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1. What would most likely be the patient's illness for her to
be prescribed with Metronidazole?
A. Ascariasis
C
B. Viral Gastroenteritis
C. Amoebiasis
D. Bronchial Asthma
2. Which of the following is not a diuretic?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Mannitol D
C. Spironolactone
D. Desmopressin
3. Cystatin C is a biomarker in ______________.
A. Pulmonary
B. Renal B
C. Hepatic
D. Cardiac
4. Which of the following are microvascular complications
related to diabetes resulting from poor glycemic control
and non-compliance to the treatment plan?
I. Retinopathy
II. Nephropathy
B
III. Cardiomegaly
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
5. A stat order means the drug must be administered
_______________.
A. As needed
C
B. As a single dose
C. Immediately
D. Routinely
6. Which of the following are considered Dangerous Drugs?
I. Tramadol
II. Morphine
III. Naloxone
IV. Fentanyl D
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I and III
D. II and IV
7. What license must be obtained to legally dispense
dangerous drugs?
A. P1
B
B. S3
C. S2
D. S4
8. Which of the following medications is most likely to
cause drug interactions and endocrine side effects?
A. Ranitidine
C
B. Omeprazole
C. Cimetidine
D. Lansoprazole

9. Which of the following is/are indicated for motion

sickness?
I. Dimenhydrinate
D
II. Meclizine
III. Memantine
A. I, II, and III
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B. III
C. II
D. I and II
10. Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding IV
glutathione?
I. It affects the production of melatonin
II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is
as adjunct treatment in cisplatin
chemotherapy
C
III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is
for skin lightening.
A. III
B. I and II
C. II
D. I, II and III
11. Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding
mebendazole?
I. It is a medication for ascariasis.
II. It is poorly absorbed in the gastrointestinal
tract.
A
III. It is administered parenterally.
A. I and II
B. I
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
12. Varenicline is a drug used for ____.
A. Obesity prevention
B. Drug rehabilitation C
C. Smoking cessation
D. Alcohol withdrawal
13. Which of the following BEST describes the drug
interaction between anti-TB medications?
A. Antagonism
B
B. Synergism
C. Potentiation
D. Enhancement of bioavailability
14. Which of the following refer to drugs that bear a
heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when
used in error?
A. Non-formulary drugs B
B. High-alert medications
C. Look-alike, sound-alike drugs
D. High value medication
15. Tina is taking ampalaya supplements. This may
potentially have an additive pharmacodynamic effect with
what medication she is taking?
A. Antihypertensive agent C
B. Antiasthma drugs
C. Antidiabetic agents
D. antidepressants
16. Which of the following drugs would be best subjected to
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring?
I. Phenytoin
II. Gentamicin
III. Carbamazepine A
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III

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17. Which of the following procedures/equipment is used to
determine pulmonary function?
A. Angiogram
C
B. EEG
C. Peak Flow Measurement
D. 2D Echo test
18. A 60-year-old female with pneumonia has a sputum
culture that is positive for a staphylococcal strain that is
beta-lactamase-positive. Which is the BEST choice of
penicillin therapy in this patient?
D
A. Ampicillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Penicillin G
D. Oxacillin
19. A patient was diagnosed to have allergies to beta-lactam
antibiotics. Which of the following is not a beta-lactam
antibiotic to which the patient may not be allergic to?
A. Cefalexin D
B. Nafcillin
C. Meropenem
D. Doxycycline
20. The following are 3rd generation Cephalosporin EXCEPT-
________.
A. Cefixime
D
B. Cefotaxime
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cefazolin
21. Which of the following is/are true regarding
Tetrahydrozoline?
IV. It has an otic preparation
V. It produces vasoconstriction
VI. It is an adrenergic antagonist A
A. II
B. III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
22. The pharmacist was asked to compare Amoxicillin and
Ampicillin. Which of the following statements are TRUE
regarding the two?
I. They both have similar spectrum
II. Hypersensitivity reaction may occur for both.
III. Ampicillin is better absorbed orally compared to B
Amoxicillin.
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
23. Which of the following deficiencies is/are the most
common cause/s of megaloblastic anemia?
I. Iron deficiency
II. Vitamin B12 deficiency
III. Folic acid deficiency D
A. III
B. I, II and III
C. I
D. II and III
24. Which of the following refers to the result of the
exposure to a disease organism triggering the immune
C
system to produce antibodies to that disease?
A. Autoimmune disease
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B. Idiosyncratic reaction
C. Active immunity
D. Passive immunity
25. Which of the following may cause drug-induced
kernicterus in the neonates?
A. Isoniazid
B
B. Sulfisoxazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Chloramphenicol
26. Which of the following drugs would be indicated for the
treatment of chronic hepatitis B?
A. Amphotericin B
C
B. Niclosamide
C. Entecavir
D. Meropenem
27. Which of the following antineoplastic agent belongs to
the Monoclonal Antibody group?
A. Docetaxel
B
B. Bevacizumab
C. Erlotinib
D. Pegfilgrastim
28. "Iopamidol" can be best classified as a ____.
A. Household chemical
B. Disinfectant D
C. Food supplement
D. Contrast media
29. Which of the following needles has the smallest
diameter?
A. 23 G x 1 in
B
B. 30 G x ½ in
C. 21 G x 2 in
D. 27 x 1 1/4 in
30. The IV fluid "D50W" means_____.
A. 0.5% Dextrose in Water
B. 50% Dextrose in Water B
C. 5% Dextrose in Water
D. 0.05% Dextrose in Water
31. A diabetic patient suffering from hypertension is having
enalapril. However, he complained of severe dry cough
which has been associated to the drug. Which would be
the best alternative for enalapril for this patient?
B
A. Indapamide
B. Losartan
C. Amlodipine
D. Captopril
32. What is the SIGNIFICANT interaction involving Orlistat
and a fat-soluble vitamin?
A. Decrease in the absorption of the fat-soluble
vitamins
A
B. Decrease in the absorption of orlistat
C. Increase in the absorption of orlistat
D. Increase in the absorption of the fat-soluble
vitamins
33. Which of the following phases of clinical trials would
usually involve healthy human subject?
A. Phase 4
C
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 1
D. Phase 3

