less than 10° out of trim

46. In normal operation, with the two MCDU showing the same page, a modification made
by the pilot on MCDU 1 is sent to MCDU 2:
a. directly
b. via FMGC 1
c. via FMGC 1 and FMGC 2
d. via FMGC 1, FMGC 2 and RMP 2

47. The flight guidance function are:

a. Autopilot, Flight plan, Autothrust
b. Autopilot, Performance, Flight plan
c. Autopilot, Flight director, Autothrust
d. Flight Management, Autopilot, Autothrust

48. The position of the aircraft, used in the flight plan is computed by:
a. FG part of the FMGC
b. FM part of the FMGC
c. the DMC
d. the MCDU

49. The flight director is engaged:

a. by pressing the FD pb on the FCU
b. automatically at system power up
c. by selecting a mode on the FCU
d. by selecting the INIT page on the MCDU

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

50. With autopilot engaged, the rudder is normally controlled by:
a. the FMGC
b. the FAC
c. the ELAC
d. the SEC

51. The normal FMGC operation is:

a. only one FMGC can operate at a time
b. FMGC 1 has priority, FMGC 2 is in standby
c. FMGCs operate according to master/slave principle
d. FMGCs operate independently

52. The FCU allows:

a. modification of the flight plan of FM part
b. selection of FG function modes
c. selection RADIO-NAV frequencies
d. IRS alignment

53. In cruise, lateral AP orders are executed by:

a. ailerons and spoilers
b. ailerons and rudder
c. rudder and spoilers
d. ailerons, spoilers and rudder

54. With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR active, the A/THR mode:
a. can be chosen by the pilot on the FCU
b. can be chosen by the pilot on the MCDU
c. depends on the AP lateral mode
d. depends on the AP longitudinal mode

55. With the aircraft in flight, A/THR not engaged, thrust levers on CLB gate,
an alpha-floor is detected:
a. A/THR does not get engaged because the engines are already in CLB thrust
b. A/THR automatically engages, but is not active
c. A/THR automatically engages and controls the engines with CLB thrust
d. A/THR automatically engages and controls the engine with TO/GA thrust

56. The FAC computes rudder travel limit:

a. only when AP is engaged
b. only at low speed
c. only in case of ELAC failure
d. at any time

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

57. With AP engaged in LAND mode, the YAW damper actuator is controlled by:
a. a yaw order computed by the FAC
b. a dutch roll damping order computed by the FAC
c. a turn coordination order computed by the FAC
d. an AP yaw order computed by the FMGC, via the FAC

58. On the FMA, on the second line of the longitudinal zone:

a. ALT can be only in green or magenta
b. ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is active
c. ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is armed
d. ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is active or an FM altitude constraint

59. With the thrust levers in the CLB gate, A/THR disengages; the engines thrust:
a. equals CLB thrust limit
b. is frozen at the existing thrust
c. corresponds to the thrust levers position
d. progressively becomes equal to the thrust lever position

60. When TAKE-OFF mode is engaged:

a. A/THR automatically engages and is active
b. A/THR automatically engages but is not active
c. A/THR does not automatically engage and the engines are controlled by the thrust levers
d. A/THR does not automatically engage and the engines are controlled by the last thrust target

61. ADIRU 3 can supply information to:

a. DMC 1 and DMC 2 only
b. DMC 1 and DMC 3 only
c. DMC 2 and DMC 3 only
d. DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3

62. Air data modules (ADM) supply pressure information to the ADIRUs from:
a. all pilot probes and static ports
b. the pilot probes only
c. the static ports only
d. the captain and first officer pitot probes and static ports only

63. ADIRS 3 receives TAT information from:

a. the captain's TAT sensor
b. the first officer's TAT sensor
c. the captain and first officer's TAT sensors
d. the stand-by TAT sensor

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

64. The BARO correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU via:
a. the master FMGC
b. the FCU
c. the RMPs
d. the DMCs

65. Each ADIRU receives two analogue inputs. They are:

a. angle of attack (AOA) and total air temperature (TAT)
b. angle of attack (AOA) and barometric correction or reference
c. total air temperature (TAT) and barometric correction or reference
d. FMGC status and barometric correction reference

66. In normal operation the ADIRUs aligned using information from:

a. the ADIRS CDU
b. the CFDS
c. the FCU
d. the MCDU

67. If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is:

a. set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to CAPT/3
b. set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to F/O/3
c. set ATT HDG selectors to CAPT/3, AIR DATA selector to F/O/3
d. set ATT HDG selectors to F/O/3, AIR DATA selector to CAPT/3

68. In normal operation ADIRU 1 supplies information to:

a. the captain's PFD and the first officer's ND
b. the captain's ND and the first officer's PFD
c. the captain's PFD and ND
d. the first officer's PFD and ND

69. In rose NAV mode with VOR 1 selected, the ND displays what VOR information:
a. Deviation bar, selected course and the bearing pointer
b. Bearing pointer only
c. Deviation bar and selected course only
d. Deviation bar and bearing pointer only

70. In ROSE ILS mode, the ND displays what ILS information:

a. G/S and LOC scales
b. Deviation bar and selected course
c. Deviation bar, selected course and G/S scale
d. Deviation bar, selected course, G/S and LOC scales

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

71. In the event of no ADF1 reception, with ADF1 selected on ND:
a. the bearing pointer goes out of view and ADF flag is displayed
b. the bearing pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by red crosses
c. the bearing pointer goes red and station ID is replaced by frequency
d. the bearing pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by frequency

72. In ROSE VOR mode, in the event of VOR receiver failure:

a. the VOR information and the course pointer becomes red
b. the VOR information becomes red and the course pointer disappears
c. the VOR information and the course pointer disappear
d. the VOR information flashes and the course pointer disappears

73. During Take-Off and Go Around, the speed window on the FCU displays:
a. the speed manually inserted by the crew into the FCU and the light is out
b. the speed manually inserted by the crew into the MCDU and the light is illuminated
c. dashes and the light is illuminated: managed speed such as V2 or memorized VAPP
are automatically used by the FMGS

74. The following AP/FD lateral modes are managed:

a. NAV, HDG, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK
b. HDG, NAV, APPR, LOC, GA TRK
c. NAV, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK, GA TRK

75. In approach, “LAND” illuminates green on FMA when radio altitude is:
a. 700 feet
b. 400 feet
c. 1,000 feet
d. 200 feet

76. On the ground, the engagement of the autothrust function:

a. must be carried out manually by the crew before take off
b. is performed automatically upon the second engine start
c. is performed automatically at the engagement of the take off mode

77. Climbs and descents are always limited:

a. by flight plan (T/C) and (T/D) points
b. by the altitude manually selected on the FCU
c. by the aircraft weight calculated by the FMGC

78. In flight, the FMGS position can be updated:

a. whenever a DME station is selected by the pilot
b. using data from the selected NDB, VOR or DME stations
c. automatically with the DMEs through the autotuning function

