Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Computer Fundamentals Chapters

Here's the list of chapters on the "Computer Fundamentals" subject covering 100+ topics. You can practice the
MCQs chapter by chapter starting from the 1st chapter or you can jump to any chapter of your choice.

Basic Computer Organisation | Number Systems | Computer Codes | Computer Arithmetic | Boolean Algebra and Logic
Circuits | Processor & Memory | Secondary Storage Devices | Input-Output Devices | Computer Software | Planning the
Computer Program | Computer Languages | System Implementation and Operation | Operating Systems | Application
Software Packages & Business Data Processing | Data Communications and Computer Networks | The
Internet | Multimedia | Classification of Computers & Emerging Technologies | Information Technology

1. Basic Computer Organisation

The section contains multiple choice questions and answers on input and output units, storage unit, control unit,
arithmetic and logic unit.

• The Input Unit

• The Arithmetic & Logic Unit
• The Output Unit
• The Control Unit
• The Storage Unit

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Input Unit

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Input Unit”.

1. Which unit is responsible for converting the data received from the user into a computer understandable
format?
a) Memory Unit
b) Arithmetic & Logic Unit
c) Input Unit
d) Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Input Unit converts the data, which the user enters into a language which the computer
understands, i.e. it converts the data into binary format. The Output Unit is responsible for giving the results in
user-understandable format. The Storage Unit is responsible for storing the data after immediate results of
processing whereas; the ALU is responsible for various arithmetic and bitwise operations.
2. The only language which the computer understands is ______________
a) Assembly Language
b) Binary Language
c) BASIC
d) C Language
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Computer understands only binary language which is written in the form of 0s & 1s. A computer
can understand assembly language but an assembler is required which converts the assembly language to
binary language. Similarly, for understanding high level languages, compilers/interpreters are required.
3. The smallest unit of data in computer is ________________
a) Byte
b) Nibble
c) Bit
d) KB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A bit is defined as the smallest unit of data in a computer system. It is used as a short form of Binary
Digit. A bit can have only two values 0 or 1. A nibble comprises of 4 bits, a byte is a collection of 8 bits whereas
KB (Kilobyte) is equal to 1024 bytes.
4. One nibble is equivalent to how many bits?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A nibble is defined as a unit of data which comprises of 4 binary digits or half of 8-bit byte.
Therefore, 1 nibble = 4 bits. A bit is the smallest unit of data in a computer system. A byte = 8 bits, therefore, half
of a byte=4 bits=a nibble.
5. Which of the following describes the correct format of an input instruction?
a) IN 82
b) INPUT 82
c) INP 82
d) 82 INP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The input/output instructions are used to transfer information between external peripherals and the
CPU. The correct format of an input instruction is: IN 8-bit port address.
Here, IN 82 is the correct option, where 82 is the designated port address. All the other options are invalid.
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6. The input machine which originated in the United States around 1880s is a ___________
a) Mouse
b) Joystick
c) Keyboard
d) Bar Code Reader
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A keyboard is an input device which originated in the 1880s and is used to give instructions to the
computer in the form of letters and numbers. Mouse is used for the selection of various objects on the screen,
joystick is mainly used for gaming purpose and bar code readers are used for reading the bar-codes.
7. What does the COMPUTER stand for?
a) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
b) Commonly Occupied Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
c) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Environmental Research
d) Commonly Oriented Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The word COMPUTER is an abbreviation for the terms “Commonly Operated Machines Used in
Technical and Educational Research”. The word COMPUTER also relates to the word COMPUTE which means
to calculate. So, initially it was thought that a computer is a device which is used to perform calculations.
8. 1 yottabyte = ______________
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB
c) 1024 ZB
d) 1024 PB
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1 yottabyte is equal to 1024 ZB, which stands for zettabyte. Further, 1 ZB=1024 EB (exabyte) and
and 1 EB=1024PB (petabyte).
9. Which of the following is not a function of the Input Unit?
a) It reads instructions and data from the outside world
b) It converts the data into computer acceptable format
c) It makes the data into user understandable format
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The input unit converts the data into computer understandable format i.e. binary format and not the
user understandable format. It is the duty of the output unit to make the data into user understandable format.
10. Label the parts 1 and 2:

a) 1.ALU 2. MU
b) 1.Output unit 2.Input Unit
c) 1.MU 2. ALU
d) 1.Input Unit 2.Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The above diagram is a simple explanation which describes how the instruction is given to the CPU,
how it is processed, and then how the result is obtained.
So here, the input unit is used to give instructions to the central processing unit and the output unit is responsible
for giving the result to the user.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Output Unit
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “The Output Unit”.

1. The process of producing useful information for the user is called ___________
a) Controlling
b) Outputting
c) Inputting
d) Processing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Output Unit is responsible for giving the results to the user in the form of a printed report or
visual display. The process is referred to as outputting. Controlling is nothing but the manner and sequence in
which the instructions are being operated. Inputting means giving instructions to the system whereas, processing
means performing certain operations and calculations.
2. The output unit converts the data entered by the user into computer understandable form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Output unit is responsible for converting the computer obtained data into user understandable
format. The Input Unit is responsible for converting the data in computer understandable format.
3. VDU stands for __________
a) Virtual Display Unit
b) Visual Display Unit
c) Virtual Detection Unit
d) Visual Detection Unit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Visual Display unit is also referred to as the monitor who basically is used to give the results or
outputs to the user. It comprises of a cathode ray tube internally.
4. What does SVGA stand for?
a) Standard Visual Graphics Array
b) Super Visual Graphics Array
c) Standard Video Graphics Array
d) Super Video Graphics Array
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Super Video Graphics Array is a type of Visual Display Unit. It supports 1024 by 768 pixels with
60,000 different colors.
5. The devices that used to give single or multiple colored images and drawings are ____________
a) Monitors
b) Printers
c) Plotters
d) VDUs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plotters are the devices which are used to give colored images. They use ink pens or ink jets for
drawing. Pens of different colors and shades are used for shading and styling.
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6. A special request originated from some device to the CPU to acquire some of its time is called ___________
a) Disturbance
b) Attenuation
c) Interrupt
d) Noise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An interrupt is a kind of request which takes control of the system bus for some time, then performs
all the operations and gives back control to the CPU. It is usually identified by some number and is handled by
the interrupt controller.
7. Line Printers that print one line at a time are _________
a) Laser Printers
b) Inkjet Printers
c) Drum Printers
d) Chain Printers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The drum printers have a solid cylindrical drum with characters embossed on its surface in the form
of circular bands. It can only print a predefined set of characters.
8. A ___________________ monitor looks like a television and are normally used with non-portable computer
systems.
a) CRT
b) LCD
c) LED
d) Flat Panel Monitors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A CRT (or the Cathode Ray Tube) Monitor looks like a television ideally. The flat panel monitors are
thinner and lighter in comparison.
9. Which of the following is not a function of the Output Unit?
a) It produces results that can be easily understood by the user
b) It accepts the results produced by the computer
c) It supplies the data and instructions to the outside world
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The output unit is responsible for giving the results to the user in the form of a printed report or
visual display. It is not responsible for giving the instructions back to the CPU for processing.
10. PCI stands for _________
a) Peripheral Component Interconnect
b) Partial Component Interconnect
c) Peripheral Component Interaction
d) Partial Component Interaction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PCI is a high-bandwidth bus that can function as a peripheral bus. Compared with others, it delivers
better system performance.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Storage Unit
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Storage
Unit”.

1. Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are ______

a) Registers
b) Program Counters
c) Controllers
d) Internal chips
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Registers are the fast storage units. They are responsible for storing intermediate
computational results in the CPU. The registers can be user accessible or inaccessible.
2. Saving data and instructions to make them readily available is the job of __________
a) Storage Unit
b) Cache Unit
c) Input Unit
d) Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The storage unit is responsible for storing the data. It makes the instructions readily available for
additional or initial processing whenever required. The cache is a software component that stores data to serve
the data requests in future. It can contain the result of some earlier computations.
3. The two basic types of memory in a computer are ________

a) Primary and major

b) Primary and Secondary
c) Minor and Major
d) Main and virtual
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of memories in a computer system: The Primary Memory and the Secondary
Memory.
The primary memory can be directly accessed by the CPU whereas the secondary memory cannot be directly
accessed.
4. Which of the following is used to hold running program instructions?
a) Primary Storage
b) Virtual Storage
c) Internal Storage
d) Minor Devices
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary storage is responsible for holding the data, intermediate results and the results of
ongoing processes or jobs. Virtual storage is the main memory storage required for saving a large amount of
data for future reference. The other options are invalid.
5. Which of the following is non-volatile storage?
a) Backup
b) Secondary
c) Primary
d) Cache
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The secondary storage is the non-volatile storage unit because the data is not lost when the power
supply is dissipated. Primary memory is the volatile memory.
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6. Which of the following is used in main memory?

a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) PRAM
d) DDR
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DRAM stands for dynamic random access memory. It is denser than SDRAM (Static) and therefore
it is used in the main memory. They are in the form of semiconductor RAMs.
7. Which of the following are types of ROMs?
a) SROM & DROM
b) PROM & EPROM
c) Only one type there is no further classification
d) PROM & EROM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of Read Only Memories: PROM i.e., Programmable ROM & EPROM i.e.,
Erasable Programmable ROM. When only a small number of ROMs with a particular memory content is needed,
PROM is used and in case of EPROM, all the contents of the storage cells must be erased before the write
operation.
8. RAID stands for __________
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of individual disks
c) Reusable Array of independent disks
d) Reusable array of individual disks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAID is a multiple-disk database design which is viewed as a single logical disk by the operating
system. Data are distributed across the physical drives of the array. It guarantees the recovery of data in case of
data failure.
9. A non-erasable disk that stores digitized audio information is _____
a) CD
b) CD-ROM
c) DVD-R
d) DVD-RW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A compact disk stores digitized audio information. The standard system uses 12 cm disks and can
record more than 60 minutes of uninterrupted playing game.
10. The first practical form of Random Access Memory was the __________
a) SSEM
b) Cathode Ray Tube
c) William’s Tube
d) Thomas’s Tube
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first practical form of RAM was William’s Tube made in 1947. It stored data as electrically
charged spots on the face of a Cathode Ray Tube.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Arithmetic &

Logic Unit
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Arithmetic &
Logic Unit”.

1. The ‘heart’ of the processor which performs many different operations _____________
a) Arithmetic and logic unit
b) Motherboard
c) Control Unit
d) Memory
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Arithmetic and logic unit performs all the basic operations of the computer system. It performs
all the arithmetic(+,-,*,/,etc) as well as the logical operations( AND, OR, NOT, etc.).
2. ALU is the place where the actual executions of instructions take place during the processing operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ALU is a combinational electronic circuit which basically performs all the logical or the bitwise
operations and the arithmetic operations. Therefore, it is the place where the actual executions of instructions
take place.
3. Which of the following is not a bitwise operator?
a) |
b) ^
c) .
d) <<
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All except the dot(.) operator are bitwise operators.
| : Bitwise OR
^ : Bitwise XOR
<< : Shift Left
4. The sign magnitude representation of -1 is __________
a) 0001
b) 1110
c) 1000
d) 1001
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first leftmost bit i.e. the most significant bit in the sign magnitude represents if the number is
positive or negative. If the MSB is 1, the number is negative else if it is 0, the number is positive. Here, +1=0001
and for -1=1001.
5. IEEE stands for ___________
a) Instantaneous Electrical Engineering
b) Institute of Emerging Electrical Engineers
c) Institute of Emerging Electronic Engineers
d) Institute of Electrical and electronics engineers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The IEEE is an organization of professionals in the field of electronics and electrical engineering.
IEEE has given certain standards of its own which are followed in the field of computer science and electrical
engineering.
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6. The ALU gives the output of the operations and the output is stored in the ________
a) Memory Devices
b) Registers
c) Flags
d) Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Any output generated by the ALU gets stored in the registers. The registers are the temporary
memory locations within the processor that are connected by signal paths to the CPU.
7. The process of division on memory spaces is called ______________
a) Paging
b) Segmentation
c) Bifurcation
d) Dynamic Division
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The memory space is divided into segments of dynamic size. The programmer is aware of the
segmentation and can reallocate the segments accordingly.
8. Number of bits in ALU is _________
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Arithmetic and Logic Unit consists of 16bits. They perform certain Arithmetic and bitwise operations
(add, subtract, AND, OR, XOR, Increment, decrement, shift).
9. Which flag indicates the number of 1 bit that results from an operation?
a) Zero
b) Parity
c) Auxiliary
d) Carry
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The parity flag indicates the number of 1 bit in any operation. The resultant bit is called the parity bit.
The main aim of the parity bit is to check for errors.
10. The bitwise complement of 0 is ___________
a) 00000001
b) 10000000
c) 11111111
d) 11111110
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bitwise complement is basically used to convert all the 0 digits to 1 and the 1s to 0s.
So, for 0 = 00000000(in 8-bits) ::: 11111111(1s complement). The bitwise complement is often referred to as the
1s complement.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Control Unit

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Control
Unit”.

1. ____________ is the raw material used as input and __________ is the processed data obtained as output of
data processing.
a) Data, Instructions
b) Instructions, Program
c) Data, Program
d) Program, Code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data can be assumed as a raw material which, in turns after processing gives the desired output in
the form of instructions. Further, a set of ordered and meaningful instructions is known as a program.
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a computer?
a) Diligence
b) I.Q.
c) Accuracy
d) Versatility
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Computer system has no I.Q. of its own. It does only what it is programmed to do. It cannot
take decisions of its own.
A computer is diligent because it can work continuously for hours without getting any errors or without getting
grumbled.
The accuracy of a computer is consistently high and its level of accuracy depends on its design. A computer can
perform any task if, it can be broken down into a series of logical steps. Therefore, a computer is versatile.
3. Fill in the blank in the diagram.

a) Input Unit
b) Memory Unit
c) Control Unit
d) I/O Unit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The control unit manages and coordinates the operations of a computer system. The ALU is
responsible for performing all the arithmetic and bitwise operations . Therefore, both these units combine to form
the brain of the computer ,which is the central processing unit.
4. The part of a processor which contains hardware necessary to perform all the operations required by a
computer:
a) Data path
b) Controller
c) Registers
d) Cache
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A processor is a part of the computer which does all the data manipulation and decision making. A
processor comprises of:
A data path which contains the hardware necessary to perform all the operations. A controller tells the data path
what needs to be done.
The registers act as intermediate storage for the data.
5. What does MAR stand for?
a) Main Address Register
b) Memory Access Register
c) Main Accessible Register
d) Memory Address Register
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MAR is a type of register which is responsible for the fetch operation. MAR is connected to the
address bus and it specifies the address for the read and write operations.
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6. If the control signals are generated by combinational logic, then they are generated by a type of
_______________ controlled unit.
a) Micro programmed
b) Software
c) Logic
d) Hardwired
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main task of a control unit is to generate control signals. There are two main types of control
units:
A hardwired control unit generates control signals by using combinational logic circuits and the Micro
programmed control unit generates control signals by using some softwares.
7. Which is the simplest method of implementing hardwired control unit?
a) State Table Method
b) Delay Element Method
c) Sequence Counter Method
d) Using Circuits
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 3 ways of implementing hardwired control unit:
A state table is the simplest method in which a number of circuits are designed based on the cells in the table.
A delay element method consists of a flowchart drawn for the circuit. A D-flip flop is used as a delay element.
A sequence counter method used k-modulo counter as a replacement for k delay elements.
8. A set of microinstructions for a single machine instruction is called ___________
a) Program
b) Command
c) Micro program
d) Micro command
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For every micro-operation, a set of microinstructions are written which indicate the control signals to
be activated. A set of microinstructions is a micro program. The address of the next microinstruction is given by a
Micro-program counter.
9. Micro-program consists of a set of microinstructions which are strings of 0s and 1s.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The computer understands only binary language. So, the micro-program should have instructions
which are in the form of 0s and 1s. Each output line of the micro-program corresponds to one control signal.
10. A decoder is required in case of a ______________
a) Vertical Microinstruction
b) Horizontal Microinstruction
c) Multilevel Microinstruction
d) All types of microinstructions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of microinstructions: Horizontal and Vertical.
In a horizontal microinstruction, each bit represents a signal to be activated whereas, in case of vertical
microinstruction bits are decoded and, the decoder then produces signals.
2. Number Systems
The section contains questions and answers on positional and non positional number system, decimal and binary
number system, octal and hexadecimal number systems.

• Positional & Non-Positional Number System

• The Octal Number System
• The Decimal Number System
• The Hexadecimal Number System
• The Binary Number System

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Positional & Non-

Positional Number System
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Positional & Non-
Positional Number System”.

1. Which of the following is not a type of number system?

a) Positional
b) Non-Positional
c) Octal
d) Fractional
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are two main types of number systems : Positional & Non-positional.
Positional System uses digits for the representation whereas, non-positional number systems use certain
symbols for the representation of numbers. Octal is a type of positional number systems with base 8.
2. How is the number 5 represented in non-positional number system?
a) IIIII
b) 5
c) V
d) v
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a non-positional number system, 1 is represented as I, 2 as II, 3 as III, 4 as IIII and therefore, 5 is
represented as IIIII. This number system uses symbols for the representation of digits.
3. The base is the total number of digits in a number system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. In a positional number system, base is the number of digits the system
comprises. For example, a binary number system comprises of only 2 digits, 0 and 1, therefore its base is 2.
Similarly, the decimal system comprises 10 digits 0 to 9, therefore its base is 10.
4. The LSB and MSB of 1243247 are ____ and ____
a) 1, 7
b) 4, 7
c) 7, 1
d) 4, 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The LSB or the least significant bit is the rightmost digit at the zeros position. The MSB or the most
significant bit is the leftmost digit.
5. A device that uses positional notation to represent a decimal number.
a) Abacus
b) Calculator
c) Pascaline
d) Computer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Abacus was used to doing arithmetic calculations around 2500 years ago. Pascaline was the
pascal’s calculator by Blaise Pascal invented for doing laborious calculations.
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6. The 2’s complement of 5 is ______________

a) 1011
b) 0101
c) 1010
d) 0011
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to the 1s complement of a number. The 1’s
complement of 5(0101) is 1010. For 2’s complement : 1010+1=1011.
7. What does BCD stand for?
a) Bitwise coded decimal
b) Binary coded decimal
c) Binary converted decimal
d) Bitwise Converted Decimal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: BCD is the binary coded decimal form of representation of numbers in 4 bits.E.g. The BCD
representation of 5 is 0101. BCD representation of 22 is 00100010.
8. 1 zettabyte = ______________
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB
c) 1024 ZB
d) 1024 PB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 1 ZB=1024 EB(exabyte)
1 EB=1024PB(petabyte)
1 YB(yottabyte)=1024ZB.
9. Perfrom BCD addition: 2+3= _______________
a) 0010
b) 0011
c) 0101
d) 1010
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: BCD of 2 =0010
BCD of 3=0011
0010+0011=0101
Therefore, 2+3=0101(5).
10. ASCII stands for _____________________
a) American standard code for information interchange
b) American scientific code for information interchange
c) American scientific code for international interchange
d) American standard code of international interchange
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ASCII is an encoding standard which is used for communications worldwide. ASCII codes are
allotted to digits, special characters and alphabets for data communication purpose.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Decimal

Number System
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “The Decimal
Number System”.

1. The value of base in a decimal number system is ____________

a) 8
b) 2
c) 10
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A decimal number system consists of 10 digits from 0 to 9.
The definition of base describes it as a quantity to represent the number of digits present in that particular
number system.
Therefore, here, the base is 10.
2. Convert : (110)2 = ( __ )10.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The base 2 represents that the number is binary ,whereas, the base 10 represents that it is to be
converted to the decimal format.
Conversion: 22 * 1 + 21 * 1 + 20 *0 = 6.
3. The 2’s complement of 15 is ____________
a) 0000
b) 0001
c) 0010
d) 0100
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to the 1’s complement of the number.
Here, Binary of 15 = 1111
1’s complement of 15= 0000
2’s complement of 15= 0000+1=0001.
4. Another name for base is __________
a) root
b) radix
c) entity
d) median
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Another name for base is radix. Base refers to the number of digits that a particular number system
consists of.
The base of decimal number system is 10, binary is 2 and so on.
5. The decimal equivalent of (0.101)2 will be ____________
a) 0.5
b) 0.625
c) 0.25
d) 0.875
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the base is 2 , it could be easily guessed that the number is binary. Conversion: 2 -1 * 1 + 2-2 * 0
+ 2-3 * 1 = 0.625.
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6. The signed magnitude for -3 will be ___________

a) 00000011
b) 10000011
c) 11111101
d) 11111100
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Signed Magnitude of a number is a representation to determine if the number is positive or negative.
If the MSB of a number is 0, the number is positive, else if it is 1 the number is negative.
Here, +3 = 00000011
-3= 100000011.
7. A number with both integer and a fractional part has digits raised to both positive and negative powers of 2 in a
decimal number system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a decimal number system, a number with both integer and a fractional part has digits raised to
both positive and negative powers of 10 and not 2.
e.g. 22.34 = 2 * 101 + 2 * 100 + 3 * 10-1 + 4 * 10-2.
8. The hexadecimal representation of 14 is _______________
a) A
b) F
c) D
d) E
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hexadecimal representations are as follows:
10 : A
11 : B
12 : C
13 : D
14 : E
15 : F.
9. Which of the following is not a decimal number?
a) 114
b) 43.47
c) 99.9A
d) 10101
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All the numbers except 99.9A are decimal numbers.
This number has a hexadecimal component A in it, therefore , it is not a valid decimal number.
The decimal equivalent of A is 10.
10. Select the incorrect option:
a) (101)10 = (1100101)2
b) G is valid in hexadecimal system.
c) C represents 12
d) The base of a decimal number system is 10.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: G is not a valid hexadecimal number. In this system, only representations from A to E are used to
represent the numbers from 10 to 15. The base of the hexadecimal number system is 16.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Binary

Number System
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Binary
Number System”.

1. Which of the following is not a positional number system?

a) Roman Number System
b) Octal Number System
c) Binary Number System
d) Hexadecimal Number System
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Roman number system isn’t a positional number system since it uses symbols to represent
numbers.
The octal number system uses digits from 0-7, the binary number system uses digits from 0-1 whereas, the
hexadecimal number system uses digits from 0-15.
2. The value of radix in binary number system is _____________
a) 2
b) 8
c) 10
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a binary number system, the value of base or radix is 2. The binary system uses only two digits
for the representation of numbers, therefore its base id has chosen to be 2.
3. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 10 is __________
a) 0010
b) 10
c) 1010
d) 010
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To get the binary equivalent of any number, we need to divide the number by 2 and obtain the
remainders as :

We then write the remainders in the reverse order as 1010 .

4. A computer language that is written in binary codes only is _____
a) machine language
b) C
c) C#
d) pascal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine Language is written in binary codes only. It can be easily understood by the computer and
is very difficult for us to understand. A machine language, unlike other languages, requires no translators or
interpreters.
5. The octal equivalent of 1100101.001010 is ______
a) 624.12
b) 145.12
c) 154.12
d) 145.21
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The octal equivalent is obtained by grouping the numbers into three, from right to left before decimal
and from right to left after the decimal place.
Here,
i.e. 145.12 is the octal equivalent of the number.
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6. The input hexadecimal representation of 1110 is _______________

a) 0111
b) E
c) 15
d) 14
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In hexadecimal number system, 1110 = 15, which is represented by the alphabet E.
Some representations are:
A 10
B 11
C 12
D 13
E 14
F 15.
7. A bit in a computer terminology means either 0 or 1.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A bit stands for a binary digit. A binary digit can have only two digits i.e. 0 or 1. A binary number
consisting of n-bits is called an n-bit number.
8. Convert the binary equivalent 10101 to its decimal equivalent.
a) 21
b) 12
c) 22
d) 31
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To convert a binary number to its decimal equivalent follow these steps :
24 * 1 + 23 * 0 + 22 *1 + 21 * 0 + 20 * 1 = 21.
Therefore, the answer is 21.
9. Which of the following is not a binary number?
a) 1111
b) 101
c) 11E
d) 000
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A binary number can have only two possible digits, 0 and 1. In the third option, there is an alphabet
E present which makes it an invalid binary number. Alphabets are only allowed in the hexadecimal number
system.
10. Which of the following is the correct representation of a binary number?
a) (124)2
b) 1110
c) (110)2
d) (000)2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The binary numbers should comprise only two digits 0 and 1.
Also, for the base, the value should be 2 and it should be written as a subscript enclosing the entire number.
Here, the fourth option gives the correct representation.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Octal Number

System
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Octal
Number System”.

1. What could be the maximum value of a single digit in an octal number system?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum value in any number system is one less than the value of the base. The base in an
octal number system is 8, therefore, the maximum value of the single digit is 7. It takes digits from 0 to 7.
2. In a number system, each position of a digit represents a specific power of the base.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a number system, every digit is denoted by a specific power of base. Like in an octal system,
consider the number 113, it will be represented as :
82 * 1 + 81 * 1 + 80 *3.
3. The maximum number of bits sufficient to represent an octal number in binary is _______
a) 4
b) 3
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The octal number system comprises of only 8 digits. Hence, three bits (23 = 8) are sufficient to
represent any octal number in the binary format.
4. The binary number 111 in octal format is ________________
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Certain binary to octal representations are :
000=0
001=1
010=2
011=3
100=4
101=5
110=6
111=7.
5. Convert (22)8 into its corresponding decimal number.
a) 28
b) 18
c) 81
d) 82
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To convert an octal number to decimal number:
81 * 2 + 80 * 2 = 16 + 2 = 18.
Hence, the decimal equivalent is 18.
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6. The octal equivalent of the binary number (0010010100)2 is ______________

a) 422
b) 242
c) 224
d) 226
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To obtain the octal equivalent, we take numbers in groups of 3, from right to left as :
000 010 010 100

0 2 2 4 = (224)₈.
7. Octal subtraction of (232)8 from (417)8 will give ______________
a) 165
b) 185
c) 815
d) 516
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Octal subtraction is done as follows:
417
– 232
________
165
The octal subtraction is the same as that of any other number system. The only difference is, like in a decimal
number system, we borrow a group of 10, in a binary system we borrow a group of 2, in an octal number system,
we borrow in groups of 8.
8. The 1’s complement of 0.101 is _________________
a) 1.010
b) 0.010
c) 0.101
d) 1.101
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and the bits with
value 0 to 1.
Here, 0.101 gets converted to 1.010 in its 1’s complement format.
9. Convert (5401)8 to hexadecimal.
a) A01
b) A02
c) B01
d) C01
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To convert octal to hexadecimal, we first write binary format of the number and then make groups of
4 bits from right to left, as follows:
5 4 0 1
101 100 000 001 (octal -> binary)
1011 0000 0001 ( groups of 4)
B 0 1 ( hexadecimal equivalent)
Therefore, the hexadecimal equivalent is (B01)16.
10. Express the decimal format of the signed binary number (10010) 2 .
a) 2
b) 12
c) -12
d) -2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the number is: 0010 =
21 * 1 =2
But, the sign bit is 1, Therefore the answer is : (-2)10.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Hexadecimal

Number System
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This set of Tough Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers focuses on “The Hexadecimal Number
System”.

1. What does the symbol D represent in a hexadecimal number system?

a) 8
b) 16
c) 13
d) 14
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The symbols A, B, C, D, E and F represent 10, 11, 12, 13, 14 and 15 respectively in a hexadecimal
system. This system comprises of 15 numbers in total: digits from 0-9 and symbols from A to F.
2. ABC is a valid hexadecimal number.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a hexadecimal number system, alphabets are used for the representation of numbers from 10 to
15. Here, A represents 10, B represents 11 and C represents 12. Therefore, it is a valid hexadecimal number.
3. The maximum number of bits sufficient to represent a hexadecimal number in binary:
a) 4
b) 3
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hexadecimal number system comprises of only 15 symbols: 10 digits and 5 symbols. Hence,
three bits (24 = 16) are sufficient to represent any hexadecimal number in the binary format.
4. The binary number 1110 in hexadecimal format is _____________
a) 6
b) E
c) 14
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Certain binary to hexadecimal representations are :
1010=A
1011=B
1100=C
1101=D
1110=E
1111=F.
5. Convert (52)16 into its decimal equivalent.
a) 28
b) 83
c) 80
d) 82
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To convert a hexadecimal number to decimal number:
161 * 5 + 160 * 2 = 80 + 2 = 82
Hence, the decimal equivalent is 82.
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6. The hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number (0010010100)2 is :

a) (0B4)16
b) (0A4)16
c) 224
d) 0114
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain the octal equivalent, we take numbers in groups of 3, from right to left as :

7. Hexadecimal Addition of (3A5)16 and (1B2)16 will give :

a) 557
b) 185
c) 815
d) 516
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Octal subtraction is done as follows:
3A5
+ 1B2
________
557
In hexadecimal addition of alphabets, we add the corresponding numbers they represent and then subtract the
result from 16, then generate a carry of 1 to the next set of numbers.
Here, 5+2=7
A+B=10+11=21-16=5
3+1+1(carry)=5.
8. The 2’s complement of 10.11 :
a) 10
b) 0.010
c) 01.01
d) 10.01
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and the bits with
value 0 to 1. Here, 10.11 gets converted to 01.00 in its 1’s complement format. Further, to convert 1’s
complement into 2’s, we add 1 to the result. Here, 01.00+1=10.00.
9. Convert (6532)8 to hexadecimal.
a) (A01)16
b) (A02)16
c) (D5A)16
d) (C01)16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To convert octal to hexadecimal, we first write binary format of the number and then make groups of
4 bits from right to left, as follows:
6 5 3 2
110 101 011 010 (octal -> binary)
1101 0101 1010 (groups of 4)
D 5 A (hexadecimal equivalent)
Therefore, the hexadecimal equivalent is (D5A)16.
10. What do we call the point(decimal) in any hexadecimal number of the form 111.A3?
a) radix
b) hexadecimal point
c) decimal
d) octal point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The decimal is often referred to as the hexadecimal point in hexadecimal representation of
numbers.
It is referred to as the octal point in octal numbers.

