Class 12th JEE

MRJM/12 Milestone Test-02 Phase-2

DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 07/07/2024 M.MARKS: 300

Topic Covered

Physics : Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Chemistry : Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics
Mathematics : Determinants, Matrices, Basic Mathematics

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in this question paper. Sections I, II and III, are of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics, respectively. Each section consists of 30 questions, of which the first 20 are mandatory and
are of Multiple Option type and the last 10 are of integer answer type. You need to attempt any 5 integer
type questions (out of 10) in each of the three sections. Answer to integer type questions shall be rounded
off to nearest integer if needed.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (1-20)
1. In the circuit shown in figure, charge stored in higher
(1)
potential plate of 4µF capacitor is (Assume overall
neutral capacitors)

(2)

(1) 10 µC (2) 20 µC
(3) 40 µC (4) 120 µC
(3)
2. The earth has Volume 'V' and surface area 'A' then its
capacitance would be
A V
(1) 4π∈0 (2) 4π∈0
V A
V A (4)
(3) 12π∈0 (4) 12π∈0
A V

3. Two conducting spheres of radii a and b respectively

are charged and joined by very-very long conducting 6. Six charges are kept at the vertices of a regular
thin wire. The ratio of electric field on the surface of hexagon as shown in the figure. If magnitude of
the spheres will be. force applied by +Q on +q charge is F, then
(1) a/b (2) b/a magnitude of net electric force on the +Q is
2 2
(3) a /b (4) b2/a2

4. Which of the following is true for the figure showing

electric lines of force? (E is electrical field, V is
potential)

(1) 4F (2) 9F
(3) 5F (4) 6F

7. Figure shows the electric field lines around an

electric dipole. Which of the arrows best represents
(1) EA > EB (2) EB > EA the electric field at point P?
(3) EA = EB (4) can’t say

5. Two identical charges are placed at a separation of d,

one is at origin and other at distance d along x-axis. P
is a point on the line joining the charges, at a distance x
from any one charge. The field at P is E, E is plotted
against x for values of x from close to zero to slightly
(1) (2)
less than d. Which of the following best represents the
resulting curve (3) (4)
8. In gravity free space an electron enters in an uniform
electric field with its velocity in the direction of the
electric lines of force. Then incorrect statement will be
(1) The path of the electron will be a straight line
(2) The path of the electron will be a parabola (1) 0.5q, 1.5q, –1.5q and + 0.5q
(3) If allowed to keep moving the velocity of the
(2) zero, 2q, –q and zero
electron will change direction of its motion
(3) q, q, –q and zero
(4) The speed of the electron will first decrease and
(4) q, q, zero and –q
then increase
13. The electric field due to a uniformly charged solid
9. Figure shows charge (q) versus voltage (V) graph for
sphere of radius R as a function of the distance from its
capacitor A and B, which have capacitance as CA and
centre is represented graphically by
CB respectively. Then CA/CB is equal to
E

(1)
R r

(1) 10 (2) 4 (2)