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Training and Development Department
Flight Deck Crew Training

AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

79. ON the ND, in the event of VOR receiver failure:
a. the red VOR flag is displayed, the course pointer disappears
b. the VOR bearing becomes red and the course pointer disappears
c. the VOR bearing and the course pointer disappear
d. the VOR bearing flashes and the course pointer disappears

80. In flight, the FMGS position is automatically updated:

a. using data from the selected NDB, VOR or DME stations
b. whenever a DME station is selected by the pilot
c. by the DMEs through the autotuning function

(ATA-28) FUEL SYSTEM

1. How many pumps are there in each fuel tank?

a. One fuel pump each tank
b. Two fuel pumps in each tank
c. There is no fuel pump because tanks are air pressurized
d. Two fuel pumps only for all tanks

2. Normally, where can you check the fuel quantity of each tank?
a. On ECAM upper display and on FUEL page
b. On ECAM lower display FUEL page only
c. On ECAM upper display
d. On ECAM upper display, or no refueling control panel

3. With all fuel pumps switches ON, are wing tank pumps running while center tank is
supplying?
a. Yes, wing tank pumps are always running
b. No, only when center tank is empty
c. No, because of center tank pump priority

4. How many cells in each wing tank?

a. Two
b. Three

5. Where is the vent surge tank located?

a. In the outer section of each wing
b. In the wing tank

6. Where is the fuel remaining in the surge tank scavenged?

a. Inner cell
b. Outer cell

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

7. Which type of motor controls the fuel cross-feed valve?
a. Single
b. Double

8. Where are the transfer valves located?

a. In each outer cell
b. In each inner cell
c. On each sealed rib of each wing tank

9. What is the purpose of the pressure relief sequence valves?

a. Allows the transfer, from wing tanks to center tank
b. When all pumps are running, center pumps will deliver fuel preferentially

10. In normal operation, each engine is supplied by:

a. one wing tank pump and one center tank pump
b. two wing tank pumps and two center tank pumps
c. two wing tank pumps and one center tank pump

11. Is the gravity feeding from center tank possible:

a. Yes
b. No

12. The LP valves are controlled to off position by:

a. engine master switches
b. engine master switches and fire pbs
c. fire pbs

13. The normal tank filling order is:

a. wing tanks then center tank
b. center tank then wing tanks

14. Amber FAULT light illuminates on tank pump pb when:

a. pump is not energized
b. pb at off without failure
c. the delivery fuel pressure drops

15. Amber FAULT light illuminates on MODE Sel. pb when:

a. the delivery fuel pressure drops
b. center tank has more than 250 kg and any wing tank has less than 5000 kg
c. the two center tank pumps are selected off

16. The maximum fuel imbalance is (Take Off & Landing) at heavier tank full:
a. 1500 kg
b. 1800 kg
c. 2000 kg

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Training and Development Department
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

17. The maximum refueling pressure is:
a. 50 psi (3.5 bars)
b. 36 psi (2.5 bars)
c. 11 psi (0.75 bars)

18. FOB (Fuel on Board) half-boxed amber on ECAM FUEL page means:
a. both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level
b. one transfer valve fails to open when inner cell is at low level
c. FQI (Fuel Quantity Indicator) is degraded

19. FOB ( Fuel on Board) half-boxed amber on EWD means:

a. the quantity shown is not fully usable
b. fuel quantity indicator is degraded

20. If open, when will the transfer valves close again?

a. When the cell is empty
b. Transfer valves close automatically at the next refueling operation

21. For what purpose is fuel used by electrical system?

a. To cool the IDG oil
b. To cool the engine oil

22. APU fuel is supplied by:

a. engine fuel pump(s) only
b. APU fuel pump only
c. either one

23. With slats extended, the center tank pumps run on ground:
a. Always
b. Never
c. Yes, after engine start for 2 mins.

24. What does the MODE SEL pb control:

a. Center tank and wing tank pumps
b. Center tank pumps only
c. Wing tank pumps only

25. When the center tank is empty (MODE SEL at AUTO), center tank pumps:
a. must be manually switched off
b. stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running
c. stop automatically 5 min. after LO level is reached in center tank

26. What happens to the IDG cooling fuel when the outer cells are full:
a. Fuel returns to the engine feeding line
b. Fuel overflows into the inner cell through a spill pipe

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Training and Development Department
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

27. What happens to the IDG cooling fuel when the wing tank is full:
a. fuel goes directly into the center tank
b. fuel returns to the engine feeding line
c. the system select CTR TK pumps off. WING TK pumps feed approx. 500 kg,
then CTR TK pumps run again

28. Suction valves are:

a. always open regardless of pumps status
b. normally closed by pumps pressure
c. open automatically when fuel X-feed is selected on

29. Why has a 2% additional space been provided in each fuel tank?
a. For cooling purposes
b. For fuel expansion without spillage into the vent surge tank

30. During take off, center tank fuel is:

a. supplying to both engines
b. not supplied while slats are extended
c. not supplied with the MODE SEL at AUTO
d. required to be deselected by the pilot

31. With fuel in all tanks, in flight, fuel is used:

a. from the inner cells and outer cells then the center tank
b. from the outer cells and inner cells then the center tank
c. from the center tank, then the outer cells, then inner cells
d. from the center tank, then from the inner cells to predetermined level,
then outer cell fuel combines with inner cell fuel

32. In normal operation the cross feed valve is:

a. closed for the take off
b. automatically opened when the center tank has more than 100 kg fuel and either
wing tanks has less than 5000 kg
c. open for take off
d. automatically opened by the MODE SEL push button switch

33. Are the engines still supplied in case of fuel filter CLOG:
a. Yes by using fuel coming from the IDG cooling and outer tank line
b. No
c. Yes, fuel bypassing the fuel filter (bypass valve)

34. What is the maximum total fuel capacity?

a. 19,004 kg
b. 20,829 kg
c. 23,666 kg

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

35. How many channels is/are used in the Fuel Quantity Indications System?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1

36. Where is the vent surge tank located?

a. Outboard of each wing tank
b. In the wing tank

37. What are the minimum fuel quantity for the take off and maximum
fuel quantity imbalance (heavier tank full) for take off or landing?
a. 750 kg – 1200 kg
b. 1500 kg – 1500 kg
c. 2000 kg – 1500 kg
d. 5000 kg – 1100 kg

38. What is the refueling time at nominal pressure (approx):

a. 20 minutes for all tanks
b. 17 minutes for wing tanks
c. 30 minutes for all tanks
d. a or b above

39. In case of single engine operation:

a. cross feed valve must be kept open
b. cross feed valve must be closed
c. the fuel of the opposite side of engine running is lost:
d. cross feed valve is automatically kept opened

40. The fuel return valve is controlled by:

a. FMGC
b. FADEC
c. FLSCU
d. FQI

41. What does the FAULT light illuminated amber in the wing tank pb indicate?
a. Delivery pressure too high
b. Delivery pressure drops
c. The pb is in the OFF position