3. Computer Codes
The section contains MCQs on data types, bcd, ebcdic, ascii and unicode.

• Data Types
• ASCII
• BCD
• Unicode
• EBCDIC

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Data Types

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Data Types”.

1. Which of the following is not a data type?

a) Symbolic Data
b) Alphanumeric Data
c) Numeric Data
d) Alphabetic Data
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data types are of three basic types: Numeric, Alphabetic and Alphanumeric. Numeric Data consists
of only numbers.
Alphabetic Data consists of only letters and a blank character and alphanumeric data consists of symbols.
2. *@Ac# is a type of ________________ data.
a) Symbolic
b) Alphanumeric
c) Alphabetic
d) Numeric
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Alphanumeric data consists of symbols. Alphanumeric data may be a letter, either in uppercase or
lowercase or some special symbols like #,^,*,(, etc.
3. Which of the following is not a valid representation in bits?
a) 8-bit
b) 24-bit
c) 32-bit
d) 64-bit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are no criteria like the 24-bit representation of numbers. Numbers can be written in 8-bit, 16-
bit, 32-bit and 64-bit as per the IEEE format.
4. What are the entities whose values can be changed called?
a) Constants
b) Variables
c) Modules
d) Tokens
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Variables are the data entities whose values can be changed. Constants have a fixed value. Tokens
are the words which are easily identified by the compiler.
5. Which of the following is not a basic data type in C language?
a) float
b) int
c) real
d) char
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 5 basic data types in C language: int, char, float, double, void.
Int is for the representation of integers, char is for strings and characters, float and double are for floating point
numbers whereas void is a valueless special data type.
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6. BOOLEAN is a type of data type which basically gives a tautology or fallacy.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Boolean representation is for giving logical values. It returns either true or false. If a result gives a
truth value, it is called tautology whereas if it returns a false term, it is referred to as fallacy.
7. What does FORTRAN stands for?
a) Formula Transfer
b) Formula Transformation
c) Formula Translation
d) Format Transformation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FORTRAN is a type of computer language. It was developed for solving mathematical and scientific
problems. It is very commonly used among the scientific community.
8. The program written by the programmer in high level language is called _____________
a) Object Program
b) Source Program
c) Assembled Program
d) Compiled Program
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The program written by the programmer is called a source program. The program generated by the
compiler after compilation is called an object program. The object program is in machine language.
9. A standardized language used for commercial applications.
a) C
b) Java
c) COBOL
d) FORTRAN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: COBOL is a language used in business and commercial applications. It stands for Common
Business Oriented Language. It is imperative, procedural as well as object oriented language.
10. ______________ define how the locations can be used.
a) Data types
b) Attributes
c) Links
d) Data Objects
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Attributes can determine how any location can be used. Attributes can be type, name, component,
etc. Data objects are the variables and constants in a program.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – BCD

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “BCD”.

1. A group of bits used to represent a symbol is called a ____________

a) byte
b) memory
c) nibble
d) code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In binary coding, every symbol that appears in data is represented by a group of bits, which are
called bytes. Computer codes use binary coding schemes.
2. BCD uses 6 bits to represent a symbol.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Binary Coded Decimal format, 64 characters i.e. 26 different characters can be represented. It
is one of the early computer codes.
3. Which of the following is not a type of computer code?
a) EBCDIC
b) BCD
c) ASCII
d) EDIC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There is no coding scheme like EDIC. EBCDIC stands for Extended Binary Coded Decimal
Interchange Code. BCD stands for Binary Coded Decimal. ASCII stands for American Standard Code for
information interchange.
4. The BCD representation of (34)10 is _______________
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: BCD numbers are represented as:
34 = (0011 0100)BCD.
Each digit is individually taken and an equivalent standard 4 bit term is written for the respective digit.
5. Perform BCD addition of (23)BCD + (20)BCD .
a) 00110100
b) 01000011
c) 10011
d) 11100
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To add any two BCD numbers :
Simply perform the addition : 23+20=43.
Then, write the equivalent BCD number = (0100 0011)BCD.
6. The weights used in Binary coded decimal code are:
a) 4,2,1
b) 8,4,2,1
c) 6,4,2,1
d) 2,1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: BCD is a weighted code and it uses the weights 8,4,2,1 respectively. It is often called the 8421
code. Since, it uses 4 bits for the representation therefore the weights are assigned as : 2 3 = 8, 22 = 4, 21 = 2, 20 =
1.
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7. Write the decimal equivalent for (110001)BCD.

a) 31
b) 13
c) C1
d) 1C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain the decimal equivalent :
We start from the rightmost bit and make groups of 4, then write the decimal equivalent accordingly.
0011 0001 = (31)10.
8. The 9’s complement of 45 is _____________
a) 45
b) 54
c) 64
d) 46
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 9’s complement of a number is obtained by subtracting each digit from 9. Here, 99-45=54.
Therefore, the 9’s complement is 54.
9. The 10’s complement of 455 is _________
a) 543
b) 544
c) 545
d) 546
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To obtain the 10’s complement, we first obtain the 9’s complement and then add 1 to it.
999-455=544 (9’s)
544+1=545(10’s).
10. The Excess-3 representation of (0100)BCD is __________
a) 0110
b) 1110
c) 0111
d) 1100
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The excess-3 code is obtained by adding 3 to the BCD code.
Here, 0100+0011=0111.
Also, 4+3=7.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – EBCDIC

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “EBCDIC”.

1. What does EBCDIC stand for?

a) Extended Binary Converted Decimal Intermediate Code
b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Intermediate Code
c) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
d) Extended Binary Converted Decimal Interchange Code
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: EBCDIC is the Extended BCD interchange code. It uses 8 bits to represent a symbol. It can
represent 256 different characters.
2. In EBCDIC, a maximum of 128 different characters can be represented.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: EBCDIC uses 8 bits for representation. Therefore, 28 i.e., 256 different characters can be
represented and not 128. Thus, the above statement is false.
3. The EBCDIC code for the character A is ______________
a) digit : 1100 zone : 0001
b) digit : 1111 zone : 0001
c) digit : 1100 zone : 1010
d) digit : 1111 zone : 1010
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The character A is represented by the digit 1100 and the zone 0001. The hex representation for the
same is C1. Similarly for B it is C2 and so on.
4. The hex representation for F is _______________
a) C6
b) C5
c) D6
d) D1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Certain hex representations are :
C1=A
C2=B
C3=D
C4=E
C5=F
C6=G
C7=H
C8=I
C9=J.
5. In EBCDIC, D5 is used to represent ________ character.
a) J
b) N
c) O
d) K
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: D5 is used to represent N in this system. The representations D1 to D9 are used for the characters
J to R respectively.
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6. Which of the following is not a character of the digit 1110?

a) S
b) Z
c) O
d) X
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All the alphabets from S to Z have their digit as 1110. Here, O has the digit 1101 and therefore is
the incorrect option. Example: S has the digit as 1110 and zone 0010.
7. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the digit 9?
a) E9
b) F9
c) G9
d) H9
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For digits in EBCDIC, the hex equivalent starts from F0 to F9.
F0=0
F1=1
F2=2
F3=3 and so on.
8. The characters from 0 to 9 have their common digit as ___________
a) 1111
b) 0000
c) 0001
d) 1000
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The digits are 1111 in case of numbers. Here, 0.101 gets converted to 1.010 in its 1’s complement
format.
9. The EBCDIC is mainly used in ___________
a) Programming
b) Machine Codes
c) Mainframes
d) Super Computers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This concept of EBCDIC was invented by IBM. It is mainly used in the IBM mainframe environment.
So basically, mainframes use EBCDIC codes.
10. Which of the following character is available in EBCDIC but not in ASCII?
a) cent sign
b) dollar sign
c) comma
d) punctuation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cent sign wasn’t available in ASCII which is the American Standard Code for Information
interchange. It was available in EBCDIC though and thus was considered better.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – ASCII

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ASCII”.

1. What does ASCII stand for?

a) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
b) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange
c) American Scientific Code for Interchanging Information
d) American Standard Code for Interchanging Information
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ASCII codes are used to represent the bits into symbols and vice versa. ASCII is the American
Standard Code which is used to exchange information.
2. The decimal representation for the character ‘!’ in ASCII is ____________
a) 31
b) 32
c) 33
d) 34
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The decimal representation of a few basic characters are:
33 : !
34 : ”
35: #
36 :$.
3. The two types of ASCII are _____________ and ____________
a) ASCII-4 and ASCII-8
b) ASCII-8 and ASCII-16
c) ASCII-7 and ASCII-8
d) ASCII-4 and ASCII-16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two types of ASCII are ASCII-7 and ASCII-8. ASCII-7 uses 7 bits for the representation of
numbers and ASCII-8 uses 8-bits.
4. Any set of digits or alphabets are generally referred as ______________
a) Characters
b) Symbols
c) Bits
d) Bytes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We refer to the digits and alphabets generally as characters. A character is generally a unit of
information in computers.
5. The first 128 characters are the same in both the types of ASCII i.e. ASCII-7 and ASCII-8.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of ASCII codes: ASCII-7 and ASCII-8. ASCII-7 uses 7 bits to represent a
number whereas ASCII-8 uses 8-bits to represent a number.
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6. The number of characters that can be represented in ASCII-8 are ______________

a) 128
b) 256
c) 32
d) 64
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ASCII-8 can represent 256 different characters. ASCII-8 uses 8-bits for the representation of
numbers i.e. it can represent 28 = 256 different characters.
7. The zone of alphabetic characters from A to O in ASCII is _____________
a) 1000
b) 0100
c) 0010
d) 0001
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The zone used by ASCII for alphabets is 0100. For e.g. A is represented as 0100(zone)0001(digit).
The hex equivalent is 41 for A. The zone used by numbers is 0011.
8. The representation of the number 8 in binary in ASCII-8 format _________
a) 00111000
b) 01001000
c) 1000
d) 00011000
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ASCII-8 format will have 8 bits. The zone for the character 8 is 0011 and the digit is 1000.
Therefore, its representation is 00111000.
9. Binary Coding for the letter X is ______________
a) 01011000
b) 00111000
c) 10001000
d) 00010100
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The binary coding for the letter X is 01011000. Here, 0101 is the zone whereas 1000 is the digit.
The alphabets from P to Z have the zone 0101.
10. Express the ASCII equivalent of the signed binary number (00110010)2.
a) 2
b) 1
c) A
d) ,
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ASCII characters for the remaining options are:
1 : 00110001
A : 01000001
, : 00101100.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Unicode
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Unicode”.

1. The numbers used to represent numeric values in EBCDIC are _______

a) zoned
b) unsigned
c) packed
d) eb
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zoned numbers represent the numeric values under EBCDIC (Extended Binary Coded Decimal
Interchange Code). In zoned format, there is only one digit per byte.
2. Unicode provides a consistent way of encoding multilingual plain text.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unicode defines codes for characters used in all major languages of the world.
It is a coding system which supports almost all the languages. It defines special codes for different characters,
symbols, diacritics, etc.
3. Which of the following is not a type of numeric value in zoned format?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Double
d) Unsigned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The zoned format can represent numeric values of type Positive, negative and unsigned numbers. A
sign indicator is used in the zone position of the rightmost digit.
4. The sign indicator of unsigned numbers is ____________
a) C
b) D
c) F
d) X
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A sign indicator is used in the zone position of the rightmost digit. A sign indicator C is used for
positive, D for negative and F is used for negative numbers.
5. The EBCDIC value of the number 345 in zoned format is __________
a) F3F4F5
b) E3E4E5
c) F3F4C5
d) F3F4D5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: F is used for the representation of unsigned numbers therefore, F3F4F5 represents 345. F3F4C5
represents +345 . F3F4D5 represents -345.
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6. Which of the following is a valid encoding format?
a) UTF-1
b) UTF-8
c) UTF-A
d) UTF-4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The various encoding formats are UTF-8, UTF-16 and UTF-32. UTF stands for Unicode
Transformation Format. It is basically an encoding system that supports all languages.
7. _________________ defines the assigned ordering among the characters used by the computer.
a) Unicode
b) Collating Sequence
c) Accumulation
d) Sorting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Collating sequence is the term used for ordering among characters. It may vary depending upon the
type of code used by a computer.
8. The sorting sequence of the strings A1,23,1A will be ______________
a) 23 > A1 > 1A
b) 23 < 1A > A1
c) A1 > 1A > 23
d) A1 < 1A < 23
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sorting order is A1, 1A, 23. Numeric characters are given a greater preference in EBCDIC as
compared to the alphabets.
9. The default character coding in HTML-5 is _____________
a) UTF-8
b) UTF-16
c) UTF-4
d) UTF-32
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTML5 which is the hypertext markup language generally uses the UTF-8 format as its default
encoding. Unicode covers all the characters and symbols in all the different languages.
10. Numbers used in packed decimal format can be used for _____________ operations.
a) logical
b) relational
c) arithmetic
d) bitwise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The packed numbers can be used for arithmetic operations. The packed numbers also require the
lesser number of bytes as compared to zoned numbers.
4. Computer Arithmetic
The section contains multiple choice questions and answers on sign magnitude, booth’s algorithm, complements,
ieee 32 and 64 bits, binary multiplication and division.

• Sign Magnitude
• IEEE 32 and 64 bit
• Booth’s Algorithm
• Binary Multiplication & Division
• Complements

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Sign Magnitude

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Sign Magnitude”.

1. __________________ is a straightforward method of representing positive and negative numbers.

a) Radix
b) Complement
c) Sign Magnitude
d) Encode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sign Magnitude is used for the representation of positive and negative numbers. If the leftmost digit
is 0, the number is positive. If the leftmost digit is 1, the number is negative.
2. The additive inverse of a number is the number which when added to the original number gives 1 as a result.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Additive Inverse of a number is the number which gives 0 and not 1 when added to the original
number. e.g. number=45, additive inverse =-45, after addition they give 0.
3. The 1’s complement of 1 in 4 bits is __________
a) 0001
b) 0
c) 1001
d) 1110
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 1’s complement is obtained by reversing the bits from 0 to 1 and vice-versa. Binary of 1 is : 0001
and 1’s complement is : 1110.
4. The binary number 111 in its 2’s complement form is ____________
a) 010
b) 001
c) 000
d) 111
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to the 1’s complement. 1’s complement of 111: 000 and 2’s
complement:001.
5. The sign magnitude representation of -9 is ___________
a) 00001001
b) 11111001
c) 10001001
d) 11001
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In case of a negative number, the leftmost digit is 1 if the number is negative. Therefore,
+9=00001001 and -9=10001001. Similarly for all other negative numbers.
6. If you are given a word of size n bits, the range of 2’s complement of binary numbers is ________
a) -2n+1 to +2n+1
b) -2n-1 to +2n-1
c) -2n-1 to +2n+1
d) -2n-1 to +2n-1-1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to the 1’s complement. For e.g. 5 :0101 and 1’s
complement=1010 and 2’s complement=1011.
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7. In both signed magnitude and 2’s complement , positive and negative numbers are separated using
______________
a) LSB
b) MSB
c) 0
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The positive and negative numbers are separated using the MSB. MSB is the Most Significant Bit.
MSB is the leftmost bit. e.g. If 1000 is the number then 1 is the most significant bit.
8. Single Precision format comprises of _________ bits.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The single precision format comprises of 32-bits. It has 1 sign bit, 8 bits for exponent and 23 for the
mantissa.
9. If m is the 2’s complement and n is the binary number, then ______________
a) m=n’
b) m=n’+1
c) m=n’-1
d) m=n
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 2’s complement is simply obtained by addition of 1. So if n is the number and we take the 2’s
complement, add 1 to it, we get the 2’s complement. Therefore, m=n’+1.
10. The possible number of bit patterns with 8 bits ________________
a) 128
b) 8
c) 24
d) 256
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The total number of patterns that can be formed using n-bits are 2n. Here, possible patterns are:
28=256.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Booth’s Algorithm

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Booth’s
Algorithm”.

1. Which of the following is used for binary multiplication?

a) Restoring Multiplication
b) Booth’s Algorithm
c) Pascal’s Rule
d) Digit-by-digit multiplication
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Booth’s Algorithm is used for the multiplication of binary numbers. It is basically used for the
multiplication of 2 signed numbers. This is a very important algorithm in binary arithmetic.
2. One extra bit is added on the left of a binary number, in case of Binary Multiplication using Booth’s Algorithm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true as an extra bit is added when we multiply 2 binary numbers by using Booth’s.
Let us take an example if we multiply 2 * – 3.
The first step is to obtain the binary equivalents.
Hence, 2=10 and -3=01.
Now after adding the extra bit 2=010 and -3=101.
We add 0 in case of positive numbers whereas 1 in negative numbers.
3. The binary number obtained after applying RSC on 11010 will be ___________
a) 11101
b) 10100
c) 01101
d) 01000
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RSC stands for Right-Shift Circulant. So, whenever the numbers are shifted to the right an extra 0
bit is added to the left. Here, after the right shift of 11010, the number obtained will be 01101.
4. The result of >> of 11001 by 3-bits will be ______________
a) 01000
b) 01111
c) 00011
d) 11111
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: >> is the bitwise left shift operator in binary arithmetic.
Applying >>(left-shift) by 3-bits on the number 11001 will result in 3 zeroes on the right, i.e., 01000.
5. Booth’s Algorithm is applied on _____________
a) decimal numbers
b) binary numbers
c) hexadecimal numbers
d) octal Numbers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Booth’s Algorithm is applied only on signed and unsigned binary numbers.
Although, the values of other number systems can be converted to binary, and then the multiplication could be
performed.
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6. If Booth’s Multiplication is performed on the numbers 22*3, then what is 3 referred to as __________
a) accumulator
b) multiplicand
c) quotient
d) multiplier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is referred to as the multiplier. Multiplier is denoted by Q in booth’s algorithm. 22 is called the
multiplicand. These numbers are first converted to their binary equivalents and further the multiplication is
performed.
7. What is the default value of accumulator in booth’s multiplication of two 4-bit binary numbers?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0000
d) 00000
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct answer is d because in case of Booth’s algorithm an extra bit is always added to the
binary numbers. The 4-bit binary numbers become 5-bit numbers after adding the extra bit. Accumulator is
always assigned 0 bits of the order of the binary numbers whose multiplication is to be performed.
8. What is the value of n in multiplication of 110* 1000?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Booth’s, n denotes the number of bits that the higher binary number has when multiplication is
performed. Here, since there are 4 bits in 1000, the answer is n=4.
9. What will be the value obtained after multiplication of (-2) * (-3) using Booth’s Algorithm?
a) 6
b) -6
c) -2
d) -3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: After applying the procedure of Booth’s Algorithm, the value obtained will be 6. Even though the
result is obtained in its 2’s complement for but then it is reconverted to its normalized form. Also, the value
obtained after decimal multiplication is the same as the value obtained after binary multiplication.
10. What does the data transfer instruction STA stand for?
a) Store Accumulator
b) Send Accumulator
c) Send Action
d) Store Action
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: STA is a data transfer instruction given whenever a value is to be copied on the accumulator. It is
used for the fetch operation.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Complements

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Complements”.

1. What is the 1’s complement of 11010?

a) 11010
b) 11011
c) 00110
d) 00101
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is obtained by converting all the 0 bits to 1 and all 1’s to 0’s. Here,
11010 gets converted to 00101.
2. 2’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to 1’s complement of a number.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Let us take an example: Consider the number 110000.
1’s complement of the number is 001111. 2’s complement=001111+1=010000.
3. The 10’s complement of 562 is __________
a) 4
b) 3
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 10’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to the 9’s complement of a number.
Here, 9’s complement=999-562=436.
Therefore, 10’s complement=436+1=437.
4. The 9’s complement of 6578 is ___________
a) 1234
b) 3421
c) 3124
d) 3420
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 9’s complement is obtained by subtracting 9 from each bit of the number.
Here, 9999-6578=3421.
Therefore, the 9’s complement is 3421.
5. >> operator is used to denote _________
a) left shift
b) right shift
c) greater than
d) less than
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: >> operator denotes the right shift in binary arithmetic.
E.g. If we say, >>110 by 2-bits, the value obtained will be 001.
Similarly, << denotes the right shift operator.
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6. The subtraction using 1’s complement of 110 – 100 will give the result ___________
a) -011
b) 011
c) 010
d) -010
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To subtract using 1’s complement: Take the 1’s complement of the 2nd number (here, 011) and add
it to the first number. (110+011=1,001).
If the carry is generated, it is added to the result (001+1=010).
If a carry is not generated then it is converted to its 1’s complement form.
7. The result obtained on subtraction using 2’s complement of 1111-0010 will be _________
a) 11101
b) 11011
c) 1101
d) 1011
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Firstly, the 2’s complement of the 2nd number is obtained.
Then, if carry is generated, it is discarded and the number is positive.
Otherwise, 2’s complement of the result is obtained and the answer is negative.
Here, 1111+1110=1, 1101. Since carry is generated, it is discarded and the answer is positive.
8. The 1’s complement of 1111111110.101 is _______________
a) 1.010
b) 0000000000.010
c) 1111111110.101
d) 1.101
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and the bits with
value 0 to 1. Here, 11111111110.101 gets converted to 000000001.010 in its 1’s complement format.
9. 7’s complement of 432 is _________________
a) 432
b) 543
c) 345
d) 777
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To find the 7’s complement of any number, we simply subtract 7 from each of the bits.
Here, 777-432=345. So, the 7’s complement is 345.
10. The 16’s complement of 74E will be __________
a) 8B2
b) F8B2
c) 2B8
d) 8C2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 16’s complement is obtained by subtracting 16 from each of the bits of that number.
Here, 16’s complement of 074E will be F8B2.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – IEEE 32 and 64 bit

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IEEE 32 and 64
bit”.

1. Binary addition of 1 + 1 gives the result _____________

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The result obtained is 0 with a carry of 1. This carry obtained is added to the next higher column.
Binary system can have only two numbers 0 and 1.
2. 4-bit is a valid IEEE- format.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The two main IEEE formats are 16-bit and 32-bit. No format of 4-bit exists. Further, 8-bit format also
exists.
In IEEE format, there are certain bits allotted to sign, exponent and mantissa.
3. The result of 0 – 1 in binary is ______________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 11
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The binary subtraction 0 – 1 gives the result 1. A borrow of 1 is although generated and is removed
from the next higher column.
4. The complement of any number can be given by a general term _______________
a) Bn – 1 – N
b) Bn -1 + N
c) Bn +1 – N
d) Bn +1 + N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Complement of a number can be given by the term :
C= Bn – 1 – N.
Here,
B= base
n= number of digits
N= the number.
5. The IEEE standard followed by almost all the computers for floating point arithmetic _____
a) IEEE 260
b) IEEE 488
c) IEEE 754
d) IEEE 610
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most computers follow the IEEE 754 bit format for floating point arithmetic. IEEE stands for electrical
and electronic engineers. It has all the floating point arithmetic specifications.
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6. Which of the following is often called the double precision format?

a) 64-bit
b) 8-bit
c) 32-bit
d) 128-bit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 64-bit format is referred to as the double precision format. It has 1 sign bit, 8 exponent bits and
23 bits for the mantissa.
7. What is NaN in IEEE standards?
a) Not arithmetic
b) Not a negation
c) Not a number
d) Not a Node
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It stands for not a number in IEEE standards. A NaN is obtained whenever a result id indeterminate
like whenever anything is divided by 0.
8. The result that is smaller than the smallest number obtained is referred to as ___________
a) NaN
b) Underflow
c) Smallest
d) Mantissa
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is referred to as underflow. Nan stands for not a number. The mantissa is the part after the
decimal.
9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format _________
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8 bits for the
exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
10. Express the decimal format of the signed binary number (101010)2 .
a) 10
b) 12
c) -12
d) -10
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the number is: 01010
=23 * 1 + 21 * 1 =8+2 =10.
But, the sign bit is 1 ,
Therefore the answer is : (-2)10.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Binary

Multiplication & Division
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Binary
Multiplication & Division”.

1. Perform binary addition of 1101 + 0010 is ________

a) 1110
b) 1111
c) 0111
d) 1,1101
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The addition is performed as :
1101
+ 0010
_______
1111
Therefore, the result is 1111.
2. The addition 1+1 gives 0 as a result.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two result obtained is 0 with a carry of 1. This carry is transferred to the next higher column.
3. The result of 0*1 in binary is ____________
a) 0
b) 1
c) invalid
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The binary multiplication of any number with 0 will give the result 0 itself. Any binary number when
multiplied by 0 gives 0 only. e.g. 1101 * 0000 = 0000.
4. The multiplication of 110 * 111 is performed. What is a general term used for 111?
a) Dividend
b) Quotient
c) Multiplicand
d) Multiplier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 111 is called the multiplier.
Whenever a multiplication is performed the second term is called the multiplier whereas the first term is called the
multiplicand.
5. The result obtained on binary multiplication of 1010 * 1100 is _____________
a) 0001111
b) 0011111
c) 1111100
d) 1111000
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The solution is as follows :
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1010
* 1100
________
0000
0000
1010
1010
_______
1111000
6. Which of the following is often called the double precision format?
a) 64-bit
b) 8-bit
c) 32-bit
d) 128-bit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 64-bit format is referred to as the double precision format. It has 1 sign bit, 8 exponent bits and
23 bits for the mantissa.
7. What do you call the intermediate terms in binary multiplication?
a) Multipliers
b) Mid terms
c) Partial Products
d) Multiplicands
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The intermediate terms are called partial terms. The mid terms obtained in the binary multiplications
are the partial ones whereas the answer obtained is called the final product.
8. The result that is smaller than the smallest number obtained is referred to as ___________
a) NaN
b) Underflow
c) Smallest
d) Mantissa
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is referred to as underflow. Nan stands for not a number. Mantissa is the part after the decimal.
9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format is _______
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8 bits for the
exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
10. Express the decimal format of the signed binary number (101010) 2 .
a) 10
b) 12
c) -12
d) -10
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the number is: 01010
=23 * 1 + 21 * 1 =8+2 =10.
But , the sign bit is 1,
Therefore the answer is : (-2)10.
5. Boolean Algebra and Logic Circuits
The section contains questions and answers on fundamental concepts and postulates, boolean functions, sop and
pos, logic and universal gates.

• Fundamental Concepts & Postulates

• Logic Gates
• Boolean Functions
• Universal Gates
• SOP & POS

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Fundamental

Concepts & Postulates
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Fundamental
Concepts & Postulates”.

1. The number of values applicable in Boolean Algebra.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Boolean algebra is based on binary number system. It therefore comprises only 2 bits : 0 and 1.
Hence, only two values are applicable to Boolean algebra.
2. Boolean Algebra can deal with any number system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Boolean Algebra can only be used with the binary number system. Boolean deals with only two
values 0 and 1. In Boolean System, if the result is tautology it returns 1 otherwise 0.
3. The symbol + in Boolean is also known as the ____________ operator.
a) AND
b) OR
c) ADD
d) SUMMATION
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The symbol + is also called as the OR operator. It is used for logical addition. It follows the law of
binary addition.
4. Which operator has the highest precedence?
a) +
b) .
c) !
d) *
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The NOT operator has the highest precedence. It is denoted by ! or – sign. Further, AND (.)
operations are performed and then the OR terms are evaluated.
5. In the expression Y + X’.Y, which operator will be evaluated first?
a) ‘
b) +
c) .
d) ,
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Boolean Algebra, complement of a number is given the highest precedence. Therefore,
complement which is denoted by the ‘ (apostrophe) symbol is evaluated first.
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6. Which of the following is false?

a) x+y=y+x
b) x.y=y.x
c) x.x’=1
d) x+x’=1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first and second option describes the commutative law. The fourth option holds true since if
x=1, then x’=0, and x+x’=1. Third option is incorrect because on multiplication of a boolean value with its
complement the result will always be 0.
7. As per idempotent law, X + X will always be equal to ________
a) 0
b) 1
c) X
d) 2X
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It will always return the same value X. Since, boolean deals with only two numbers 0 and 1, if we
add 0+0, the answer is 0. Similarly, if we add 1+1 the answer is 1.
8. The expression for involution law is _________
a) x+y=y+x
b) x+1=1
c) (x’)’=x
d) x.x=x
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The involution law states that the complement of complement of a number is the number itself. The
third option justifies the statement. Thus, (x’)’=x.
9. Who proposed the use of Boolean algebra in the design of relay switching circuits?
a) George Boole
b) Claude E. Shannon
c) Claude E. Boole
d) George Shannon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Claude E Shannon suggested the use of Boolean in relay switching circuits. George Boole, a
mathematician introduced it for simplifying representations and manipulation of propositional logic.
10. Truth table is used to represent Boolean __________
a) functions
b) algebra
c) operators
d) addition
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Boolean functions are represented using the truth tables. Truth tables represent the tautology
and fallacy for terms.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Boolean Functions

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Boolean
Functions”.