(3) 8 (4) 6 R r

10. Column-I gives dependence of electric field on the

distance r and column-II gives the charge
configuration. Match the following columns. (3)
Column I Column II
I r0 P Point charge
Thin infinitely long wire of E
II r–1 Q
uniform linear charge density
Infinite uniformly charged plane
III r–3 R (4)
sheet
Electric field on the axial line of O R r
IV r–2 S
short electric dipole
I II III IV
14. Two equally charged, identical small metal spheres A
(1) R Q S P
and B repel each other with a force 'F'. The spheres are
(2) R S P R
kept fixed with a distance 'r' between them. A third
(3) R S P Q
identical, but uncharged sphere C is brought in contact
(4) S R P Q
with A and then placed at the mid-point of the line
joining A and B. The magnitude of the net electric force
11. The radius of solid non-conducting sphere is 60 cm and
on C is
charge on the sphere is 500μC. The electric field at a
(1) F (2) 2F
distance 10cm from centre of sphere is approximately.
(1) 2×106 NC–1 (2) 2×108 NC–1 (3) 3F (4) 4F
6 –1
(3) 5×10 NC (4) 5×108 NC–1
15. The equation of an equipotential line in an electric
12. Two isolated large metal plates each of area A carry field is y = 2x, then the electric field strength vector
charges +2q and –q and face each other as shown in at (1, 2) may be
the figure. The plates are separated by a small (1) −4iˆ + 8 ˆj (2) 4iˆ − 8 ˆj
distance d. Charges appearing on surfaces A, B, C, D (3) −8iˆ − 4 ˆj (4) −8iˆ + 4 ˆj
respectively are
[3]
16. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the work Integer Type Questions (21-30)
done by electric field on moving a charge 0.2 C 21. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity C and 3C
through a distance of 2m along a line making an are connected in parallel combination and charged to
angle 60° with the x-axis is 4 J, what is the value of E a potential difference 18V. The battery is then
(1) 20 N/C (2) 40 N/C disconnected and the space between the plates of the
(3) 30 N/C (4) 10 N/C
capacitor of capacity C is completely filled with a
material of dielectric constant 9. The final potential
17. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C, a metal
difference across the combination of capacitors will
sheet is inserted between the plates, parallel to them.
be x V. Find x.
The thickness of the sheet is half of the separation
between the plates. The capacitance now becomes
22. Two point charges repel each other with a force of
(1) 4C (2) 2C
100 N. One of the charges is increased by 10% and
C C
(3) (4) other is reduced by 10%. The new force of repulsion at
2 4
the same distance would be (in N).

18. Two point charges ( +Q ) and ( −2Q ) are fixed on 23. Two opposite and equal charges of 4×10–8 coulomb
the positive x-axis at positions a and 2a from origin when placed 2×10–2 cm away, form a dipole. If this
respectively. At what positions on the axis, the dipole is placed in an external electric field 4×108 N/C,
resultant electric field is zero the value of maximum torque is x × 10–4 Nm. Find x.
(1) Only x = –2a
(2) Only x = − 2a 24. A 2μF capacitor is charged to 100 volt and then its
(3) Both x = ± 2a plates are connected by a conducting wire. The total
3a heat produced is (in mJ)
(4) x = only
2
25. Six plates of equal area A and separation between the
19. A particle of mass m and charge q is thrown in a plates d (d <<A), are arranged as shown in figure.
region where uniform gravitation field and electric The equivalent capacitance between points 2 and 5,
field are present. The path of particle: ∈ A
is α 0 . Then find the value of α.
(1) May be a straight line d
(2) May be a circle
(3) May be a hyperbola
(4) May be ellipse

20. Assertion: On moving a distance two times the

initial distance away from an infinitely long straight
uniformly charged wire the electric field reduces to
one third to the initial value. 26. There is 10 C of charge at the centre of a circle of
Reason: The electric field is inversely proportional
radius 10m. The work done by external agent in
to the distance from an infinitely long straight
slowly moving 1 C of charge around the circle once
uniformly charged wire.
is (in J).
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
27. Two unlike charges of the same magnitude Q are
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
placed at a distance d. The intensity of the electric field
Reason is not the correct explanation of
at the middle point in the line joining the two charges
Assertion.
xQ
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. is . Find x.
(4) Both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. πε0 d 2

[4]
28. The magnitude of potential difference between 30. A parallel plate capacitor having plates of area S and
points A and B in the circuit shown is nV. Find n. plate separation d, has capacitance C1 in air. When
two dielectrics of different relative permittivities
(ε1 = 2 and ε2 = 4) are introduced between the two
plates as shown in the figure, the capacitance
C 7
becomes C2. The ratio 2 is .
C1 x
Find x.
29. A square surface of side L is in the plane of the paper.

A uniform electric field E , also in the plane of the
paper, is limited only to the lower half of the square
surface, (see figure). The electric flux associated
with the square surface is xEL2 . Find x.