42. Why has a 2 % additional space been provided in each fuel tank?
a. For cooling purposes
b. For fuel expansion without spillage

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

43. The engine low pressure (LP) valve is closed by:
a. Engine fire pb or center tank transfer valve control logic
b. Engine fire pb or MODE SEL pb in manual
c. Engine fire pb or the engine MASTER SW

44. On the crossfeed pb, what is the meaning of the “ON” white light?
a. The valve opens
b. The valve is closed
c. The valve is fully open

45. At which fuel quantity is the low level “LO LVL” warning triggered on the ECAM?
a. Below 500 kg (1100 lb)
b. Above 900 kg (1980 lb)
c. Below 750 kg (1650 lb)
d. Below 250 kg (550 lb)

46. How can you check that fuel quantity (FQI) is in degraded mode?
a. FQ indication is boxed amber
b. FQ indication is dashed amber across the two last digits but it is impossible to determine
which side is affected
c. FQ indication is dashed amber across the two last digits on the upper ECAM and
ECAM fuel page must be called to check which tank is affected
d. FQ indication flashes on ECAM fuel page on the affected tank

47. When passing FL 200 gravity feeding occurs, what is the maximum flight level:
a. 300 (FL 200 if jet B)
b. 200 (FL 100 if jet B)
c. 100
d. 150 (FL 100 if jet B)

48. What is the purpose of the capacitance probes?

a. To measure the fuel level
b. To measure the fuel temperature
c. a and b above

49. When the wing tank pb is set OFF, the FAULT light is:
a. inhibited
b. illuminated when delivery pressure drops
c. a or b above

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Training and Development Department
Flight Deck Crew Training

AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

(ATA-29) HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

1. Normal hydraulic power is provided by:

a. Engine driven pumps for all systems
b. Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, ELEC pump for the blue, ELEC pump
for yellow (ground operation only)
c. Electric pumps for blue and yellow, engine driven pumps for green
d. Engine driven pumps for green and blue electric pump for yellow

2. The power transfer unit (PTU) is:

a. reversible between green and yellow
b. one way between green and yellow
c. reversible between all three systems
d. reversible between blue and yellow

3. In flight, if Blue ELEC pump fails, Blue system:

a. is lost
b. can be recovered by RAT
c. can be recovered by PTU
d. Both b and c

4. With both engines stopped, how is it possible to pressurize the Green system:
a. By the green engine pump
b. By the yellow engine pump and the PTU
c. By the yellow electric pump and the PTU

5. The RAT is automatically extended in case of:

a. Blue pump failure
b. Blue pump delivery pressure dropping below 1750 psi
c. Loss of (ENG. and APU) main generators
d. Can only be deployed manually

6. On ground the Blue system is pressurized when:

a. the APU is running
b. one engine is running
c. EXT power is available

7. Engine 2 energizes:
a. the blue system
b. the green system
c. the yellow system pump and the green system via the PTU should the green system pump fail

8. The yellow system comprises:

a. one engine driven pump, one electric pump, one hand pump
b. one engine driven pump, two electric pump
c. one engine driven pump, one hand pump and the RAT
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

9. The PTU runs automatically when delta P between the green and yellow system
is more than 500 psi.
a. during green or yellow reservoir fluid low level
b. during green or yellow reservoir low air pressure
c. during green or yellow system low pressure

10. The priority valves operate in case of:

a. high hydraulic pressure in the green system
b. low hydraulic pressure
c. high hydraulic pressure in the green and yellow system

11. The fire shut off valves shut off:

a. the blue and yellow systems
b. the yellow and green systems
c. the green and blue systems

12. In case of blue ELEC pump failure, when the RAT MAN ON pb (HYDRAULIC PANEL)
is pressed:
a. the blue hydraulic system is pressurized by the RAT
b. the EMER GEN is supplying electrical system
c. the blue hydraulic system is pressurized and the EMER GEN is running

13. The hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized:

a. from the pneumatic system
b. from the Packs 1 and 2
c. from the LH ENG or the pneumatic system

14. In flight the ENG 1 pump FAULT light illuminates amber in case of:
- a reservoir low level
- or a reservoir overheat
- or reservoir low air press
- or a pump low pressure
a. Yes
b. No

15. If on ground with ENG 1 stopped; does the ENG 1 pump FAULT light illuminate amber
due to Green pump low pressure?
a. Yes
b. No

16. In case of reservoir overheat, the FAULT light of the faulty system stays on:
a. for 30 seconds
b. continuously
c. as long as the overheat is detected

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

17. On ground and before engine start, with Blue pump pb in AUTO and AC power available,
the Blue pump is:
a. automatically energized
b. energized when the Blue pump OVRD pb in the overhead maintenance panel is pressed

18. The Blue system includes operation of:

a. the flaps
b. the slats
c. the flats and the slats

19. The RAT, when extended in flight, pressurizes:

a. the green system
b. the yellow system and the green system via the PTU
c. the blue system

20. The Yellow system includes operation of:

a. the left and right elevator
b. the left elevator only
c. the right elevator only

21. The Yellow system may be powered by:

a. ENG 1 hydraulic pump
b. ENG 2 hydraulic pump or the Yellow electric pump or the PTU
c. ENG 2 hydraulic pump, the Yellow electric pump and the RAT

22. The Yellow system includes operation of:

a. the flaps
b. the flaps and slats
c. the slats

23. During the first engine start the PTU is

a. automatically running
b. tested
c. inhibited

24. The RAT can be restowed:

a. in flight
b. on ground only
c. on ground and in flight

25. In flight the RAT is extended:

a. manually only
b. manually or automatically
c. automatically only

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

26. In flight when the RAT is automatically extended:

a. the Blue hydraulic system is pressurized but the EMER GEN is not running
b. the Green hydraulic system is pressurized and the EMER GEN runs
c. the Blue hydraulic system is pressurized and the EMER GEN runs

27. Is it possible to interchange hydraulic fluid from Green to Yellow or Yellow to Green
system:
a. No
b. Yes, thru the PTU
c. Yes, in case of leakage

28. The hydraulic fire shut off valve closes when:

a. the master switch is set to OFF
b. the Fire pb is released out
c. automatically if the fire is detected

29. If the Green system is lost, slats operation is:

a. normal
b. slow
c. lost

30. If the Green system is lost, flap operation is:

a. slow
b. normal
c. lost

31. The Green system operates:

a. spoilers 3
b. spoilers 2 and 4
c. spoilers 1 and 5

32. The Green system operates:

a. the right elevator
b. the left elevator
c. both

33. The Green system operates:

a. the left aileron
b. the right aileron
c. both

34. The Green system operates:

a. the Reverser 1
b. the Reverser 2
c. both
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