1. Boolean Function is of the form of ________

a) Truth values
b) K=f(X,Y,X)
c) Algebraic Expression
d) Truth Table
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The boolean function is of the form of algebraic expressions or truth table. A boolean function is of
the form as that of option 2. The result obtained from a boolean function can be a truth value or a fallacy.
2. The result of X+X.Y is X.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is a boolean expression. It can be evaluated as :
X+X.Y = X(1+Y) = X.
Since 1+Y=1 by boolean laws.
3. In the boolean function w=f(X,Y,Z), what is the RHS referred to as ________
a) right hand side
b) expression
c) literals
d) boolean
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The RHS is commonly referred to as the expression. The symbols X, Y and Z are commonly
referred to as the literals of the function.
4. The general form for calculating the number of rows in a truth table is ________
a) 2n
b) 2n+1
c) 2n
d) 2n+1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The general form for the calculation of rows in a truth table is 2 n . Here, n= number of literals in the
function.
5. The number of literals in the expression F=X.Y’ + Z are _____________
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Literals the generally the number of variables used in any boolean expression. Here, since there are
3 variables X, Y and Z, therefore the answer is 3.
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6. The complement term for X’.Y’.Z + X.Y will be _____________

a) XYZ’+X’Y’
b) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y’)
c) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y)
d) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The OR and AND operators are interchanged. The complement terms are reduced to normal terms
and the result is obtained.
7. What is the complement of X’Y’Z?
a) X+YZ
b) X’+Y+’Z’
c) X+Y+Z’
d) XYZ’
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The complement is obtained by converting the complement terms to normal terms and vice versa.
Also, the OR and AND operators are interchanged. Here, X’Y’Z gets converted to X+Y+Z’.
8. The minterm of any expression is denoted by ___________
a) Mt
b) m
c) M
d) min
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The variables forming an AND term is generally the minterm. It is denoted by m. (lower case letter).
9. The min term when X=Y=Z=0 is _____________
a) x’+y’+z’
b) xyz
c) x’y’z’
d) x+y+z
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There minterm expression is obtained using the AND term. Here, when X=Y=Z=0, the expression
obtained is x’y’z’.
10. The max term when X=Y=Z=1 is ________
a) x’+y’+z’
b) xyz
c) x’y’z’
d) x+y+z
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The max term consists of variables forming an OR term. Here, when X=Y=Z=1, the expression is
x’+y’+z’.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – SOP & POS

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SOP & POS”.

1. The terms in SOP are called ___________

a) max terms
b) min terms
c) mid terms
d) sum terms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The SOP is the sum of products. It consists of min terms often called the product terms.
Similarly, POS consists of max terms.
2. A sum of products expression is a product term (min term) or several min terms ANDed together.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is partially correct.
A sum of products expression is a product term (min term) or several min terms OR ed(i.e. added) together.
3. Which of the following is an incorrect SOP expression?
a) x+x.y
b) (x+y)(x+z)
c) x
d) x+y
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The second expression is incorrect because it consists of two maxterms ANDed together.
This makes it a POS or the product of sum expression.
Other options are valid SOP expressions.
4. The corresponding min term when x=0, y=0 and z=1.
a) x.y.z’
b) X’+Y’+Z
c) X+Y+Z’
d) x’.y’.z
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The min term is obtained by taking the complement of the zero values and taking the term with
value 1 as it is.
Here, x=0,y=0 and z=1, then the min term is x’y’z.
5. LSI stands for ___________
a) Large Scale Integration
b) Large System Integration
c) Large Symbolic Instruction
d) Large Symbolic Integration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for large scale integration. This is the abstraction level of the integrated circuits.
It can also be small scale, medium, large or very large scale integration.
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6. Which operation is shown in the following expression: (X+Y’).(X+Z).(Z’+Y’)

a) NOR
b) ExOR
c) SOP
d) POS
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression comprises of max terms.
Also, the terms are ANDed together, therefore it is a POS term.
7. The number of min terms for an expression comprising of 3 variables?
a) 8
b) 3
c) 0
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If any expression comprises of n variables, its corresponding min terms are given by 2 n.
Here, n=3 since there are 3 variables therefore, min terms=23=8.
8. The number of cells in a K-map with n-variables.
a) 2n
b) n2
c) 2n
d) n
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: K-map is nothing but Karnaugh map.
SOP and POS expressions can be simplified using the K-map.
The number of cells in case of n-variables=2n.
9. The output of AND gates in the SOP expression is connected using the ________ gate.
a) XOR
b) NOR
c) AND
d) OR
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the product terms or the min terms are added in an SOP expression.
Therefore, the OR gate is used to connect the AND gates.
10. The expression A+BC is the reduced form of ______________
a) AB+BC
b) (A+B)(A+C)
c) (A+C)B
d) (A+B)C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The second option is correct.
It can simplified as follows: (A+B)(A+C)
=AA+AC+AB+BC
=A+AC+AB+BC
=A(1+C)+AB+BC
=A+AB+BC
=A(1+B)+BC
=A+BC.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Logic Gates

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Logic Gates”.

1. Electronic circuits that operate on one or more input signals to produce standard output _______
a) Series circuits
b) Parallel Circuits
c) Logic Signals
d) Logic Gates
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The logic gates operate on one or more input signals to produce a standard output.
Logic gates give the output in the form of 0 and 1.
The Boolean algebra can be applied to the logic gates.
2. Logic Gates are the building blocks of all circuits in a computer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true.
Logic gates are idealized to implement a boolean function in all circuits of a computer.
The signals are directed as per the outputs of the logic gates in the form of 0 and 1.
3. A __________ gate gives the output as 1 only if all the inputs signals are 1.
a) AND
b) OR
c) EXOR
d) NOR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The AND gate gives a 1 only if all the input signals are 1.
The Boolean expression for evaluating an AND signal is: Y=A.B.
4. The boolean expression of an OR gate is _______
a) A.B
b) A’B+AB’
c) A+B
d) A’B’
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An OR gate gives the result as 1 if any one of the inputs is one.
Its expression is A+B.
An OR gate gives a 0 only if both the inputs are 0.
5. The gate which is used to reverse the output obtained is _____
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) EXOR
d) NOT
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: NOT gate is used to reverse the output from 0 to 1 and vice-versa.
The Boolean expression for NOT gate is Y=A’.
Therefore, it gives the complement of the result obtained.
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6. Which of the following gate will give a 0 when both of its inputs are 1?
a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) EXOR
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The NAND gate gives 0 as the output when both of its inputs are 1 or any one of the input is 1.
It returns a 1 only if both the inputs are 0.
7. When logic gates are connected to form a gating/logic network it is called as a ______________ logic circuit.
a) combinational
b) sequential
c) systematic
d) hardwired
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is referred to as a combinational circuit as it comprises a number of gates.
It is connected to evaluate a result of a Boolean expression.
8. The universal gate that can be used to implement any Boolean expression is __________
a) NAND
b) EXOR
c) OR
d) AND
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NAND gate can be used to implement any Boolean expression.
It is a universal gate. A universal gate can be used to implement any other Boolean function without using any
other logic gate.
9. The gate which is called an inverter is called _________
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) EXOR
d) NOT
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Inverter is used to reverse the output. A NOT gate is used to invert or change the output from 0 to 1
and vice-versa.
10. The expression of an EXOR gate is ____________
a) A’B+AB’
b) AB+A’B’
c) A+A.B
d) A’+B’
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The expression for an EXOR gate is A’B+AB’.
An EXOR gate is nothing but an exclusive OR gate.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Universal Gates

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Universal Gates”.

1. A ____________ is a circuit with only one output but can have multiple inputs.
a) Logic gate
b) Truth table
c) Binary circuit
d) Boolean circuit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A logic gate is used to evaluate a Boolean expression.
It can have multiple inputs but can have only one output.
The different types of logic gates are AND, OR, NOT etc.
2. There are 5 universal gates.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are only 2 main universal gates: NAND and NOR.
A NAND gate as well as the NOR gate can be used to implement any other Boolean expression thus it is called
as a universal gate.
3. The Output is LOW if any one of the inputs is HIGH in case of a _________ gate.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) OR
d) AND
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of a NAND gate the output is LOW if any one of the inputs is HIGH (i.e. 1).
It gives a HIGH output only in one case when all the inputs given to it are LOW.
4. The following figure shows a ___________ gate.

a) NOR
b) NAND
c) EXOR
d) OR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The figure is that of a NOR gate.
The bubble signifies that it is a NOR gate.
It is a type of universal gate and can be used to implement all the boolean expressions.
5. The complement of the input given is obtained in case of:
a) NOR
b) AND+NOR
c) NOT
d) EX-OR
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The NOT gate, also called as the inverter gate is used to reverse the input which is given.
It gives an inverted output, thus gives the complement.
Expression for NOT gate: Y=A’, where A is the input.
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6. How many AND gates are required to realize the following expression Y=AB+BC?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 2 AND gates are required to realize the expression.
1 AND gate will be used to connect the inputs A and B whereas the other will be used to connect the inputs B
and C.
7. Number of outputs in a half adder _____________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A half adder gives two outputs.
One is called the sum and the other is carry.
Half adder can be implemented using an EXOR gate and an AND gate.
8. The ________ gate is an OR gate followed by a NOT gate.
a) NAND
b) EXOR
c) NOR
d) EXNOR
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A NOR gate is a universal gate which is an OR gate followed by a NOT gate.
It therefore reverses the output obtained by an OR gate.
It can be used to implement any Boolean expression.
9. The expression of a NAND gate is_______
a) A.B
b) A’B+AB’
c) (A.B)’
d) (A+B)’
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A NAND gate is an AND gate followed by a NOT gate.
It therefore inverts the output of an AND gate.
NAND gate is also a universal gate.
10. Which of the following correctly describes the distributive law.
a)( A+B)(C+D)=AB+CD
b) (A+B).C=AC+BC
c) (AB)(A+B)=AB
d) (A.B)C=AC.AB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The second option correctly describes the distributive law.
(A+B).C =AC+BC.
Boolean Laws are used to implementing and simplifying Boolean expression.
6. Processor & Memory
The section contains MCQs on cpu and control unit, registers, cache memory, main memory organisation,
processor and its types.

• CPU & Control Unit

• Processor & Its Types
• Registers
• Main Memory Organisation
• Cache Memory

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – CPU & Control Unit

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “CPU
& Control Unit”.

1. Brain of computer is ____________

a) Control unit
b) Arithmetic and Logic unit
c) Central Processing Unit
d) Memory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The CPU is referred to as the brain of a computer.
It consists of a control unit and the arithmetic and logic unit. It is responsible for performing all the processes and
operations.
2. Control Unit acts as the central nervous system of the computer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The control unit is referred to as the central nervous system because it selects and interprets the
instructions and coordinates execution.
3. What does MBR stand for?
a) Main Buffer Register
b) Memory Buffer Routine
c) Main Buffer Routine
d) Memory Buffer Register
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The binary subtraction 0 – 1 gives the result 1.
A borrow of 1 is although generated and is removed from the next higher column.
4. In the instruction ADD A, B, the answer gets stored in ___________
a) B
b) A
c) Buffer
d) C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In any instruction of the form ADD A, B; the answer gets stored in the A register. The format is: ADD
Destination, Source.
5. What does PC stand for?
a) Program Changer
b) Program Counter
c) Performance Counter
d) Performance Changer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Program counter contains the address of the next instruction which is to be fetched by the
control unit.
All other options are invalid.
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6. Which of the following holds the last instruction fetched?

a) PC
b) MAR
c) MBR
d) IR
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The IR which stands for the instruction register contains the last instruction fetched.
All the others options are registers which are used for the fetch operation.
7. The portion of the processor which contains the hardware required to fetch the operations is _______
a) Datapath
b) Processor
c) Control
d) Output unit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The datapath contains the hardware required to fetch the operations. The control tells the data path
what needs to be done.
8. Causing the CPU to step through a series of micro operations is called _________
a) Execution
b) Runtime
c) Sequencing
d) Pipelining
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sequencing is the process of causing the CPU to step through a series of micro operations.
Execution causes the performance of each micro operation.
9. The functions of execution and sequencing are performed by using ______________
a) Input Signals
b) Output Signals
c) Control Signals
d) CPU
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sequencing followed by the process of execution is performed by the Control signals. Sequencing is
traversing each and every operation whereas execution causes the performance of each operation.
10. What does D in the D-flip flop stand for?
a) Digital
b) Direct
c) Delay
d) Durable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the hardwired control unit, the delay element method uses D-flip flop which causes a delay.
Since, in the delay element method, there must be a finite time gap between the 2 steps.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Registers

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Registers”.

1. CPU has built-in ability to execute a particular set of machine instructions, called as __________
a) Instruction Set
b) Registers
c) Sequence Set
d) User instructions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An instruction is any task which is to be performed by the processor. Instructions are stored in the
register. Instruction set is the set of machine instructions.
2. Opcode indicates the operations to be performed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Every instruction has an opcode. Additionally, it may have one or more operands and the op code
indicates the operation to be performed.
3. The length of a register is called _______
a) word limit
b) word size
c) register limit
d) register size
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of a register is called word size. It tells the number of bits a register can store.
Registers are a part of the CPU.
4. The _________ holds the contents of the accessed memory word.
a) MAR
b) MBR
c) PC
d) IR
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The MBR holds the contents of the accessed (read/written) memory word.
MBR stands for Memory Buffer Register.
5. Which of the following is not a visible register?
a) General Purpose Registers
b) Address Register
c) Status Register
d) MAR
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MAR or the memory address register is not a visible register. This register is user inaccessible. It
contains the address of the memory block to be read or written to.
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6. Which of the following is a data transfer instruction?

a) STA 16-bit address
b) ADD A, B
c) MUL C, D
d) RET
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The instruction STA 16-bit address is a data transfer instruction.
STA means Store in Accumulator.
7. What is correct instruction if you want the control to go to the location 2000h?
a) MOV 2000h
b) MOV A, 2000h
c) JMP 2000h
d) RET 2000h
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The JMP instruction is used to move to a particular location. In 8085 microprocessor, JMP
statement tells the processor to go to location 2000h (here).
8. What kind of a flag is the sign flag?
a) General Purpose
b) Status
c) Address
d) Instruction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sign flag is a type of status register or the flag register. It is used to indicate the sign of certain bits.
9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format __________
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8 bits for the
exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
10. New CPU whose instruction set includes the instruction set of its predecessor CPU is said to be
___________ with its predecessor.
a) fully compatible
b) forward compatible
c) compatible
d) backward compatible
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The CPU is called backward compatible since it contains the instruction set of its predecessor.
Manufacturers tend to group their CPUs into families having similar instruction set.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Cache Memory

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cache Memory”.

1. What is the high speed memory between the main memory and the CPU called?
a) Register Memory
b) Cache Memory
c) Storage Memory
d) Virtual Memory
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called the Cache Memory. The cache memory is the high speed memory between the main
memory and the CPU.
2. Cache Memory is implemented using the DRAM chips.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Cache memory is implemented using the SRAM chips and not the DRAM chips. SRAM stands
for Static RAM. It is faster and is expensive.
3. Whenever the data is found in the cache memory it is called as _________
a) HIT
b) MISS
c) FOUND
d) ERROR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Whenever the data is found in the cache memory, it is called as Cache HIT. CPU first checks in the
cache memory since it is closest to the CPU.
4. LRU stands for ___________
a) Low Rate Usage
b) Least Rate Usage
c) Least Recently Used
d) Low Required Usage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently Used. LRU is a type of replacement policy used by the cache
memory.
5. When the data at a location in cache is different from the data located in the main memory, the cache is called
_____________
a) Unique
b) Inconsistent
c) Variable
d) Fault
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cache is said to be inconsistent. Inconsistency must be avoided as it leads to serious data
bugs.
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6. Which of the following is not a write policy to avoid Cache Coherence?

a) Write through
b) Write within
c) Write back
d) Buffered write
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no policy which is called as the write within policy. The other three options are the write
policies which are used to avoid cache coherence.
7. Which of the following is an efficient method of cache updating?
a) Snoopy writes
b) Write through
c) Write within
d) Buffered write
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Snoopy writes is the efficient method for updating the cache. In this case, the cache controller
snoops or monitors the operations of other bus masters.
8. In ____________ mapping, the data can be mapped anywhere in the Cache Memory.
a) Associative
b) Direct
c) Set Associative
d) Indirect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This happens in the associative mapping. In this case, a block of data from the main memory can be
mapped anywhere in the cache memory.
9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format is ____
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8 bits for the
exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
10. The transfer between CPU and Cache is ______________
a) Block transfer
b) Word transfer
c) Set transfer
d) Associative transfer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The transfer is a word transfer. In the memory subsystem, word is transferred over the memory data
bus and it typically has a width of a word or half-word.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Processor & Its

Types
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Processor & Its
Types”.

1. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per _____ called
clock cycles.
a) second
b) millisecond
c) microsecond
d) minute
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All the jobs
performed by the processor are on the basis of clock cycles.
2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It takes exactly one clock cycle to perform a basic operation, such as moving a byte of memory from
a location to another location in the computer.
3. The operation that does not involves clock cycles is _________
a) Installation of a device
b) Execute
c) Fetch
d) Decode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Normally, several clock cycles are required to fetch, execute and decode a particular program.
Installation of a device is done by the system on its own.
4. The number of clock cycles per second is referred as ________
a) Clock speed
b) Clock frequency
c) Clock rate
d) Clock timing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The number of clock cycles per second is the clock speed. It is generally measured in
gigahertz(109 cycles/sec) or megahertz (106 cycles/sec).
5. CISC stands for ____________
a) Complex Information Sensed CPU
b) Complex Instruction Set Computer
c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU
d) Complex Instruction Set CPU
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CISC is a large instruction set computer. It has variable length instructions. It also has variety of
addressing modes.
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6. Which of the following processor has a fixed length of instructions?

a) CISC
b) RISC
c) EPIC
d) Multi-core
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The RISC which stands for Reduced Instruction set computer has a fixed length of instructions. It
has a small instruction set. Also has reduced references to memory to retrieve operands.
7. Processor which is complex and expensive to produce is ________
a) RISC
b) EPIC
c) CISC
d) Multi-core
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CISC stands for complex instruction set computer. It is mostly used in personal computers. It has a
large instruction set and a variable length of instructions.
8. The architecture that uses a tighter coupling between the compiler and the processor is ____________
a) EPIC
b) Multi-core
c) RISC
d) CISC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: EPIC stands for Explicitly parallel instruction computing. It has a tighter coupling between the
compiler and the processor. It enables the compiler to extract maximum parallelism in the original code.
9. MAR stands for ___________
a) Memory address register
b) Main address register
c) Main accessible register
d) Memory accessible register
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The MAR stands for memory address register. It holds the address of the active memory location.
10. A circuitry that processes that responds to and processes the basic instructions that are required to drive a
computer system is ________
a) Memory
b) ALU
c) CU
d) Processor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The processor is responsible for processing the basic instructions in order to drive a computer. The
primary functions of a processor are fetch, decode and execute.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Main Memory

Organisation
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Main Memory
Organisation”.

1. Any electronic holding place where data can be stored and retrieved later whenever required is ____________
a) memory
b) drive
c) disk
d) circuit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Memory is the place where data can be stored and later retrieved. Memory can be of classified into
register, cache, main memory, etc.
2. Cache memory is the onboard storage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cache Memory is the memory closest to the CPU. Registers, Cache and the main memory are the
means of onboard storage in the computer system.
3. Which of the following is the fastest means of memory access for CPU?
a) Registers
b) Cache
c) Main memory
d) Virtual Memory
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Registers are the fastest means of access for CPU. Registers are the small memory locations which
are present closest to the CPU.
4. The memory implemented using the semiconductor chips is _________
a) Cache
b) Main
c) Secondary
d) Registers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main memory is implemented using semiconductor chips. Main memory is located on the
motherboard. It mainly consists of RAM and small amount of ROM.
5. Size of the ________ memory mainly depends on the size of the address bus.
a) Main
b) Virtual
c) Secondary
d) Cache
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The size of the main memory depends on the size of the address bus of the CPU. The main
memory mainly consists of RAM and ROM, where RAM contains the current data and programs and ROM
contains permanent programs like BIOS.
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6. Which of the following is independent of the address bus?

a) Secondary memory
b) Main memory
c) Onboard memory
d) Cache memory
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The secondary memory is independent of the address bus. It increases the storage space. It is
implemented in the form of magnetic storage devices.
7. ____________ storage is a system where a robotic arm will connect or disconnect off-line mass storage media
according to the computer operating system demands.
a) Secondary
b) Virtual
c) Tertiary
d) Magnetic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tertiary storage is the correct option. It is used in the realms of enterprise storage and scientific
computing on large computer systems and business computer networks and is something a typical personal
computer never sees firsthand.
8. What is the location of the internal registers of CPU?
a) Internal
b) On-chip
c) External
d) Motherboard
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The internal registers are present on-chip. They are therefore present inside the CPU. L1 cache is
also present on-chip inside the CPU.
9. MAR stands for ___________
a) Memory address register
b) Main address register
c) Main accessible register
d) Memory accessible register
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The MAR stands for memory address register. It holds the address of the active memory location.
10. If M denotes the number of memory locations and N denotes the word size, then an expression that denotes
the storage capacity is ______________
a) M*N
b) M+N
c) 2M+N
d) 2M-N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Storage capacity is the product of a number of memory locations that is the number of words and
the word size or the number of bits stored per location. Storage capacity should be as large as possible.

7. Secondary Storage Devices

The section contains multiple choice questions and answers on sequential and direct access, magnetic tapes,
storage devices, magnetic and optical disks.

• Sequential & Direct Access

• Optical Disks
• Magnetic Tapes
• Memory Storage Devices
• Magnetic Disks

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Sequential &

Direct Access
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This set of Computer Fundamentals test focuses on “Sequential & Direct Access”.

1. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per _____ called
clock cycles.
a) second
b) millisecond
c) microsecond
d) minute
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All the jobs
performed by the processor are on the basis of clock cycles.
2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It takes exactly one clock cycle to perform a basic operation, such as moving a byte of memory from
a location to another location in the computer.
3. The operation that does not involves clock cycles is ____________
a) Installation of a device
b) Execute
c) Fetch
d) Decode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Normally, several clock cycles are required to fetch, execute and decode a particular program.
Installation of a device is done by the system on its own.
4. The number of clock cycles per second is referred as ______
a) Clock speed
b) Clock frequency
c) Clock rate
d) Clock timing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The number of clock cycles per second is the clock speed. It is generally measured in
gigahertz(109 cycles/sec) or megahertz (106 cycles/sec).
5. CISC stands for ___________
a) Complex Information Sensed CPU
b) Complex Instruction Set Computer
c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU
d) Complex Instruction Set CPU
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CISC is a large instruction set computer. It has variable length instructions. It also has a variety of
addressing modes.
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6. Which of the following processor has a fixed length of instructions?

a) CISC
b) RISC
c) EPIC
d) Multi-core
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The RISC which stands for Reduced Instruction set computer has a fixed length of instructions. It
has a small instruction set. Also has reduced references to memory to retrieve operands.
7. Processor which is complex and expensive to produce _________
a) RISC
b) EPIC
c) CISC
d) multi-core
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CISC stands for complex instruction set computer. It is mostly used in personal computers. It has a
large instruction set and a variable length of instructions.
8. The architecture that uses a tighter coupling between the compiler and the processor.
a) EPIC
b) Multi-core
c) RISC
d) CISC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: EPIC stands for Explicitly parallel instruction computing. It has a tighter coupling between the
compiler and the processor. It enables the compiler to extract maximum parallelism in the original code.
9. HLDA stands for _______
a) High level data
b) High level data acknowledgment
c) Hold Acknowledgement
d) Hold Data
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The HOLD signal is given to the CPU whenever an interrupt is to be served. If the CPU is ready to
give the control of the bus, it gives the HLDA command which is Hold Acknowledgement.
10. Word length of a personal computer ___________
a) 64bits
b) 16 bits
c) 8 bits
d) 32 bits
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The word length which is the size of a word is generally 8 bits in a personal computer. Word Size is
generally the number of bits that can be processed in one go by the CPU.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Magnetic Tapes

This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Magnetic Tapes”.

1. ________________ is also called auxiliary storage.

a) secondary memory
b) tertiary memory
c) primary memory
d) cache memory
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The secondary memory which allows us to store a large amount of data is often referred to as the
auxiliary memory. It generally stores large amount of data on a permanent basis.
2. Secondary storage virtually has an unlimited capacity because the cost per bit is very low.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true as secondary storage devices can store large amounts of data temporarily. It
is used to overcome the limitations of primary storage.
3. Magnetic tape is a type of _________ access device.
a) Sequential
b) Direct access
c) Step
d) Indirect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic tapes are sequential access devices. They are the secondary storage devices and are
used to store large amounts of data. In sequential access, data can be retrieved in the same sequence in which it
is stored.
4. The magnetic tape is generally a plastic ribbon coated with ______
a) Magnesium oxide
b) Chromium dioxide
c) Zinc oxide
d) Copper oxide
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plastic ribbon is coated with a magnetizable recording material. Iron oxide and chromium dioxide is
generally used in magnetic tapes. Data are recorded on the tape in the form of tiny invisible dots.
5. The dots on the magnetic tape represent ________
a) Binary digits
b) Decimal digits
c) Hex digits
d) Oct digits
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The data recorded on the tape is the form of tiny invisible magnetized and non-magnetized spots
(representing 1s and 0s) on its coated surface.
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6. Which of the following is the correct representation for a storage capacity of a tape?
a) Data recording density = Storage capacity
b) Length = Storage capacity
c) Storage capacity= Length * data recording density
d) Storage capacity= Length + data recording density
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Storage capacity is nothing but the product of length and the data recording density. Magnetic tape
is commonly used sequential-access secondary device. Data recording density is measured in bytes per inch.
7. __________________ is the amount of data that can be stored on a given length of tape.
a) Storage capacity
b) Length
c) Data recording density
d) Tape density
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data recording density is the amount of data that can be stored on a given length of the tape. It is
measured in bytes per inch. Bytes per inch=bpi.
8. The number of characters/second that can be transmitted to the memory from the tape is denoted by the term.
a) Data transfer rate
b) Transmission mode
c) Transmission rate
d) Data mode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transfer rate measurement unit is bytes/second(bps). Value depends on the data recording density
and the speed with which the tape travels under the read/write head.
9. The typical value of data transfer rate is __________
a) 7.7 MB/s
b) 6.6 MB/s
c) 5.5 MB/s
d) 10 MB/s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data transfer rate is defined as the number of characters per second that can be transmitted to the
memory from tape. The typical value is 7.7 megabytes per second.
10. Tape drive is connected to and controlled by _______
a) Interpreter
b) Tape controller
c) CPU
d) Processor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tape drive is connected to and controlled by a tape controller that interprets the commands for
operating the tape drive. Certain commonly used commands are read, write, erase tape, etc.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Magnetic Disks

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Magnetic Disks”.

1. ________________ is used for writing/reading of data to/from a magnetic ribbon.

a) Magnetic disk
b) Magnetic tape
c) Magnetic frames
d) Magnetic Ribbon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnetic tape ribbon is used for the same. It has read/write heads for reading/writing of data on
the tape. When processing is complete, the tape is removed from the tape drive for off-line storage.
2. Magnetic disk is a sequential access device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is a direct access secondary storage device. In case of direct access devices, the storage location
may be selected and accessed at random.
3. The disk’s surface is divided into a number of invisible concentric circles called:
a) Drives
b) Tracks
c) Slits
d) References
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The concentric circles are called as tracks. The tracks are numbered consecutively from outermost
to innermost starting from zero. The number of tracks on a disk may be as few as 40 on small-capacity disks to
several thousand on large capacity disks.
4. The number of sectors per track on a magnetic disk ________
a) less than 5
b) 10 or more
c) 8 or more
d) less than 7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each track of a disk is subdivided into sectors. There are 8 or more sectors per track. Disk drives
are designed to read/write only whole sectors at a time.
5. Generally there are __________bytes in a sector.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 256
d) 512
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Each track of a disc is divided into sectors. A sector typically contains 512 bytes. Disk drives are
designed to read/write only whole sectors at a time.
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6. Which of the following is not a part of disk address?

a) Sector size
b) Sector number
c) Track number
d) Surface number
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Disk address represents the physical location of the record on the disk. It is comprised of the sector
number, track number, and surface number (when double-sided disks are used).
7. What does CHS stand for?
a) Cylinder-high-sector
b) Concentric-head-sector
c) Cylinder-head-sector
d) Concentric-high-sector
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CHS stands for cylinder-head-sector. The scheme is called CHS addressing. The same is also
referred to as disk geometry.
8. The interval between the instant a computer makes a request for the transfer of data from a disk system to the
primary storage and the instance this operation is completed is called _________
a) Disk arrival time
b) Disk access time
c) Drive utilization time
d) Disk utilization time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The interval is referred to as the disk arrival time. It depends on several parameters. Generally, a
computer makes a request and the operation is served.
9. Disk access time does not depends on which of the following factors __________
a) Seek time
b) Latency
c) Transfer rate
d) Arrival rate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The disk access time depends on the seek time, latency and transfer rate. Wherein, seek time is the
time required to position the read/write head over the desired track.
10. The time required to spin the desired sector under the read/write head, once the read/write head is positioned
on the desired track.
a) Seek time
b) Arrival rate
c) Latency
d) Transfer rate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is called latency. It is one of the factors on which the disk access time depends. Disk access time
is the interval between the instant a request is made and the instance operation is completed.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Optical Disks

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Optical Disks”.