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34. Which of the following is the dosage form of sodium
nitroprusside?
A. Injectable
A
B. Sublingual tablet
C. Transdermal
D. Oral, sustained-release tablet
35. Which of the following is the reason why the drug
Granisetron was prescribed to a cancer patient?
A. Increase immune system of the patient
C
B. Reduce duration of neutropenia
C. Prevent nausea and vomiting
D. Increase appetite of patient
36. Atracurium is classified as a/an _______.
A. Anticoagulants
B. Anesthetic agents D
C. Antipsychotic drugs
D. Neuromuscular blockers
37. which of the following conditions may contribute to
drug administration errors?
I. Failure to check the patient's identity prior
to administration
II. Counterchecking of the drug by a 2nd nurse
prior to administration
B
III. Storage of "Look-alike" preparations side by
side in the patient's medication cabinet
A. II
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
38. The following are manifestations of "extrapyramidal
symptoms" EXCEPT________.
I. Akinesia
II. Anuria
III. Akathisia C
A. I
B. III
C. II
D. I and III
39. The Pharmacy received a prescription for Rosuvastatin.
Which of the following parameters should be monitored by
the patient in relation to a known adverse effect of this
drug?
A
A. Liver function test
B. Blood glucose level
C. Kidney function test
D. Blood pressure
40. What would be the mechanism of interaction between
alcohol drinking and CNS depressants?
A. Pharmacodynamics Interaction- Antagonistic
B
B. Pharmacodynamic interaction- Additive
C. Pharmacokinetic interaction- Metabolism
D. Pharmacokinetic interaction- Excretion
41. Botulinum Toxin A is indicated for
A. Treatment of glaucoma
B. Neuromuscular blockade D
C. Myasthania gravis
D. Cosmetic purposes