35. The Yellow system operates:

a. the Reverser 1
b. the Reverser 2
c. both

36. On ground, Blue ELEC pump pb at AUTO, the circuit is energized if:
a. one battery is on AUTO
b. Ground electrical power is ON
c. one engine is running or Blue pump OVRD pb on the overhead maintenance panel
has been pressed

37. If Blue system is lost, the slats are:

a. normal
b. slow
c. lost

38. If Blue system is lost, the flaps are:

a. normal
b. slow
c. lost

39. The Blue system operates:

a. spoilers 2 and 4
b. spoilers 3
c. spoilers 1 and 5

40. The RAT can be extended:

a. automatically in case of loss of power to AC Bus 1 and AC Bus2
b. manually from the overhead panel
c. both

41. The Blue system operates:

a. the left aileron
b. the right aileron
c. both

42. Can you operate a cargo door when no electrical power is available:
a. Yes, via a hand pump
b. No, no hand pump

43. Yellow ELEC pump pb switch OFF and cargo door manual selector valve set at open or
close position, the PTU and the flight controls are:
a. operative
b. inhibited

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

44. If Yellow system is lost, the slats are:

a. normal
b. slow
c. lost

45. If Yellow system is lost, the flaps are:

a. normal
b. slow
c. lost

46. The ENG 2 fire valve is between the yellow reservoir and:
a. the ENG 2 hydraulic pump
b. the Yellow electric pump
c. the Yellow hand pump

47. The Yellow system operates:

a. the spoiler 3
b. the spoilers 2 and 4
c. the spoilers 1 and 5

48. In case of single hydraulic system low press:

a. the Master Warning light illuminates
b. the Master Caution light illuminates and the single chime sounds
c. there is no warning

49. In case of RSVR low air pressure, the hydraulic system affected is:
a. definitely lost
b. may be recovered after descending to a lower altitude

50. With a single hydraulic system failure the flight control law is:
a. normal
b. alternate
c. direct

51. With Green hydraulic system lost:

a. the landing gear extension is normal
b. the landing gear retraction is normal
c. the landing gear must be extended by gravity

52. With Green hydraulic system lost:

a. the NWS is lost
b. the NWS is operative
c. the NWS operates in alternate

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53. With Green hydraulic system lost, the braking system is:
a. normal
b. alternate
c. lost

54. With Green hydraulic system is lost, the anti skid is:
a. lost
b. limited to 2000 psi brake pressure
c. operative on the Yellow hydraulic system

55. PTU at AUTO, the PTU automatically runs:

a. if the blue hydraulic system is lost
b. when differential pressure between Green and Yellow is more than 500 psi
c. as soon as a differential pressure between Green and Yellow system is detected

56. PTU running, the pressure delivered by the PTU is:

a. stable at 3000 psi
b. fluctuating between 2500 and 3000 psi

57. Hydraulic Green system only remaining the AP function is:

a. available with AP 1
b. lost
c. available with AP 2

58. Hydraulic Green system only remaining, the horizontal stabilizer is:
a. available
b. lost

59. With Green and Yellow hydraulic systems lost, manual pitch trim is:
a. available
b. lost

60. Hydraulic Green system only remaining, the auto brake is:
a. lost
b. available
c. alternate

61. With hydraulic Blue system only remaining:

a. the braking system is lost
b. seven full brake applications are available via accumulator
c. the antiskid is still available

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

62. In flight, the Blue hydraulic system can be supplied by:
a. the RAT and the electrical pump
b. the engine driven pump
c. the PTU (power transfer unit)
d. It cannot be supplied

(ATA-30) ICE AND RAIN

1. What happens when you set the wing anti-ice pb to ON, on the ground?
a. The wing anti-ice valves do not open
b. The wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds
c. The wing anti-ice valves remain open

2. The blue ON light illuminates on the wing anti-ice pb:

a. when the anti-ice valves open
b. when the pb switch is set to ON
c. when the FAULT light goes out

3. In case of loss of electrical power supply, the engine anti-ice valve:

a. opens when the engine is stopped
b. opens when the engine is running
c. closes when the engine is running

4. Probe heating starts automatically when the switch is in AUTO position:

a. in low level after engine start and then normal power after lift off
b. not heated on the ground, heats automatically at lift off
c. operates in high heat after engine start
d. operates in low heat until manually selected to high

5. In case of window heat computer failure, the other computer can replace the failed one:
a. Yes
b. No

6. Window heating comes on automatically when one engine is started:

a. Yes
b. No

7. The window heat computer provides two heating level for the wind shield:
a. High level when above 20,000 ft
Low level below 20,000 ft
b. High level in flight
Low level on ground
c. High level in icing conditions
Low level in other conditions
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8. Pitot heating operates:
a. at low level on ground and normal power in flight
b. in flight only
c. on ground above 80 kts

9. Window heating can be selected ON manually at any time by the probe window heat pb:
a. Wrong
b. Right

10. Electrical heating is provided for the protection of:

a. pitot and AOA
b. pitot and TAT
c. pitot, static ports, TAT, AOA

11. The engine nacelle is anti-iced by:

a. air bleed from high pressure compressor
b. air bleed from low pressure compressor
c. electrically

12. When engine anti-ice valve is selected ON:

a. continuous ignition is selected on
b. continuous ignition is not selected on
c. the associated pack is closed

13. When an engine anti-ice valve is open:

a. the N2 of the associated engine decreases
b. N1 limit is automatically reduced and if necessary, the idle N1 is automatically
increased for both engine in order to provide the required pressure.
c. N1 limit is automatically increased

14. The engine anti-ice valve closes in case of low air pressure:
a. Right
b . Wrong

15. How can you check the engine anti-ice has been selected:
a. With ON light on the associated Engine pb + ENG A-ICE on the ECAM Memo display
b. With ON light on the associated Engine pb + ENG A-ICE on the ECAM ENG page

16. The maximum speed to use the windshield wipers is:

a. 200 kts
b. 250 kts
c. 230 kts

17. On a dry windshield, rain repellent system:

a. may be used as windshield washer
b. must not be used
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18. The rain repellent system is inhibited:

a. when both engines are shut down
b. on ground below 80 kts
c. above FL 150

19. The rain repellent bottle should be replaced:

a. When the pressure indicator needle in the yellow sector
b. After each light
c. when refill float is in view on quantity indicator
d. A and C above

20. The electric wipers are controlled by 2 individual rotary selectors:

a. Yes
b. No

21. The wipers can operate at different speeds:

a. low speed and high speed
b. only one speed
c. low, medium, high speed

22. The rain repellent bottle is located:

a. in the rear cockpit on the left side
b. in the avionic bay
c. in the cockpit on the right side

23. The timer supplies a measured quantity of rain repellent to the wind shield: to repeat
the cycle the pb must be pressed again:
a. No
b. Yes

24. When not used, the wipers are out of view?

a. Right
b. Wrong

25. The wing anti-ice shut off valves close automatically in case of:
a. engine failure
b. loss of electrical power supply or leak detection
c. cross bleed valve fault when wing anti-ice used