1. A ____________ disk consists of a circular disk, which is coated with a thin metal or some other material that
is highly reflective.
a) magnetic
b) optical
c) compact
d) hard
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical disks are highly reflective. They can be used to store extremely large amounts of data in a
limited space.
2. Optical disks are proved to be a promising random access medium for high capacity secondary storage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical disks can store large amounts of data. The storage capacity depends on the sectors and the
number of bytes.
3. The technology used in optical disks is ______
a) Reflective
b) Refractive
c) Laser Beam
d) Diffraction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Laser beam technology is used in optical disks for recording or reading of data on the disk.
It is sometimes called the laser disk/optical laser disk due to the use of laser beam technology.
4. The storage capacity of an optical disk is given by:
a) Number of sectors * number of bytes per sector
b) Number of sectors * 2(number of bytes per sector)
c) Number of sectors * 3(number of bytes per sector)
d) Number of sectors * 0.5(number of bytes per sector)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The storage capacity is given by the formula in option a. The most popular disk uses a disk of 5.25
inch diameter with a storage capacity of around 650 megabytes.
5. Rotation of the disk must vary __________ with the radius of the disk.
a) directly
b) inversely
c) concurrently
d) accordingly
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The rotation speed is inversely proportional to the radius of the disk.
Optical drives use a constant linear velocity encoding scheme often referred to as the CLV scheme.
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6. Which of the following correctly represents the track pattern of an optical disk ?

a)

b)

c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Option a correctly represents the track pattern of an optical disk. The second option shows the track
pattern of a magnetic disk. The last two options are invalid.
7. The tracks are divided into sectors whose size _______
a) remains the same
b) keeps increasing
c) keeps decreasing
d) remains uneven
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tracks in an optical disk are divided into equal size sectors. Optical disk has one long spiral
track, which starts at the outer edge and spirals inward to the center. Each sector is of the same length
regardless of whether it is located near or away from the disk’s center.
8. CLV stands for, in terms of rotation of the optical disk ___
a) Concurrent lines value
b) Constant Linear velocity
c) constant linear value
d) concurrent linear velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for constant linear velocity. The optical disk uses the CLV encoding scheme. Rotation
speed depends on the radius of the disk.
9. The range of access times of optical disks is generally ______
a) 100 to 300 milliseconds
b) 10 to 30 milliseconds
c) 200 to 400 milliseconds
d) 20 to 40 milliseconds
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The access times of optical disks are typically in the range of 100 to 300 milliseconds and that of
hard disks are in the range of 10 to 30 milliseconds.
10. Which of the following is not a type of optical disk?
a) DVD
b) CD
c) WORM
d) Winchester
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Winchester disk is a type of hard disk. Others are all optical disks. WORM is nothing but CD-R
i.e., CD recordable. Stands for write once read many.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Memory Storage
Devices
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Quiz focuses on “Memory Storage Devices”.

1. Winchester disks are a type of _______

a) optical disks
b) magnetic disks
c) compact disks
d) magnetic drives
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All the jobs
performed by the processor are on the basis of clock cycles.
2. Bernoulli disks are a type of magnetic floppy disks.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bernoulli disks are a type of magnetic hard disks and not floppy disks. They are also called as zip
disks. It uses a single hard disk platter encased in a plastic cartidge.
3. A plug and play storage device that simply plugs in the port of a computer is __________
a) Flash drive
b) Compact disk
c) Hard disk
d) CD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A flash drive often called as a pen drive enables easy transport of data from one computer to
another. It comes in various shapes and sizes and may have different added features.
4. What does USB stand for?
a) Universal Signal Board
b) Universal Signal Bus
c) Universal Serial Bus
d) Universal Serial Board
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: USB stands for universal serial bus. A flash drive simply plugs in the USB port of a computer.
5. A device similar to a flash drive ______________
a) Memory card
b) Compact drive
c) Compact disk
d) Memory disk
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Memory card serves a similar purpose as that of a flash drive. It is in the shape of a card. Useful in
electronic devices like Camera, music player, etc.
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6. What does RAID stand for?
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks
c) Redundant array of intermediate disks
d) Redundant array of improper disks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAID is Redundant array of independent disks. It is an array of disks which can store data bits.
7. A set of hard disk drives with a controller mounted in a single box, forming a single large storage unit is
____________
a) Disk array
b) Drives
c) Compact drives
d) Multi-cores
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is disk array. It is commonly known as RAID. As a secondary storage device, provides
enhanced performance, enhanced storage capacity and reliability.
8. The process in which a file is partitioned into smaller parts and different parts are stored in different disks is
____________
a) RAID
b) Mirroring
c) Stripping
d) RAID classification
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Enhanced reliability is achieved by using techniques like mirroring and stripping in case of disk
arrays. Stripping is the division of a large file into smaller parts and then storing them on different disks.
9. Which of the following uses multiple hard disk platters mounted on a single central shift?
a) Disk drives
b) Hard disks
c) Disk packs
d) Compact disks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Disk packs use a number of hard disk platters. Also, they are mounted on a single central shaft.
10. Which of the following is not a magnetic disk?
a) Floppy
b) Winchester
c) Zip
d) FLASH
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flash drives are a type of memory storage devices. It is a relatively newer type of secondary
storage device which enables easy transfer of data from one computer to another.

8. Input-Output Devices
The section contains questions and answers on input and output devices, digitizers and speech synthesizers.
 • Input Devices • Digitizers

• Output Devices • Speech Synthesizers

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Input Devices

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Input Devices”.

1. These devices provide a means of communication between a computer and outer world.
a) I/O
b) Storage
c) Compact
d) Drivers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The I/O i.e. the input/output devices provide a means of communication between the computer and
the outer world. They are often referred to as the peripheral devices sometimes.
2. The I/O devices are sometimes called the peripheral devices because they surround the CPU and memory of
the computer system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The input devices are used to enter data from the outside world into primary
storage. The output devices supply results of processing from primary storage to users.
3. Identify the blank space in the diagram.

a) Processor
b) Memory
c) CPU
d) Storage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Firstly, the input is given to the input device, then the data in coded in internal form and is sent to
the CPU. Further, the processed data is sent to the output device and the result is obtained.
4. What does GUI stand for?
a) Graphical User Instruction
b) Ground User Interface
c) General User Instruction
d) Graphical User Interface
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GUI stands for a graphical user interface. Graphical user interface basically provides a set of
graphical elements on the screen to the users. Commonly used for point-and-draw devices.
5. Which of the following is not a point-and-draw device?
a) Keypad
b) Trackball
c) Touch screen
d) Mouse
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All except the keypad are point-and-draw devices. They are used to rapidly point to and select a
graphic icon or menu item from multiple options displayed on the GUI of a screen.
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6. A device used for video games, flight simulators, training simulators and for controlling industrial robots.
a) Mouse
b) Light pen
c) Joystick
d) Keyboard
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Joystick is the device used for the same. It is a point-and-draw device. It has a click button, a stick,
a ball, a socket as well as a light indicator.
7. The unattended interactive information systems such as automatic teller machine or ATM is called as
_________
a) Kiosks
b) Sioks
c) Cianto
d) Kiaks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The term information kiosks are used for the same. Touch screens are used the most preferred
human-computer interface used in information kiosks.
8. Which are the input devices that enable direct data entry into a computer system from source documents?
a) Data Scanning devices
b) Data retrieving devices
c) Data acquiring devices
d) System Access devices
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are referred to as data scanning devices. They eliminate the need to key in text data into the
computer. It demands the high quality of input documents.
9. Which of the following is a type of image scanner?
a) Flat-held
b) Hand-led
c) Flat-bed
d) Compact
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Image scanners are the input devices that translate the paper documents into an electronic format
for storage in a computer. Stored image can be altered or manipulated with image-processing software.
10. Which of the following is capable of recognizing a pre-specified type of mark by pencil or pen?
a) OMR
b) Winchester
c) Bar code reader
d) Image Scanner
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: OMR stands for optical mark reader. These are very useful for grading tests with objective type
questions or for any input data that is of choice or selection nature.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Output Devices

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Output Devices”.

1. Input Devices that use a special ink that contains magnetizable particles of iron oxide are ____
a) Optical disks
b) Magnetic disks
c) MICR
d) Magnetic drives
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MICR reads data on cheques and sorts them for distribution to other banks or for further processing.
MICR stands for Magnetic-Ink-Character Recognition.
2. MICR character set consists of only 2 digits 0 and 1.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. It consists of numerals from 0 to 9 and 4 special characters. It supports only
14 symbols.
3. A printer that prints one line at a time and has a predefined set of characters is called _______
a) Laser
b) Drum
c) Inkjet
d) Impact
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The drum printers print one line at a time. They have a cylindrical drum with characters embossed
on its surface in the form of circular bands.
4. Which of the following is a name of plotter as well as a printer?
a) Flatbed
b) Laser
c) Drum
d) Impact
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Drum is the name of a plotter as well as a printer. Drum printers have a predefined set of characters
and print one line at a time. Drum plotters is an ideal device for architects and others who need to generate high-
precision hard copy graphics output of widely varying sizes.
5. Name the device that converts text information into spoken sentences.
a) Speech Sensors
b) Compact convertors
c) Speech Synthesizers
d) Voice systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A speech synthesizer converts text information into spoken sentences. It is used for reading out text
information to blind people. Allowing people to communicate effectively.
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6. Which of the following is not a part of a digitizer?

a) Digitizing tablet
b) Cursor
c) Stick
d) Stylus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A digitizer consists of a digitizing tablet, a stylus in the form of a cross-hair cursor. A digitizer is used
in the areas of GIS.
7. Which is the device used for converting maps, pictures and drawings into digital form for storage in
computers?
a) Digitizer
b) Scanner
c) Image Scanner
d) MICR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A digitizer serves the purpose given in the question. Digitizers are generally used in the area of
Computer Aided Design by architects and engineers to design cars, buildings, etc.
8. The process in which a file is partitioned into smaller parts and different parts are stored in different disks is
called _________
a) RAID
b) Mirroring
c) Stripping
d) RAID classification
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Enhanced reliability is achieved by using techniques like mirroring and stripping in case of disk
arrays. Stripping is the division of a large file into smaller parts and then storing them on different disks.
9. Which of the following Printers have a speed in the range of 40-300 characters per second?
a) Inkjet
b) Laser
c) Dot matrix
d) Drum
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The inkjet printers are non-impact printers. Hence, they cannot produce multiple copies of a
document in a single printing. Can be both monochrome and color.
10. Which of the following is a temporary output?
a) Hard copy
b) Soft copy
c) Duplicate copy
d) On paper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are only two types of outputs: hard copy and soft copy. Soft copy output is temporary and
vanishes after use. Hard copy output is permanent in nature and can be kept in paper files, etc.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Digitizers

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Digitizers”.

1. Input Devices that use a special ink that is used for converting pictures, maps and drawings into digital format.
a) Digitizers
b) Digital pens
c) Light Pens
d) MICR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The digitizer is used for digitizing pictures, maps and drawings into digital form for storage in
computers. It is used in CAD by architects and engineers.
2. GIS stands for Graphical Information System.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. GIS stands for Geographical Information System. Digitizers are used in the
area of GIS for digitizing maps available in paper form.
3. A digitizer converts __________ input into digital input.
a) Laser
b) Digital
c) Analog
d) Complex
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A digitizer converts analog signals to digital images. Due to this, it is compatible with both scanners
and mice.
4. Which of the following term is used when different forms of information like text, sound is converted to a binary
code?
a) Digitalization
b) Digitization
c) Binarization
d) Digization
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Digitization is the term that is used. It converts the input which is in the form of an image, sound or
text into a binary format and further makes it easier for the computer to understand and process.
5. Which of the following isn’t a phase of digitization?
a) Discretization
b) Quantization
c) Discretization + Quantization
d) Analog conversion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There is no phase called analog conversion. Discretization means the reading of an analog signal.
Quantization is the rounding of samples to numbers.
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6. Which of the following is not a part of a digitizer?

a) Digitizing tablet
b) Cursor
c) Stick
d) Stylus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A digitizer consists of a digitizing tablet, a stylus in the form of a cross-hair cursor. A digitizer is used
in the areas of Geographical Information Systems.
7. The process of making digital information work for you is called ___________
a) Digitization
b) Digital Transformation
c) Digitalization
d) Analogization
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of making digitized data or information work for you is called digitalization. The
conversion of analog signal to digital signal is called digitization. Digital signals are in the form of 0s and 1s.
8. What is the full form of FSM?
a) Field Service Management
b) Frequent Service Management
c) Final Service Management
d) Field Service Master
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FSM is Field Service Management. FSM soft wares are used for making proper use of the digitized
information. Therefore, they are basically responsible for digitalization.
9. Which of the following Techniques are used to optimize field services?
a) AI
b) ML
c) CC
d) Reality tools
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AI or Artificial Intelligence is optimizing the field services. It ensures that the fastest service is
performed by the person in charge. Artificial intelligence is nothing but machine intelligence.
10. Obtaining services from a rapidly evolving group of internet users __________
a) Outsourcing
b) Crowd Sourcing
c) Human collaboration
d) Human Computation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Crowd sourcing is the appropriate term which is to be used. Though human collaboration,
outsourcing and computation mean the same. Crowd Sourcing means collaboration of a group of internet users
for the same purpose.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Speech

Synthesizers
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Speech
Synthesizers”.

1. What is the full form of TTS?

a) Typically Typed Speech
b) Typographic Text Speech
c) Text to Speech
d) Typography to speech
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TTS stands for Text to speech. It is a commonly used term with Speech Synthesis. Often called as
text to speech synthesis.
2. Text analysis is all about converting the input text into a ‘speakable’ form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. This process has two phases: firstly the text goes through analysis and then
the result is used to generate a speech signal.
3. A concept that contains rhythm of speech, stress patterns and intonation is ________
a) Text synthesis
b) Prosody
c) Speech Synthesis
d) Formant Synthesis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prosody is the correct term. It contains three main parts: the rhythm of speech, the stress patterns
and the intonation. Intonation is a term used for the rise and fall when a person speaks.
4. Which of the following does not come under text analysis?
a) Document Structure Detection
b) Speech Synthesis
c) Prosonic Analysis
d) Prosodic Analysis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For TTS, the main concepts involved are :
01) Text Analysis
02) Phonetic Analysis
03) Prosodic Analysis
04) Speech Synthesis.
5. What is the medium to convert text information into spoken sentences?
a) Speech Sensors
b) Compact convertors
c) Speech Synthesizers
d) Voice systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A speech synthesizer converts text information into spoken sentences. It is used for reading out text
information to blind people. This allows people to communicate effectively.
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6. Pitch and duration attachment comes under _____

a) Prosody
b) Phonetic Analysis
c) Speech Synthesis
d) Text Analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pitch and duration attachment comes under Prosodic analysis. Other three terms are also used
when we consider the text to speech conversion.
7. Which of the following is not a speech synthesis method?
a) Formant
b) Summative
c) Articulator
d) Concatenative
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Summative isn’t a Speech Synthesis method. Formant Synthesis is the oldest method.
Concatenative is the cut-and-paste method. Whereas, Articulative tries to model the human speech production
mechanisms.
8. Speech Synthesis method based on the generation of periodic and non-periodic signals is ____________
a) Formant
b) Summative
c) Conactenative
d) Articulative
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Formant synthesis is based on the same. It is based on the well known source-filter model whose
idea is to generate periodic and non-periodic signals.
9. What is the full form of SAMPA?
a) Speech Assessment Methods-Phonetic Alphabet
b) Speech Assessment Methods-Prosodic Access
c) Speech Assessment Methods-Phonetic Arrangement
d) Speech Assessment Methods- Prosodic Alphabet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IPA(International phonetic association) contains some symbols that are complicated and cannot be
found in typewriters. SAMPA is an example of alphabets which are compatible with computers and based on
ASCII characters.
10. A speech synthesis model which tries to model the human speech production mechanisms is _________
a) Articulatory Synthesis
b) Formant Synthesis
c) Summative Synthesis
d) Concatenative Synthesis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Articulative Synthesis tries to model the human speech production mechanisms. It is by far the most
complicated speech synthesis method. Its implementation is difficult and therefore is not widely used.

9. Computer Software
The section contains MCQs on system and application softwares, firmware and middleware, open source software
and initiative.

• System Softwares
• Open Source Software
• Application Softwares
• Open Source Initiative
• Firmware & MiddleWare

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – System Softwares

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “System
Softwares”.

1. The physical devices of a computer :

a) Software
b) Package
c) Hardware
d) System Software
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hardware refers to the physical devices of a computer system. Software refers to a collection of
programs. A program is a sequence of instructions.
2. Software Package is a group of programs that solve multiple problems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The software package is a group of programs that solve a specific problem
or perform a specific type of job.
3. ____________ refer to renewing or changing components like increasing the main memory, or hard disk
capacities, or adding speakers, or modems, etc.
a) Grades
b) Prosody
c) Synthesis
d) Upgrades
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Upgrades is the right term to be used. Upgrades are installed to renew or implement a new feature.
Except for upgrades, hardware is normally one-time expense.
4. Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
a) Application Software
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) User
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software is basically classified into two: System and application. System Software is designed to
control the operations and extend the processing capability of a computer system.
5. Which of the following is not an example of system software?
a) Language Translator
b) Utility Software
c) Communication Software
d) Word Processors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A system software is responsible for controlling the operations of a computer system. Word
Processor is an application software since it is specific to its purpose.
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6. A person who designs the programs in a software package is called :

a) User
b) Software Manager
c) System Developer
d) System Programmer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The programs included in a system software package are called system programs. The
programmers who design them and prepare them are called system programmers.
7. ___________________ is designed to solve a specific problem or to do a specific task.
a) Application Software
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) User
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An application software is specific to solving a specific problem. System software is designed for
controlling the operations of a computer system.
8. Assembler is used as a translator for?
a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
c) COBOL
d) C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Assembler is used in case of low level languages. It is generally used to make the binary code into
an understandable format. Interpreter is used with the high level languages similarly.
9. What do you call a program in execution?
a) Command
b) Process
c) Task
d) Instruction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Option Process is correct. A program is a set of instructions. A program in execution is called a
process.
10. Which of the following is not a process state?
a) Terminated
b) Running
c) Blocked
d) Execution
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no blocked state in a process model. The different states are ready, running, executing,
waiting and terminated.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Application

Softwares
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Application
Softwares”.

1. The software designed to perform a specific task:

a) Synchronous Software
b) Package Software
c) Application Software
d) System Software
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software refers to a collection of programs. Software designed to do a specific task are referred to
as the application software. Eg: Inventory management, banking, etc.
2. Word processing software is a type of application software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Since, application software are designed to do a specific job, word processing
is a type of application software used for the designing of text documents.
3. Developing software __________ means a major commitment of time, money and resources.
a) In-house
b) In-sync
c) On-date
d) On-duration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Developing software in-house means the same. It is easier to carry out changes in the software if it
is developed in-house
4. Which of the following is not a way of acquiring software?
a) Buying pre-written software
b) Ordering customized software
c) Downloading public-domain Software
d) Duplicating the software
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Duplication is not a correct way of acquiring the software. All the other options are valid. Apart from
these, another option could be development of a customized software.
5. OSS stands for:
a) Open System Service
b) Open Source Software
c) Open System Software
d) Open Synchronized Software
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: OSS stands for open source software. OSS allows any user to download, view, modify and
redistribute the software. Also, the user can fix bugs according to needs.
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6. Public domain software is usually:

a) System supported
b) Source supported
c) Community supported
d) Programmer supported
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The public domain software is generally community supported. It is community supported as author
does not support users directly.
7. Set of programs which consist of full documentation.
a) Software Package
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) File package
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is called a software package. A software is nothing but a collection of programs. A software
package can solve a specific problem or perform a specific type of job.
8. Interpreter is used as a translator for __________
a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
c) COBOL
d) C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is generally used to make the code into an machine understandable format. Interpreter is used
with the high level languages similarly. Assembler is used in case of low level languages.
9. What do you call a specific instruction designed to do a task?
a) Command
b) Process
c) Task
d) Instruction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A program is a set of instructions. A command is given to do a specific job. A program in execution
is called a process.
10. They normally interact with the system via user interface provided by the application software.
a) Programmers
b) Developers
c) Users
d) Testers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Users interact with the system via user interface that is given by the application software. An
application software is a set of instructions designed to serve a particular purpose.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Firmware &

MiddleWare
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Firmware &
MiddleWare”.

1. The software substituted for hardware and stored in ROM.

a) Synchronous Software
b) Package Software
c) Firmware
d) Middleware
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software refers to a collection of programs. Firm wares act as a link between the hardware and the
system. It is stored in read only memory.
2. Middleware has enabled the production of various types of smart machines having microprocessor chips with
embedded software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Firmware is designed for this purpose and not middleware. A middleware is
for providing abstraction in programming.
3. A “glue” between client and server parts of application.
a) Middleware
b) Firmware
c) Package
d) System Software
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A middleware acts as a glue between client and server parts of application. It provides programming
abstraction which means hiding all the relevant details.
4. MOM stands for?
a) Message oriented middleware
b) Mails oriented middleware
c) Middleware of messages
d) Main object middleware
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MOM is message-oriented middleware. It is basically responsible for sending and receiving
messages across distributed systems.
5. Storage of firmware is ___________
a) Cache Memory
b) RAM
c) External
d) ROM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Firmware is stored in ROM which is the read only memory. Firmware basically acts as a link
between the hardware and the system.
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6. DNS stands for?

a) Domain Name System
b) Direct Name System
c) Direct Network System
d) Domain Network System
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNS stands for Domain Name System. Domain name system is the way in which the internet
domain names are traced and then translated into IP addresses.
7. A software that lies between the OS and the applications running on it.
a) Firmware
b) Middleware
c) Utility Software
d) Application Software
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called as middleware. Middleware enables the interaction between the Operating System and
the applications running on it.
8. A type of middleware that allows for between the built-in applications and the real-time OS?
a) Firmware
b) Database middleware
c) Portals
d) Embedded Middleware
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is called the embedded middleware since it activates the communication link between the built-in
applications and the real time operating system.
9. What is the other name for object middleware?
a) Object request interface
b) Object enabled interface
c) Object Request broker
d) Object enabled broker
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is also called as object request broker. It gives the applications ability to send the objects and
receive services through an object.
10. The _______ calls certain procedures on remote systems and is used to perform synchronous or
asynchronous interactions between systems.
a) Procedure
b) RPC
c) Message Oriented
d) DB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called the RPC or the Remote Procedure Call. The functioning is to call certain procedures on
remote applications. This is generally utilized in a software application.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Open Source

Software
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Open Source
Software”.

1. A software that can be freely accessed and modified.

a) Synchronous Software
b) Package Software
c) OSS
d) Middleware
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software refers to a collection of programs. OSS stands for Open Source Software. It can be freely
accessed, edited and modified according to our needs.
2. Open Source Software can be used for commercial purpose.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The definition of open source guarantees the use of open source software for
commercial purposes. It is commercial but not proprietary.
3. PNG is a _________
a) image format
b) file format
c) internet format
d) html format
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PNG is an image format. It stands for portable network graphics. PNG supports palette based
images.
4. OSI stands for?
a) Open Source Index
b) Open Source Image
c) Open Source Initiative
d) Open Source Instant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: OSI is open source initiative. It is a leading authority on OSS. OSS is a computer software
distributed along with its source code.
5. Which of the following is not an open source software?
a) LibreOffice
b) Microsoft Office
c) GNU image manipulation
d) MySQL
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MS-office is not open source software since its source code isn’t shared publicly. Others like Libre
office, MySQL are open source softwares through which is distributed along with its source code.
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6. The users must agree to the _______ terms and agreements when they use an open source software.
a) System
b) License
c) Community
d) Programmer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The users must agree to the license terms and agreement in order to access an open source
software. There is a limitation of OSS that the users cannot modify the terms and conditions of any software.
7. Which of the following is not a downside of OSS?
a) Lack of personalized support
b) Restricted choice
c) No warranty
d) Multiple choices
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An OSS is nothing but an open source software. It has restricted choices, i.e., there are fewer
choices available for open source. Also, speed of change is an important downside, since the software keeps on
updating itself, we cannot ensure if it is compatible with other applications.
8. An example of a web design OSS.
a) Nvu
b) KOffice
c) AbiWorld
d) Open Office
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nvu is an example of an open source software for web designing. Others like KOffice, Open Office
and AbiWorld are OSS examples for Office Automation.
9. An image editor similar to Adobe Photoshop.
a) Nvu
b) Open Office
c) Bluefish
d) GIMPshop
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: GIMPshop is an image editor similar to adobe photoshop. Nvu is intended for those with no
technical expertise.
10. An OSS for communication purpose.
a) Virtue Mart
b) Drupal
c) Pidgin
d) ZenCart
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pidgin is used for Free Instant Messaging(IIM) client. Virtue mart and emart are for e-commerce
purpose. Drupal is for content management.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Open Source

Initiative
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Open Source Initiative”.

1. A guideline for the OSS licenses other than the GPL.

a) OSI
b) OSD
c) OSE
d) OSL
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: OSS is the open source software. In 1997, OSI or the open source initiative was founded and it
developed the OSD (Open Source Definition). OSD is a guideline for OSS licenses other than the GPL.
2. GPL of GNU says that every copy of a program governed by GPL license, even if modified, must be subject to
GPL again.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. GPL is the general public license. In the 90s, GPL+Internet, many new open
source projects started.
3. Richard Stallman from MIT, established a special license, the ________ license.
a) GNU
b) Free
c) Package
d) Commercial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It was called the GNU license. It ensured that software is free and open to anyone. He was from
MIT and his main motive was to develop a free alternative to Unix.
4. In 1969 AT&T laboratories developed ______ which supported and worked on different hardware platforms.
a) Linux
b) Unix
c) Windows
d) Ubuntu
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Linux was found in that year. It worked well on different hardware platforms. Commercial users had
to pay a license fee.
5. OSS stands for ___________
a) Open System Service
b) Open Source Software
c) Open System Software
d) Open Synchronized Software
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: OSS stands for open source software. OSS allows any user to download, view, modify and
redistribute the software. Also, the user can fix bugs according to needs.
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6. Public domain software is usually __________

a) System supported
b) Source supported
c) Community supported
d) Programmer supported
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The public domain software is generally community supported. It is community supported as an
author does not support users directly.
7. Set of a program which consists of full documentation.
a) Software Package
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) File package
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is called a software package. Software is nothing but a collection of programs. A software
package can solve a specific problem or perform a specific type of job.
8. Interpreter is used as a translator for?
a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
c) COBOL
d) C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is generally used to make the code into a machine understandable format. Interpreter is used with
the high level languages similarly. Assembler is used in case of low level languages.
9. What do you call a specific instruction designed to do a task?
a) Command
b) Process
c) Task
d) Instruction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A program is a set of instructions. A command is given to do a specific job. A program in execution
is called a process.
10. They normally interact with the system via user interface provided by the application software.
a) Programmers
b) Developers
c) Users
d) Testers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Users interact with the system via user interface that is given by the application software.
Application software is a set of instructions designed to serve a particular purpose.

10. Planning the Computer Program

The section contains multiple choice questions and answers on algorithms, flowcharts, flowcharting rules, pseudo
code and structural programming.

• Algorithms
• Pseudo Code
• Flowcharts
• Structural Programming
• Flowcharting Rules

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Algorithms

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Algorithms”.