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions (31-50) (1) By decreasing [Cu2+]
31. The vapour pressure of water depends upon: (2) By increasing [Cu2+]
(1) Surface area of container (3) By increasing [Tl+]
(2) Volume of container (4) Can’t be increased by changing concentration.
(3) Temperature
(4) amount of water
35. The vapour pressure of water at 20 °C is 17.54 mm Hg.
When 20 g of a non-ionic, substance is dissolved in
32. The resistance of a decinormal solution of a salt
100 g of water, the vapour pressure is lowered by
occupying a volume between two platinum
0.30 mm Hg. What is the molecular mass of the
electrodes 1.80 cm apart and 5.4 cm2 in area was
substance? (Consider nsolute ≪ nsolvent)
found to be 32 ohm. The specific and equivalent
conductivity respectively in their proper units are : (1) 200.8 u
(1) 104.1 S cm–1 and 0.0104 S cm2 eq–1 (2) 196 u
(2) 208.2 S cm–1 and 0.0208 S cm2 eq–1 (3) 210.5 u
(3) 0.0104 S cm–1 and 104.16 S cm2 eq–1 (4) 215.2 u
(4) 1.04 S cm–1 and 1040 S cm2 eq–1
36. The variation of equivalent conductivity of weak
33. Mole fraction of solute (non-electrolyte) in an electrolyte with concentration is correctly
aqueous solution which boils at 100.104 °C. is:
shown in figure:
( K b ( H 2 O ) = 0.52 Km–1)
(1) 2.6 × 10–3 (2) 0.0036
(1) (2)
(3) 5.6 × 10−3 (4) 0.996

34. For the cell,

T1  T1+ ( 0.001 M )   Cu 2+ ( 0.1 M )   Cu
(3) (4)
E°cell at 25℃ is 0.83 V. Ecell can be increased

[5]
 + → 2 + H 2 ( g )         
37. Statement 1: The order of reaction can have (ii) Zn  2HCl  ZnCl
fractional value.
       E° 2+   
= −0.76 V 
Statement 2: The order of reaction can always be  Zn /Zn 
written from balanced equation of a reaction. 1
(1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; + → AgCl +
(iii) Ag  2HCl   H2 ( g )
2
Statement 2 is correct explanation for
 E° = +0.80 V 
  
 Ag /Ag 
Statement 1 +

(2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Which of the following reaction is feasible?
Statement 2 is not correct explanation for (1) (ii) only (2) (i) only
Statement 1 (3) (iii) only (4) Both (i) & (iii)
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False
(4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True 42. When an ideal binary solution is in equilibrium
with its vapour, relation between molar ratio of the
38. Match the following X 
List-I List- II two components in the solution phase  A  and
 XB 
(A) ppm (p) Van’t Hoff factor
(B) ∆Tb (q) Molal depression Y 
in the vapour phase  A  is
constant  YB 
(C) Kf (r) Elevation in boiling (Given: PAo > PBo , where A and B are two
point
components of solution)
(D) i (s) Mass of solute
× 106 (1)
X A YA
=
Mass of solution X B YB
CODES:
X A YA
A B C D (2) >
X B YB
(1) p s r q
(2) s r q p X A YA
(3) <
(3) q p s r X B YB
(4) r q p s (4) Nothing can be predicted about the relation.

39. E1, E2, and E3 are the EMF’s of the following three 43. If E° = −0.441 V and E° = 0.771V ,
Fe 2 + /Fe Fe3+ /Fe 2 +
galvanic cells respectively
the standard e.m.f. of the reaction
I. Zn (s) | Zn 2+ (1 M) || Cu 2+ (0.1 M) | Cu (s) 3+ 2+
Fe + 2Fe → 3Fe will be :
II. Zn (s) | Zn 2+ (1 M) || Cu 2+ (1 M) | Cu (s) (1) 1.212 V (2) 0.33 V
2+ 2+ (3) – 0.33 V (4) – 1.212 V
III. Zn (s) | Zn (0.1 M) || Cu (1 M) | Cu (s)
Which one of the following is true? 44. A graph plotted between log t50% vs log a (where a
(1) E 2 > E 1 > E3 (2) E1 > E 2 > E3 = concentration) is a straight line. What conclusion
(3) E3 > E 1 > E 2 (4) E3 > E 2 > E1 can you draw from the given graph?