26. Slats protected by hot air supplied from the pneumatic system are:
a. slats 1.2.4
b. slats 2.3.4
c. the three outboard leading edge slats

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27. The wing anti-ice shut off valves are controlled by:
a. 1 wing anti-ice pb
b. 2 wing anti-ice pbs
c. automatically

28. Where do the wing anti-ice indications appear on the ECAM?

a. there is no indication on ECAM bleed page for wing anti-ice system
b. “ANTI-ICE” appears in white on the ECAM bleed page when the wing anti-ice pb
is depressed
c. a green triangle appears in the ECAM Bleed page when the wing anti-ice pushbutton is
depressed

29. The wing anti-ice pb switch ON light comes on:

a. when the anti-ice valves open
b. when the switch is set to ON
c. when the FAULT light goes off

30. The probe heating starts automatically when the pushbutton switch is in auto position:
a. not heated on the ground, but heated automatically at lift off
b. operates in high heat after engine start
c. operates in low heat until manually selected to high
d. in low heat after engine start and then normal heat after lift off

(ATA-32) LANDING GEAR

1. Landing gear can be extended by:

a. Green system or Yellow in stand by
b. Green system or mechanical gravity extension
c. Green system for unlocking, gravity extension and green system for downlocking
d. Blue system or mechanical gravity extension

2. The braking modes are:

a. Green with anti-skid, Yellow without anti-skid, Parking Brake
b. Green or Yellow with anti-skid, Yellow without anti-skid, Parking Brake
c. Green with or without anti-skid, Yellow without anti-skid, Parking Brake

3. The anti-skid and nose wheel switch is set off:

a. Anti-skid only is deactivated
b. Nose wheel steering only is deactivated
c. Anti-skid and nose wheel steering are deactivated
d. Anti-skid provides a fixed aircraft deceleration

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

4. L/G position is indicated by:

a. one panel on center instrument panel, one panel on overhead panel
b. ECAM only
c. one panel on center instrument panel and ECAM Wheel page
d. one panel on center instrument panel, ECAM, visual means on the wing

5. When auto brake operates, it can be disarmed by:

a. pressing the pb or losing an arming condition
b. depressing 1 pedal if MAX , MED or LO autobrake mode is selected
c. ground spoilers retraction
d. a or b or c

6. Maximum speed for landing gear retractions is:

a. 200 kts
b. 220 kts
c. 250 kts
d. 280 kts

7. The nose wheel steering is powered:

a. by hydraulic system
b. by electric system
c. a or b

8. Nose wheel steering is available when:

a. gear doors open
b. nose gear doors closed
c. either a or b is correct

9. Nose wheel steering is powered by:

a. yellow hydraulic system
b. green hydraulic system
c. either a or b is correct

10. When is pressure in the nose wheel steering system shut off:
a. with towing lever in towing position or both engines are shut down or aircraft in flight
b. during ground towing with one engine shut down or when aircraft speed is above 60 kts

11. The handwheel in the cockpit provide a wheel steering angle of:
a. 85º
b. 70º
c. 75º

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

12. When both handwheel are operated simultaneously, the signals:
a. from the first pilot acting on his handwheel have priority
b. coming from the captain have priotrity
c. are added algebraically

13. Nose wheel steering by rudder pedals is limited to:

a. up to 6º under all circumstances
b. up to 6º depending on A/C speed

14. Handwheel and pedals are operated simultaneously:

a. handwheel has priority
b. pedals have priority (depending on speed)
c. signals are mathematically added

15. Nose wheel steering is available:

a. A/C speed below 80 kts both ENG running, towing lever normal position, A/C on ground
b. A/C speed below 80 kts both ENG running, towing lever normal position, A/C on ground
or in the air
c. A/C speed below 80 kts one ENG running, towing lever normal position, A/C on ground

16. Hydraulic pressure to the landing gear is supplied up to:

a. 280 kts
b. any speed
c. 260 kts

17. After T/O the left main gear shock absorber remains in compressed position:
a. The gear can be retracted under all circumstances (safety)
b. The gear can be retracted provided the nose gear is centered
c. The gear cannot be retracted, gear lever is blocked

18. Is it possible (system wise) to lower the gear by gravity above 260 kts?
a. Yes
b. No

19. System page “WHEEL”: L/G position indicators (triangles), LH shows green triangles
(gear down)? RH has no triangles are shown. The L/G is down and locked:
a. Yes
b. No

20. During an approach you get master warning and ECAM: “Gear Not Down!”
The reason is:
a. L/G not down locked and Flaps at 3 or Full and both radio altimeters failed.
b. L/G not down locked, Flaps at 3 and radio height above 750 ft
c. a or b

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

21. The brakes are actuated by two independent systems, pressurized by the:
a. Blue and Green hydraulic system
b. Yellow and Green hydraulic system
c. Blue and Yellow hydraulic system

22. The alternate brake system uses:

a. the yellow hydraulic system
b. the hydraulic accumulator
c. a + b

23. Brake pressure from the hydraulic accumulator is still available:

a. in normal (with anti-skid)
b. in alternate (with anti-skid)
c. in alternate (without anti-skid)

24. The anti-skid system gets its references speed from:

a. ADIRU 1
b. ADIRU 1 or 2
c. ADIRU 1, 2 0r 3

25. The principle of anti-skid is:

a. comparing the speed difference between the four wheels
b. comparing wheel speed with A/C reference speed
c. comparing wheel speeds between left and right landing gear

26. Following ADIRS 1 and ADIRS 3 failure, is the anti-skid still available?
a. Yes
b. No

27. Green hydraulic system available, you find the A/SKID and N/W STG sw in OFF position:
a. Braking is normal, nosewheel steering lost
b. Braking is alternate, nosewheel steering normal
c . Braking is alternate, nosewheel steering lost

28. Alternate braking using the yellow system. Autobrake is:

a. still available with anti-skid
b. lost
c. still available without anti-skid

29. Setting the parking brake deactivates all braking modes, except the anti-skid:
a. True
b. False

30. Setting the parking brake ON deactivates the auto brake:

a. True
b. False
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31. Auto Braking is initiated by:
a. reverse thrust selection
b. ground spoilers extension
c. a + b

32. After landing you retract the ground spoilers by bringing thrust levers from reverse to idle.
The auto brake is now disarmed:
a. Yes
b. No

33. The brake and accumulator pressure gauge shows pressure:

a. from yellow hydraulic system
b. from accumulator only
c. from both yellow brake system and brake accumulator

34. MAX braking has been selected: take off being aborted, engines in reverse, you have
forgotten to arm the ground spoilers, is autobrake activated:
a. Yes
b. No

35. The HOT light on the BRK FAN pb illuminates when brake temperature reaches:
a. 250ºC
b. 300ºC
c. 315ºC

36. On WHEEL page of ECAM, AUTO BRK is flashing green:

a. auto brake is disengaged
b. auto brake failure
c. anti-skid failure

37. On WHEEL page of ECAM, a green arc appears on one wheel indicator meaning the
brake temperature is above:
a. 300ºC
b. 100ºC
c. 50ºC