1. The word ____________comes from the name of a Persian mathematician Abu Ja’far Mohammed ibn-i Musa
al Khowarizmi.
a) Flowchart
b) Flow
c) Algorithm
d) Syntax
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The word algorithm comes from the name of a Persian mathematician Abu Ja’far Mohammed ibn-i
Musa al Khowarizmi.
2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a special method usable by a computer for the solution to a problem.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. This word algorithm refers to a special method usable by a computer for the
solution to a problem. The statement of the problem specifies in general terms the desired input/output
relationship.
3. This characteristic often draws the line between what is feasible and what is impossible.
a) Performance
b) System Evaluation
c) Modularity
d) Reliability
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Algorithms help us to understand scalability. Performance often draws the line between what is
feasible and what is impossible.
4. The time that depends on the input: an already sorted sequence that is easier to sort.
a) Process
b) Evaluation
c) Running
d) Input
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The running time depends on the input: an already sorted sequence is easier to sort. The running
time is given by the size of the input, since short sequences are easier to sort than the longer ones. Generally,
we seek upper bounds on the running time, because it is reliable.
5. Which of the following is incorrect?
Algorithms can be represented:
a) as pseudo codes
b) as syntax
c) as programs
d) as flowcharts
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Representation of algorithms:
-As programs
-As flowcharts
-As pseudo codes.
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6. When an algorithm is written in the form of a programming language, it becomes a _________

a) Flowchart
b) Program
c) Pseudo code
d) Syntax
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An algorithm becomes a program when it is written in the form of a programming language. Thus,
any program is an algorithm.
7. Any algorithm is a program.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. An algorithm is represented in the form of a programming language is called
a program. Any program is an algorithm but the reverse is not true.
8. A system wherein items are added from one and removed from the other end.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Linked List
d) Array
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a queue, the items are inserted from the rear end and deleted from the front end.
9. Another name for 1-D arrays.
a) Linear arrays
b) Lists
c) Horizontal array
d) Vertical array
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Linear arrays are the 1-Dimensional arrays wherein only one row is present and the items are
inserted.
10. A data structure that follows the FIFO principle.
a) Queue
b) LL
c) Stack
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is Queue. A Queue follows the FIFO principle. FIFO stands for First In First Out.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Flowcharts

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Flowcharts”.

1. The symbol denotes _______

a) I/O
b) Flow
c) Terminal
d) Decision
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The symbol denotes a terminal. It is used for indication of start and stop nodes of a program.
2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a pictorial representation of a flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The correct statement would be: In computer science, flowchart refers to a
pictorial representation of an algorithm.
3. The process of drawing a flowchart for an algorithm is called __________
a) Performance
b) Evaluation
c) Algorithmic Representation
d) Flowcharting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is called as flowcharting. A flowchart is nothing but a pictorial representation of an algorithm.
4. Actual instructions in flowcharting are represented in __________
a) Circles
b) Boxes
c) Arrows
d) Lines
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The actual instructions are written in boxes. Boxes are connected by using arrows to indicate the
exact flow of a flowchart and the order in which they are to be executed.
5. The following box denotes?

a) Decision
b) Initiation
c) Initialization
d) I/O
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A diamond shape box denotes the decision making statements. It jumps to a truth value or a false
value.
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6. A box that can represent two different conditions.
a) Rectangle
b) Diamond
c) Circle
d) Parallelogram
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A diamond shape box denotes either a truth value or a false value. It jumps onto two different
statements following it via flow lines.
7. There should be certain set standards on the amount of details that should be provided in a flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. There should be no set standards on the amount of details that should be
provided in a flowchart.
8. A detailed flowchart is called ______
a) Stack
b) Macro
c) Micro
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A detailed flowchart or a flowchart with more details is called as micro flowchart. It represents all the
components of the algorithm that is followed.
9. Which of the following is not an advantage of a flowchart?
a) Better communication
b) Efficient coding
c) Systematic testing
d) Improper documentation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flowcharts provide a proper documentation. It also provides systematic debugging.
10. A flowchart that outlines the main segments of a program.
a) Queue
b) Macro
c) Micro
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Macro Flowchart. A macro flowchart outlines the important components of a program.
It therefore shows fewer details.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Flowcharting

Rules
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This set of Tricky Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers focuses on “Flowcharting Rules”.
1. A ______________ is diagram that depicts the flow of a program.
a) Algorithm
b) Hash Table
c) Graph
d) Flowchart
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A flowchart is a diagram that helps us determine the flow of the program. Other options are
irrelevant.
2. Terminals are represented by diagonals in a flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Terminals are represented by rounded rectangles. They indicate the starting
or ending point in a flowchart.
3. The operation represented by parallelograms.
a) Input/Output
b) Assignment
c) Comparison
d) Conditions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The input/output operations are represented by parallelograms. They generally are used to display
messages during input and output part of a program.
4. Which of the following is not a flowchart structure?
a) Process
b) Sequence
c) Repetition
d) Case
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are basically four flowcharting structures:
• Decision
• Repetition
• Case
• Sequence.
5. The action performed by a ___________ structure must eventually cause the loop to terminate.
a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The action performed by a repetition structure must eventually cause the loop to terminate.
Otherwise, an infinite loop is created.
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6. The following symbol denotes:

a) Module
b) Terminal
c) Process
d) i/o operation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol is that of a module. The terminal is denoted by a rounded rectangle. I/O operation by a
parallelogram and process by a rectangle.
7. What type of structure is this?

a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a repetition structure. The action performed by a repetition structure must eventually cause
the loop to terminate. Otherwise, an infinite loop is created.
8. What type of a structure is this?

a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This is a case structure. Certain cases are given along with a default case in the case structure.
9. A _______ is a connector showing the relationship between the representative shapes.
a) line
b) arrow
c) Process
d) box
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Arrows are the connectors that show the relationship between different shapes. They also show the
flow of the program.
10. The following box denotes?

a) Decision
b) Input/Output
c) Process
d) Module
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is decision. Conditions are given in this box and then the result is checked accordingly if
the condition is true or false.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Pseudo Code

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Pseudo Code”.

1. Keep the statement language ______________ while writing a pseudo code.

a) Dependent
b) Independent
c) Case sensitive
d) Capitalized
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement’s language should be independent. Other rules are to write only one statement per
line and end multiline structures.
2. Capitalize initial keyword – This is a rule while writing a pseudo code.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. It is an important rule to capitalize the initial keyword while writing a pseudo
code.
3. Which of the following is not a keyword?
a) Read
b) Write
c) start
d) endif
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Start is not a Keyword. Other words like read, write, if, else, etc are keywords and convey a special
meaning.
4. ______________ is used to show hierarchy in a pseudo code.
a) Indentation
b) Curly Braces
c) Round Brackets
d) Semicolon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Each design structure uses a particular indentation pattern.
Indentation should be considered in the following cases:
Sequence
Selection
Loop.
5. The statement that tells the computer to get a value from an input device and store it in a memory location.
a) read
b) write
c) READ
d) WRITE
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The READ statement is used to take the input. READ being a keyword should be in capital letters.
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6. _____________ are identified by their addresses, we give them names (field names / variable names) using
words.
a) Memory variables
b) Memory Locations
c) Memory Addresses
d) Data variables
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Memory locations are identified by their addresses, we give them names (field names/variable
names) using words descriptive to us such as ctr as opposed to a location addresses such as 19087.
7. ____________ begins with lower case letters.
a) Keywords
b) Variables
c) Tokens
d) Functions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Variables begin with a lowercase. They contain no spaces. They also involve the consistent use of
names.
8. Another notation for exponentiation.
a) *
b) **
c) ***
d) *^
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Double asterisk sign is also used for exponentiation. The general notation is ^ sign.
9. A symbol used for grouping.
a) ()
b) {}
c) [].
d) ” ”
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Parenthesis is used for grouping while working with fields. There are other symbols like *, +, -, **,
etc.
10. A statement used to close the IF block.
a) ELSE
b) ELSEIF
c) END
d) ENDIF
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is ENDIF. It is used to close the IF block. ENDIF statement should be in line with the IF
statement.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Structural

Programming
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Structural
Programming”.

1. Programming based on stepwise refinement process.

a) Structural
b) C programming
c) Procedural
d) Fine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structured programming is based on the stepwise refinement process-a method of problem
decomposition common to all engineering disciplines and the physical, chemical, and biological sciences.
2. Top-down approach is followed in structural programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Structural programming follows the top – down approach. Each module is
further divided into sub modules.
3. A ________ is a directed graph that describes the flow of execution control of the program.
a) Flowchart
b) Flow graph
c) Complexity curve
d) Algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A flowchart is a directed graph. It simply describes the flow of execution control of the program.
4. A program should be ________
a) Secure
b) Sequential
c) Ordered
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is natural to write a program as a sequence of program structures such as sequences, choices
and loops.
5. The following is the syntax for:

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____(condition)
action
a) Else
b) Elif
c) If
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The if statement follows that syntax. If is a choice statement. Else is also a choice statement.
6. Which of the following is a loop statement?
a) IF
b) ELSE
c) WHILE
d) DO
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: WHILE is a loop statement.
Syntax : while(condition)
action.
7. What is the correct syntax of for statement?
a) for(initialization;condition;update)
b) for(initialization,condition,update)
c) for(condition;initialization;update)
d) for(initialization;condition;)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct syntax is : for(initialization;condition;update)
For is another loop statement.
8. Semicolon is used after :
a) Function definition
b) Function call
c) for loop
d) while loop
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Semicolon is used after function call otherwise it leads to compile-time errors. It shouldn’t be used
after definitions. It should also not be used after loops.
9. The number of values a function can return at a time?
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) more than 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A function can return only one value at a time.
Syntax : return (x,12);
10. Which of the following isn’t a loop statement?
a) for
b) elif
c) while
d) do-while
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is elif. Elif isn’t a loop statement. It is a part of a choice statement.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Structural

Programming
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Structural
Programming”.

1. Programming based on stepwise refinement process.

a) Structural
b) C programming
c) Procedural
d) Fine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structured programming is based on the stepwise refinement process-a method of problem
decomposition common to all engineering disciplines and the physical, chemical, and biological sciences.
2. Top-down approach is followed in structural programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Structural programming follows the top – down approach. Each module is
further divided into sub modules.
3. A ________ is a directed graph that describes the flow of execution control of the program.
a) Flowchart
b) Flow graph
c) Complexity curve
d) Algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A flowchart is a directed graph. It simply describes the flow of execution control of the program.
4. A program should be ________
a) Secure
b) Sequential
c) Ordered
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is natural to write a program as a sequence of program structures such as sequences, choices
and loops.
5. The following is the syntax for:

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____(condition)
action
a) Else
b) Elif
c) If
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The if statement follows that syntax. If is a choice statement. Else is also a choice statement.
6. Which of the following is a loop statement?
a) IF
b) ELSE
c) WHILE
d) DO
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: WHILE is a loop statement.
Syntax : while(condition)
action.
7. What is the correct syntax of for statement?
a) for(initialization;condition;update)
b) for(initialization,condition,update)
c) for(condition;initialization;update)
d) for(initialization;condition;)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct syntax is : for(initialization;condition;update)
For is another loop statement.
8. Semicolon is used after :
a) Function definition
b) Function call
c) for loop
d) while loop
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Semicolon is used after function call otherwise it leads to compile-time errors. It shouldn’t be used
after definitions. It should also not be used after loops.
9. The number of values a function can return at a time?
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) more than 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A function can return only one value at a time.
Syntax : return (x,12);
10. Which of the following isn’t a loop statement?
a) for
b) elif
c) while
d) do-while
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is elif. Elif isn’t a loop statement. It is a part of a choice statement.

11. Computer Languages

The section contains questions and answers on machine languages, assembly languages, high level languages,
fortran and cobol basics.

• Machine Languages
• FORTRAN Basics
• Assembly Languages
• COBOL Basics
• High Level Languages
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Machine
Languages
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This set of Computer Fundamentals online test focuses on “Machine Languages”.

1. The language made up of binary coded instructions.

a) Machine
b) C
c) BASIC
d) High level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The language made up of binary coded instructions built into the hardware of a particular computer
and used directly by the computer is machine language.
2. Binary code comprises of digits from 0 to 9.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Binary as the word suggests contains only 2 digits : 0 and 1.
0 denotes false and 1 denotes a truth value.
3. The ___________ contains the address of the next instruction to be executed.
a) IR
b) PC
c) Accumulator
d) System counter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PC stands for program counter (It contains the address of the next instruction to be executed).
4. The memory unit is made up of _____ bytes.
a) 256
b) 124
c) 4096
d) 3096
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The memory unit is made up of 4,096 bytes. Memory unit is responsible for the storage of data. It is
an important entity in the computer system.
5. A document that specifies how many times and with what data the program must be run in order to thoroughly
test it.
a) addressing plan
b) test plan
c) validation plan
d) verification plan
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Test plan is the A document that specifies how many times and with what data the program must be
run in order to thoroughly test it. It comes under testing.
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6. An approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values.
a) Maintenance
b) Evaluation
c) Data coverage
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data coverage is the term used. It is responsible for designing the test cases.
7. The formal grammar rules governing the construction of valid instruction.
a) test case
b) syntax
c) program
d) semantics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Syntax determines the grammatical rules in a code. Semantics give meaning to the instructions.
8. A program that reads each of the instructions in mnemonic form and translates it into the machine-language
equivalent.
a) Machine language
b) Assembler
c) Interpreter
d) C program
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Assembler does this job. A language that uses mnemonic codes for the representation of machine-
language instructions is called assembly language.
9. An approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values.
a) Data coverage
b) Code Coverage
c) Debugging
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data coverage is an approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values. Code
coverage is an approach that designs test cases by looking at the code.
10. The rules that give meaning to the instructions.
a) Semantics
b) Syntax
c) Code
d) Cases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is semantics. They are the rules that give meaning to the instructions. The syntax is the
formal rules that ensure validation of code.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Assembly
Languages
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Assembly
Languages”.

1. Each personal computer has a _________ that manages the computer’s arithmetical, logical and control
activities.
a) Microprocessor
b) Assembler
c) Microcontroller
d) Interpreter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessor handles all these activities. Each family of processors has its own set of instructions
for handling various operations like getting input from keyboard, displaying information on a screen and
performing various other jobs.
2. Assembly Language requires less memory and execution time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true.
Advantages of using assembly language are:
• It requires less memory and execution time.
• It allows hardware-specific complex jobs in an easier way.
• It is suitable for time-critical jobs.
3. The data size of a word is _________
a) 2-byte
b) 4-byte
c) 8-byte
d)16-byte
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The processor supports the following data sizes:
• Word: a 2-byte data item
• Double word: a 4-byte (32 bit) data item, etc.
4. A direct reference of specific location.
a) Segment Address
b) Absolute Address
c) Offset
d) Memory Address
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two kinds of memory addresses:
• An absolute address – a direct reference of specific location.
• The segment address (or offset) – starting address of a memory segment with the offset value.
5. A Borland Turbo Assembler.
a) nasm
b) tasm
c) gas
d) asm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tasm is the borland turbo assembler. Nasm is used with linux generally. Gas is the GNU assembler.
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6. The instructions that tell the assembler what to do.

a) Executable instructions
b) Pseudo-ops
c) Logical instructions
d) Macros
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The executable instructions or simple instructions tell the processor what to do. Each instruction
consists of an operation code (opcode). Each executable instruction generates one machine language
instruction.
7. The segment containing data values passed to functions and procedures within the program.
a) Code
b) Data
c) Stack
d) System
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stack segment contains data values passed to functions and procedures within the program.
The code segment defines an area in memory that stores the instruction codes.
8. To speed up the processor operations, the processor includes some internal memory storage locations, called
___________
a) Drives
b) Memory
c) Units
d) Registers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The processor has some internal memory storage locations, known as registers. The registers
stores data elements for processing without having to access memory.
9. To locate the exact location of data in memory, we need the starting address of the segment, which is found in
the DS register and an offset value. This offset value is also called?
a) Effective Address
b) Direct offset address
c) Memory address
d) General Address
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When operands are specified in memory addressing mode, direct access to main memory, usually
to the data segment, is required. This way of addressing results in slower processing of data. To get the exact
location of data in memory, we need segment start address, which is found in the DS register and an offset
value. This offset value is called an effective address.
10. Each byte of character is stored as its ASCII value in _______
a) Hexadecimal
b) Binary
c) Octal
d) Decimal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Assembly language deals with hexadecimal values only. Each decimal value is automatically
converted to its 16-bit binary equivalent and stored as a hexadecimal number.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – High Level

Languages
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “High Level
Languages”.

1. Prolog comes under ___________

a) Logic Programming
b) Procedural Programming
c) OOP
d) Functional
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Prolog stands for Programming in Logic. The options mentioned are the four categories of
programming. Prolog is a type of logic programming.
2. Java is procedural programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Java is a type of object oriented programming language. It involves solving
real-life problems as well.
3. A program that can execute high-level language programs.
a) Compiler
b) Interpreter
c) Sensor
d) Circuitry
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Interpreter is a program that can execute high-level language programs “directly,” without first being
translated into machine language.
4. Executables might be called ________
a) native code
b) executable code
c) complex code
d) machine code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The executables are sometimes called native code. HLL are translated to Machine language called
the native code.
5. Source program is compiled to an intermediate form called ___________
a) Byte Code
b) Smart code
c) Executable code
d) Machine code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Source program is compiled to an intermediate form called byte code. For each supported
platform, write a “virtual machine” emulator that reads byte code and emulates its execution.
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6. _______________ is the assembly language for an imaginary architecture.

a) Byte code
b) Machine code
c) Native code
d) Executable code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Source program is compiled to an intermediate form – byte code. Byte code is the assembly
language for an imaginary architecture.
7. JIT stands for?
a) Just in time
b) Jump in time
c) Jump in text
d) Jump in terms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: JIT stands for Just in time. JVMs actually compile each bytecode instruction to native code the first
time it is used.
8. JVM stands for?
a) Java virtual machine
b) Java visual machine
c) JRE virtual machine
d) JRE visual machine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: JVM stands for Java Virtual Machine. Other related terms are JRE which is java runtime
environment and JDK which is java development kit.
9. A language supported by MS. Net platform.
a) C
b) C++
c) java
d) C#
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: C# is supported by MS. Net platform. JAVA was originally designed for web purposes.
10. Which of the following isn’t a characteristic of High level languages?
a) machine code
b) platform independent
c) interactive execution
d) user-friendly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HLL isn’t in machine language. It is converted to machine language for further processing.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – FORTRAN Basics

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “FORTRAN
Basics”.

1. Which is interpreted language?

a) C++
b) C
c) MATLAB
d) Fortran
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MATLAB is an interpreted language. All the other languages are compiled languages. In the case of
Interpreted language, the translation to machine-language is performed incrementally at run-time.
2. In compiled language, the translation to machine-language is performed incrementally at run-time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The translation is performed once, then executable file is run as frequently
as needed without further translation.
3. The first widely-used high level language developed in 1957.
a) C
b) Java
c) Fortran
d) Cobol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fortran which stands for Formula Translation was the first widely-used high level language. It was
developed by IBM for scientific applications. The program was entered as punch cards.
4. A text file that contains our program is called as __________
a) Exe file
b) Doc file
c) Obj file
d) Source file
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A file that contains the code or the main program is called as the source file. Source code must be
processed by a compiler to create an executable file.
5. First statement in a fortran code is _________
a) include statement
b) import statement
c) program statement
d) @data statement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is the program statement. program statement is followed by the program name.
Syntax : program xyz
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6. A Fortran is not ___________

a) System supported
b) Source supported
c) Case Sensitive
d) Programmer supported
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fortran is not a case sensitive language. For e.g. PROGRAM xyz also works. Also, multiple
consecutive blank spaces are ignored.
7. The delimiter in a FORTRAN code.
a) Semicolon
b) Blank space
c) Colon
d) Comma
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Delimiter separates the tokens we use in our code. In a FORTRAN code, single blank space serves
as a delimiter. Though, multiple blank spaces are ignored.
8. A program that reads the source code and converts it to a form usable by the computer.
a) Interpreter
b) Compiler
c) Linker
d) Assembler
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A compiler does this task. Internally, 3 steps are performed: preprocessing, checking and compiling.
Further, assembler and linker do the work.
9. A valid variable declaration in FORTRAN is __________
a) real :: Celsius
b) real Celsius;
c) Celsius real;
d) real : Celsius
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A variable declaration has the following syntax:
Data type :: variable name
10. In FORTRAN, the declarations of variables can be modified using the _____ parameter.
a) kind
b) make
c) select
d) change
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kind can be used for this purpose. It can often be used for the precision of reals. If you want to
change the precision, it can easily be done using one line of code.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – COBOL Basics

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “COBOL Basics”.

1. COBOL stands for _________

a) Common Business Oriented Language
b) Common Business Object Language
c) Common Beneficial Oriented Language
d) Common Beneficial Object Language
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: COBOL stands for Common Business Oriented Language. It is designed for business purpose. It is
fast and relatively simple to learn.
2. COBOL is a language that keeps evolving.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. COBOL has billions of lines of existing code with more added each year. It
thus keeps updating itself.
3. Which of the following is not a part of the program division in COBOL?
a) Identification
b) Environment
c) Procedure
d) Compilation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: COBOL has 4 basic parts in the division section: Identification, Environment, data and procedure.
Each program is organized like a book.
4. Which of the following is not a part of the Identification division?
a) Paragraphs
b) Entries
c) Phrases
d) Clauses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The order of identification division is:
Paragraphs
Entries
Clauses.
5. D in COBOL stands for _________
a) Data
b) Draft
c) Debugger
d) Debugging lines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It stands for debugging lines. Compiler fills in with the sequence numbers. There are certain coding
rules that must be followed in COBOL.
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6. Comment in COBOL is denoted by ________

a) *
b) /
c) //
d) ;
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Comment is denoted by asterisk. (*) It denotes the comment line. Hyphen – denotes continuation.
7. The data division is used to ________
a) Declare program id
b) Declare variables
c) File control
d) Input-Output section
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The data division is used to declare and create variables and constant fields. There are 3 basic data
types in COBOL.
8. Which is not a data type in COBOL?
a) numeric
b) alphanumeric
c) alphabetic
d) float
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There is no data type called as float in COBOL. It has only 3 basic data types: numeric, alphabetic
and alphanumeric. Variables are created in the data division.
9. What does S denote in a picture clause?
a) A symbol
b) A character
c) A sign
d) Alphanumeric sign
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It denotes a sign in a picture clause. Picture clause values usually use 9, X, V, S, A.
10. _____________ denotes the format in which data is stored in memory.
a) kind
b) attach
c) select
d) usage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Usage denotes the format in which data is stored in the memory. Normally the phrase usage is
omitted in COBOL.

12. System Implementation and Operation

The section contains MCQs on testing, debugging, documentation, program errors, system evaluation and
maintenance.

• Testing
• System Evaluation & Maintenance
• Debugging
• Program Errors
• Documentation

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Testing

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Testing”.

1. Another name for white-box testing is ___________

a) Control testing
b) Graybox
c) Glassbox
d) Black box
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sometimes it is called the glass box testing. It is a type of testing in which the internal structure of
any application is tested and examined.
2. Test cases ensure that all the statements are executed atleast once.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Test cases are written to check if all the statements are executed at least
once. It also checks the logicality of the code.
3. Which of the following divides the input domain into classes containing data?
a) Equivalent partitioning
b) Environment partitioning
c) Procedure division
d) Compilation division
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Equivalent partitioning divides the input domain into classes containing data. They basically
exercise on a specific functionality of a software.
4. Which of the following is a common testing conducted by the developers?
a) Unit testing
b) Entry testing
c) Phrase testing
d) Code testing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unit testing is commonly performed by the developers. It is difficult to perform testing at any time
during its cycle. An early start decreases the time and cost.
5. SDLC stands for ________
a) Software development life cycle
b) System development life cycle
c) Software design life cycle
d) System design life cycle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for Software development life cycle. In SDLC, the testing can be started from the software
gathering requirement phase. And can be carried over till the deployment phase.
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6. Which of the following is a myth in testing?

a) Tester can find bugs
b) Any user can test software
c) Missed defects are not due to testers
d) Complete testing is not possible
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Any user can test software is a myth. Anyone cannot test the software. A person who has no
knowledge cannot test the software.
7. A process to determine how the actual testing is done _______
a) Audit
b) Inspection
c) Control
d) Monitoring
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Audit is the systematic process which can determine how the actual process of testing is done.
Audit is generally done with a team.
8. Gathering formal or informal technical feedback is called _________
a) Audit
b) Testing
c) Inspection
d) Unit testing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The term used is inspection. Inspection helps in getting a formal or an informal feedback of a
particular product. The errors can be easily examined.
9. Which is not involved in debugging?
a) Identifying
b) Isolating
c) Test
d) Fixing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a different process and is different from debugging. Debugging involves identifying,
isolating and fixation of the problems or errors.
10. A standard for unit testing.
a) IEEE 1008
b) IEEE 1005
c) IEEE 1009
d) IEEE 1000
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IEEE 1008 is a standard defined for unit testing. Rest all the other standards mentioned are invalid.
There are certain standards defined for Quality assurance.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Debugging

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Debugging”.

1. Examination of the program step by step is called ______________

a) Controlling
b) Tracing
c) Stepping
d) Testing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Debuggers perform the task of step by step examination of the code which is called stepping. They
also perform tracing.
2. The examination of changing values of variables is called stepping.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. It is called tracing. In tracing, the variables are examined wherever it value is
changing.
3. A freeware GNU Debugger is __________
a) GDB
b) GNB
c) FDB
d) FNB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GDB is a free GNU debugger which runs on most of the Unix-like platforms. It works for multiple
programming languages. GNU is free software.
4. Which of the following is written for getting help in GDB?
a) he
b) h
c) assist
d) assistant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In this h stands for help. h or help both commands can be used. Help lists all the commands.
5. h command gives ___________
a) A list of all the commands starting from h
b) Describes all the commands
c) Displays a short description of the command
d) Displays all the programs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: h command displays a short description of the command. If simply help is written it gives a list of all
the commands.
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6. ____________ creates an inferior process that runs your program.

a) run
b) exit
c) execute
d) e
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: run or r command creates an inferior process that runs your program. If there are no errors the
program will finish and results will be displayed accordingly.
7. Which of the following does not affects the execution of the program?
a) Arguments
b) Environment
c) Control
d) I/o
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Execution is affected by :
-> arguments
-> environment
-> Working directory
-> standard I/O.
8. ‘set args ‘ without arguments can ___________
a) initialize all the arguments
b) remove all the arguments
c) no change
d) show all the arguments
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: set args command can remove all the arguments.
Syntax: set args arg1 arg2 …
If the arguments are not given it deletes all the arguments.
9. Which is not involved in debugging?
a) Identifying
b) Isolating
c) Test
d) Fixing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a different process and is different from debugging. Debugging involves identifying,
isolating and fixation of the problems or errors.
10. run > outfile command is used to _________
a) direct output to the file outfile
b) jump to a file outfile
c) enter a file outfile
d) edit a file outfile
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: run > outfile directs the output to the file outfile. Certain commands like ‘ cd dir ‘ are used to change
the working directory.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Documentation

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Documentation”.

1. STD stands for ____________

a) Software Test Documents
b) System Test Documents
c) Software Traced Documents
d) System Traced Documents
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: STD which stands for Software test documents is a part of Software Process Documentation.
Several other terms used in documentation are SDP, SRS, etc.
2. The SRS describes what the system should do with words and figures.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. SRS stands for Software Requirements Specifications. It describes what the
system should do in theoretical terms.
3. _______ is part of user documentation.
a) Class diagram
b) Use case
c) Code comment
d) Installation guide
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Installation guide is a part of user documentation. It also comprises of user manual, installation
guide, Wiki and the online documentation and help.
4. The process of maintaining a record of project development and maintenance.
a) Process documentation
b) Product documentation
c) User documentation
d) System documentation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is called as process documentation only. It contains the plans, schedules, etc. It also contains the
gantt chart.
5. This describes the objectives of a product and set out the constraints.
a) SDP
b) SRS
c) SDD
d) STD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Software development plan describes the objectives of the project and sets the constraints. It
comprises risk analysis, work breakdown, monitoring and reporting mechanisms, etc.
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6. ____________ provide the detailed, specific application being developed.

a) System models
b) Appendices
c) Index
d) Glossary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Appendices provide the detailed, specific application being developed. It includes hardware and
database descriptions. Hardware requirements include minimal and optimal configurations of a system.
7. Which of the following should describe the technical terms used in the document?
a) glossary
b) index
c) user requirements
d) system architecture
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Glossary should describe the technical terms used in the document. In this, the writer shouldn’t
make assumptions about the experience and expertise of the reader.
8. The services provided for the user are described in which section?
a) System requirements
b) User requirements
c) System models
d) Appendices
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The services provided by the software for the user are described in this section. The non-functional
requirements should also be described in this section.
9. ______________ architecture provides a high-level overview of the anticipated system architecture.
a) System
b) User
c) Test
d) Software
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: System architecture shows the description and distribution functions across system modules.
Architectural components that are reused should be highlighted.
10. The graphical models showing the relationships between the system and its environment.
a) System models
b) Software models
c) Class models
d) User models
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: System models describe the relationships between various entities. It comprises of various models
like data flow, use case, semantic data models etc.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – System Evaluation

& Maintenance
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This set of Computer Fundamentals online quiz focuses on “System Evaluation & Maintenance”.