40. The freezing point of 100 g of an aqueous solution

that contains 5g urea, 1g KCl and 10g glucose is :
(Kf (H2O) = 1.86 Km–1)
(Consider 100% dissociation of KCl)
1
(1) 290.2 K (2) 285.5 K (1)=n 1,=
t1/2
(3) 269.33 K (4) 250 K
k ⋅a
(2)=n 2,=
t1/2 1 / a

2 + H 2 ( g )         
+ → 0.693
41. (i) Cu  2HCl  CuCl (3)=n 1,=
t1/2
k
        E° 2+   
= +0.34 V 
 Cu /Cu  (4) n = 0, t1/2 = a.k

[ 6]
45. The azeotropic mixture of water (b. pt.100℃) and 49. According to collision theory of reaction rates:
HCl (b.pt. 85℃ ) boils at 108.5℃ .When this (1) Every collision between reactants leads to
azeotropic mixture is distilled, it is possible to chemical reaction
obtain (2) Rate of reaction is inversely proportional to
(1) Pure HCl velocity of molecules
(2) Pure water (3) All reactions which occur in gaseous phase are
(3) Pure water as well as HCl zero order reactions
(4) Neither HCl nor H2 O in their pure states (4) Rate of reaction is directly proportional to
collision frequency
46. Consider the following statements,
50. A + B → Product (C)
The rate law for the acid catalysed hydrolysis of an
If concentration of A is doubled, rate increases 4
ester being given as
times. If concentration of A and B are doubled, rate
Rate = k  H +  [ ester ] = k ′ [ ester ] . increases 8 times. The differential rate equation of
 
the reaction will be
If the acid concentration is doubled at constant ester
dC
concentration (1) = kCA × CB
1. The second order rate constant, k is doubled. dt
dC
2. The pseudo first order rate constant, k is (2) = kC2A × C3B
doubled. dt
3. The rate of the reaction is doubled. dC
(3) = kC2A × CB
Which of the above statements are correct? dt
(1) 1 and 2 only (2) 2 and 3 only dC
(4) = kC2A × C2B
(3) 1 and 3 only (4) 1, 2 and 3 dt

47. Milk turns sour at 40 ℃ three times as faster as at Integer Type Questions (51-60)
0 ℃ . The energy of activation for souring of milk 51. In an osmotic pressure measurement experiment, a
5% solution of compound ‘X’ is found to be
is:
isotonic with a 2 % acetic acid solution. The gram
(1) 4.693 kcal (2) 2.6 kcal
molecular mass of ‘X’ is (Assume acetic acid
(3) 6.6 kcal (4) 5.49 kcal remains unionised)

48. Kohlrausch’s law states that at : 52. A certain current liberates 0.504 g of hydrogen in 2
(1) At finite dilution, each ion makes indefinite hr. How many gram of copper can be deposited by
contribution to equivalent conductance of an the same current flowing for the same time in
electrolyte depending on the nature of the CuSO4 solution? (Mw of Cu : 63.5 u) (nearest
other ion of the electrolyte integer)
(2) At finite dilution, each ion makes definite
contribution to molar conductance of an 53. The relative lowering of vapour pressure produced
by dissolving 71.5 g of a non-volatile substance
electrolyte independent of the nature of the
(non-electrolyte) in 1000 g of water is 0.00715. The
other ion of the electrolyte and unaffected by
gram molecular weight of the substance will be:
interactions due to other ion.
(Consider nsolute ≪ nsolvent)
(3) At infinite dilution, each ion makes definite
contribution to equivalent conductance of an
54. A radioactive element has a half-life of 25 minutes.
electrolyte, unaffected by interactions due to How many minutes would it take for a 10 mg
other ions. sample to decay till only 1.25 mg of it remain ?
(4) At infinite dilution, each ion makes indefinite
contribution to equivalent conductance of an 55. Phenol dimerises in benzene having van’t Hoff
electrolyte, unaffected by the presence of the factor 0.54. What is the percentage degree of
other ions. association?
[ 7]
56. I 2 ( s ) | I − ( 0.1 M ) half-cell is connected to a moles of electrons transferred in the cell reactions)
(Given, 1 F = 96500 C)
H + ( aq ) H 2 (1 bar ) Pt half-cell and emf is found

to be 0.7714 V. If E° = 0.535 V, find the pH 59. A solution containing 1.8 g of a compound