38. After lift off, is brakes HOT warning on ECAM still available:
a. Yes, gear down or up
b. Yes, gear down only
c. Not

39. On the RAMP with the APU running, PB is set ON. Message on ECAM shows
PARK BRK:
a. in green
b. not at all
c. in yellow (because of ACCU press)
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

40. After a landing gear gravity extension, is it possible to restore normal landing gear
operation if green hydraulic pressure is available:
a. Yes
b. No

41. The landing gear indicator panel receives the information from microswitches and
proximity detectors connected to:
a. LGCIU 1
b. LGCIU 2
c. both

42. The red arrow, near the landing gear lever illuminates when:
a. landing gear is not down locked in landing config.
b. landing gear is not uplocked after retraction
c . landing gear is in abnormal position

43. LDG Gear indicator panel UNLK LT illuminates red if:

a. gear is not locked in the selected position
b. gear is extended by gravity and doors are not closed
c. gear is extended normally and doors are not closed

44. The MAX speed with landing gear extended (VLE) is:
a. 300 kts/ M..70
b. 280 kts/ M..67
c. 260 kts/ M..60

45. The MAX speed at which the landing gear may be extended is:
a. 260 kts
b. 250 kts
c. 240 kts

46. Which ADIRS's close the safety valve of the green hydraulic supply when speed > 260 kts:
a. ADIRS 1 and 2
b. ADIRS 1 and 3
c. ADIRS 2 and 3

47. What is the MAX tire speed:

a. 205 kts
b. 195 kts
c. 185 kts

48. Are there any mechanical visual gear down lock indicators:
a. Yes
b. No

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49. How many turns are necessary to extend the landing gear by gravity using the handcrank:
a. Ten turns clockwise
b. five turns clockwise
c. three turns clockwise

50. The braking systems are:

a. green with anti-skid, yellow without anti-skid, parking brake
b. green or yellow with anti-skid, yellow without anti-skid, parking brake
c. green with or without anti-skid, yellow without anti-skid, parking brake

51. In flight, with the parking brake set to ON, a message on ECAM shows PARK BRK:
a. in green
b. in amber
c. in blue

52. When the autobrake operates, it can be disarmed by:

a. ground spoilers retraction
b. pressing the Mode pb or losing an arming condition
c. action on 1 pedal in LO, MED or MAX Mode
d. any: a, b or c

(ATA-35) OXYGEN-EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

1. What happens when the mask is used with the selector at 100% position?
a. mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand
b. mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand
c. mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow

2. A thermal discharge of the crew oxygen bottle is indicated by:

a. “Thermal discharge” message on ECAM
b. green blow out disc missing
c. red blow out disc missing
d. no indication of thermal discharge provided

3. In the passengers oxygen system, a generator, once activated, delivers oxygen for:
a. 5 minutes, if all masks are used
b. 30 minutes, if only one mask is in use
c. 15 minutes same distribution to each mask

4. If in the cockpit the master selector of the EVAC command panel is in “CAPT” position
and purser presses his EVAC “COMD” pb, what will happen?
a. EVAC signals are energized in the cabin only
b. all EVAC signals are energized
c. EVAC signals are energized in the cockpit only
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5. If cabin altitude rises above 14,000 FT, Oxygen masks will drop out:
a. only by actuation of a switch on the Captain Panel
b. automatically by cabin pressure and/or cabin attendant action
c. automatically by cabin pressure and/or flight deck action

6. The captain may call all cabin attendants at the same time:
a. True
b. False

7. Where are the EVAC signals located?

a. In the cockpit and next to forward left and aft left cabin door
b. In the cockpit and next to each cabin door
c. In the cockpit and next to each cabin door and emergency overwing exit

8. State the location of the “EVAC COMMAND” switch:

a. Purser station and C/A aft left
b. Purser station and pilot overhead panel
c. Pilot overhead panel and all C/A station

9. How many escape ropes are in the cockpit?

a. 2 escape ropes – 1 over each window they can be used through the left or right window
b. 2 escape ropes – each of them must be used through the window to which it corresponds
c. 3 escape ropes for the 2 cockpit crew members. The extra one is to be used by some
particularly big people

(ATA-36) PNEUMATIC SYSTEM

1. With engines and APU running and APU bleed valve selected ON, select the correct
statement:
a. Engine bleed valves open, X bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve closes
b. Engine bleed valves close, X bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve opens
c. Engine bleed valves open, X bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens
d. Engine bleed valves close, X bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens

2. To provide external air for ENG start the following switching is required:
a. Pneumatic X-bleed AUTO
b. Pneumatic X-bleed OPEN
c. Engine bleed switches OFF
d. APU bleed switch OFF

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3. Air bleed from the engines is:

a. not cooled prior to being used by the systems
b. cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air bleed from fan section
c. cooled using ambient air
d. only cooled in air conditioning part

4. High pressure air is supplied from:

a. Engine 1 and 2 bleed systems, APU load compressor, HP ground connection
b. Engine 1 and 2 bleed systems
c. Engine 1 and 2 bleed systems and APU load compressor

5. Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by:

a. one bleed monitoring computer
b. two bleed valve computers
c. two bleed monitoring computers

6. Which source operates the bleed valve?

a. Pneumatic
b. Electric
c. Both

7. What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply the
corresponding engine bleed valve:
a. IP valve closed
b. HP valve opened, IP stage closed
c. HP valve opened, IP stage remains in the same configuration

8. Can you control the HP valve position through the air bleed cockpit panel?
a. Yes
b. No

9. If the bleed valve closes, the HP valve:

a. opens automatically
b. closes automatically

10. Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which regulates and limits the
temperature at:
a. 150ºC
b. 85ºC
c. 200ºC

11. Which source controls the crossbleed valve:

a. Pneumatic
b. Electric

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12. Cross-bleed valve is provided with 2 electrical motors:

a. one for the automatic mode, the other one for the manual mode
b. two for the automatic mode
c. two for the manual mode

13. In case of low upstream pressure, the high pressure valve (HP valve) is:
a. pneumatically closed
b. open
c. electrically opened
d. electrically closed

(ATA-70) POWERPLANT

1. On ground the start sequence is automatically aborted:

a. there is no automatic abort sequence
b. only in case of hot start or hung start
c. only in case of no light up
d. in case of hot start, hung start, stall or no light up

2. During an automatic start on ground, the sequence is:

a. Ignition by N2 > 16%, HP fuel valve opening by N2 > 22% ; start valve closure by N2>50%
b. Ignition and HP fuel valve opening by N2 > 16% - start valve closure by N2 > 50%
c. Ignition and HP fuel valve opening by N2 22% - start valve closure by N2 > 50%
d. Ignition by N2 > 16% - HP fuel valve opening by N2 > 22% - start valve closure by setting
mode selector to NORM