1. Maintenance and review add to the useful life of the system but can consume large amounts of __________
a) Documents
b) Soft wares
c) Devices
d) Resources
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: They consume a large amount of resources. They can benefit from the methods and project
management techniques though which are applied to the systems development.
2. File and database contains the frequency component.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Frequency is a part of output design. File design contains capabilities and
organization.
3. This is not a part of the signing on the procedure.
a) Identification
b) Verification
c) Execution
d) Authorization
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Signing on is a part of special system design considerations. It does not involve a step of execution.
It involves identification, verification and authorization.
4. A __________ is a noted set of activities that are executed on the software in order to confirm its behavior to
certain set of inputs.
a) Process
b) Document
c) Use case
d) Test case
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A test case is basically a documented set of activities that are carried out on the software in order to
confirm its functionality to certain given inputs. Each test case would in turn have steps to address how we can
check a particular test condition is satisfied or not.
5. A type of testing that is conducted at the software interface.
a) gray box
b) black box
c) red box
d) white box
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Black box testing is conducted at the software interface. White box testing is predicted on close
examination of procedural details.
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6. A simple notation for the representation of control flow.

a) System flow
b) Flow graph
c) Flow program
d) System program
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flow graph depicts logical control flow. Each circle in a flow graph is called a flow graph node,
represents one or more procedural statements.
7. A software metric that provides a quantitative measure of the logical complexity of a program.
a) Cyclomatic complexity
b) Index matrix
c) Quantitative complexity
d) System complexity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The number of regions of the flow graph corresponds to the cyclomatic complexity. All other options
are invalid.
8. An expression for the calculation of cyclomatic complexity.
a) V(G) = E – N + 2
b) V(G) = E + N + 2
c) V(G) = E – N – 2
d) V(G) = E + N – 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The option V(G) = E – N + 2 denotes the correct expression. Here, E is the number of flow graph
edges. N is the number of flow graph nodes.
9. The probability of failure-free operation of a software application in a specified environment for a specified
time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It is estimated using historical and development data.
10. SCM stands for __________
a) Software configuration monitoring
b) System configuration management
c) Software configuration management
d) System configuration monitoring
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Software configuration management (SCM), also called change management, is a set of activities
designed to manage change by identifying the work products that are likely to change.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Program Errors

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Program Errors”.

1. ______________ is done in the development phase by the developers.

a) Deployment
b) Debugging
c) Verification
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is done in the development phase by the developer. In development phase developer
fixes the bug (i.e) called debugging.
2. Testing is conducted by the developers in testing phase.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Testing is conducted by the testers in testing phase. Testing is a process of
finding the defects from a user perspective(Black Box Testing).
3. Process of evaluating a system to verify whether or not it is meeting its objectives.
a) System Maintenance
b) System Evaluation
c) System validation
d) System authorization
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Process of evaluating a system (after it is put in operation) to verify whether or not it is meeting its
objectives is called as system evaluation.
4. A point not considered in system evaluation.
a) Process control
b) Performance evaluation
c) User Satisfaction
d) Failure Rate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Points considered for evaluating a system are:
-> Performance evaluation
-> Cost analysis
-> Time analysis
-> User satisfaction
-> Ease of modification
-> Failure rate.
5. A type of testing that is conducted at the software interface.
a) gray box
b) black box
c) red box
d) white box
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Black box testing is conducted at the software interface. White box testing is predicated on close
examination of procedural details.
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6. Incorporating changes in an existing system to enhance, update, or upgrade its features.

a) Maintenance
b) Evaluation
c) Deployment
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Process of incorporating changes in an existing system to enhance, update, or upgrade its
features is called system maintenance. On an average, maintenance cost of a computerized system is two to
four times more than the initial development cost.
7. _____________ Conducted at developer’s site.
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Unit testing
d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing is conducted at the developer’s site. It is conducted by a customer (end users) in
developer’s presence before software delivery.
8. ___________ Conducted at customers’ site.
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Unit testing
d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Beta testing is conducted at the customer’s site. Generally, developer is not present. Customer
records all problems (defects) and reports it to developer.
9. The probability of failure-free operation of a software application in a specified environment for a specified
time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It is estimated using historical and development data.
10. The probability that a software application is operating according to requirements at a given point in time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software availability marks the proper functioning of the software at a given point of time. Reliability,
availability and safety are three important factors.

13. Operating Systems

The section contains multiple choice questions and answers on multiprogramming, multithreading, memory
management, virtual memory and file management.

• Multiprogramming
• Virtual Memory
• Multithreading
• File Management
• Memory Management

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Multiprogramming

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Multiprogramming”.

1. A __________is a set of instructions which is prepared to perform a specific assignment if executed by a

computer.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Program
d) Code
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A set of meaningful instructions is called a program. A program is basically designed to perform any
function assigned to it.
2. A program is an active entity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. A program is not an active entity. It is completely passive.
3. What is responsible for creating a process from a program?
a) OS
b) Web
c) Internet
d) Firewall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: OS is responsible for creating a process from a program. OS stands for operating system. A
process is created in order to be executed by using computer facilities.
4. This cycle, of going through __________ states of running and input/output, may be repeated over and over
until the job is completed.
a) evaluation
b) process
c) program
d) data
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is process states. The cycle of going through process states can be repeated over and
over again until the job is completed or the process gets aborted.
5. The wait fraction is represented by __________
a) w
b) #
c) Q
d) &
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wait fraction of a processor is represented by w. It is also known as the processor wait ratio.
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6. Processor wait ratio is given by ________

a) w=b/e+b
b) w=b/e-b
c) #=b/e-b
d) #=b/e+b
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Processor wait ratio is represented by w. It is given by :
w=b/b+e.
7. What does ‘b’ represent in a processor wait ratio?
a) input ratio
b) output ratio
c) average time
d) average I/O time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It represents the average I/O time. Average execution time with single programming is given by e.
8. A technique that allows more than one program to be ready for execution and provides the ability to switch
from one process to another.
a) multitasking
b) multiprocessing
c) multitasking
d) multiprogramming
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiprogramming is the concept implemented for execution and provides the ability to switch from
one task to the other.
9. Multiprogramming is mainly accomplished by:
a) os
b) software
c) hardware
d) program
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The OS is mainly responsible for multiprogramming. The hardware provides the specific circuitry
that may be used by the operating system.
10. The technique that increases the system’s productivity.
a) multiprogramming
b) multitasking
c) multiprocessing
d) single-programming
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiprogramming increases the productivity. By increasing the CPU utilization other devices’s
utilization is also increased.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Multithreading

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Multithreading”.
1. Multithreading is also called as ____________
a) Concurrency
b) Simultaneity
c) Crosscurrent
d) Recurrent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Concurrency is often used in place of multithreading. Multitasking allows multiple threads to run at a
time.
2. Multiprocessing allows single processor to run several concurrent threads.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is false. Multitasking allows single processor to run several concurrent threads.
3. A single sequential flow of control within a program is ________
a) Process
b) Task
c) Thread
d) Structure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A thread is a sequential flow of control within a program. Single-threaded program can handle one
task at any time.
4. Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol. Servers receive requests from
clients.
5. Java extension used in threads?
a) java.lang.Thread
b) java.language.Thread
c) java.lang.Threads
d) java.Thread
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: java.lang.Thread is the class that is extended if any user wants to extend threads.
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6. A method that must be overridden while extending threads.

a) run()
b) start()
c) stop()
d) paint()
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: run()method must be overridden (It is similar to main method of sequential program).
7. An interface that is implemented while using threads.
a) java.lang.Run
b) java.lang.Runnable
c) java.lang.Thread
d) java.lang.Threads
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: java.lang.Runnable is correct. Any thread class implements runnable.
8. A thread becomes non runnable when?
a) Its stop method is invoked
b) Its sleep method is invoked
c) Its finish method is invoked
d) Its init method is invoked
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A thread becomes Not Runnable when one of these events occurs:
• Its sleep method is invoked.
• The thread calls the wait method to wait for a specific condition to be satisfied.
• The thread is blocking on I/O.
9. A method used to temporarily release time for other threads.
a) yield()
b) set()
c) release()
d) start()
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We can use the yield() method to temporarily release time for other threads. It is static by default.
10. A method used to force one thread to wait for another thread to finish.
a) join()
b) connect()
c) combine()
d) concat()
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is join(). We can use the join() method to force one thread to wait for another thread to
finish.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Memory

Management
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Question Bank focuses on “Memory Management”.

1. A task carried out by the OS and hardware to accommodate multiple processes in main memory.
a) Memory control
b) Memory management
c) Memory sharing
d) Memory usage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Memory management is carried out by the OS and hardware to accommodate multiple processes in
main memory.
2. An HTML file is a text file containing small markup tags.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language. It is a text file containing
small markup tags.
3. Secondary memory is the long term store for programs and data while main memory holds program and data
currently in use. What kind of an organization is this?
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The secondary memory is the long term store for programs and data while main memory holds
program and data currently in use. This is a physical organization.
4. Memory organization in which users write programs in modules with different characteristics.
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Logical. To handle user programs properly, the operating system and the hardware
should support a basic form of module to provide protection and sharing.
5. An executing process must be loaded entirely in main memory. What kind of a memory organization is this?
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This is simple memory organisation. An executing process must be loaded entirely in main memory
(if overlays are not used).
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6. FTP stands for?

a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It is a type of internet service use for the transmission of files.
7. A set of overlapping divisions in the main memory are called _______
a) Partitions
b) Divisions
c) Blocks
d) Modules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Partition main memory into a set of non overlapping regions called partitions. Partitions can be of
equal or unequal sizes.
8. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This is called ____________
a) fragmentation
b) prior fragmentation
c) internal fragmentation
d) external fragmentation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is called as internal fragmentation. Main memory use is inefficient. Any program, no matter how
small, occupies an entire partition. This is called internal fragmentation.
9. __________ is used to shift processes so they are contiguous and all free memory is in one block.
a) Fragmentation
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Use compaction to shift processes so they are contiguous and all free memory is in one block.
10. _______ searches for smallest block. The fragment left behind is small as possible.
a) best fit
b) first fit
c) next fit
d) last fit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Best fit searches for the smallest block. The fragment left behind is as small as possible.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Virtual Memory

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Virtual Memory”.
1. Separation of user logical memory and physical memory is ___________
a) Memory control
b) Memory management
c) Memory sharing
d) Virtual memory
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The separation of user logical memory and physical memory is called virtual memory. Only part of
the program needs to be in memory for execution.
2. Logical Address space can be larger than physical address space.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Since, a part of the program needs to be in memory for the process of
execution, the logical space can therefore be much larger than the physical address space.
3. Virtual Memory can be implemented via __________
a) Demand Paging
b) Logical paging
c) Structural way
d) Simple division
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Demand paging can implement virtual memory. Another way is demand segmentation.
4. COW stands for?
a) Copy over write
b) Convert over write
c) Count over write
d) Copy over write
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: COW stands for Copy over write. COW allows both parent and child processes to share the same
pages initially.
5. LRU stands for?
a) Least Recently used
b) Less Recently used
c) Least Recurrently used
d) Least Randomly used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently used. LRU is least recently used. It replaces page with the smallest
count.
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6. An allocation that uses a proportional allocation scheme using priorities rather than size.
a) Priority allocation
b) File allocation
c) Preference allocation
d) Simple allocation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Priority allocation uses a proportional allocation scheme using priorities rather than size.
7. A process selects a replacement frame from the set of all frames.
a) Local replacement
b) Global replacement
c) Block replacement
d) Module replacement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Global replacement process selects a replacement frame from the set of all frames; one process
can take a frame from another.
8. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This is called _____________
a) fragmentation
b) prior fragmentation
c) internal fragmentation
d) external fragmentation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is called as internal fragmentation. Main memory use is inefficient. Any program, no matter how
small, occupies an entire partition. This is called internal fragmentation.
9. A process is busy swapping pages in and out.
a) Thrashing
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thrashing is the term used whenever a process is busy swapping pages in and put.
10. ____________ is one or more physically contiguous pages.
a) Slab
b) Cache
c) Object
d) Allocator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Slab is one or more physically contiguous pages. Cache consists of one or more slabs.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – File Management

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “File
Management”.

1. A basic element of data in a file.

a) Memory
b) Record
c) Field
d) Value
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fields are the basic elements of data in a file. e.g. student’s last name. It contains a single value.
2. Records are treated as a unit.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Records are a collection of related fields. They are treated as a unit.
3. __________________ refers to the logical structuring of records.
a) Physical organisation
b) Logical organisation
c) Structural organisation
d) File organisation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: File organisation refers to the logical structuring of records. It is determined bi the way in which files
are accessed.
4. Which of the following is not an appropriate criterion for file organisation?
a) Larger access time
b) ease of update
c) simple maintenance
d) economy of storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is Larger access time. The access time should be short. It is an important criteria for file
organisation.
5. ___________ itself is a file owned by the operating system
a) Logical file
b) Record
c) Database
d) Directory
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Directory is the file owned by the operating system. File directory contains various important
information.
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6. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?

a) Attributes
b) Protocol
c) Location
d) Ownership
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: File directory contains important information like: Attributes, Location and Ownership.
7. Allocated size of a file comes under?
a) basic information
b) address information
c) access control information
d) usage information
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Allocated size comes under the address information of a file. Address information consists of
volume, starting address, size used and size allocated.
8. Which of the following is not a part of the usage information?
a) data created
b) identity of creator
c) owner
d) last date modified
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Owner is a part of the access control information. Other options are a part of usage information of a
file.
9. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file management system
must enforce discipline. This is _________
a) Simultaneous access
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file
management system must enforce discipline. It is referred as simultaneous access.
10. The user can load and execute a program but cannot copy it. This process is?
a) Execution
b) Appending
c) Reading
d) Updating
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Execution is a process that user can load and execute a program but cannot copy it. Other
processes are updation, changing protection, etc.

14. Application Software Packages & Business Data Processing

The section contains questions and answers on word processing package, spreadsheet package, graphics and
personal assistance package, file management systems, dbms and its components.

• Word Processing Package

• File Management Systems
• Spreadsheet Package
• DBMS
• Graphics Package
• Components of DBMS
• Personal Assistance Package

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Word Processing

Package
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “Word
Processing Package”.

1. Category of software that comprises word processing, graphics, databases etc.

a) System
b) Application
c) General purpose
d) OS
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Application software comprises of all these things like graphics, database, word processing
softwares, etc. There are mainly two categories of softwares- System and application.
2. There are two basic structures in text documents.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. There are two structures in text documents- logical and physical.
3. MS-Word comes under __________
a) Document production
b) Graphics
c) Databases
d) Numerical Analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ms- Word is an application based software. It comes under document production. Ms-Word,
frontPage, Frame maker come under this category.
4. A ______________is an application that allows the user to compose and edit simple documents.
a) Word processor
b) Spreadsheet
c) Email utility
d) Browsers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A word processor software is an application that allows the user to compose and edit all simple
documents.
E.g. MS-Word.
5. In text documents, a structure which stays the same no matter how the document is represented.
a) Logical
b) Smart
c) Nano
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two basic structures- logical and physical. A logical structure stays the same no matter
how the document is represented.
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6. When the document gets put out : the best fit is calculated from ___________ structure.
a) Logical
b) Smart
c) Nano
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A logical structure stays the same no matter how the document is represented. The best fit is thus
calculated from the logical structure.
7. This can change the physical structure of the document.
a) Font
b) Formatting
c) Approach
d) Debug
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Formatting can change the physical structure. It includes indentation, text color, style, etc. of the
document.
8. An example of e-mail utility.
a) Word
b) Outlook
c) Explorer
d) Excel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Outlook is an example of email utility. Word is a word processor, Excel is a spreadsheet software.
9. A structure that is system- dependent.
a) Logical
b) Smart
c) Nano
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct option is physical. The physical structure of a document is system-dependent; i.e., fonts
and tab spacing vary among systems.
10. The _____________ in a document and the order in which it is presented is referred to as the document’s
logical structure.
a) data
b) information
c) features
d) functions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The information in a document and the order in which it is presented is referred to as the
document’s logical structure. Information and the order are two most important things in a document.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Spreadsheet

Package
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Spreadsheet
Package”.

1. In a spreadsheet, letters are used to represent _____________

a) Cells
b) Rows
c) Columns
d) Blocks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In any spreadsheet, the letters are used to represent columns. The numbers are used to represent
rows.
2. Cells are identified by a combination of letters and numbers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. A combination of the row number and column letter gives us the cell address.
3. A numeric data analysis tool that allows us to create a computerized ledger.
a) Word processing package
b) Spreadsheet package
c) Graphics package
d) Mathematical Package
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A spreadsheet package is the numeric data analysis tool. It is useful for any numerical analysis
problem whose data can be organized as rows and columns.
4. Which of the following isn’t a part of a spreadsheet?
a) row number
b) column number
c) column letter
d) cell address
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is column number. There are no column numbers in a spreadsheet. Columns are
represented using letters.
5. Spreadsheets cannot:
a) do calculations
b) create graphics
c) plot graphs
d) plot charts
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spreadsheets are not meant to create graphics. They can do all sorts of calculations, plot charts
and graphs, etc.
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6. ______________ help us to see patterns.

a) Spreadsheets
b) Calculations
c) Charts
d) Graphs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Charts in spreadsheets give us a picture of our data. It can help us to see patterns as well.
7. An easier way to set up complicated calculations.
a) Decimals
b) Fractions
c) Booleans
d) Functions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Functions make it easier to set up complicated calculations. Various formulae can also be used.
8. The cell that is in use.
a) Highlighted cell
b) Main cell
c) Active cell
d) Formula cell
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is called the active cell. The address of the active cell is shown in the formula bar.
9. The placement of information within a cell at the left edge, right edge, or centered is :
a) Indentation
b) Placement
c) Identification
d) Alignment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct option is Alignment. The left, right and center positioning is defined by the alignment.
10. A change in the appearance of a value or label in a cell.
a) Alteration
b) Format
c) Indentation
d) Design
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Formatting is the term used whenever there are changes in the appearance of a value or label.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Graphics Package

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Graphics
Package”.

1. CAD stands for?

a) Computer Aided Design
b) Calculation Aided Design
c) Computer Aided Draft
d) Calculation Aided Draft
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CAD stands for Computer Aided Design. It is used in design of buildings, automobiles, aircrafts, etc.
2. In CAD, objects are displayed in block format.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. In CAD, Objects are displayed in wire frame outline form.
3. Used to produce illustrations for reports or for generation of slides.
a) Animation Graphics
b) Spreadsheet graphics
c) Graphics package
d) Presentation graphics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The presentation graphics are used to produce illustrations for reports or generation of slides for use
with projectors Commonly used to summarize financial, statistical, mathematical, scientific, economic data for
research reports, managerial reports & customer information bulletins.
4. A graphics method in which one object is transformed into another.
a) animation
b) morphing
c) designing
d) graphics art
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Morphing is a graphics method in which one object is transformed into another.
5. Producing graphical representations for scientific, engineering, and medical data sets.
a) Scientific Analysation
b) Scientific Visualization
c) Plot analysation
d) Plot visualization
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Scientific visualization is the term used for doing the same. It is used in various science related
fields.
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6. ________________applies techniques to modify or interpret existing pictures such as photographs and TV

scans.
a) Scientific Analysation
b) Scientific Visualization
c) Image processing
d) Business visualization
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Image processing is used in medical applications for picture enhancements, tomography, etc. It is
also used to improve picture quality.
7. A simple technique of X-ray photography.
It allows cross-sectional views of physiological systems to be displayed.
a) Photography
b) Image processing
c) Visualization
d) Tomography
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tomography can be Computed X-Ray or position emission tomography. It allows cross-sectional
views of physiological systems to be displayed.
8. The major component of GUI.
a) Icons
b) Links
c) Window Manager
d) Cells
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: GUI stands for Graphical User Interface. The major component is the window manager. To make a
particular window active, click in that window (using an interactive pointing device).
9. GKS stands for?
a) General Kernel System
b) Graphics Kernel System
c) Graphics Kernel Software
d) General Kernel Software
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: GKS-Graphics Kernel System is the first graphics package. It was accepted by ISO & ANSI.
10. A set of libraries that provide programmatically access to some kind of graphics 2D functions.
a) Graphics Package
b) Formatting Package
c) Animation Package
d) Design Package
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A set of libraries that provide programmatically access to some kind of graphics 2D functions comes
under the graphics package. Their types are GKS, PHIGS, etc.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Personal

Assistance Package
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Personal
Assistance Package”.

1. A package that allows individuals to use personal computers for storing and retrieving their personal
information.
a) Animation package
b) Spreadsheet package
c) Graphics package
d) Personal assistance package
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a personal assistance package that allows for the same. It helps in planning and managing their
schedules, contacts, finances and inventory of important terms.
2. PDAs have permanent rechargeable batteries.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. PDAs have permanent rechargeable batteries. They are standard alkaline
batteries.
3. PDA stands for?
a) Personal digital assistants
b) Personal digital additionals
c) Personal digital advantage
d) Public digital assistants
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PDA stands for Personal digital assistants. They are generally hand held computers. They store,
access and organize information.
4. You can expand the memory of some PDAs with ________ that can be inserted into the PDA.
a) hard disks
b) storage cards
c) pendrives
d) floppy disks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is storage cards. You can expand memory of some PDAs with small storage cards that
can be inserted into the PDA.
5. The devices that work the best with contact management.
a) Palm OS
b) Pocket PC
c) Plot PC
d) Drives
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The palm pocket PC works best with contact management. The Palm Os is smaller, cheaper and
have vastly better battery life.
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6. MCTI stands for Mobile community ________ inventory.
a) task
b) trade
c) tree
d) tele
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MCTI stands for Mobile community tree inventory. It is a freeware tree inventory software. It uses
palm OS and windows platforms.
7. Forms that do not require any programming.
a) vector form
b) hanDbase forms
c) pendragon forms
d) html forms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is hanDbase forms. The handBase forms do not require any programming. Pendragon
forms can be used for a variety of applications like inventory for golf course.
8. The forms that can be used for a variety of inventory applications.
a) vector form
b) hanDbase forms
c) pendragon forms
d) html forms
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The pendragon forms can be used for the same. It can be used for a variety of applications like
inventory for golf course, street, park, etc.
9. Graphic object composed of patterns of lines, points, circles etc.
a) CAD
b) Vector
c) Animation
d) Raster
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A vector is a graphic object that can utilize various geometric shapes that can be represented using
a few geometric parameters.
10. Graphics composed of patterns of dots called pixels.
a) CAD
b) Vector
c) Animation
d) Raster
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is Raster. Patterns of dots are called pixels. The raster graphics are generally designed
in such a way.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – File Management

Systems
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “File Management
Systems”.

1. MFD stands for?

a) Main File Directory
b) Memory File Directory
c) Master File Directory
d) Master Format Directory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MFD is Master File Directory. MFD lists names and characteristics of every file in volume. It also
lists any subdirectories.
2. The users are allowed to read information in directories.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Directories maintain the hierarchical structure of the file system.
3. ___________ is created when a user opens an account in the computer system.
a) RFD
b) Subdirectory
c) MFD
d) SFD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A subdirectory is created when a user opens an account in the computer system. It is treated as a
file, though flagged in MFD as subdirectory.
4. A filename without path information.
a) File name
b) Complete filename
c) Directory name
d) Relative filename
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is Relative filename. A relative filename is a name without path information. It appears
in the directory listings, folders.
5. Two or three characters appended to relative filename separated by a period.
a) status
b) identifier
c) extension
d) descriptor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Extensions are added to filenames. The extensions help in identifying the file type.
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6. Files that maintain the hierarchical structure of the file system.

a) Descriptors
b) Directories
c) Modifiers
d) Relative files
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Directories are the files that maintain the hierarchical structure of the file system. The users are
allowed to read information in directories.
7. Files in which users store information?
a) Info files
b) Ordinary files
c) Special files
d) Complex files
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Ordinary files. Users store information in ordinary files. Their protections is based on
user requests and are related to various file functions.
8. The files that appear as entries in the directories.
a) Ordinary files
b) Special files
c) Duplicate files
d) Sub directories
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The special files appear as entries in the directories. They are the device drivers providing i/O
hardware interface.
9. Number of regions of the disk in a UNIX files management system.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 4 regions in which the disk is divided. The first is for booting, second contains the disk
size, third includes the list of definitions and the remaining region contains the free blocks available.
10. Several instructions execution simultaneously in _________
a) processing
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing
d) multitasking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is parallel processing. In parallel processing, the several instructions are executed
simultaneously.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – DBMS
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “DBMS”.

1. A collection of related data.

a) Information
b) Valuable information
c) Database
d) Metadata
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Database is the collection of related data and its metadata organized in a structured format. It is
designed for optimized information management.
2. DBMS is software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands for Database Management System. It enables easy creation
and access of the database.
3. DBMS manages the interaction between __________ and database.
a) Users
b) Clients
c) End Users
d) Stake Holders
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DBMS manages the interaction between the end users and the database. End users are the final
users that interact with the database.
4. Which of the following is not involved in DBMS?
a) End Users
b) Data
c) Application Request
d) HTML
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTML isn’t involved in Database Management System. Other things like the data and application
request are a part of the DBMS.
5. Database is generally __________
a) System-centered
b) User-centered
c) Company-centered
d) Data-centered
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Database is user-centered. The perspective is that the user is always right. If there is a problem with
the use of the system, the system is the problem, not the user.
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6. A characteristic of an entity.
a) Relation
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Constraint
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An attribute is a characteristic of an entity. The association among the entities is described by the
relationship.
7. The restrictions placed on the data.
a) Relation
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Constraint
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Constraint is a restriction that is placed on the data. Attribute is the characteristic and the relation
describes the association.
8. IMS stands for?
a) Information Mastering System
b) Instruction Management System
c) Instruction Manipulating System
d) Information Management System
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IMS stands for Information Management System. It is developed to manage large amounts of data
for complex projects.
9. A model developed by Hammer and Mc Leod in 1981.
a) SDM
b) OODBM
c) DDM
d) RDM
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SDM stands for Semantic Data Model. It models both data and their relationships in a single
structure.
10. Object=_________+relationships.
a) data
b) attributes
c) entity
d) constraints
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is entity. It is a part of OODBM (Object-Oriented Database Model). It maintains the
advantages of ER-model but adds more features.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Components of
DBMS
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Components of
DBMS”.

1. DBMS is a set of __________ to access the data.

a) Codes
b) Programs
c) Information
d) Metadata
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Database is a set of programs designed to access the data. It contains information about a
particular enterprise.
2. DBMS provides a convenient and efficient environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands for Database Management System. It provides an efficient and
easy to use environment.
3. Which of the following isn’t a level of abstraction?
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three levels of abstraction: physical, logical and the view level. These three levels are
involved in DBMS.
4. A level that describes how a record is stored.
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is physical. The physical level describes how the record gets stored.
e.g. Customer.
5. The ______level helps application programs hide the details of data types.
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The application programs hide details of datatypes. Views can also hide information for security
purposes.
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6. A logical structure of the database.

a) Schema
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Instance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A schema is the logical structure of the database. e.g A set of customers and accounts and their
relationship.
7. The actual content in the database at a particular point.
a) Schema
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Instance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is Instance. Instance is the actual content of the database at a particular point of time.
8. Which of the following is not an object-based logical model?
a) ER
b) Network
c) Semantic
d) Functional
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Network model is a part of record-based logical model and not object-based. Others are object
based models. ER stands for Entity-relationship.
9. SQL is _______
a) Relational
b) Network
c) IMS
d) Hierarchical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SQL or structured query language is a relational model. It comes under record-based logical
models.
10. A level that describes data stored in a database and the relationships among the data.
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is logical. The logical level describes the relationships between the data. Physical level
describes how the data is stored.
15. Data Communications and Computer Networks
The section contains MCQs on transmission modes, modulation techniques, multiplexing, network topologies and
internetworking.

• Transmission Modes
• Network Topologies
• Modulation Techniques
• Internetworking
• Multiplexing

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Transmission

Modes
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Transmission
Modes”.

1. A term that defines the direction of flow of information between devices.

a) interconnectivity
b) intra connectivity
c) transmission mode
d) transmission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The term transmission mode defines the direction of flow of information between two communication
devices. It tells the direction of signal flow.
2. Transmission mode controls the direction of signal flow.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The term transmission mode defines the direction of flow of information
between two communication devices. It tells the direction of signal flow between two devices.
3. Which of the following isn’t a type of transmission mode?
a) physical
b) simplex
c) full duplex
d) half duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are three modes of transmission: simplex, half duplex and full duplex. Transmission modes
tell the direction of signal flow between two devices.
4. A transmission that generally involves dedicated circuits.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is simplex. Simplex generally involves dedicated circuits. TV broadcasting is an
example.
5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in both the directions but transmits in only one direction at a time.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The half duplex mode supports two way traffic but only in one direction at a time. The interactive
transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to half-duplex lines.
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6. A communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ____________ duplex transmission.

a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It involves simplex duplex transmission. Another example of a simplex duplex transmission is
loudspeaker system.
7. Telephone networks operate in this mode.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Telephone networks operate in full duplex mode. It can transmit data in both the directions.
8. Fire alarms are based on this type of transmission:
a) direct
b) network
c) analog
d) multiple
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analog transmission is a technique of transmitting voice, data, image, signal or video information.
Fire alarm systems work in the same way.
9. A technique of transmitting data or images or videos (information) using a continuous signal.
a) direct
b) network
c) analog
d) multiple
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analog is a technique of transmitting data or images or videos (information) using a continuous
signal, which varies in amplitude, phase or some other property.
10. A walkie-talkie operates in ____________
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A walkie-talkie operates in half duplex mode. It can only send or receive a transmission at any given
time.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Modulation

Techniques
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Modulation
Techniques”.