I 2 /I −
(empirical formula CH2O) in 40 g of water is
of H+ / H2 half-cell. (Nearest integer) observed to freeze at –0.465°C. The ratio of
 RT  molecular formula mass of the compound to
 use = 0.0591 empirical formula mass of the compound is:
 F 
(K f of water = 1.86 kg K mol−1 )
57. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every
10°C rise of temperature. If the temperature is 60. The following mechanism has been proposed for
raised by 50 °C , the rate of the reaction increases the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr
by about ______times.
NO ( g ) + Br2 ( g )  NOBr2 ( g )
58. For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, NOBr2 ( g ) + NO ( g ) → 2NOBr ( g )
the standard cell potential is 0.46 V at 25 °C . The
If the second step is the rate determining step, the
magnitude of standard Gibbs free energy ∆G ° (in
KJ) will be : (Nearest integer) (Determine for two order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is

SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (61-80) 65. The set of all real numbers x for which
x 2 −5 x + 9 −1 x 2 − | x + 3 | + x > 0 is
The solution set of    27 
2
61. >  is
3  8  (1) (–∞, –3) ∪ (3, ∞)
(1) x ∈ (2, 3) (2) x ∈ (–∞, 2) (2) ( −∞, − 3 ) ∪ ( 3, ∞ )
(3) x ∈ (–3, –2) (4) x ∈ (3, ∞)
(3) (–∞, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

62. If A and B are square matrices of order 4 such (4)  −3, − 3 ∪ ) ( 3, ∞ )

that A =
−1, B =
3 then 3 AB is equal to
(1) –729 (2) –81 66. For non-singular square matrices A, B, C and D of

( )
(3) –243 (4) –27 −1
same order, AB −1CD is equal to

63. Solution of
( x − 2 )( x − 4 ) > 1 is (1) D −1 A−1 BC −1 (2) D −1C −1 B −1 A−1
( x + 1)( x + 4 ) (3) DCB −1 A−1 (4) D −1C −1 BA−1
(1) (−∞, − 4) ∪ (−1, 2) ∪ (4, ∞)
(2) (4, − 1) ∪ (2, 4)  6  8  5 
67. If A =  4  2   3 is the sum of a symmetric matrix B
 4  
(3) (−∞, − 4) ∪  −1,   9  7 1 
 11 
(4) (−∞, − 4) ∪ ( −1, 0 ) ∪ (0, 2) ∪ (2, 4)
and skew-symmetric matrix C , then B is
6 6 7  3 2 2
(1)  6 2 5  (2)  2 5 2 
5 6 1 0     
64. If A =   ,B=  T
 , C = ABA and 7 5 1   2 2 6 
4 5 3 1 
6 6 7  3 6 2
X = ATC2A, then det X is equal to
(3) 1 2 3  (4)  2 5 2 
(1) 30 (2) 1    
(3) 5 (4) 15 7 5 1   2 2 1 