42. The hospital pharmacist has reviewed several clinical

papers concerning the benefits of a new formulary drug
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and is preparing a summary comparing the findings for
publication. Which term is used to describe this review?
A. Dimensional Analysis
C
B. Double Blind Study
C. Meta-Analysis
D. Peer Review
43. Which of the following will provide active immunity to
an individual?
I. Human Rabies Immunoglobulin
II. Hepatitis A vaccine
III. Oral Polio Vaccine A
A. II and III
B. III
C. I, II and III
D. I
44. Senolytic drugs are intended to
A. Alter aging process
B. Improve fertility A
C. Treat auto-immune diseases
D. Prevent cancer
45. Which of the following is classified as a urinary
antiseptic?
A. Povidone-Iodine
C
B. Sodium Bicarbonate
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Hexetidine
46. What antibiotic belongs to the same class as
Clarithromycin?
A. Azithromycin
A
B. Clindamycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Vancomycin
47. What is the interaction between Warfarin and Vitamin
K?
A. Additive
B
B. Antagonistic
C. Potentiation
D. Synergistic
48. What type of ADR is exemplified by serotonin syndrome
due to the administration of an SSRI?
A. Therapeutic failure
B
B. Augmented
C. Teratogenic
D. Bizarre
49. Which of the following is important in the monitoring of
Warfarin?
A. INR
A
B. Hemoglobin Rate
C. Platelet count
D. AST/ALT
50. When two interacting drugs result to the alteration of
the absorption of one of the drugs, this interaction is:
A. Pharmacokinetic
A
B. Pharmacodynamic
C. Pharmaceutic
D. Physico-chemical
51. Which of the following statements area TRUE regarding
the heparin and warfarin?
I. Heparin is administered parenterally while
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warfarin is given orally.
II. Dosage strength of both heparin and warfarin are
expressed in "Units".
III. They are both anticoagulants.
IV. They have the same antidotes in cases of
C
overdose.
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. I and III
D. II and III
52. Miconazole is a potent inhibitor of CYP2C9. What would
be the resulting effect when a topical preparation (cream)
of miconazole interacts with another drug that will
metabolized by CYP2C9?
A. No interaction is likely to happen since systemic
absorption of miconazole from the cream is so
A
low
B. Concentration of the drug that will interact with
miconazole will increase
C. A pharmacodynamics interaction will be expected
D. Concentration of the drug that will interact with
miconazole will decrease
53. Which of the following is INCORRECT for extendedrelease
products?
A. They have shorter interval for succeeding doses.
B. These drug products should not be crushed when
A
administered.
C. "Dose dumping" may occur.
D. Their bioavailability profile is more complicated
compared to immediate release forms
54. Which of the following is NOT an advisable mode of
administration for potassium supplements?
A. Oral solutions
B
B. IV Bolus
C. Modified-release tablet, po
D. IV infusion
55. What government agency issues yellow prescription?
A. PDEA
B. DOH B
C. FDA
D. DDB
56. What part of the prescription can the pharmacist read
the drugs prescribed?
A. Superscription
B
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signa
57. Which of the following is/are TRUE when conducting
clinical trials?
I. Serious Adverse Drug Reaction can happen.
II. Children can be test subjects.
III. Placebo can be used for comparison. C
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I
58. The patient was given a general anesthetic drug
administered through inhalation which of the following is
C
the agent given to the patient?
A. Succinylcholine
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B. Propofol
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ketamine
59. A drug with the brand name CanCure is classified as a
"natural product anticancer drug", which chemotherapy
drug belongs to this same classification?
A. Etoposide A
B. Cisplatin
C. Trastuzumab
D. Tamoxifen
60. Which of the following is a "fat-soluble vitamin" found in
preparations?
A. Riboflavin
B
B. Alpha-tocopherol
C. Vitamin B6
D. Cyanocobalamin
61. How many chloramphenicol capsules, each containing
250 mg, are needed to provide 25 mg/kg/day for 7 days for
a person weighing 200 lb?
A. 90capsules B
B. 64 capsules
C. 13capsules
D. 25 capsules
62. If 3.17 kg of a drug is used to make 50,000 tablets, how
many milligrams will 30 tablets contain?
A. 1.9 mg
B
B. 1902 mg
C. 0.0019mg
D. 3.2 mg
63. If 1 fluid ounce of cough syrup contains 10 gr of sodium
citrate, how many milligrams are contained in 10 mL?
A. 650mg
C
B. 65 mg
C. 220mg
D. 20 mg
64. Using the formula for calamine lotion, determine the
amount of calamine (in grams) necessary to prepare 240
mL of lotion.
Calamine - 80g
Zinc oxide - 80g
Glycerin-20mL
A
Bentonite-250mL
Ca(OH)2 topical solution q.s. ad 1000mL
A. 19.2g
B. 140.0 g
C. 100.0 g
D. 24.0 g
65. How many grams of talc should be added to 1 lb of a
powder containing 20 g of zinc undecylenate per
100 g to reduce the concentration of zinc undecylenate to
3%?
A. 3026.7g
B. 2572.7 g
C. 17.0g
D. 257.0 g