1. A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of _________ of megahertz.

a) 100
b) 150
c) 1000
d) 10000
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of 100’s of Mhz. Baseband speed is in a few KHz. Multiplexing
improves channel bandwidth utilization.
2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time slots.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM technique is based on sampling and they occupy adjacent slots and
are transmitted in a sequence.
3. The carrier wave is a _________
a) tan wave
b) cosec wave
c) sine wave
d) cot wave
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The carrier wave is generally a sine wave. Carrier wave is used to transfer the signal from source to
destination.
4. Controlling the phase is referred as __________
a) modulation
b) half modulation
c) amplitude modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is referred to as phase modulation. When there is a change in amplitude, it is referred to as
amplitude modulation.
5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in both the directions but transmits in only one direction at a time.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The half duplex mode supports two way traffic but only in one direction at a time.
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6. A multiplexing technique based on sampling.

a) FDM
b) TDM
c) SDM
d) FM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM which stands for Time division multiplexing is based on sampling which is a modulation
technique.
7. An example of FDM:
a) broadcast radio
b) telephone
c) machines
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Broadcast radio is an example of FDM. This allows several messages to be translated from
baseband.
8. FDM stands for?
a) Frequency Division Multiplexing
b) Frequency Dependent Multiplexing
c) Frequency Diverged Multiplexing
d) Frequency Derived Multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency Division Multiplexing. This allows several messages to be translated
from baseband, where they are all in the same frequency.
9. A modulation technique that improves channel bandwidth utilization.
a) direct
b) modulation
c) demodulation
d) multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiplexing is a modulation technique that improves channel bandwidth utilization.
10. The purpose of communication system is to transfer information from _______ to the destination.
a) user
b) source
c) system
d) station
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is source. A communication system transfers information from source to the destination.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Multiplexing

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Multiplexing”.

1. WDM stands for?

a) Wave division multiplexing
b) Wavelength division multiplexing
c) Wavelength dependent multiplexing
d) Wave dependent multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It stands for Wavelength division multiplexing. It has same general architecture as FDM. FDM is
frequency division multiplexing.
2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time slots.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM technique is based on sampling and they occupy adjacent slots and
are transmitted in a sequence.
3. In this type of multiplexing time slots are preassigned to sources and fixed.
a) TDM
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM
d) FDM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is time division multiplexing. Data rate of medium exceeds data rate of digital signal to be
transmitted.
4. Controlling the frequency is referred as _________
a) frequency modulation
b) hertz modulation
c) amplitude modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is referred to as frequency modulation. When there is a change in frequency, it is referred to as
frequency modulation.
5. A technique that can be a solution to the problem of synchronizing data sources.
a) framing
b) data link control
c) full link control
d) pulse stuffing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse stuffing is a technique that can be a solution to the problem of synchronizing data sources. In
pulse stuffing, the outgoing data rate is higher than sum of incoming rates.
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6. For voice, each channel contains a ___ word of digitized data.

a) 2
b) 1
c) 0
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In digital carrier systems, for voice each channel contains one word of digitized data. The data rate
is 1.544 Mbps. Five out of six frames have 8 bit PCM samples.
7. Many time slots are wasted in __________
a) TDM
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM
d) FDM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Synchronous TDM, many time slots are wasted. Other techniques can help overcome this
problem.
8. A technique that allocates time slots dynamically.
a) TDM
b) WDM
c) Dynamic TDM
d) Statistical TDM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Statistical TDM assigns time slots dynamically. They are allocated based on demand. Multiplexer
scans input lines and collects data until the frame is full.
9. A system in which two channels are dedicated to transfer data.
a) TV
b) Cable
c) Modem
d) Cable modem
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A cable modem has two dedicated channels from cable TV provider dedicated to data transfer. One
in each direction.
10. In this technique, there is a link between subscriber and network and a local loop.
a) SSDL
b) DSDL
c) ASDL
d) TSDL
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In ASDL, there is a link between the subscriber and the network. It uses currently installed twisted
pair cable.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Network
Topologies
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network
Topologies”.

1. A topology that is responsible for describing the geometric arrangement of components that make up the LAN.
a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is referred to as a physical LAN topology. LAN stands for Local Area Network.
2. Bus is a type of topology.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Bus topology is an arrangement where all nodes are interconnected using a
single-cable.
3. _____ LAN topology describes the possible connections between pairs of networked end-points that can
communicate.
a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A logical LAN topology describes the possible connections. LAN stands for Local Area Network.
4. A term that refers to the way in which the nodes of a network are linked together.
a) network
b) topology
c) connection
d) interconnectivity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Topology is a term that refers to the way in which the nodes are connected. There are 4 major
topology networks.
5. A network comprising o multiple topologies.
a) Complex
b) Hybrid
c) Bus
d) Star
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A hybrid network consists of multiple topologies. It can comprise a ring, a star and other topologies.
We call this arrangement as a hybrid network.
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6. The participating computers in a network are referred to as:

a) Clients
b) Servers
c) Nodes
d) CPUs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: They are referred to as the nodes. There are several topologies designed for arrangements of these
nodes like bus, star, etc.
7. A topology that involves Tokens.
a) Star
b) Ring
c) Bus
d) Daisy Chaining
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ring topology involves sending and receiving of data with the help of tokens. Ring started out as a
simple peer-to-peer LAN topology.
8. A ____________WAN can be developed using leased private lines or any other transmission facility
a) Hybrids
b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
d) Three-tiered
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A peer-to-peer WAN topology is a relatively simple way of interconnecting a small number of sites. It
has the least-cost solution for WANs that contain a small number of internetworked locations.
9. A serially connected system of all the hubs of networks.
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Daisy chains
d) Star
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct option is Daisy chain. This simple approach uses ports on existing hubs for
interconnecting the hubs.
10. A piece of information which is sent along with the data to the source computer.
a) data
b) module
c) token
d) element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Token is the information that is sent to the source computer along with the data. This token is then
passed to the next node.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Internetworking
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Internetworking”.

1. Configuration where many independent computer systems are connected.

a) Complex
b) Distributed
c) Cloud
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Distributed configuration has many systems connected, and messages, programs, etc are
transmitted between cooperating computer systems.
2. Partial mesh is a highly flexible topology that can take a variety of very different configurations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Partial mesh is a highly flexible topology that can take a variety of very
different configurations. The routers are tightly coupled than the basic topologies. But they are not fully
interconnected, as would be the case in a fully meshed network.
3. Components used for interconnecting dissimilar networks that use different communication protocols.
a) Switches
b) Gateways
c) Routers
d) Bridges
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gateways are used for this purpose. Gateways interconnect dissimilar networks, protocol
conversion is performed by them.
4. A topology is a modified version of the basic star topology.
a) network
b) two-tiered
c) bus
d) ring
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A two-tiered topology is a modified version of the basic star topology. Rather than single
concentrator routers, two or more routers are used.
5. WANs that need to interconnect a very large number of sites.
a) bus
b) two-tiered
c) three-tiered
d) ring
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wide Area Networks that need to interconnect a very large number of sites, or are built using
smaller routers that can support only a few serial connections, may find the two-tiered architecture insufficiently
scalable.
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6. Components that operate at the network layer of the OSI model.

a) Switches
b) Servers
c) Routers
d) Gateways
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: They are referred to as the routers. They are used for interconnecting those networks that use the
same high-level protocols above network layer.
7. A topology that involves Tokens.
a) Star
b) Ring
c) Bus
d) Daisy Chaining
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ring topology involves sending and receiving of data with the help of tokens. Ring started out as a
simple peer-to-peer LAN topology.
8. ____________ operate at bottom two layers of the OSI model.
a) Bridges
b) Switches
c) Models
d) Modules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bridges operate at the bottom two layers of the OSI model. It connects networks that use the same
communication protocols above data-link layer.
9. Connecting two or more networks to form a single network is called :
a) Internetworking
b) Intranetworking
c) Interconnecting
d) Intraconnectivity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Connecting two or more networks to form a single network is called internetworking and the
resultant network is called internetwork.
10. OSI stands for?
a) Open Site Interconnection
b) Open System Interdependence
c) Open System Interconnection
d) Open Site Interdependence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: OSI is open system interconnection. It is a framework for defining standards for linking
heterogeneous computers in a packet switched network.
16. The Internet
The section contains multiple choice questions and answers on internet history, internet and its services, www,
internet abbreviations, ftp and http.

• The History of Internet

• FTP & HTTP
• The Internet and its Services
• Abbreviations Related to Internet
• WWW

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The History of

Internet
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The History of
Internet”.

1. ARPANET stands for?

a) Advanced Research Project Agency Network
b) Advanced Research Programmed Auto Network
c) Advanced Research Project Automatic Network
d) Advanced Research Project Authorized Network
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Project Agency Network. It was developed in late 1960s
under ARPA (Advanced Research Projects Agency).
2. Internet can help you find the shortest route.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Obviously, Internet is so widespread; it can help us in all the possible ways. It
can predict the weather, play music, etc.
3. In this technique, there is no direct contact between users and their programs during execution.
a) Time Sharing
b) Batch Processing
c) System Processing
d) Message Passing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the Batch Environment, there is no direct interaction between users and their programs during
execution.
4. A technique that marked the beginning of computer communications.
a) Batch Environment
b) Message passing
c) User Environment
d) Time Sharing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is time sharing. In time sharing, Users were able to interact with the computer and could
share its information processing resources.
5. A type of technique in which dumb terminals are connected to a central computer system.
a) Time Sharing
b) Message passing
c) Batch environment
d) User environment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This happens in time sharing. In this, users were able to interact with the computer and could share
its information processing resources.
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6. TCP stands for?

a) Transmission control program
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Transfer control program
d) Transfer control protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP stands for transmission control protocol. It basically allows different networks to interconnect.
7. The “Victorian internet” is actually?
a) Telegraph
b) Batch Environment
c) Unit Environment
d) System Environment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It was a telegraph. Invented in the 1840s. Used extensively by the U.S. Government.
8. Packet switching was invented in?
a) 1960s
b) 1980s
c) 2000s
d) 1990s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Packet switching was developed in 1964. In packet switching, the message is broken into parts and
then sent over independently.
9. The probability of failure-free operation of a software application in a specified environment for a specified
time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It is estimated using historical and development data.
10. DARPA stands for?
a) Data Advanced Research Projects Agency
b) Defense Advanced Research Product Agency
c) Data based Advanced Research Product Agency
d) Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DARPA (Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency) contracted with BBN (Bolt, Beranek &
Newman) to create ARPAnet.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Internet and

its Services
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This set of Advanced Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers focuses on “The Internet and its
Services”.

1. A network that links many different types of computers all over the world.
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Arpanet
d) LAN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Internet is a network of computers that links many different types of computers. It is a network of
network sharing a common mechanism for addressing computers.
2. Internet was evolved from the basic ideas of ARPANET.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. ARPANET is the first WAN i.e., Wide Area network that had only four sites in
1969 for interconnecting computers.
3. A service that allows a user to log in into another computer somewhere on the Internet.
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) e-mail
d) UseNet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet is the answer. It is a service that enables the user to log into another computer somewhere
on the Internet.
4. An internet service that allows the user to move a file.
a) FTP
b) Telnet
c) UseNet
d) Time Sharing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is FTP. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It allows the user to move a file from one
computer to another on the internet.
5. Anonymous FTP files are called ___________ accessible files.
a) Privately
b) Publicly
c) Batch
d) User
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Anonymous FTP files are called publicly accessible files because they can be accessed by any user
on the Internet.
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6. TCP stands for?

a) Transmission control program
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Transfer control program
d) Transfer control protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP stands for transmission control protocol. It basically allows different networks to interconnect.
7. Any system that uses the HTTP protocol is called _________
a) Web Browser
b) Web Server
c) WWW
d) TCP/IP
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The system is the web server. HTTP stands for Hypertext transmission protocol.
8. Any computer that can access the server is called?
a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Any computer that has access to the web server is called the web client. Web server is any
computer that uses the HTTP protocol.
9. Allows the user to create and maintain a personal list of favorite URL addresses.
a) Software
b) Web Servers
c) Web Browsers
d) WWW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web Browsers help the user to maintain a personal favorite list of URLs. Also, allows the user to
download information on various formats.
10. URL stands for?
a) Uniform Resource Locator
b) Uniform Research Locator
c) Uniform Resource Link
d) Uniform Research Link
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WWW specifies the URL of a website and allows the user to access information. URL stands for
Uniform Resource Locator.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – WWW

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “WWW”.

1. The web works on this model.

a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Client-Server
d) Server
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web works on the client server model. Client and server operate on machines which are able to
communicate through a network.
2. In the Client-server model, the client receives a request from the server.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The server receives a request from the client. It then performs the requested
work.
3. Which of the following is not a type of server?
a) File
b) Web
c) Name
d) Browsers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Browser is the answer. Browser is a type of client and it is not a server. File, web and name are the
types of servers.
4. This determines the type of protocol to be used.
a) <scheme>
b) <pathname>
c) <server name>
d) <server domain name>
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is <scheme>. In general, http is used. Others like file and ftp can also be used.
5. The location of file is determined by ________
a) <scheme>
b) <pathname>
c) <server name>
d) <server domain name>
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: <pathname> tells the server where to find the file name. It is an important part of the URL format.
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6. Apache is a type of ________

a) Transmission control program
b) Web Server
c) Web Browser
d) DBMS
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Apache is a type of web server. It is an application which waits for client requests, fetches requested
documents from disk and transmits them to the client.
7. A small data file in the browser.
a) Cookie
b) Web Server
c) FTP
d) Database
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cookie is a small data file in the browser. Most browsers nowadays allow the user to decide if they
want the cookies or not.
8. Any computer that can access the server is called?
a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Any computer that has access to the web server is called the web client. Web server is any
computer that uses the HTTP protocol.
9. Allows the user to create and maintain a personal list of favorite URL addresses.
a) Software
b) Web Servers
c) Web Browsers
d) WWW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web Browsers help the user to maintain a personal favorite list of URLs. Also, allows the user to
download information on various formats.
10. SGML stands for?
a) Standard Granted Markup Language
b) System Generalized Markup Language
c) Standard Generalized Markup Language
d) System Granted Markup Language
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HTML(Hypertext Markup language) is based on SGML. SGML stands for Standard Generalized
Markup Language.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – FTP & HTTP
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “FTP & HTTP”.

1. A program that can retrieve files from the world wide web and render text, images or sounds encoded in the
files.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Server
d) Web Server
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A browser or a web browser is a program that can retrieve files from the world wide web. Certain
examples are IE, Mozilla, etc.
2. An HTML file is a text file containing small markup tags.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language. It is a text file containing
small markup tags.
3. Which of the following is not a type of browser?
a) Netscape
b) Web
c) IE
d) Mozilla
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Others except web are web browsers. Web is a type of server. Application that works on client
requests.
4. Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol. Servers receive requests from
clients.
5. In HTML, the tags that tell the browser how to display the page.
a) markup
b) style
c) body
d) head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Markup is a general term used to refer the types of tags in HTML. The markup tags tell the browser
how to display the page.
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6. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It is a type of internet service use for the transmission of files.
7. A section in HTML that contains generic information about the document.
a) body
b) title
c) head
d) style
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The head segment contains a generic info about the document. The head section must come before
the body section in an HTML document.
8. A tag similar to that of the italic tag.
a) <strong>
b) <cite>
c) <code>
d) <i>
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: <cite> is a container tag in html that is citation generally in italics. Other tags like <em>or emphasize
is also used for this purpose.
9. A _________ partitions a web browser window so that multiple web documents can be displayed
simultaneously.
a) Frame
b) set
c) Frameset
d) div
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A frameset partitions a web browser window so that multiple web documents can be displayed
simultaneously. Frameset can have attributes like cols.
10. The _________ attribute specifies the web page to be placed in the frame initially.
a) name
b) src
c) cols
d) rows
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The src attribute or the source specifies the web page to be placed in the frame initially. It may be
subsequently overwritten.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Abbreviations
Related to Internet
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Abbreviations Related to
Internet”.

1. XML stands for?

a) Extensions Made Language
b) Extensible Markup Language
c) Extensible Major Language
d) Extensible Minor Language
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XML stands for Extensible Markup Language. It allows information to be shared among different
computer systems on the Internet.
2. AAA stands for Anonymous Administrative Authority.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. AAA stands for Autonomous Administrative Authority.
3. API is?
a) Advanced Processing Information
b) Application Processing Information
c) Application Programming interface
d) Application Processing Interface
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: API is the application programming interface. It is a set of instructions that allow the creation of
applications.
4. GSM stands for?
a) Global System for Monitoring
b) Graphical System for Mobile Telecommunications
c) Graphical System for Monitoring
d) Global System for Mobile Telecommunications
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is Global System for Mobile Telecommunications. It uses a variation of multiple access
on the basis of time and is widely used in Europe.
5. IN stands for?
a) Input
b) InterNet
c) Intelligent Network
d) IntraNet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IN stands for Intelligent Network. It is a telephone network that provides technical services.
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6. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It is a type of internet service use for the transmission of files.
7. PDU stands for?
a) Protocol Data Unit
b) Professional Data Unit
c) Protocol Distributed Unit
d) Professional Distributed Unit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PDU stands for Protocol Data Unit. It is transmitted as a single unit to other units in a computer
network.
8. A tag similar to that of the bold tag.
a) <strong>
b) <cite>
c) <code>
d) <i>
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: <strong> is a container tag in html that is similar to bold. It makes the text more valuable as well as
bold.
9. ISP is?
a) Intranet System Processing
b) Internet Service Provider
c) Intelligent System Processing
d) Intranet Service Provider
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ISR stands for Internet Service provider. It is a service that provides access to the internet.
10. NE stands for __________ element.
a) name
b) network
c) new
d) normal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is network. NE is the network element. It is any logical entity.
17. Multimedia
The section contains questions and answers on text media, graphics media, virtual reality and animations.

• Text Media • Virtual Reality

• Graphics Media • Animations

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Text Media

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Text Media”.

1. ______________the ability to access, analyzes, evaluate and produce media.

a) Literacy
b) Internet
c) Media
d) Media Literacy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is media literacy. It is the ability to access, analyze, evaluate and produce media. It is the process
of becoming active, rather than passive, consumers of media.
2. Media literacy can help youth and adults understand how media shapes our culture.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Media literacy also develops our critical thinking. It also helps in the better
understanding of how media shapes our culture.
3. The analysis of _________ is a process of deconstruction that investigates the operations of texts, their
constructions, the ways they produce meanings, what those meanings may be.
a) Media
b) Web
c) IE
d) Text
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The analysis of texts is a process of deconstruction that investigates the operations of texts, their
constructions, the ways they produce meanings, what those meanings may be. However, they also warn of the
dangers of making assumptions about the validity of any one analytic method.
4. A type of analysis that attends to the repetition and frequency of features, their proportions within the text, and
consequent assumptions about significance.
a) Media
b) Content
c) Linguistic
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Content. Linguistic analysis might concentrate on the potential effects of style of
address. Content analysis attends to the repetition and frequency of features, their proportions within the text,
and consequent assumptions about significance.
5. __________ analysis regards texts as collections of signs or paradigms and possible meanings, operating
within the bounds of various codes.
a) Semiotic
b) Style
c) Linguistic
d) Text
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Semiotic analysis regards texts as collections of signs or paradigms and possible meanings,
operating within the bounds of various codes.
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6. This part of image analysis refers to those primary signs, often part of the technique of photography, which are
about how the image is made.
a) Treatment
b) Position
c) Content
d) Media
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Treatment in image analysis refers to those primary signs, often part of the technique of
photography, which is about how the image is made.
7. In image analysis, this part refers to objects represented within the image, which may signify to us because of,
for example, their symbolic power or because of their composition in relation to each other.
a) Treatment
b) Position
c) Content
d) Media
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Content refers to objects represented within the image. Treatment in image analysis refers to those
primary signs, often part of the technique of photography, which are about how the image is made.
8. _________ are about storytelling and story meaning.
a) narratives
b) plot
c) content
d) storyline
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Narratives are about storytelling and story meaning. Media texts tell stories; they have a narrative.
9. __________ describes the effect of involving the reader with the story, of constructing it as truth.
a) Narration
b) Identification
c) Plot
d) Characters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Identification describes the effect of involving the reader with the story, of constructing it as truth. It
produces a meaning of truth, a belief in the validity of the text and of all the other meanings that we make from it.
10. The notion of norms also links to the idea that representations are given force through a process of:
a) naturalization
b) identification
c) media
d) casting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The notion of norms also links to the idea that representations are given force through a process of
naturalization.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Graphics Media

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Graphics Media”.

1. The media texts may throw up discourses and are called ____________
a) Binary oppositions
b) Violations
c) Oppositions
d) Media Illiteracy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Some texts may also throw up discourses and their meanings if you attend to what are called binary
oppositions. The discourse is also marked by what it is not, by what it is opposed to.
2. In terms of image analysis, it is important to attend to primary level signs in visual codes, most obviously for
examples of still photography.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. This approach categorizes the image analysis into three: position, treatment
and content.
3. The notion of __________ is one which is especially associated with semiotics and with genres.
a) Media
b) Web
c) codes
d) Text
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The notion of codes is one which is especially associated with semiotics and with genres. The
textual codes may be summarized into: written, spoken, non-verbal and visual.
4. The idea of _________is central to understanding the production of meaning through texts.
a) Identity
b) Content
c) Represntation
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The idea of representation is central to understanding the production of meaning through texts.
Texts are nothing but representations in both a material and an ideological sense.
5. ICT stands for?
a) Interaction, Communication and Technology
b) Information, Communication and Technology
c) Interaction, Communication and Text
d) Information, Communication and Text
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ICT stands for Information, Communication and Technology. ICT is responsible for providing access
to information.
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6. A system of interlinked documents, websites, portals etc. accessed through the Internet.
a) WWW
b) Internet
c) Web
d) Media
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: World Wide Web a system of interlinked documents, websites, portals etc. accessed through the
Internet. Since these links are not physical or mechanical, they are called `virtual’ links or `hyperlinks’.
7. In image analysis, this part refers to objects represented within the image, which may signify to us because of,
for example, their symbolic power or because of their composition in relation to each other.
a) Treatment
b) Position
c) Content
d) Media
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Content refers to objects represented within the image. Treatment in image analysis refers to those
primary signs, often part of the technique of photography, which are about how the image is made.
8. A dedicated website for providing specialized information in a particular field.
a) Website
b) Blog
c) Web directories
d) Corporate Websites
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web directory is a dedicated website for providing specialized information in a particular field. Such
directories are useful for educational purpose.
9. _________ are the web-based interactive applications to express and share your ideas and thoughts with
interested people.
a) Website
b) Blog
c) Web directories
d) Corporate Websites
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Blogs are the web-based interactive applications to express and share your ideas and thoughts with
interested people. It is an open platform that can be used as on-line diaries, a journal, or editorial.
10. A term used in the context of web design to suggest the path that user takes while browsing a website.
a) navigation
b) identification
c) graphics media
d) casting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Navigation is a term used in the context of web design to suggest the path that user takes while
browsing a website.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Virtual Reality

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Virtual Reality”.

1. HMD stands for?

a) Head Mounted Display
b) Head Masked Display
c) Head Made Display
d) Head Mounted Detection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for Head Mounted Display. A kind of stereo display with two miniature screens and depth
perception.
2. In terms of image analysis, it is important to attend to primary level signs in visual codes, most obviously for
examples of still photography.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. This approach categorizes the image analysis into three: position, treatment
and content.
3. ______________ keep track of position.
a) Motion analyzers
b) Motion Trackers
c) HMD
d) SMD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Motion trackers keep track of position. Other devices are like head trackers and body trackers.
4. BOOM stands for?
a) Binocular Omni-Orientation Manager
b) Binary Omni-Orientation Manager
c) Binocular Omni-Orientation Monitor
d) Binary Omni-Orientation Monitor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: BOOM stands for Binocular Omni-Orientation Monitor. It is a type of Stereoscopic display. Guidance
of the box by the users.
5. A term for Illusion of immersion by projecting stereo images on the walls and floor of a room.
a) CAVE
b) BOOM
c) GUI
d) HMD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CAVE is the term. CAVE stands for Cave Automatic Virtual Environment.
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6. It is a mediated environment which creates the sensation in a user of being present in a (physical)
surrounding.
a) WWW
b) VR
c) HMD
d) GUI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: VR or virtual reality is a mediated environment which creates the sensation in a user of being
present in a (physical) surrounding.
7. A term to describe the extent to which a user can modify form and content of a mediated environment.
a) Vividness
b) Richness
c) Interactivity
d) Mapping
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Interactivity is the extent to which a user can modify form and content of a mediated environment. It
comprises speed and mapping.
8. A type of VR environment in which subjects are visually isolated from the real environment.
a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
c) Non immersive
d) Augmented
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In immersive VR, subjects are visually isolated from the real environment. A virtual scene is
responding to the subjects actions.
9. In this type of VR environment, the three-dimensional scene is considered as a part of the physical
environment.
a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
c) Non immersive
d) Augmented
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This happens in non-immersive Virtual environment. Also, the subjects do fully respond in the real
environment.
10. In this type of VR environment, the subjects can perform both in the real and virtual environment.
a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
c) Non immersive
d) Augmented
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The subjects perceive a strong involvement into the VE. Also, the subjects may perform less in the
real environment.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Animations

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Animations”.

1. ____________is basically a form of pictorial presentation.

a) Photography
b) Animations
c) Drawing
d) Creativity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Animation is basically a form of pictorial presentation. It has become the most prominent feature of
technology-based learning environments.
2. Multiplane camera was introduced by Walt Disney.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Walt Disney along with his colleagues had a problem with creating realistic
animation and how to conserve time while creating it. Therefore, they came up with a great solution which can be
considered another innovation in the field of animation called the multiplane camera.
3. It refers to simulated motion pictures showing movement of drawn objects.
a) Motion
b) Animation
c) VR
d) SMD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It refers to simulated motion pictures showing movement of drawn objects. Animation is a form of
pictorial presentation.
4. A ____________(invented by Paul Roget in 1828) is a simple mechanical toy which creates the illusion of
movement.
a) Binocular
b) Zoetrope
c) Thaumatrope
d) BOOM
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A thaumatrope (invented by Paul Roget in 1828) is a simple mechanical toy. It creates the illusion of
movement. Thaumatrope means “wonder turner”.
5. A device produces an illusion of movement from a rapid succession of static pictures.
a) Zoetrope
b) Thaumatrope
c) Phenakistoscope
d) HMD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 1843, William Horner, a British mathematician invented the zoetrope. A zoetrope produces an
illusion of movement from a rapid succession of static pictures.
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6. The ____________ is a piece of equipment designed to make cartoons more realistic and enjoyable. It uses
stacked panes of glass each with different elements of the animation.
a) Multiplane camera
b) VR
c) Thaumatrope
d) Phenakistoscope
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Walt Disney had a problem with creating realistic animation and how to conserve time while creating
it. Hence, they came up with a great solution which can be considered another innovation in the field of animation
called the multiplane camera.
7. He made the first animated film in 1906.
a) Walt Disney
b) J. Stuart Blackton
c) William Horner
d) J.A. Ferdinand Plateau
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: J. Stuart Blackton made the first animated film in 1906. Humorous Phases of Funny Faces was the
first animation film.
8. Name of the first animation film.
a) Humorous Phases of Funny Faces
b) Tom and Jerry
c) Mickey Mouse
d) How i learnt animations
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Humorous Phases of Funny Faces was the first animation film made by J. Stuart Blackton. He was
using a blackboard as his workplace together with chalk and an eraser as his main tools.
9. ___________ animation is used to animate things that are smaller than life size.
a) Immersive
b) Claymotion
c) Stop motion
d) Augmented
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stop motion animation is used to animate things that are smaller than life size. Willis Harold O’Brian
pioneered motion picture special effects, which were perfected in stop motion.
10. The father of animation?
a) Walt Disney
b) J. Stuart Blackton
c) William Horner
d) J.A. Ferdinand Plateau
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: J. Stuart Blackton made the first animated film in 1906. The film was entitled Humorous Phases of
Funny Faces, and with this, he became known as the father of animation.

18. Classification of Computers & Emerging Technologies

The section contains MCQs on computers generations, parallel processing systems, client server computing, cloud
computing, computers types, iot and artificial intelligence.

• Generations of Computers
• Types of Computers
• Parallel Processing Systems
• Internet of Things
• Client-Server Computing
• Artificial Intelligence
• Cloud Computing

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Generations of

Computers
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Generations of
Computers”.