3. Thrust reversers are actuated by:

a. hydraulic actuators: green for engine 1 – yellow for engine 2
b. hydraulic actuators: green for both engines
c. hydraulic actuators: blue for engine 1, yellow for engine 2
d. pneumatic actuators

4. The FADEC is electrically supplied by:

a. aircraft electrical system only
b. batteries if A/C electrical power fails
c. self powered above 12% N2
d. aircraft electrical system or self powered in an emergency

5. In manual mode, when the thrust levers are between the CLB detent and IDLE:
a. each position of the levers corresponds to an N1
b. N1 is climb N1
c. N1 is idle N1
d. N1 is frozen
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6. What is the EGT limit at TOGA power setting:

a. 890ºC on 1 Engine or 850ºC both engines running
b. 790ºC during 5 min. (1 min. on 1 engine)
c. 950ºC during 5 min. (10 min. on 1 engine)

7. What is the maximum continuous oil temperature:

a. 150ºC
b. 140ºC
c. 155ºC

8. The max continuous oil temp. limit maybe exceeded, what is the limit, and under what
conditions?
a. 155ºC for less than 15 min.
b. 155ºC for less than 15 min.if one engine is failed
c. the max cont. oil temp.must not be exceeded

9. What is the minimum starting oil temperature:

a. -40ºC
b. -10ºC
c. 0º

10. What is the minimum oil quantity (ECAM indications):

a. 5 qts + estimated consumption (0.6 qt/hr)
b. 11 qts + estimated consumption (0.6 qt/hr)
c. 9.5 qts + estimated consumption (0.5 qt/hr)

11. What is the minimum oil pressure at ground idle:

a. 13 psi
b. 10 psi
c. variable with oil temperature

12. What is the maximum N1:

a. 105%
b. 104%
c. 100%

13. What is the maximum N2:

a. 105%
b. 102%
c. 100%

14. What is the maximum N2 for starter engagement:

a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 20%
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15. What is the maximum starter operating time: (4 consecutive cycles of)
a. 8 min. followed by 15 min. of no operation
b. 5 min. followed by 20 sec. of no operation
c. 2 min. followed by 20 sec. of no operation

16. Starter cooling time requirements are:

a. 15 min. cooling time after 4 cycles of 2 min.
b. 5 min. cooling time after 4 cycles of 2 min.
c. 2 min. cooling time after 4 cycles of 8 min.

17. The maximum reverse thrust may be used down to:

a. A/C stop according to EGT limit
b. 70 knots (idle reverse down to A/C stop)
c. 40 knots (idle reverse down to A/C stop)

18. What is the maximum allowable FLEX TEMP?

a. ISA + 29ºC
b. ISA + 53ºC
c. ISA + 46ºC

19. Reduced thrust is permitted:

a. if outside air temp. is higher than corrected temp.
b. on contaminated runway or with one (or more) reverser inop.
c. if corrected temp. is lower than Tmax FLEX (ISA + 53ºC)

20. In manual thrust, in cruise, the pilot should limit the N1. What is the limit?
a. displayed MAX CLB N1, minus 2.4 %
b. displayed MAX CLB N1, minus 1.9 %
c. displayed MCT N1

21. Is the MAX CRUISE N1 displayed on upper ECAM:

a. No
b. Yes

22. At Toulouse (500 ft): Tref is 29ºC, outside air temp. is 36ºC and you found a corrected
flex temp of 33ºC. Is it possible to use FLEX thrust for take-off?
a. Yes
b. No

23. EGT indication becomes red on E/W display when EGT is higher than:
a. 855ºC
b. 890ºC
c. 950ºC

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24. What is the FADEC:
a. an engine control box
b. a thrust control unit controlling each engine.
c. is a digital engine control system that performs complete engine management.

25. The FADEC system is:

a. always powered by AC electrical circuit
b. self powered
c. self powered above 12% N2 with AC power when N2 is below 12%

26. What device provides direct closure of the HP shut-off valve?

a. the master switch at OFF position
b. the ECU
c. HMU

27. Which valve ensures an adequate fuel flow:

a. the HP fuel SOV
b. the BSV (burner staging valve)
c. the fuel metering valve of the HMU

28. Is the engine still supplied in case of fuel filter CLOG?

a. Yes, by using the fuel coming from the IDG cooling tank line
b. Yes, by by-passing the fuel filter (by-pass) valve)
c. No, the engine stops

29. Cranking may be manually selected by setting:

a. the MODE selector to CRANK and the Master Sw. to ON
b. with Master Sw. to OFF, the MODE selector to CRANK and MAN START pb to ON
c. same as b. with Master Sw. ON

30. During an automatic starting sequence, the pack valves close when:
a. IGN/START is selected
b. APU bleed is selected to ON and IGN/START is selected
c. the Master Sw. is selected ON with IGN/START selected

31. During an automatic starting sequence:

a. start valve closes at N2>43%
b. start valve closes at N2>45%
c. start valve closes at N2>50%

32. Maximum EGT during engine starts is:

a. 855ºC
b. 890ºC
c. 725ºC

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

33. The FADEC automatically selects continuous ignition in the following cases:
a. Wing anti-ice ON or engine flame out.
b. ignition delay during start, flameout detected or EIU failure while engine running.
c. flame out detected, EIU failure while engine running or ENG anti-ice ON.

34. How is the oil cooled?

a. by the engine fuel/oil heat exchanger and the servo fuel heater
b. by oil recirculation
c. by the air/oil heat exchanger

35. Oil pressure indicator becomes red when pressure is lower than:
a. 16 psi
b. 200 psi
c. 13 psi

36. In A/THR Mode the thrust computed by the FMGC is limited:

a. by the ECU (with the TLA)
b. by the mode engaged on the FCU
c. by the FMGC itself

37. The thrust reverser activation condition are:

a. aircraft on the ground and thrust lever between reverse idle detent and max reverse
b. spoiler armed and thrust levers on the reverse sector
c. thrust levers in full reverse sector

38. REV green appears on the N1 indicator when:

a. thrust levers are selected to full reverse sector
b. the reverse doors are fully deployed
c. the thrust lever position is in the idle reverse sector

39. Reverse deployment requires TLA – 3º, signal from the SEC's. One reverse will be lost if:
a. SEC's 1 + 2 are lost
b. SEC's 1 + 3 are lost
c. a or b

40. The low pressure rotor (N1) consist of:

a. a front Fan – 2 stage booster – 5 stage LP turbine
b. a front Fan (1 stage) – 4 stage booster – 4 stage LP turbine

41. A/THR can be engaged:

a. manually on ground (ENG. Running), automatically after take-off
b. in flight, manually or automatically if there is an alpha floor detection
c. automatically when pilot initiates a take-off or a go-around or if there is an alpha floor
detection after T/O and down to 100ft (RA) on landing