[ 8]
68. The square matrix A = [aij] given by aij = (i – j)3, is Which of the following is correct w.r.t. the above
(1) Symmetric matrix statements?
(2) Skew-symmetric matrix (1) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true
(3) Diagonal matrix (2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false
(4) Identity Matrix (3) Both statements are true.
(4) Both statements are false.
69. The system of equations
x + y + z = 8, x − y + 2 z = 6, 3 x + 5 y − 7 z = 14 has 75. The number of natural values of x satisfying
log 1 log 5 log 2 x > 0 is
(1) No solution
5
(2) Unique solution
(1) 31 (2) 29
(3) Infinitely many solutions (3) 30 (4) 32
(4) Exactly two solutions
76. If A is a matrix of order 2 and A = 5 then match
70. Value of: log 2 ( 16 − 12) + log 2 ( 16 + 12) =
column-I with column-II
(1) 0 Column-I Column-II
(2) 2 I |3A| P 80
3 II |adj A| = Q 45
(3)
2 III |adj (4A)| = R 5
(4) Some irrational number IV |adj adj A| = S 400
Code:
 r r − 1 I II III IV
71. Matrix M r is defined as M r =  , (1) Q P R Q
r − 1 r 
(2) Q R P S
r ∈ N value of det(M1) + det (M2) + det(M3) +… +
(3) S P R Q
det(M2007) is (4) Q R P R
(1) 2007 (2) 2008
2
(3) 2008 (4) 20072
4 + x2 −6 −2
77. The determinant −6 9+ x 2
3 is not
0 −1
72. If the matrix B =  1027
 , then B is equal to −2 3 1+ x 2
 1 0 
divisible by
 −1 0   0 1
(1)   (2)   (1) x (2) x3
 0 −1  −1 0 
(3) 14 + x 2 (4) x5
1 0   −1 0 
(3)   (4)  
0 1   0 1 78. A and B are two matrices such that the order A is 3
× 4, if A'B and BA' are both defined, then
73. The complete set of values of x satisfying (1) order of B' is 3 × 4
x −1 2x − 5 (2) order of B'A is 4 × 4
≥ 0 and ≤ 1 is
x+2 x−2 (3) order of B'A is 3 × 3
(1) (2, ∞) (2) (2, 3] (4) B'A is undefined
(3) (−∞, 3] (4) [1, ∞) 79. The product of all values of x satisfying the
2
− 2 log x 9
equation | x − 2 |log3 x =
( x − 2)7 , is
74. Statement-I: For a square matrix A of order 4,
162
adjA = A
3 (1) 162 (2)
3
Statement-II: For a square matrix A of order 4, 81
6 (3) (4) 243
adj adjA = A 3
[ 9]
 1 + ax 1 + bx 1 + cx  4 x + 2
If 1 + a1 x 1 + b1 x 1 + c1 x is equal to
85. If A =   is symmetric, then x =
80. 2 x − 3 x + 1
1 + a2 x 1 + b2 x 1 + c2 x
86. If A is a square matrix such that
=A0 + A1 x + A2 x 2 + A3 x3 , then A0 is equal to
4 0 0
A ( adj A ) =  0 4 0  , then adj A is
(1) abc (2) 0 T

(3) 1 (4) –1
 0 0 4 

Integer Type Questions (81-90) (Where AT = transpose of matrix A)

81. The number of solutions of the equation

 x 3 1 −1 −2 
X = y  , D  5  and A =  2 1 1  , if
log 2x
x x
= 4 is 87. =
Let
   
 z  11  4 −1 −2 
82. If number of integral values of x for which the
X = A−1 D , then if sum of all elements of X is
 2 x − 2007 
inequality log10   ≤ 0 holds true, is k equal to k then 3k is
 x +1 
then sum of digits of k is 88. If the value of the determinant
10! 11! 12!
3 11! 12! 13! = k (10! 11! 12!) then k is
 2  and
83. [ 2 − 3   4] , X =
If U = [0  2  3] , V =
  12! 13! 14!
1  (Where n! = n × (n − 1) × (n − 2) ×…. 3 × 2 × 1)
2
Y =  2  , then sum of element(s) of matrix 2 − k 2 
If A = 
3 − k 
89. is non-invertible, then the
 4   1
value of |k2 – 5k|, is equal to
UV + XY is

1 2 
84. If A is a matrix such that A2= A + I , where I is 90. If A =   , then the absolute value of the
3 5 
the unit matrix, and A6 = k1A + k2 I then k1 + k2 is
determinant A2009 − 5 A2008 is

Kindly Share Your Feedback For this Paper

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[10]