1. A term in computer terminology is a change in technology a computer is/was being used.

a) development
b) generation
c) advancement
d) growth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generation in computer terminology is a change in technology a computer is/was being used. The
term is used to distinguish between various hardware technologies.
2. The fourth generation was based on integrated circuits.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The third generation was based on integrated circuits.
3. The generation based on VLSI microprocessor.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The 4th gen was VLSI microprocessor based. The period of fourth generation: 1972-1990.
4. ______ generation of computer started with using vacuum tubes as the basic components.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First generation of computer started with using vacuum tubes as the basic components for memory
and circuitry for CPU(Central Processing Unit).
5. Batch processing was mainly used in this generation.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Batch processing was mainly used in the 1st generation. In this generation Punched cards, Paper
tape, Magnetic tape Input & Output device were used.
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6. ___________ is an emerging branch in computer science, which interprets means and method of making
computers think like human beings.
a) Block chain
b) VR
c) AI
d) Cloud computing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AI is an emerging branch in computer science, which interprets means and method of making
computers think like human beings.
7. ULSI stands for?
a) Ultra Large Scale Integration
b) Under Lower Scale Integration
c) Ultra Lower Scale Integration
d) Under Large Scale Integration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for Ultra Large Scale Integration. It is a part of the fifth generation computers.
8. In this generation Time sharing, Real time, Networks, Distributed Operating System was used.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 5th
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The fourth generation of computers is marked by the use of Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI)
circuits. In this generation Time sharing, Real time, Networks, Distributed Operating System was used.
9. HLL stands for?
a) High Level Language
b) High Layman’s Language
c) High Level Lesson
d) High Layman’s Lesson
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High Level Language(HLL) has languages like FORTRAN, COBOL. HLL isn’t in machine language.
It is converted to machine language for further processing.
10. The period of ________ generation was 1952-1964.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 5th
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The period of the 2nd generation is 1952-1964. The period of the first generation was 1942-1954.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Parallel Processing

Systems
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Problems focuses on “Parallel Processing Systems”.

1. Execution of several activities at the same time.

a) processing
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing
d) multitasking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Execution of several activities at the same time is referred to as parallel processing. Like, Two
multiplications at the same time on 2 different processes.
2. Parallel processing has single execution flow.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Sequential programming specifically has single execution flow.
3. A term for simultaneous access to a resource, physical or logical.
a) Multiprogramming
b) Multitasking
c) Threads
d) Concurrency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Concurrency is the term used for the same. When several things are accessed simultaneously, the
job is said to be concurrent.
4. ______________ leads to concurrency.
a) Serialization
b) Parallelism
c) Serial processing
d) Distribution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Parallelism leads naturally to Concurrency. For example, Several processes trying to print a file on a
single printer.
5. A parallelism based on increasing processor word size.
a) Increasing
b) Count based
c) Bit based
d) Bit level
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bit level parallelism is based on increasing processor word size. It focuses on hardware capabilities
for structuring.
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6. A type of parallelism that uses micro architectural techniques.

a) instructional
b) bit level
c) bit based
d) increasing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Instructional level uses micro architectural techniques. It focuses on program instructions for
structuring.
7. MIPS stands for?
a) Mandatory Instructions/sec
b) Millions of Instructions/sec
c) Most of Instructions/sec
d) Many Instructions / sec
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MIPS stands for Millions of Instructions/sec. MIPS is a way to measure the cost of computing.
8. The measure of the “effort” needed to maintain efficiency while adding processors.
a) Maintainablity
b) Efficiency
c) Scalabilty
d) Effectiveness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The measure of the “effort” needed to maintain efficiency while adding processors is called as
scalabilty.
9. The rate at which the problem size need to be increased to maintain efficiency.
a) Isoeffciency
b) Efficiency
c) Scalabilty
d) Effectiveness
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isoefficiency is the rate at which the problem size need to be increased to maintain efficiency.
10. Several instructions execution simultaneously in ________________
a) processing
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing
d) multitasking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In parallel processing, the several instructions are executed simultaneously.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Client-Server

Computing
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Client-Server
Computing”.

1. RMI stands for?

a) Remote Mail Invocation
b) Remote Message Invocation
c) Remaining Method Invocation
d) Remote Method Invocation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The RMI (Remote Method Invocation) is an API that provides a mechanism to create distributed
applications.
2. A remote object is an object whose method can be invoked from another virtual environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. JVM is java virtual environment. RMI uses stub and skeleton object for
communication with the remote object. A remote object is an object whose method can be invoked from another
virtual environment.
3. A typical _________ program creates some remote objects, makes references to these objects accessible,
and waits for clients to invoke methods on these objects.
a) Server
b) Client
c) Thread
d) Concurrent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A server program creates remote objects. It gives reference to these objects and then waits for
clients to invoke methods on these objects.
4. A typical __________ program obtains a remote reference to one or more remote objects on a server and then
invokes methods on them.
a) Server
b) Client
c) Thread
d) Concurrent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A client program obtains a remote reference to one or more remote objects on a server. It then
invokes methods on them.
5. The ___________ layer, which provides the interface that client and server application objects use to interact
with each other.
a) Increasing
b) Count
c) Bit
d) Stub/skeleton
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The stub or skeleton layer provides the interface that client and server application objects use for
interaction with each other.
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6. A layer which is the binary data protocol layer.

a) stub layer
b) skeleton layer
c) remote layer
d) transport protocol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The transport protocol layer is the binary data protocol that sends remote object requests over the
wire. A client is any remote application that communicates with these server objects.
7. A middleware layer between the stub skeleton and transport.
a) remote layer
b) instruction layer
c) reference layer
d) remote reference layer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The remote reference layer is the middleware between the stub/skeleton layer and underlying
transport protocol.
8. An object acting as a gateway for the client side.
a) skeleton
b) stub
c) remote
d) server
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stub is an object that acts as a gateway for the client side. The outgoing requests are passed
through the stub.
9. A gateway for the server side object.
a) skeleton
b) stub
c) remote
d) server
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The skeleton is an object, acts as a gateway for the server side object. All the incoming requests are
routed through it.
10. RMI uses stub and skeleton for communication with the ________ object.
a) client
b) remote
c) server
d) any
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RMI uses stub and skeleton object for communication with the remote object. A remote object is an
object whose method can be invoked from another JVM.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Cloud Computing

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cloud
Computing”.

1. ________________ is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers on-demand, utility based
computing service.
a) Remote Sensing
b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
d) Private Computing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cloud computing is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers with on-demand,
utility based computing services. Cloud users can provide more reliable, available and updated services to their
clients in turn.
2. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. There are three types of users often called as cloud stakeholders.
3. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three types of stakeholders cloud providers, cloud users and the end users.
4. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the _________ uses these services pay-as-you-
go model.
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The cloud users use these services pay-as-you-go model. The cloud users develop their product
using these services and deliver the product to the end users.
5. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no protected cloud. There are three types of cloud-private, public and hybrid.
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6. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from cloud providers on-demand basis.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This happens in public cloud. Services are provided to the users using utility computing model.
7. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal or external cloud.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hybrid cloud is composed of multiple internal or external clouds. This is the scenario when an
organization moves to public cloud computing domain from its internal private cloud.
8. _____________ enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another.
a) visualization
b) virtualization
c) migration
d) virtual transfer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Virtualization enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another. This
feature is useful for cloud as by data locality lots of optimization is possible.
9. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of architecture.
a) skeleton
b) grid
c) linear
d) template
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most of the cloud architectures are built on Grid architecture. Grid is a type of distributed computing
architecture where organizations owning data centers collaborate with each other to have common benefits.
10. Saas stands for?
a) Software as a service
b) System Software and services
c) Software as a system
d) System as a service
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SAAS is Software as a service. It delivers a single application through the web browser to
thousands of customers using a multitenant architecture.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Types of

Computers
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This set of Basic Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers focuses on “Types of Computers”.

1. Which of the following is not a type of computer on the basis of operation?

a) Remote
b) Hybrid
c) Analog
d) Digital
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are three types of computers basically on the basis of operation:
Analog, Digital and Hybrid.
2. Remote computers work on continuous range of values.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Analog Computer is a computing device that works on continuous range of
values. The results that are given by the analog computers will mostly be approximate since they deal with
quantities that keep on varying.
3. A computer that operates on digital data.
a) remote
b) hybrid
c) analog
d) digital
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The digital computer uses binary number system in which there are only two digits 0 and 1. Each
one is called a bit.
4. This type of computer is mostly used for automatic operations.
a) remote
b) hybrid
c) analog
d) digital
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hybrid computer is mostly used with automatic operations of complicated physical processes and
the machines.
5. ______________ are used for solving complex application such as Global Weather Forecasting.
a) Super Computers
b) Public computers
c) Mobile computers
d) Hybrid computers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Super computers are used with complex applications like Global Weather Forecasting, Creating
graphic images, engineering design and testing, space exploration, etc.
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6. The invention of _______________ gave birth to the much cheaper micro computers.
a) Mainframes
b) Microcomputers
c) Microprocessors
d) PDAs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The invention of microprocessor (also called as single chip CPU) gave birth to the much cheaper
microcomputers.
7. They can operate on batteries and hence are very popular with travelers.
a) Mainframes
b) Laptops
c) Microprocessors
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Laptops can operate on batteries and hence are very popular with travelers. The screen folds down
onto the keyboard when not in use.
8. PDA stands for?
a) personal digital applications
b) private digital applications
c) personal digital assistants
d) private digital assistants
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PDA stands for Personal Digital Assistants. They are pen-based and also battery powered.
9. PDAs are also called?
a) PCs
b) Laptops
c) Tablets
d) Handheld
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PDAs are also called as Personal Digital Assistants. They are small and can be carried anywhere.
10. ______computers are lower to mainframe computers in terms of speed and storage capacity.
a) Mini
b) Super
c) Mainframes
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is a. Mini computers are compared to mainframe computers in terms of:
1. speed and, 2. storage capacity.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Internet of Things

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Internet of
Things”.

1. A network of physical objects or things embedded with electronics or softwares.

a) AI
b) ML
c) IOT
d) Internet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IoT is a network of physical objects or things embedded with electronics or softwares. Iot allows
objects to be controlled remotely across existing network.
2. RFID is a part of IoT.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. RFID is Radio frequency identification. Radio frequency identification is a part
of IoT.
3. RFID stands for?
a) Random frequency identification
b) Radio frequency identification
c) Random frequency information
d) Radio frequency information
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Earlier, RFID or Radio frequency identification was a prerequisite for Internet of Things.
4. Which of the following is not involved in working of IoT?
a) RFID
b) Sensor
c) Nano tech
d) Server
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IoT works from RFID to Sensor, to Smart tech and then to Nano tech.
5. Making the smaller and smaller things have the ability to connect and interact.
a) Micro Tech
b) Smart tech
c) Nano tech
d) RFID
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nano Tech is the term used when smaller things are made to interact and communicate. It is
involved in the working of Iot also.
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6. Wi-Fi stands for?

a) Wireless fidelity
b) Wireless Flexibility
c) Wide Fidelity
d) WAN Flexibility
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity. It is widely used in both outdoor and indoor environments.
7. Diagnostics service for Cars.
a) MIPS
b) AutoBot
c) IoT Assistant
d) IoT
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Autobot is a diagnostics service for cars. This service is integrated with several web services.
8. The father of ioT.
a) Kevin Atrun
b) Kevin Atrhur
c) Kevin Ashton
d) Kevin Thomas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kevin Ashton is the father of IoT. He believed IoT could turn the world into data.
9. Collect->Communicate->__________->Act
a) Acknowledge
b) Analyze
c) Examine
d) Rectify
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct option is analyze. This shows the lifecycle of IoT.
Collect->Communicate->Analyze->Act.
10. Several instructions execution simultaneously in?
a) processing
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing
d) multitasking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In parallel processing, the several instructions are executed simultaneously. Parallel processing
system provides the concurrent data processing to increase the execution time.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Artificial

Intelligence
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Artificial
Intelligence”.

1. The technology that has the ability to interact with the world.
a) AI
b) ML
c) IOT
d) IT
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AI which is artificial intelligence is the ability to interact with the world. It is the ability to model the
world and to learn and adapt.
2. The goal of AI is to build systems that exhibit intelligent behavior.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. There are 2 main goals in AI: to exhibit intelligent behavior and understand
intelligence in order to model it.
3. The first neural network computer.
a) RFD
b) SNARC
c) AM
d) AN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SNARC was the first neural network computer. it was built by Minsky and Edmonds in 1956.
4. A hardware based system that has autonomy, social ability and reactivity.
a) AI
b) Autonomous Agent
c) Agency
d) Behavior Engineering
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Autonomous Agent. Autonomous agent has autonomy i.e. ability to operate without
the direct intervention of humans or others.
5. A particular system that contains intelligent agents.
a) AI systems
b) Agency
c) Autonomous systems
d) Company
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called an agency. A particular system consisting of intelligent agents like computers or robots
that cooperate to find the solution to a problem.
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6. A methodology used to develop behavior-based autonomous agents.

a) Descriptors
b) Behavior engineering
c) Behavior modeling
d) Auto engineering
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is behavior engineering. Autonomous agent implements autonomy, social ability and
reactivity.
7. An international research effort to promote autonomous robots.
a) Fresh Kitty
b) RoboCup
c) AICup
d) SPOT
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RoboCup is designed to promote autonomous robots. It is based on multi agent collaboration.
8. A type of non-monotonic reasoning.
a) Ordinary
b) Special
c) Duplicate
d) Default
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Default reasoning is a type of non-monotonic reasoning. Default logic is a non-monotonic logic
proposed by Raymond Reiter to formalize reasoning with default assumptions.
9. The performance of an agent can be improved based on this.
a) Observe
b) Learn
c) Improvise
d) Implement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An AI system is designed to learn and improve. The same is implemented on its agents.
10. Face recognition system is based on _____________
a) applied AI
b) parallel AI
c) serial AI
d) strong AI
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is applied AI. It is based on applied artificial intelligence. It is an approach to develop
commercially smart systems.

19. Information Technology

The section contains multiple choice questions and answers on network security, encryption, viruses, cryptography,
augmented reality, waterfall model, software testing and oop concepts.

• Network Security • Augmented Reality

• Network Security and Encryption • Waterfall Model

• Encryption and Viruses • Software Testing

• Cryptography • Concepts of OOP

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Network Security

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network
Security”.

1. The field that covers a variety of computer networks, both public and private, that are used in everyday jobs.
a) Artificial Intelligence
b) ML
c) Network Security
d) IT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Network security covers a variety of computer networks, both private and public. Everyday jobs like
conducting transactions and communications among business and government agencies etc.
2. Network Security provides authentication and access control for resources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. AFS is an example. It helps us protect vital information.
3. Which is not an objective of network security?
a) Identification
b) Authentication
c) Access control
d) Lock
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Identification, Authentication and Access control are the objectives of network security. There is
no such thing called lock.
4. Which of these is a part of network identification?
a) UserID
b) Password
c) OTP
d) fingerprint
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is UserID. UserID is a part of identification. UserID can be a combination of username,
user student number etc.
5. The process of verifying the identity of a user.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is called an authentication. It is typically based on passwords, smart card, fingerprint, etc.
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6. A concern of authentication that deals with user rights.

a) General access
b) Functional authentication
c) Functional authorization
d) Auto verification
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Functional authorization is concerned with individual user rights. Authorization is the function of
specifying access rights to resources related to information security.
7. CHAP stands for?
a) Challenge Handshake authentication protocol
b) Challenge Hardware authentication protocol
c) Circuit Hardware authentication protocol
d) Circuit Handshake authentication protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CHAP stands for Challenge Handshake authentication protocol. Features of CHAP: plaintext,
memorized token. Protocol uses Telnet, HTTP.
8. Security features that control that can access resources in the OS.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Access control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Access control refers to the security features. Applications call access control to provide resources.
9. An algorithm in encryption is called _____________
a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
d) Module
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An algorithm used in encryption is referred to as a cipher. cipher is an algorithm for performing
encryption or decryption
10. The information that gets transformed in encryption is ____________
a) Plain text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The text that gets transformed is called plain text. The algorithm used is called cipher.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Network Security

and Encryption
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network Security
and Encryption”.

1. The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text.

a) Decryption
b) Encryption
c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Encryption is the process of transforming readable text i.e. plain text to make it unreadable to
anyone except those possessing special knowledge, usually referred to as a key.
2. An algorithm used in encryption is referred to as cipher.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Cipher is the algorithm used in encryption. Encryption is making readable text
as unreadable to keep it secured.
3. A process of making the encrypted text readable again.
a) Decryption
b) Encryption
c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The reverse process is called decryption. It is the process of making the information readable again.
4. WTLS stands for?
a) Wireless Transport Security Layer
b) Wireless Transfer System Layer
c) Wireless Transfer Security Layer
d) Wireless Transport System Layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WTLS is Wireless Transport Security Layer. It provides security between the mobile device and the
WAP gateway to internet.
5. The protocol designed to make the security of wireless LAN as good as that of wired LAN.
a) WTLS
b) WEP
c) RSN
d) WP
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WEP stands for Wired Equivalent Privacy. WEP has been broken already in 2001. WEP protocol
designed to make the security of wireless LAN as good as that of wired LAN.
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6. A person who enjoys learning details about computers and how to enhance their capabilities.
a) Cracker
b) Hacker
c) App controller
d) Site controller
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The person is called hacker. A person who enjoys learning the details of computer systems and how
to stretch their capabilities is called hacker.
7. A program created by Farmer and Venema for auditing capability.
a) SAAS
b) SATAN
c) SAN
d) SAT
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SATAN is the Security analysis tool for auditing networks. It is created by farmer and venema.
8. A small program that changes the way a computer operates.
a) Worm
b) Trojan
c) Bomb
d) Virus
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The program is called virus. It alters the way that the computer operates. It often does damages like
deleting and corrupting files and data.
9. A program that copies itself.
a) Worm
b) Virus
c) Trojan
d) Bomb
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A worm copies itself from one system to another over a network without the assistance of human.
10. An attack in which the site is not capable of answering valid request.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Denial of service. In case of denial of service attacks, a computer site is bombarded
with a lot of messages.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Encryption and

Viruses
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Encryption and
Viruses”.

1. A cipher in which the order is not preserved.

a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Substitution based
d) Public key based
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In transposition-based cipher, the order of the plain text is not preserved. They can be very simple
to identify.
2. Plain text is the data after encryption is performed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Cipher is the algorithm used in encryption. Ciphertext is the data after
encryption is performed.
3. A unique piece of information that is used in encryption.
a) Cipher
b) Plain Text
c) Key
d) Cipher
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The key is the unique piece of information. It is used to create the cipher text and decrypt it back.
4. Study of creating a d using encryption and decryption techniques.
a) Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Encryption
d) Decryption
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called as cryptography. It is the study of creating and using the encryption techniques.
5. Creating a computer or paper audit that can help detect wrong doings.
a) Auditing
b) Validation
c) RSN
d) Verification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is auditing. It is done to keep an eye on wrong doings. Auditing can be used as a
deterrent.
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6. An indirect form of surveillance.

a) Honey pot
b) Logical
c) Security
d) Intrusion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Honey pot is an indirect form of surveillance. Network personnel create a trap, watching for
unscrupulous acts.
7. A malicious code hidden inside a seemingly harmless piece of code.
a) Worm
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse
d) Virus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is Trojan horse. Trojan horse is a code that is present in a program that appears
harmless.
8. Attack in which a user creates a packet that appears to be something else.
a) Smurfing
b) Trojan
c) E-mail bombing
d) Spoofing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The attack is a spoofing attack. It is when a user creates a packet that appears to be something else
or from someone else.
9. A technique in which a program attacks a network by exploiting IP broadcast addressing operations.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Smurfing is a technique in which a program attacks a network by exploiting IP broadcast addressing
operations.
10. An attack in which the user receives unwanted amount of e-mails.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the case of denial of e-mail bombing, a user sends an excessive amount of unwanted e-mail to
someone.

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Cryptography

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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cryptography”.

1. These ciphers replace a character or characters with a different character or characters, based on some key.
a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Substitution based
d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In mono alphabetic substitution-based cipher, a character is replaced with some other character or
multiple characters, based on some key.
2. Encryption is the study of creating and using decryption techniques.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Cryptography is the study of creating and using encryption and decryption
techniques.
3. A type of cipher that uses multiple alphabetic strings.
a) Substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Polyalphabetic substitution based
d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: These ciphers are similar to that of mono alphabetic ciphers. Multiple strings are used to encode the
plain text.
4. An encryption technique with 2 keys is ______________
a) Monoalphabetic Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Private key cryptography
d) Public key cryptography
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is called as public key cryptography. It has 2 keys: a private key and a public key.
5. In public key cryptography, a key that decrypts the message.
a) public key
b) unique key
c) private key
d) security key
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Public key cryptography has 2 keys. They are private key and a public key. The public key encrypts
the message. The private key decrypts the message.
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6. DES stands for?

a) Data Encryption Standard
b) Data Encryption Statistics
c) Data Encryption System
d) Data Encryption Sequence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DES stands for Data Encryption Standard. It was created in 1977 and went into operation from
1990s.
7. Under DES, the data encryption standard took a 64-bit block of data and subjected it to ______ levels of
encryption.
a) 64
b) 8
c) 16
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is 16. It was subjected to 16 levels of encryption. DES is the data encryption standard.
8. Triple-DES has ______ keys.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 2 keys in triple DES as well. The private and the public key. It can also have 3 unique
keys.
9. Encryption standard that is selected by the US government to replace DES.
a) AES
b) BES
c) CES
d) DES
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AES is Advanced Encryption Standard. It was selected by the US government. It is used to replace
DES.
10. An electronic document that establishes your credentials when you are performing transactions.
a) Digital code
b) OTP
c) E-mail
d) Digital certificate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Digital certificate is an electronic document that is responsible for secure internet transactions.
Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Augmented Reality
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This set of Computer Fundamentals MCQs focuses on “Augmented Reality”.

1. A field of technology that deals with a combination of real world and the data generated from computer.
a) ML
b) AI
c) AR
d) IoT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AR that is Augmented Reality is a field of technology that deals with a combination of real world and
the data generated from computer.
2. AR is interactive in real-time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Augmented Reality is the field of computer research that deals with the
combination of real-world and computer generated data.
3. Technologies that completely involve a user inside a synthetic environment.
a) AR
b) VR
c) AI
d) ML
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is VR or Virtual Reality. VR technologies are known for immersing a user inside a
synthetic environment. While immersed, the user cannot see the real world around him.
4. Technologies that allow the user to see the real world, with virtual objects composited in the real world.
a) AR
b) VR
c) AI
d) SR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Augmented Reality (AR) allows a user to see real world, with virtual objects superimposed or
composited with the real world.
5. A ______________________ is a display device, worn on head as a part of helmet that has a small display
optic.
a) HD
b) MD
c) HMD
d) ARD
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HMD is the head-mounted display, worn on head as a part of helmet that has a small display optic.
HTC Vive, Samsung GearVR are examples of HMDs available today.
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6. Wearable computing device in the form of computerized eyeglasses.
a) HMD
b) Helmets
c) Smart Glasses
d) VR Glasses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Smart glasses are also called as optical head mounted displays. (OHMD), it has the capability of
reflecting projected images as well as allowing users to see through it.
7. A tracking based on geo-location information.
a) Location based
b) Markerless
c) Marker based
d) GPS
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Location based tracking is based on geo-location information obtained from device’s location
sensors. (Longitude, latitude, altitude etc).
8. SLAM stands for?
a) Simultaneous localization and mapping
b) System localization and mapping
c) Simultaneous localization and maintenance
d) System localization and maintenance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SLAM is abbreviated for Simultaneous localization and mapping. It is a technique used by robots
and autonomous vehicles to build a map within the unknown environment.
9. A technique that enables light field which is generally the product of a light source scattered off objects.
a) AES
b) Holography
c) Cryptography
d) Gyrography
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Holography enables a light field. It is to be recorded and later reconstructed when the original light
field is no longer present.
10. A _______ can be recorded using a normal light source.
a) Holograph
b) Photography
c) Holography
d) Photograph
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A photograph can be captured using a normal light source. A laser is required to record a hologram.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Waterfall Model
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Waterfall Model”.

1. A model that is the demo implementation of the system.

a) waterfall
b) prototype
c) incremental
d) agile
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototype is the demo implementation so that the customer gets a brief idea of his product. It is
generally used when the customer requirements are not clear.
2. Maintenance is the final phase in waterfall model.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. This is the phase in which the completed software product is handed over to
the client.
3. A stage in which individual components are integrated and ensured that they are error-free to meet customer
requirements.
a) Coding
b) Testing
c) Design
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hardware and software components are tested individually. Testing stage in which individual
components are integrated and ensured that they are error-free to meet customer requirements.
4. ___________ is a step in which design is translated into machine-readable form.
a) Design
b) Conversion
c) Debugging
d) Coding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coding is the step in which design in translated into machine-readable form. If design is efficient,
coding can be done effectively.
5. The customer requirements are broken down into logical modules for ease of _______________
a) inheritance
b) design
c) editing
d) implementation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The requirements are broken down for ease of implementation. Hardware and software
requirements are identified and designed accordingly.
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6. What do you call a technical person who is capable of understanding the basic requirements?
a) team leader
b) analyst
c) engineer
d) stakeholder
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The person is called an analyst. An analyst is a software engineering who is responsible for
requirements gathering.
7. A step in waterfall model that involves a meeting with the customer to understand the requirements.
a) Requirement Gathering
b) SRS
c) Implementation
d) Customer review
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A waterfall model involves requirement gathering as its first step. This is the most important phase.
It is important to understand the customer requirements.
8. Methodology in which project management processes were step-by step.
a) Incremental
b) Waterfall
c) Spiral
d) Prototyping
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Waterfall model is based on step-by step completion of the project. Every step is done individually.
9. An individual who plans and directs the work.
a) Stakeholder
b) Project manager
c) Team leader
d) Programmer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Project planner is the one who plans and designs the project. Team leader is the one who provides
guidance, instruction, direction and leadership to a group of individuals.
10. A planned program if work that requires a definitive amount of time, effort and planning to complete.
a) Problem
b) Project
c) Process
d) Program
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Project. A project is a program which is something which is planned and needs effort
and time to complete.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Software Testing
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Software
Testing”.

1. A set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) verification
b) testing
c) implementation
d) validation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Verification ensures that software correctly implements a specific function. It is a static practice of
verifying documents.
2. Validation is computer based.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Validation is a computer based process. It uses methods like black box
testing, gray box testing, etc.
3. ___________ is done in the development phase by the debuggers.
a) Coding
b) Testing
c) Debugging
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coding is done by the developers. In debugging, the developer fixes the bug in the development
phase. Testing is conducted by the testers.
4. Locating or identifying the bugs is known as ___________
a) Design
b) Testing
c) Debugging
d) Coding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Testing is conducted by the testers. They locate or identify the bugs. In debugging developer fixes
the bug. Coding is done by the developers.
5. Which defines the role of software?
a) System design
b) Design
c) System engineering
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is system engineering. System engineering defines the role of software.
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6. What do you call testing individual components?

a) system testing
b) unit testing
c) validation testing
d) black box testing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The testing strategy is called unit testing. It ensures a function properly works as a unit.
7. A testing strategy that test the application as a whole.
a) Requirement Gathering
b) Verification testing
c) Validation testing
d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Validation testing tests the application as a whole against the user requirements. In system testing,
it tests the application in the context of an entire system.
8. A testing strategy that tests the application in the context of an entire system.
a) System
b) Validation
c) Unit
d) Gray box
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In system testing, it tests the application in the context of an entire system. The software and other
system elements are tested as a whole.
9. A ________ is tested to ensure that information properly flows into and out of the system.
a) module interface
b) local data structure
c) boundary conditions
d) paths
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A module interface is tested to ensure that information properly flows into and out of the system.
10. A testing conducted at the developer’s site under validation testing.
a) alpha
b) gamma
c) lambda
d) unit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing is conducted at developer’s site. It is conducted by customer in developer’s presence
before software delivery.
 Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – Concepts of OOP
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This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Concepts of
OOP”.

1. A ______________ represents the need of information in the program without the presenting the details.
a) abstraction
b) polymorphism
c) implementation
d) class
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Abstraction is a concept that involves hiding the details and giving only the necessary information to
the user. It increases the power of a programming language.
2. Abstraction combines the data and functions into a single unit called a class.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Data abstraction involves hiding the details and giving only the necessary
information to the user.
3. The process of forming a new class from an existing class.
a) Abstraction
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is inheritance. The base class is the parent class and the new class is called the child
class.
4. This concept allows routines to use data again at different times.
a) Abstraction
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Polymorphism is a concept in OOP wherein different functions can be used again at different times.
5. The ability for programmers to use the same written and debugged existing class.
a) Reusability
b) Design
c) Debugging
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The programmer can add features to the existing class. The programmer on further developing the
application, and allowing users to achieve increased performance.
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6. A concept that combines data and functions into a single unit called class.
a) inheritance
b) encapsulation
c) polymorphism
d) abstraction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Encapsulation enables the important concept of data hiding possible. It combines data and
functions into a single unit.
7. __________ represents a particular instance of a class.
a) module
b) block
c) object
d) token
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An object is an instance of the class. The data members are accessed with the help of objects.
8. A basic unit of object-oriented programming.
a) module
b) block
c) object
d) token
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In OOP, the basic unit is an object. Objects are identified by its unique name.
9. A procedural programming follows ___________ approach.
a) top-down
b) bottom-up
c) left-right
d) right-left
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A procedural programming follows top-down approach. The main focus is on the functions. It has a
lot of global variable.
10. A programming technique in which the focus is on doing things.
a) object oriented
b) procedural
c) logical
d) structural
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In procedural programming, the focus is on doing things(functions). It follows top-down approach.