66. How many milliliters of a 0.9% aqueous solution can be

made from 20.0 g of sodium chloride?
A
A. 2222mL
B. 100 mL

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C. 222mL
D. 122 mL
67. The blood of a reckless driver contains 0.1% alcohol.
Express the concentration of alcohol in parts per million.
A. 100ppm
B
B. 1000 ppm
C. 1ppm
D. 250 ppm
68. How many grams of benzethonium chloride should be
used in preparing 5 gal of a 0.025% w/v solution?
A. 189.25g
C
B. 18.90 g
C. 4.73 g
D. 35.00 g
69. How many milliliters of a 1:1500 solution can be made by
dissolving 4.8 g of cetylpyridinium chloride in water?
A. 7200.0 mL
A
B. 7.2 mL
C. 48.0 mL
D. 4.8 mL
70. A pharmacist prepares 1 gal of KCl (MW=74.5) solution
by mixing 565 g of KCl in an appropriate vehicle. How many
milliequivalents of K+ are in 15 mL of this solution?
A. 7.5 mEq D
B. 10.0 mEq
C. 20.0mEq
D. 30.0 mEq
71. Calculate the milliliters of U-10 insulin that should be
used to obtain 50 units of insulin.
A. 0.5 mL
B
B. 5 mL
C. 30.5 mL
D. 500 mL
72. If a pint of a certain liquid weighs 9200 grains, what is
the specific gravity of the liquid?
A. 1.0
D
B. 1.32
C. 1.28
D. 1.26
73. Four thousand (4000) micrograms equals 4:
A. Centigrams
B. Grams C
C. Milligrams
D. Microgram
74. 160 proof strength alcohol is equivalent to:
A. 80%
B. 320% A
C. 100%
D. 1.6%
75. A prescription item costs P13.50. Using a markup of 50%
on the cost, what would be the selling price for the
prescription?
A. P20.50 C
B. 20.35
C. 20.25
D. 20.4
76. How many grams of water (solvent) are needed to make
300 g of an 8% w/w solution of lime water?
A. 275 g
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B. 276 g
C. 300 g B
D. 277 g
77. What is the specific gravity of a liquid having a specific
volume of 0.825?
A. 0.825
B
B. 1.212
C. 1.00
D. 0.99
78. A nutritional product contains 15 grams each of
carbohydrates, proteins and fat in each 100-mL serving.
What is the caloric content of one serving?
A. 45 KCal B
B. 255 KCal
C. 1500 KCal
D. 135 KCal
79. In a bottle of 10% alcoholic beverage, the ABV (alcohol
by volume) is _____.
A. 0.20
C
B. 0.05
C. 0.10
D. 0.15
80. If the ratio 1:250 is expressed as %, the result is:
A. 0.004%
B. 0.04% C
C. 0.4%
D. 0.004%
81. Calculate the Milliosmolarity of NSS.
A. 154 mOsmol/L
B. 308 mOsmol/L B
C. 77 mOsmol/L
D. 462 mOsmol/L
82. A prescription is to be taken as follows: 1 tablet q.i.d. the
first day; 1 tablet t.i.d. the second day; 1 tablet b.i.d. x 5 d; and
1 tablet q.d. thereafter. How many tablets should be
dispensed to equal a 30-day supply?
C
A. 30 tablets
B. 35 tablets
C. 40 tablets
D. 45 tablets
83. What is the percent compliance rate if a patient
received a 30-day supply of medicine and returned in 45
days for a refill?
A. 67% A
B. 33%
C. 77%
D. 100%
84. What is the use of chlorpromazine maleate?
A. Anti-psychotic
B. Anti-epileptic A
C. Antibiotic
D. Antiseptic
85. Which of the following is used to treat cyanide toxicity?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone C
C. Hydroxocobalamin
D. N-Acetylcysteine
86. What is the drug of choice for obsessive-compulsive
disorder?
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A. Chlorpromazine
B. Fluoxetine
B
C. Phenobarbital
D. Diazepam
87. What is the natural buffer system of the blood?
A. Nitrite
B. Permanganate D
C. Sulfate
D. Bicarbonate
88. In the administration of Lidocaine as a local anesthetic,
Epinephrine is administered mainly to promote
A. Hemolysis
C
B. Vasodilation
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Inotropy
89. Serotonin syndrome is an example of what ADR type?
A. Type A
B. Type B A
C. Type C
D. Type D
90. Safe anti-hypertensive drugs for pregnant, except:
A. Methyldopa
B. Hydralazine D
C. Labetalol
D. Losartan
91. Propranolol can be used in the following conditions,
except:
A. Stage-fright
D
B. Hypertension
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Asthma
92. Which of the following drugs reverses isoniazid toxicity?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B3 C
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B9
93. Which of the following drugs is used to prevent nausea
and vomiting after radiation therapy?
A. Ondansetron
A
B. Alendronate
C. Tegaserod
D. Sumatriptan
94. Inhalational anesthetics are used to induce
A. General anesthesia
B. Local anesthesia A
C. Local analgesia
D. Neuronal excitation
95. The term that describes the release of water of
hydration of solids
A. Hygroscopy
C
B. Deliquescence
C. Efflorescence
D. Eutexia
96. The combination of MAOI and Tyramine-rich foods
would result in the following, except:
A. Hypertensive crisis
C
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Hypotension
D. Increased catecholamine release
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97. Hematological testing of a patient with AIDS is most
likely to show which of the following abnormalities?
A. basophilia
C
B. eosinophilia
C. lymphopenia
D. reticulocytosis
98. A patient who takes ethanol and diphenhydramine
would likely cause:
A. Additive CNS stimulation.
B
B. Additive CNS depression.
C. CNS disinhibition and stimulation.
D. CNS alertness
99. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease
in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to
develop?
A. Refractoriness C
B. Cumulative effect
C. Tolerance
D. Tachyphylaxis
100. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is
connected with processes of absorption, biotransformation,
distribution and excretion?
A. Pharmacodynamic interaction D
B. Physical and chemical interaction
C. Pharmaceutical interaction
D. Pharmacokinetic interaction

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