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

42. In flight, if the instinctive disconnect pb is pressed for more than 15 sec., the A/THR
including alpha floor is definitely lost:
a. Right
b. Wrong

43. At take-off, as soon as the power is set (FLEX or TOGA):

a. ATS function is engaged provided A/THR pb on FCU is pressed in
b. ATS function is active
c. ATS function is engaged but not active

44. After a FLEX TO, you have an engine failure and you want to select MCT:
a. you have the throttle lever in FLEX/MCT: MCT selection is automatic
b. you set the throttle levers out of the FLEX/MCT detent (to TOGA or CLB detent) then back
to FLEX/MCT position

45. Pressing the ENG. FIRE pb switch (on the ENG fire panel) causes the closure of:
a. fuel LP valve
b. fuel LP valve and HP valve (due to LP valve closure)
c. fuel HP valve

46. ASYM amber message (FMA) means:

a. one thrust lever is set out of climb notch (both engines running)
b. asymmetric power is established due to FADEC malfunction
c. asymmetric power is established due to TLA resolver fault

47. MCT amber message (in the left part of the FMA) means:
a. throttles are not in MCT position after engine failure in flight
b. throttles are not in MCT position after engine failure when speed is > green dot (VFTO)

48. “LVR CLB” flashes white on FMA, if the throttles are not in CL position when:
a. the A/C is above the altitude of thrust reduction
b. the A/C is at lift-off
c. the landing gear is retracted

49. The thrust limit is computed by:

a. the FMGC according to the AP/FD mode
b. the ECU according to the thrust lever position
c. the ECU according to the AP/FD mode
d. the FMGC according to the ECU order

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

50. On ground the automatic start sequence is:
a. start valve and LP fuel valve opens, ignition starts when N2 > 16%, HP fuel valves open
when N2 > 22% when N2 > 50%, start valve closes and igniter off
b. start valve opens, ignition starts when N2 > 16% when N2 > 50% start valve closes and
igniter off
c. start valve and HP fuel open when N2 > 22%, start valve closes when N2 > 50%
d. start valve opens, ignition starts when N2 > 16% LP and HP fuel valves open when
N2 >22%. When Eng Mode Sel. set to NORM, start valve closes and igniter off

SAFETY

1. The fasten seat belt, no smoking and exit signs illuminate:

a. the appropriate switches are ON and/ or excessive cabin altitude is detected
b. the appropriate switches are OFF and/ or excessive cabin altitude is detected
c. all of the above

2. With the switch in the arm position, emergency lighting is provided when:
a. AC bus 2 fails
b. AC Essential Bus fails
c. AC Bus 1 or DC Shed Essential Bus fails
d. DC Bus fails

3. The cockpit door:

a. normally open into the cabin
b. normally opens into the cockpit but a mechanical override enables the flight crew
to open the door from the cabin side.
c. normally opens into the cockpit but a mechanical override enables the flight crew
to open the door from the cockpit side.

4. The aircraft is fitted with emergency evacuation slides at:

a. the 4 entry doors
b. the overwing exits
c. the 4 entry doors and the overwing exits

5. If a slide fails to inflate automatically:

a. it cannot be inflated
b. it must be inflated by manual activation
c. it may be used as a manually held escape slide
d. b + c

6. When opened in an emergency the passenger entry doors:

a. are pneumatically assisted into the open position
b. will need 2 flight attendants to push them open
c. are assisted to the open position by slide inflation
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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

7. Evacuation command button at the forward flight attendant position:

a. can only be activated, provided the cockpit switch at the CAPT and PURS position
b. can be activated at any time
c. can only be activated on ground
d. overrides all other signals

8. Emergency lighting using the integral batteries will provide lighting for:
a. 30 minutes
b. 24 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 12 minutes

9. Is the alert active when the command pb. on the EVAC purser panel is pressed?
a. Yes, at any time
b. Yes, but only on the ground
c. Yes, provided the cockpit EVAC switch in the CAPT and PURS position
d. Yes, it overrides all other signals

10. At the gate, a red light flashes under the door window when:
a. slide is armed and engines are running
b. engines are stopped, slide is disarmed and cabin is pressurized
c. engines are running and slide is disarmed

11. How many escape ropes are in the cockpit?

a. 2 escape ropes – 1 over each window, they can be used through the left or right window
b. 2 escape ropes – each of them must be used through the window to which it corresponds
c. 3 escape ropes for the 2 cockpit crew members, the extra one is to be used by some
particularly big people

12. Where are the EMER EVAC command pb. switches installed?
a. In the cockpit and next to each cabin door
b. In the cockpit overhead panel only
c. On the overhead panel and the Fwd/Aft Attendant Panels

(ATA-26) SMOKE (Fire Protection)

1. Smoke detection systems are installed in:

a. avionics bay and cargo compartment
b. avionics bay, cargo compartment and lavatories
c. as in b., plus the galleys

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

2. With “AVNCS SMOKE” warning activated the amber “SMOKE” light illuminates
associated with the:
a. BUS TIE pb
b. GEN 1 pb
c. GEN 1 LINE pb

3. The avionics bay smoke detector is located in the:

a. avionics bay
b. ventilation extract duct
c. skin heat exchanger

4. With the BLOWER + EXTRAC pbs in OVRD the ventilation gets air from the:
a. inlet valve
b. skin heat exchanger by-pass valve
c. air conditioning inlet valve

5. Avionic smoke warning is inhibited during take-off from:

a. 80 kts to lift-off
b. 80 kts to 1500 ft
c. not inhibited

6. Lavatory smoke detectors are situated in each lavatory air extraction duct:
a. True
b. False

7. At activation of “LAVATORY SMOKE” warning the fire extinguishing system is

automatically discharged:
a. True
b. False

8. Lavatory smoke detectors send warnings to:

a. ECAM and Nose interphone panel
b. ECAM and CIDS
c. ECAM, CIDS and Nose interphone panel

9. Smoke detection in FWD and AFT cargo compartment is consists of:

a. 2 smoke detectors and a SDCU
b. 2 smoke detectors in FWD Bay, 4 detectors in AFT Bay and SDCU
c. 4 smoke detectors in each bay and a SDCU

10. Air conditioning smoke warning is activated if smoke is detected in the:

a. air conditioning duct
b. hot air manifold
c. pack outlet ducts
d. no warning system is installed

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AIRBUS A320 (CFM56-5B4) TKE QUESTIONNAIRE

11. In case of cargo compartment smoke warning, the agent bottle if discharged
should be empty in less than:
a. 10 seconds
b. 3 minutes
c. 1 minute

12. When pressing the CARGO SMOKE Test pb for at least 3 seconds, the smoke detectors
are tested by SDCU, the RED smoke light comes on twice associated with ECAM and
the isolation valves close:
a. True
b. False

*** E N D O F T K E Q U E S T I O N S ***

Prepared by: German G. Cellan Date: Apr 2016